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Skin test based on neutralization reaction is/are -: (A) Casoni test, (B) Lepromin test, (C) Tuberculin test, (D) Schick test | Answer is D. Small amount (0.1 ml) of diluted (1/50 MLD) diphtheria toxin is injected intradermally into one arm of the person and a heat inactivated toxin on the other as a control. If a person does not have enough antibodies to fight it off, the skin around the injection will become red and swollen, indicating a posi... | |
Treatment of choice for Eale’s disease: (A) Corticosteroids, (B) Antibiotics, (C) Antihistaminics, (D) Surgery | Answer is A. 1. Medical treatment. Course of oral corticosteroids for extended periods is the main stay of treatment during active inflammation.
A course of antitubercular therapy has also been recommended in selective cases.
2. Laser photocoagulation of the retina is indicated in stage of neovascularizion.
3. Vitreo... | |
Risk factors for Placenta Accreta include all of the following, except:: (A) Previous LSCS scar, (B) Previous curettage, (C) Previous myomectomy, (D) Previous placenta prae | Answer is D. In placenta accreta, there is a failure of normal decidua to form which causes the placenta to be directly anchored to the myometrium either paially or completely without any intervening decidua. Placenta prae in the present pregnancy is a risk factor for placenta accreta but previous placenta prae is not ... | |
Most common site of lentigo maligna subtype of malignant melanoma is ?: (A) Palms & soles, (B) Trunk, (C) Face, (D) Buttocks | Answer is C. Most common site of lentigo maligna subtype of malignant melanoma is face- Hutchinson's melanotic freckle. It is more common in elderly women. It ia slow growing, variegated, brown macule/ lentigo; also seen in neck and hands. Reference : page 295-96 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | |
Foaming liver is seen in -: (A) Organophosphorus Poisoning, (B) Actinomycosis, (C) Gas gangrene, (D) Anthrax | Answer is C. None | |
A patient presents with intermittent headache. On examination there is hypeension and a thyroid nodule. Which of the following steps is to be taken next -: (A) Urine HIAA levels, (B) Urine VMA and aspiration of the thyroickiodule, (C) Ultrasound abdomen, (D) Echocardiography | Answer is B. Ans is option 2.. Urine VMA and aspiration of thyroid nodule. Intermittent headache (common symptom of pheochromocytoma) and thyroid nodule points towards Pheochromocytoma with medullary carcinoma thyroid Which inturn is a feature of MEN || syndrome Pheochromocytoma is diagnosed by demonstrating excretion ... | |
Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits which factor: September 2009: (A) Factor Ilia, (B) Factor VIIIa, (C) Factor Xa, (D) Factor XIIa | Answer is C. Ans. C: Factor Xa | |
Exarticulation of teeth means:: (A) Intrusion, (B) Extrusion, (C) Sublimation, (D) Avulsion | Answer is D. Avulsion
Term used to describe the complete displacement of tooth from its alveolus. It is also called as exarticulation and most often involves the maxillary teeth. | |
Serotonin is sexreted by: (A) Leukocytes, (B) RBCs, (C) Platelets, (D) Vessel wall | Answer is C. platet seretonin normally the seratonin secreted from the enterochromaffin cells enters the blood stream . the platelets when bind to the clot release seratonin where it xan help in vaso constriction or dilation and hels in hemostasis Ref: Katzung 12 th ed. | |
A 9 year old girl is presenting with non productive cough and mild stridor for 2.5 months duration. Patient is improving but suddenly developed wheeze, productive cough, mild fever and on X-ray hyperlucency is seen and PFT shows obstructive curve. The MOST probable diagnosis is?: (A) Bronchiolitis obliterans, (B) Hemos... | Answer is A. Bronchiolitis obliterans is a rare chronic obstructive lung disease characterized by complete obliteration of the small airways following a severe insult. The most common form in children is postinfectious, following a lower airway tract infection with adenovirus, although influenza, rubeola, Bordetella, a... | |
Which of the following is best suited for detection of calculi in the submandibular gland?: (A) Lower true occlusal, (B) Lower topographic occlusal, (C) Lower oblique occlusal Vertex occlusal, (D) Vertex occlusal | Answer is A. None | |
Posterior capsulotomy after cataract is done using: (A) Argon Laser, (B) Nd YAg, (C) Holmium, (D) Diode laser | Answer is B. (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 214 - 215)After cataract, if thin, can be cleared centrally by Nd: YAG laser capsulotomy. Dissection with cystitome or Zeigler&;s knife also be used. Thick membranous after cataract needs surgical membranectomy. | |
Microalbuminuria is defined as albumin: (A) <30 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection, (B) 30-300 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection, (C) 300-550 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection, (D) >550 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection | Answer is B. None | |
