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Gray hepatization of lungs is seen on the day -: (A) 1, (B) 3-Feb, (C) 5-Mar, (D) 7-May | Answer is D. All 4 phases may be seen in different parts of the same lung
Congestion (1-2 days)
Red hepatization (2nd-4th day)
Gray hepatization (5th-8th day)
Resolution (8th-9th day) | |
All the following are at-risk groups meriting Hepatitis B vaccination in low endemic areas EXCEPT-: (A) Patients on chronic hemodialysis, (B) Diabetics on insulin, (C) Medical/nursing personnel, (D) Patients with chronic liver disease | Answer is B. high prevalence of hepatitis B in ceain locality and dialysis units, together with the recent discovery of occult hepatitis B infection, vaccination of non-immune clinical staff and renal patients preferably before the development of advanced renal failure appears paicularly impoant in the control of HBV R... | |
An extracted tooth is discarded in which bag?: (A) Yellow, (B) Red, (C) Black, (D) Blue | Answer is A. None | |
All true about armoured endotracheal tube except: (A) These are tube with metal wire coil embedded in the wall of the tube shaft., (B) It has radiopaque line like normal ETT, (C) It is bend resistant, (D) It has slightly thicker outer wall as compared to normal ETT | Answer is B. Just likestandard ET tubes,armored or reinforced tubes have the typical left-facing bevel tip and Murphy eye. Their distinctive feature is ametal wire coilembedded in the wall of the tube shaft. The fact that these tubes contain a metal wire coil means there is no need for a radio-opaque line. Useful in he... | |
The Vitamin A supplement administered in “Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme” contains: (A) 25,000 IU/ml, (B) 3 lakh IU/ml, (C) 1 lakh IU/ml, (D) 5 lakh IU/ml | Answer is C. Vitamin A solution contains 1 lac IU per ml solution
Vitamin A is given in NIS of India till 5 years age (Recent guidelines)
– At 9 months age: 1 lac IU (1 ml)
– Every 6 months, till 5 years age: 2 lac IU (2 ml) each
– Total dose given: 17 lac IU (9 doses). | |
Immunostimulant used for the treatment of malignant Melanoma Norma is: (A) Levamisol, (B) BCG, (C) Aldesleukin, (D) Methotrexate | Answer is C. Ref-Katzung 10/e p906 It is a recombinant IL-2 used for the treatment of renal cell carcinoma and malignant melanoma | |
BCG is used for:: (A) Treatment of tuberculosis, (B) Treatment of superficial bladder cancer, (C) Treatment of anthrax, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. (Ref: Goodman & Gliman 11/e p1422) BCG is used for immunization against TB. It is also used for the treatment of superficial bladder cancers. It is directly instilled in the urinary bladder for this purpose. | |
What could be the possible diagnosis as per the given X-ray?: (A) Osgood schattler disease, (B) Pellegrinl Stieda lesion, (C) SLAP tear, (D) Segond Fracture | Answer is A. Osgood-Schlatter disease(OSD)is a chronic fatigue injury due to repeated microtrauma at the patellar ligament inseion onto the tibial tuberosity, usually affecting boys between ages 10-15 years. Osgood-Schlatter disease is seen in active adolescents, especially those who jump and kick, which is why it is s... | |
One of the following features can be used to define contracted pelvis: (A) Transverse diameter of inlet is 10 cm, (B) AP diameter of inlet is 12 cm, (C) Platypelloid pelvis, (D) Gynaecoid pelvis | Answer is A. Minimal/Critical diameters of the Pelvis: If any of the following diameter is less than critical diameter, Pelvis is said to be contracted | |
True regarding predisposing factors for penile carcinoma are all except: March 2012, March 2013 (e): (A) Paget's disease, (B) Genital was, (C) Circumcision, (D) Leucoplakia | Answer is C. Ans: C i.e. Circumcision Premalignant conditions for carcinoma penis Leucoplakia of the glans (similar to the condition seen n the tongue), longstanding genital was (which may rarely be the site of malignant change) & Paget's disease of the penis are definite precarcinomatous states Circumcision soon after... | |
A neonate presenting with ascites is diagnosed having urinary ascites. What is the most common cause:: (A) Bilateral PUJ obstruction, (B) Infant polycystic kidney disease, (C) Posterior urethral valve, (D) Meatal stenosis | Answer is C. None | |