Inclined plane is used in the treatment of: (A) Developing cross bite, (B) Developed cross bite, (C) Deep bite, (D) Open bite | Answer is B. None | |
The gene for folic acid transporter is located on which chromosome: (A) 5, (B) 15, (C) 21, (D) X | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?: (A) Duchenes muscular dystrophy, (B) Fragile X syndrome, (C) Fanconi's syndrome, (D) Hutington's chorea | Answer is D. Answer is D (Huntington's chorea): Huntington's chorea is inherited as autosomal dominant Disorder Inheritance Fragile X syndrome X Linked Fanconi's syndrome Autosomal recessive Duchene's dystrophy X Linked | |
Best advantage of doing transcranial Doppler ultrasound?: (A) Detect AV malformation, (B) Detect emboli, (C) Detect vasopasm, (D) Detect brain blood vessels stenosis | Answer is C. - Transcranial Doppler ultrasound It uses low frequency probe as it has higher penetration Using low frequency probe and a proper acoustic window the vessels of Circle of Willis can be evaluated. The acoustic windows are: 1. Transtemporal 2.Submandibular 3.Transorbital 4.Suboccipital window It is very sens... | |
Trimming and fuher modification of N-linked glycoproteins takes place at: (A) Golgi apparatus, (B) Endoplasmic reticulum, (C) Peroxisomes, (D) Lysosomes | Answer is A. Ans: a) Golgi apparatus N-Glycosylation begins in the ER and completed in Golgi. Trimming and fuher addition of sugars take place in Golgi. There are 3 types of N-glycosylation. 1. High-mannose type 2. Complex type 3. Hybrid type To form high-mannose chains, the glucose and some of the peripheral mannose r... | |
who gave the concept of latent and manifest dreams: (A) freud, (B) master and johnson, (C) benedict morel, (D) erik erikson | Answer is A. CONTRIBUTIONS OF FREUD o Father of psychoanalysis He founded a type of psychotherapy called psychoanalysis. It is nothing but analyzing the psych(MIND) o Interpretation of dreams According to Freud dreams are royal road to unconscious In dreams several conflicts that are present in the unconscious comes to... | |
Patient is on autocoids for 1 year complains of severe pain epigasrium relieved iv antacids now complains of pain in right iliac fossa and epigastrium with fever and loss of liver dullness diagnosis: (A) Duodenal perforation, (B) Diveiculitis, (C) Gastroenteritis, (D) Enteric perforation | Answer is A. Answer- A. Duodenal perforationLong term therapy with autocoids led to an ulcer that eventually perforated and now the patient has presented early signs of peritonitis.Clinical features of perfontion of duodenal ulcerPerforated duodenal ulcer is characterized by sever constant onset epogastric painPatient ... | |
Prokaryote among the following is?: (A) Bacteria, (B) Mycoplasma, (C) Fungi, (D) Blue green algae | Answer is A. Based on differences in cellular organisation and biochemistry this kingdom has been divided into two groups: prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Bacteria and blue-green algae are prokaryotes while fungi, other algae, slime moulds and protozoa are eukaryotes. Bacteria are prokaryotic microorganisms that do not con... | |
Tongue muscles are derived from -: (A) Occipital somites, (B) Pharyngeal pouch, (C) Hypobranchial emminence, (D) Neural crest Palate | Answer is A. Musculature of the tongue is mainly derived from myoblasts originating in the occipital somites. Thus, the tongue musculature is innervated by hypoglossal nerve. | |
After 3 wks of duration pancreatic pseudocyst 5 cm in size should be managed by which method: (A) Cystogastrostomy, (B) Needle aspiration, (C) External drainage, (D) USG and follow up | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' ie. USG and follow up Management of Pancreatic Pseudocyst A pancreatic pseudocyst may resolve spontaneously so it is followed with serial ultrasound studies. Indications of Surgical intervention: (Ref: Bailey and Love 25/e 1145; CSDT 13/e p583; Harrison 17/e p) i) Age of cyst more than 12 weeks... | |
Gall blader stone formation in influenced by A/E ?: (A) Clofibrate therapy, (B) Hyperalimentation, (C) Primary biliary cirrhosis, (D) Hypercholesterolemia | Answer is D. Ans is 'd' i.e., Hypercholesterolemia Hyperalimentation - decreases gall bladder motility, promotes stasis Primary biliary cirrhosis - decreases bile salt secretion into bile Clofibrate therapy - increases biliary cholesterol - thus these factors predispose to cholesterol stone formation. Predisposing fact... | |
A 3-year-old male child presents with multiple laryngeal papillomas with hoarse voice and slight airway distress. Papillomas are involving the glottis. The best treatment is:: (A) Tracheostomy and observation, (B) Steroids, (C) Interferon therapy, (D) Microlaryngoscopy and excision | Answer is D. Preferred treatment is microlaryngoscopy and excision. As the recurrence is common, repeated excisions may be required. Tracheostomy is avoided to prevent distal spread. Interferon therapy has not shown sustained benefit. | |
All are true regarding coup injury except: (A) Injury at the site of impact, (B) Occur when head is fixed, (C) Severe than cotre- couple injury, (D) External injury like contusion, laceration on scalp or skull fracture seen | Answer is C. Features of coup injury Injury at the site of impact External injury like contusion, laceration on scalp or skull fracture Due to the direct impact on brain May occur when head is fixed Less severe than contre coup Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 168 | |
Gout is a disorder of-: (A) Purine metabolism, (B) Pyriniidine metabolism, (C) Ketone metabolism, (D) Protein metabolism | Answer is A. Gout is the most common inflammatory ahritis in men and in older women. It is caused by deposition of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in and around synol joints due to abnormal purine metabolism . Ref Davidsons 23e p1013 | |
The most common site of lymphangiosarcoma is: (A) Liver, (B) Spleen, (C) Post mastectomy edema of arm, (D) Retroperitoenum | Answer is C. Lymphangiosarcoma is a rare tumor that develops as a complication of long-standing (usually more than 10 years lymphedema. | |
Most common tumor of vertebral spine in adults: (A) Secondary deposits, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Lymphoma, (D) Hemangioma | Answer is A. (A) Secondary deposits> Most common secondary deposits from visceral primary malignancy occurs in the site of vertebral spine.> Most common primary bone marrow malignancy is multiple myeloma> Most common primary malignant bone tumor is osteosarcoma. | |
General visceral fibres do not supply: (A) Smooth muscles, (B) Skeletal muscles, (C) Cardiac muscles, (D) Glands | Answer is B. Skeletal muscle is not supplied by general visceral fibres Inderbir Singh&;s textbook of human Histology Seventh edition | |
An infant born at 35 weeks' gestation to a mother with no prenatal care is noted to be jittery and irritable, and is having difficulty feeding. You note coarse tremors on examination. The nurses repo a high-pitched cry and note several episodes of diarrhea and emesis. You suspect the infant is withdrawing from: (A) Alc... | Answer is C. Infants born to narcotic addicts are more likely than other children to exhibit a variety of problems, including perinatal complications, prematurity, and low bih weight. The onset of withdrawal commonly occurs during an infant's first 2 days of life and is characterized by hyperirritability and coarse tre... | |
Which of the following is a definite indication for systemic steroids in rheumatoid ahritis?: (A) a) Mononeuritis multiplex, (B) b) Carpel tunnel syndrome, (C) c) Lung involvement, (D) Both 'a' & 'c' | Answer is D. Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) represent the most impoant measure in the successful treatment of rheumatoid ahritis. When symptoms are not improved by DMARDs, systemic steroids can be introduced. Mononeuritis multiplex is due to small vessel vasculitis and it can be prevented with steroids. | |
Which of the following amino acid can produce oxaloacetate directly in a single reaction?: (A) Alanine, (B) Cysteine, (C) Threonine, (D) Aspaate | Answer is D. Alanine, Cysteine and Threonine can also produce oxaloacetate but pyruvate only. Aspaate can directly produce oxaloacetate in a single step, i.e. transamination reaction. | |
Blunt injury abdomen, patient was hemodynamically stable, next investigation: (A) X-ray abdomen, (B) Barium smallow, (C) FAST, (D) DPL | Answer is C. .evaluation of blunt trauma of abdomen ultrasound-useful,simple,non invasive method of evaluating the abdomen. advantages of ultrasound-no danger of radiation,can be done bedside,can be repeated many times,it is cost effective. focused abdominal sonar trauma(FAST)-it is rapid ,non invasive,poable bedside m... | |
Which element is required by phosphofructokinase?: (A) Magnesium, (B) Inorganic phosphate, (C) Manganese, (D) Copper | Answer is A. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is --300 amino acids in length, and structural studies of the bacterial enzyme have shown it comprises two similar (alpha/beta) lobes: one involved in ATP binding and the other housing both the substrate-binding site and the allosteric site (a regulatory binding site distinct from... | |
World health day -: (A) 7th April, (B) 7th July, (C) 7th Dec, (D) 7th Feb | Answer is A. The constitution came into force on 7 th April 1948 which is celebrated every year as "world health Day ".A world health day theme is chosen each year to focus attention on a specific aspect of public health (refer pgno:919 park 23rd edition) | |
A 50 year old male chronic smoker complaints of hoarseness of voice for the past 4 months. Microlaryngoscopic biopsy shows it to be keratosis of the larynx. All are suggested treatment modalities for this condition, EXCEPT:: (A) Stop smoking, (B) Laser vaporizer, (C) Paial laryngectomy, (D) Stripping of vocal cord | Answer is C. Laryngeal keratosis is a precancerous condition. Treatment modalities includes avoidance of aetiological factors such as smoking, stripping of vocal cords and examination of tissues for malignancy and use of laser vaporization. The treatment of Keratosis of the larynx is conservative involving microsurgica... | |