A 30 year old farmer presents with the features of high fever, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, vomiting and diarrhoea with hypotension. Which of the following stain will be helpful in making the diagnosis?: (A) Wayson's stain, (B) Neisser stain, (C) Albes stain, (D) McFadyean's stain | Answer is A. Wayson's stain is a basic fuchsin - methylene blue, ethyl alcohol - phenol microscopic staining procedure. It is a modified methylene blue stain used for diagnosing bubonic plague. Giemsa / Wayson stain revels the typical safety- pin apperance of the organism. In Bubonic plague the infected flea bite is us... | |
A person is said to be mentally retarded when IQ is-: (A) < 100, (B) <90, (C) <80, (D) <70 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., < 70 o Normal IQ- 90-109;o Borderline IQ- 70-89;o Mild mental retardation IQ- 50-69;o Moderate mental retardation IQ- 35-49;o Severe MR IQ- 20-34;o Profound MR IQ- 0-19. | |
Differential diagnosis for pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow include the following except -: (A) Megaloblastic anemia, (B) Myelodysplasia, (C) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria, (D) Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia | Answer is A. In megaloblastic anemia , RBCs WBCs & platelets decreases (pancytopenia) & the cellularity of the bone marrow increases from moderate to hypercellular.Ceain morphologic features are common to all forms of megaloblastic anemia. The bone marrow is markedly hyper- cellular and contains numerous megaloblastic ... | |
Best for systemic aspergillosus infection ?: (A) Ketoconazole, (B) Itraconazole, (C) Fluconazole, (D) Flucytocine | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' i.e., ltraconazole o First choice drug for aspergillosis Voriconazole/Amphotericin B o Second choice drug for aspergillosis --> ltraconazole | |
The principal vector of dengue virus-: (A) Anopheles culicifacies, (B) Aedes aegypti, (C) Anopheles stephensi, (D) Culex molestus | Answer is B. The principal vector of dengue is the mosquito Aedes aegypti, which breeds in standing water; collections of water in containers, water based air coolers & tyre drumps are a god environment for the vector in large cities. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 879 | |
Which of the following is not a culture bound syndrome: (A) Amok, (B) Latah, (C) Dhat, (D) Von-Gogh | Answer is D. Ans is 'd' i.e. Von-Gogh * Dramatic self mutilation occurring in schizophrenia has also been called Von-Gogh syndrome.Culture-bound syndrome (folk illness)* It is a combination of psychiatric and somatic symptoms that are considered to be a recognizable disease only within a specific society or culture. Th... | |
In Epidemic dropsy disease, toxin is:-: (A) Ergot toxin, (B) Sanguinarine, (C) BOAA, (D) Alkaloids | Answer is B. Epidemic dropsy It is caused by contamination of mustard oil with 'Argemone oil'. Sanguinarine is the alkaloid toxin contained in argemone oil. The symptoms of epidemic dropsy consist of sudden,non-inflammatory, bilateral swelling of legs, often associated with diarrhoea, dyspnea, cardiac failure & death m... | |
A female presented with long standing nasal obstruction. She also complaints about comments from her friends telling about foul smell coming from her nose which she could not recognise. On evaluation, atrophic rhinitis is diagnosed. What can be the etiology in this patient to develop secondary atrophic rhinitis?: (A) C... | Answer is A. Specific infections like syphilis, lupus, leprosy, and rhinoscleroma may cause destruction of the nasal structures leading to atrophic changes. Atrophic rhinitis can also result from long-standing purulent sinusitis, radiotherapy to nose or excessive surgical removal of turbinates. Extreme detion of nasal ... | |
A 42-year old female presents with the complaint of bleeding gums for the past 20 days. Intra-oral examination shows thickened and friable gums. Also, she has hepatosplenomegaly with generalized non tender lymphadenopathy. The blood count reveals: Hemoglobin 11.4 g/dl, Platelet count 90,000/mm3, WBC count 4600/mm3. Th... | Answer is D. Patient has an “aleukemic” leukemia in which leukemic blasts fill the marrow, but the peripheral blood count of leukocytes is not high. The staining of the blasts suggests the presence of monoblasts (peroxidase negative and nonspecific esterase positive). So, the likely diagnosis for her is M5 leukemia, whic... | |
Osteomeatal complex(OMC) connects:: (A) Nasal cavity with maxillary sinus, (B) Nasal cavity with sphenoid sinus, (C) The two nasal cavities, (D) Ethmoidal sinus with ethmoidal bulla | Answer is A. Osteomeatal complex lies in the middle meatus. It is final common drainage pathway for the maxillary,frontal,and anterior ethmoid sinuses into the nasal cavity. Ref.Scott Brown 7/e,Vol 2 p 1345 | |