CRP increases in all EXCEPT:: (A) Osteoarthritis, (B) Rheumatoid arthritis, (C) Reactive arthritis, (D) Psoriatic arthritis | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) OsteoarthritisREF: Harrison's 17th ed chapter 325CRP raisedCRP not raisedChronic inflammatorv arthritisChronic non inflammatory arthritis* Pauciarticular JRA* Osteoathrtis* Reactive arthritis* Osteonecrosis* Psoriatic arthritis* Charcot's arthritis* Rheumatoid arthritis | |
Right anterior oblique view of chest X–ray true is/are – a) Cassette near right shoulderb) Cassette near left shoulderc) Arch of Aorta best seend) Left atrial enlargement can be diagnosede) Mitral & tricuspid valves better seen: (A) ad, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) ab | Answer is A. In RAO view of chest, the patient is rotated 45° to the left (right side is more forward) and the cassette is close to the right front (right shoulder) of the patient. The RAO view is generally used for the assessment of the pulmonary artery, right ventricle, and size of the left atrium. | |
Milk borne diseases are all except t-: (A) Salmonellosis, (B) E. Coli, (C) Streptococcus, (D) Tuberculosis | Answer is B. Ecole is not a milk borne infection. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 605 | |
Pre anaesthetic medication glycopyrrolate is used for all of the following except: (A) To relieve anxiety, (B) Sedation, (C) Increase BMR, (D) Decrease secretion | Answer is C. Preanaesthetic medications cause sedation and decrease basal metabolic rate. | |
Which of the following is not used for thrombo prophylaxis: (A) Heparin, (B) Warfarin, (C) Antithrombin 3, (D) Aspirin | Answer is C. Refer Katzung 10/e p 544 Anticoagulants are mainly used for venous thrombosis and are highly effective in treatment and prophylaxis of deep vein thrombosis Warfarin is most commonly used drug in a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation Aspirin and heparin in combination are recommended for unstable angin... | |
The triad of diabetes, gallstones and steatorrhoea is associated with which one of the following tumours?: (A) Gastrinomas, (B) Somatostationomas, (C) VIPomas, (D) Glucagonomas | Answer is B. None | |
Laryngeal mirror is warmed before use by placing -: (A) Glass surface on flame, (B) Back of mirror on flame, (C) Whole mirror into flame, (D) Mirror in boiling water | Answer is A. Laryngeal mirror is warmed by:
Dipping the mirror in warm water.
Heating the glass surface against some heat such as bulb or spirit lamp. | |
Coartaction of aorta is associated with -: (A) VSD, (B) PDA, (C) Bicuspid aortic valve, (D) None of above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Bicuspid aortic valve o Coarctation of the Aorta -Constrictions of the aorta of varying degrees may occur at any point from the transverse arch to the iliac bifurcation, but 98% occur just below^ the origin of the left subclavian artery at the origin of the ductus arteriosus (juxtaductal ... | |
Most common fungal infection in non-HIV (immuno-competent) individuals?: (A) Mucor, (B) Histoplasmosis, (C) Aspergillosis, (D) Candidiasis | Answer is D. . | |
When observations are made before and after the exposure to the factor, it is: (A) Chi-square test, (B) Unpaired T-test, (C) Paired T-test, (D) Paired T-test | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Paired T-test o Paired T - test : is applied to paired data when each individual gives a pair of observation, such as when observations are made both before and after the play of a factor. e.g. Pulse rate before and after administration of a drug. | |
Most common form of leptospirosis:: (A) Weil's disease, (B) Icteric form, (C) Hepatorenal form, (D) Anicteric form | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Anicteric form | |
Structure crossing dorsal surface of ischial spine are all except: (A) Internal pudendal vessel, (B) Pudendal nerve, (C) Obturator nerve, (D) Nerve to obturator internus | Answer is C. Pudendal nerve, internal pudendal vessels, and nerve to obturator internus after leaving the pelvis through greater sciatic foramen, cross the dorsal aspect of the ischial spine and then re-enter the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen. | |
Which of the following is not due to complement deficiency?: (A) SLE, (B) PNH, (C) Glomerulonephritis, (D) Neisseria infection | Answer is B. PNH is due to complement regulatory protein deficiency (DAF and CD59). | |
A scatter diagram was plotted as shown below to study the relationship between two variables. This is an example of:: (A) High positive correlation, (B) High negative correlation, (C) Low positive correlation, (D) Low negative correlation | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following drugs is used for the prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris: (A) Verapamnil, (B) Diltiazem, (C) Flunarizine, (D) Amlodipine | Answer is C. Ref -KDT 6/e p172 Flunarizine, sold under the brand name Sibelium among others, is a drug classified as a calcium antagonist which is used for various indications. It is not available by prescription in the United States or Japan. The drug was discovered at Janssen Pharmaceutica in 1968 | |
Which of the following scoring system is used to see chest involvement in Sarcoidosis?: (A) Brasfield scoring system, (B) Wisconsin scoring system, (C) Shwachman-Kulczycki scoring system, (D) Scadding scoring system | Answer is D. Pulmonary sarcoidosis is classified on a chest radiograph into 5 stages based on Scadding criteria:- Stage 0: Normal chest radiograph Stage I: Hilar or mediastinal nodal enlargement only Stage II: Nodal enlargement and parenchymal disease Stage III: Parenchymal disease only Stage IV: End-stage lung (pulmon... | |
Not a cause of primary amenorrhea-: (A) Turner's syndrome, (B) Kallmann syndrome, (C) Asherman's syndrome, (D) Rokitansky syndrome | Answer is C. Ans. B Asherman's syndrome Primary Amenorrhea is defined as: 1. In absence of secondary sexual characters No menses till the age of 14 years or 2. In presence of secondary sexual characters no menses till the age of 16 years. 3. Secondary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menses for 6 consecutive months ... | |
Basanthi, a 29 yrs aged female from Bihar presents with active tuberculosis, delivers baby. All of the following are indicated, EXCEPT:: (A) Administer INH to the baby, (B) Withhold breast feeding, (C) Give ATT to mother for 2 years, (D) Ask mother to ensure proper disposal of sputum | Answer is B. Treatment of tuberculosis is not a contraindication for breast feeding. Breastfeeding should not be discouraged for women being treated with first-line anti-tuberculosis drugs because the concentrations of these drugs in breast milk are too small to produce toxicity in the nursing newborn. The child cannot... | |
Which ofthe following statements is true about rabies virus -: (A) It is double stranded RNA virus, (B) Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, (C) RNA has a negative polarity, (D) Affects motor neurons | Answer is C. None | |
A 20 month old female child is brought for routine check-up. Complete blood count (CBC) shows moderate neutropenia. Child looks healthy, eats well and within expected parameters for age and sex. Other parameters of blood count are within normal range expected for age. Family history is unremarkable. CBC after 1 and 2 w... | Answer is C. Answer: c) Watch and wait strategyBENIGN NEUTROPENIAA rare disease usually found in young children that is self-limiting.Despite low neutrophil count, the cells are functional, so infections in these children are not more common than in children with normal neutrophil count.Neutropenia is expected to get b... | |
Fracture scaphoid is usually seen in:: (A) Elderly male, (B) Elderly postmenopausal female, (C) Young active adult, (D) Children | Answer is C. C i.e. Young active adult | |
Following is a type of physical uicaria -: (A) Dermographism, (B) Uicaria pigmenthosa, (C) Uicaria vasculitis, (D) Auto-immune uicaria | Answer is A. Dermographism:-Type of physical uicaria- induced by mechanical stimulus also called as Skin writing Rapid appearence of wheal flare at the site of brisk firm stroke made with a firm object.Lesions are often linear/ assume the shape of eliciting stimulus.Local erythema followed by edema.Most common physical... | |
A 20 yrs old young girl, presents with history of rapidly developing hirsutism and Amenorrhea with change in voice. To establish a diagnosis you would like to proceed with which of the following tests in blood:: (A) 17-OH progesterone, (B) DHEA, (C) Testosterone, (D) LH +FSH estimation | Answer is C. Rapidly' progressing hirsutism points to developing androgen secreting tumors, which could be a Leydig seoli tumor of the ovary. For which estimation of androgens specifically serum testosterone should be an initial investigation along with a pelvic scan A 17 OH progesterone should be estimated as well to ... | |
Disease caused by virus of family of RNA paramyxovirus, with incubation period of 14-21 days with high secondary attack rate with most common complication of aseptic meningitis. Live attenuated vaccine is available for disease with strain JeryII Lynn strain. Name of disease is?: (A) Measles, (B) Mumps, (C) Rubella, (D)... | Answer is B. Mumps Caused by virus of family of RNA paramyxovirus Incubation period of 14-21 days Mode of transmission : Respiratory / air droplets Source of infection: Cases Period of communicability: 4-6 days before symptoms & 7days after symptoms High secondary attack rate = 86% Most common complication is aseptic m... | |
The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain into the:: (A) Internal jugular vein, (B) Pterygoid plexus, (C) Frontal vein, (D) Facial vein | Answer is D. The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain into the facial vein and cavernous sinus. | |
All of the following are hormonal agents used against breast cancer except -: (A) Latrazole, (B) Exemestane, (C) Taxol, (D) Tamoxifen | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Taxol | |
All are true about Renal tubular acidosis except.: (A) Impaired acid production, (B) Impaired bicarbonate resorption, (C) Inability to acidify urine, (D) Nephrolithiasis | Answer is A. *Renal tubular acidosis type 2 is characterized by PCT damage and inability to reabsorb bicarbonate resulting in bicarbonaturia. * The damage to DCT in A 1 leads to an inability to acidify urine due to damage to H+ K+ antipoer * The concomitant calcium loss in urine leads to nephrolithiasis and rickets. | |
Peripheral level health workers are all except?: (A) Anganwadi workers, (B) DAIS, (C) Gram Sevak, (D) VHNS | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Gram Sevak | |
In narcolepsy, the polysomnographic recording typically shows which of the following patterns?: (A) REM intrusion during inappropriate periods, (B) An absence of REM sleep in midcycle, (C) Spike-and-wave EEG recording, (D) Extreme muscular relaxation | Answer is A. REM intrusion during inappropriate periods | |
All of the following are the classical presentation of Cranioverebral junction anomalies except: (A) Pyramidal signs, (B) Low hairline, (C) Sho neck, (D) Pupillary asymmetry | Answer is D. . Pupillary asymmetry | |
Diabetes melitus is diagnosed if fasting blood glucose is ?: (A) >100, (B) >126, (C) >110, (D) >116 | Answer is B. Criteria for the diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus : * Symptoms of diabetes plus random blood glucose concentration >= 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) or * Fasting plasma glucose >= 7.0 mm/L (126 mg/dL) or * Glycosylated haemoglobin >= 6.5% or * 2-hr plasma glucose >= 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) during an oral glucose to... | |
In ETC cmplex-4 is inhibited by all except ?: (A) CO, (B) CN, (C) H2S, (D) BAL | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e.,BAL Complex I :- Barbiturates (amobarbital), piercidin A, rotenone, chlorpromazine, guanithidine. | |
All of the following nutritional assessment methods indicate inadequate nutrition except -: (A) Hb < 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy, (B) Increased 1-4 year moality rate, (C) Bih weight < 2500 gm, (D) Decreased weight for height | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hb < 11.5 gm/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy | |
The mortality rate in Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis is: (A) 20%, (B) 40%, (C) 50%, (D) 60% | Answer is A. (20%) (1896-H) (628-CMDT-09) (2011-H17th)* The term hemorrhagic pancreatitis is less meaningful in a clinical sense because variable amounts of interstitial hemorrhage can be found in pancreatitis as well as in other disorders such as pancreatic trauma, pancreatic carcinoma, and severe CHF (1896-H)* Progno... | |
A 65 year old woman after total knee implant surgery complains of calf pain and swelling in the leg from last 2 days. Later she
complains of breathlessness and dies suddenly in the ward. Probable cause?: (A) Myocardial infarction, (B) Pulmonary embolism, (C) Stroke, (D) ARDS | Answer is B. • PE is the most common preventable cause of death among hospitalizedpatients.PE and DVT occurring after total hip or knee replacement is currently taken as unacceptable, and steps are taken to prevent it by giving subcutaneous fondaparinux.
• For patients who have DVT, the most common history is a cramp i... | |
A patient with recent onset primary generalized epilepsy, develops drug reaction and skin rash and neutropenia due to phenytoin sodium. The most appropriate course of action is:: (A) Shift to sodium valproate, (B) Shift to clonazepam, (C) Shift to ethosuximide, (D) Restart phenytoin after 2 weeks | Answer is A. (Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 418-19; KDT 6th ed. pg. 405)Hypersensitivity reactions like rashes, DLE, lymphadenopathy and neutropenia require that phenytoin to be stopped. | |
All the following are true about Japanese Encephalitis except -: (A) Man to man transmission is not repoed, (B) Culex mosquito is the vector, (C) 90%-100% moality rate, (D) There is no rash or local lesion | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. 90% - 100% moality rate o Case fatality rate of JE is 20-40% (not 90-100%). o Man is dead end host, there is no man to man transmission. o Culex mosquito is the vector. o There is no rash at the site of mosquito bite. | |
Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) was isolated from 7 patients in a 14-bed intensive care unit. All patients were isolated and the unit closed to any more admissions. Which one of the following reasons best explains these rigorous methods to control MRSA?: (A) MRSA is inherently more virulent than other staphyloco... | Answer is B. Oxacillin- and methicillinresistant S. aureus (MRSA) has been rapidly increasing in incidence. MRSA and methicillin-sensitive S. aureus (MSSA) coexist in heterologous populations. Treatment of a patient harboring this heterologous population may provide a selective environment for the MRSA. Prior to changi... | |
Eutrophication of water bodies is mainly caused by -: (A) Carbonates and oxides, (B) Hydrocarbons and mentals, (C) Carbonates and sulphates, (D) Phosphates and nitrate | Answer is D. Eutrophication or hyperophication, is when a body of water becomes overly enriched with minerals and nutrients which induce excessive growth of algae. This process may result in oxygen depletion of the water body. One example is an "algal bloom" or great increase of phytoplankton in a water body as a respo... | |
Chronic Hemolysis from which of the following conditions may be associated with iron deficiency:: (A) Paroxysmal cold Haemoglobinuria, (B) Thalassemia, (C) Hereditary spherocytosis, (D) G 6PD deficiency | Answer is A. Answer is A (Paroxsmal cold Haemoglobinuria) Chronic hemolysis due to paroxysmal cold Haemoglobinuria may be associated with iron deficiency 'In chronic extravascular hemolysis iron is tenaciously conserved. In chronic intravascular hemolysis large amounts of iron are lost in the urine as free haemoglobin,... | |
Characteristic lesion of scabies is -: (A) Burrow, (B) Fissure, (C) Vesicle, (D) Papule | Answer is A. SCABIES:-Caused by Sarcoptes scabiei var hominis.Clinical features:Itching- generalised, worse at night.this is due to delayed type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. Classic lesion: Burrow-Thread like wavy tunnel in stratum corneum.They appear as serpiginous or S shaped greyish,thread like elevations with a ves... | |
Ridge lap design of ponticis indicated for the replacement
of a: (A) Maxillary first molar, (B) Maxillary central incisor, (C) Mandibular first molar, (D) Mandibular second premolar | Answer is B. None | |
Many rashes and skin lesions can be found first in the newborn period. For each of the descriptions listed below, select the most likely diagnosis. Each lettered option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. An adolescent boy complains of a splotchy red rash on the nape of his neck, discovered when he had his... | Answer is B. Salmon patches (aka nevus simplex or nevus flammeus) are flat vascular lesions that occur in the listed regions and appear more prominent during crying. The lesions on the face fade over the first few years of life. Lesions found over the nuchal and occipital areas often persist. No therapy is indicated. | |
For detection of intrinsic pathway of coagulation which one is used?: (A) aPTT, (B) PT, (C) BT, (D) CT | Answer is A. Ans. (a) aPTTRef: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basic Disease 9th Ed; Page No-119* The extrinsic pathway is clinically evaluated by the prothrombin time (PT), which is a measure of factors II, V, VII, X, and fibrinogen.Diatheses* The intrinsic pathway can be evaluated by the partial thromboplastin time (PT... | |
Maximum first pass metaboilsm is seen by which route ?: (A) Intravenous, (B) Interaaerial, (C) Rectal, (D) Oral | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Oral First pass metabolism is seen with oral and rectal routes. Maximum first pass metabolism is seen with oral route. In rectal route, drug absorbed into external hemorrhoidal veins bypasses liver, but not that absorbed into internal haemorrhoidal veins -First pass metabolism occurs, but... | |
A 50 years old male with 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have 24 hour urinary albumin of 250 mg. Which of the following drugs may be used to retard progression of renal disease -: (A) Hydrochlohiazide, (B) Enalapril, (C) Amiloride, (D) Aspirin | Answer is B. Ans is option 2 - Enalapril ACE inhibitors and ARB&;s are specifically indicated to reduce progression of renal disease. Ref Harrison 19 /2428 | |
Distal colitis with respect to ulcerative colitis refers to:: (A) Proctitis, (B) Left sided colon distal to splenic flexure is only involved, (C) Mid transverse colitis, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Distribution of ulcerative colitis: 1. Proctitis - involvement limited to the rectum 2. Distal colitis - Left-sided involvement limited to the colon distal to the splenic flexure 3. Pancolitis -Extensive involvement extends proximal to the splenic flexure, including pancolitis This classification known as ... | |
All of the following drugs are used in the management of acute Myocardial infarction except-: (A) Tissue plasminogen activator, (B) Intravenous beta blockers, (C) Acetylsalicylic acid, (D) Calcium channel blockers | Answer is D. Ref : harrisons-manual-of-medicine-16th-edition pg no: 622-624 TREATMENT Initial Therapy Initial goals are to: (1) quickly identify if patient is candidate for reperfusion therapy, (2) relieve pain, and (3) prevent/treat arrhythmias and mechanical complications. * Aspirin should be administered immediately... | |
H4-biopterin (tetrahydrobiopterin) is required for metabolism of: (A) Arginine, (B) Lysine, (C) Phenylalanine, (D) Tryptophane | Answer is C. Conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine: The reaction involves hydroxylation of phenylalanine at p-position in benzene ring. Enzyme: Phenylalanine hydroxylase. Present in liver and the conversion occurs in Liver. Coenzymes and cofactors: The enzyme requires the following for its activity: * Molecular oxyge... | |
Cardiac polyp is seen in: (A) Acute nephritis, (B) Endocarditis, (C) Septicaemia, (D) Postmoem clot | Answer is D. Chicken fat and red current jelly seen in post moem clot | |
Rigor mortis in fetus is:: (A) Usually not seen before 7 months, (B) Seen in upper limb & not in lower limb, (C) Seen in lower limb & not in upper limb, (D) Established but too faint to be appreciated | Answer is A. Ans: a (Usually not seen before 7 months)Ref: Krishan, Vij 4th ed., Pg. 1201. Rigor does not occur in foetus of less tha seven months, but is commonly found in still bom infants at full term. Intensity of rigor depends on the decedent's muscular development. The very young, very old, and debilitated have p... | |
Recurrent ischaemic events following thrombosis have been pathophysiologically linked to: (A) Antibodies to thrombolytic agents, (B) Fibrinopeptide A, (C) Lipoprotein A, (D) Triglycerides | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Lipoprotein A(Ref: Circulation June 29, 2004 vol. 109)Novel Biomarkers in the Prediction of Future Cardiovascular EventsLipoprotein(a)HomocysteineHigh-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hsCRP) | |
Which of the following drug can cause cartilage damage in children ?: (A) Cotrimoxazole, (B) Penicillin, (C) Ciprofloxacin, (D) Metronidazole | Answer is C. None | |
The slender rhabditiform larvae of which of the following helminths move about in water and are ingested by species of cyclops -: (A) D. latum, (B) D. medinensis, (C) W.bancrofti, (D) S. mansoni | Answer is B. None | |
Pheochromocytoma produces all except?: (A) Nor-epinephrine, (B) Secretin, (C) Vaso-active intestinal polypeptide, (D) Calcitonin | Answer is B. Pheochromocytoma secrets Norepinephrine VIP- Secretory diarrhea in pheochromocytoma is due to VIP, VIP opens water channels which result in development of secretory Diarrhea Calcitonin- Pheochromocytoma associated with MEN 2a syndrome MEN 2a - Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid(calcitonin), pheochromocytom... | |
Telecanthus is:: (A) Narrow medial epicanthus, (B) Widely separated medial orbital wall, (C) Lateral epicanthal fold thickened, (D) Increases in intercanthal distance with normal interpupillary distance | Answer is D. Increases in intercanthal distance with normal interpupillary distance | |
A patient was advised Treadmill test, but he had lost both his limbs and then he was advised a stress test. The drug used for this test is:: (A) Dopexamine, (B) Dopamine, (C) Dobutamine, (D) Dipevefrine | Answer is C. Uses of dobutamine Sho-term treatment of cardiac decompensation that may occur after cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive hea failure or acute myocardial infarction An infusion of dobutamine in combination with echocardiography is useful in noninvasive assessment of patients with coronary aery di... | |
The presence of multiple cavities in the lung with hematuria is suggestive of-: (A) Wegener's granulomatosis, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Renal cell carcinoma, (D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) | Answer is A. Wegener's granulomatosis is characterised by granulomatous vasculitis of the upper and lower respiratory tracts together with glomerulonephritis.Lung involvement typically appear as multiple,bilateral,nodular cavitary infiltrates and clinically expressed as cough,hemoptysis,dyspnea,and chest discomfo.Renal... | |
Granulomtous condition showing hypercalcemia A/E: (A) TB, (B) Sarciodosis, (C) Berylliosis, (D) SLE | Answer is B. Sarcoidosis is a multisystem non caseous granulomatous disorder associated with hypercalcemia in about 10 % of patients .due to increased production of vitamin D by granuloma itself. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 608 | |
True about Atosiban:: (A) is an oxytocin receptor antagonist, (B) is an progesterone receptor antagonist, (C) is least effective in inhibiting preterm uterine contractions, (D) is a anti-tocolytic drug | Answer is A. Ans. a (is an oxytocin receptor antagonist). (Ref. KDT, Pharmacology, 6th ed., p 323)ATOSIBAN# Atosiban is an oxytocin receptor antagonist with high uterine specificity.# It is effective in inhibiting preterm uterine contractions, and is at least as effective as conventional beta-agonist therapy in treatin... | |
Anastomotic leaks are most commonly seen in: (A) Billroth 1, (B) Roux en y gastrojejunostomy, (C) Polya gastrectomy, (D) Antral gastrectomy | Answer is A. Since there is end to end gastroduodenal anastomosis in billroth 1 there are more chances of anastomotic leak | |
In a thyroid crisis with hyperpyrexia, tachycardia, vomiting, dehydration and shock the following are usually indicated: (A) Metaraminol, (B) Glucocorticoids, (C) Intravenous saline, (D) Propranolol | Answer is D. A thyroid crisis requires emergency treatment with intravenous fluids, propranolol, hydrocortisone, oral iodine and propylthiouracil or carbimazole | |
Early diagnosis of active hepatitis B infection is done by-: (A) IgM HBcAg antibody, (B) HBsAg, (C) HBcAg, (D) IgE HBsAg antibody | Answer is A. None |
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