The clinical consequences of hypokalemia in skeletal muscle include muscle weakness and cramps. What is the level of Serum Potassium at which Paralysis Is a possible complication of hypokalemia?: (A) Serum Potassium at 2.0 mEq/L, (B) Serum Potassium at 2.5 mEq/L, (C) Serum Potassium at 3.0 mEq/L, (D) Serum Potassium at... | Answer is B. Paralysis occurs when potassium levels are <2.5 mEq/L. It usually stas in legs and moves to arms | |
A subpoena is a kind of -: (A) Decomposed body tissue, (B) Designation, (C) Document, (D) Court tribunal | Answer is C. Summon (subpoena) is a legal document compelling attendance of a witness in a court of law. | |
OPV bivalent vaccine contains -: (A) Polio virus 1 & 3, (B) Polio virus 1 & 2, (C) Polio virus 2 & 3, (D) None | Answer is A. <p>OPV/ Sabin vaccine Live attenuated . Contains type 1,2 and 3 viruses grown in primary monkey kidney/human diploid cell culture. Administration:- WHO programme on immunisation (EPI) and the national immunisation program in India recommend a primary course of 3 doses of vaccine with 1 month interval comme... | |
Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in TBM?: (A) Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphocytes, (B) Increased protein, sugar and lymphocytes, (C) Decreased protein, increased sugar and lymphocytes, (D) Increased sugar, protein and neutrophils | Answer is A. Harrison's textbook of internal medicine 17the edition *CSF revealed a high leucocyte count (up to 1000/microL),usually with predominance of lymphocyte s ,but sometimes with predominance of neutrophils in early stage ,protein count of 1-8g/L and low glucose concentration . | |
Winter bottom's sign in sleeping sickness refers to-: (A) Unilateral conjunctivitis, (B) Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, (C) Narcolepsy, (D) Transient erythema | Answer is B. Sleeping sickness
Fever
Loss of nocturnal sleep
Headache
Feeling of oppression
Pruritis and maculopapular rashes
Weight loss
Arthralgia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy, particularly of the posterior triangle of the neck → Winter bottom's sign | |
Clostridium difficile causes -: (A) Pseudomembranous colitis, (B) Nosocomical diarrhea, (C) Gas gangrene, (D) Food poisoning | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pseudomembranous colitis & 'b' i.e., Nosocomical diarrhea * Cl difficle causes Clostridium difficle - associated diseases (CDAD).* CDAD is the most commonly diagnosed diarrheal illness acquired in the hospital.* C. difficle is acquired exogenously, most frequently in the hospital.* C. dif... | |
The muscle of hand that contains a sesamoid bone is: (A) Flexor pollicis brevis, (B) Flexor pollicis longus, (C) Opponens pollicis, (D) Adductor pollicis | Answer is D. The tendon of inseion of adductor pollicis on the medial side of base of proximal phalanx of thumb contains a sesamoid bone.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Upper limb, and thorax, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.144 | |
A 70-year-old man has smoked for years despite a chronic productive cough. One day, he notices blood in his sputum and goes to see his physician. A chest x-ray reveals a mass in the left lung, which is biopsied during a fiberoptic bronchoscopy. Assuming that this patient's cancer is etiologically related to his smoking... | Answer is D. Smoking does not increase the risk of all types of lung cancers to the same degree. Oat (small) cell carcinoma has a very strong association with smoking, with only 1% of cases occurring in nonsmokers. Squamous cell carcinoma is also strongly associated with smoking, because smoking predisposes for squamou... | |
Which of the following exocrine glandular ducts are not obstructed in cystic fibrosis:: (A) Pancreas, (B) Lung, (C) Sweat gland, (D) All of above | Answer is C. Answer C. Sweat glandMost CF patients have 3 distinct abnormal characteristics:The ducts of the mucus-secreting glands are obstructed due to an increase in viscosity of these secretions leading to glandular dilatation and destruction.CF patients are prone to chronic bacterial colonization and infections.Th... | |
Long connective tissue papillae and keratinized epithelia are a feature of these parts of oral mucosa: (A) gingiva and alveolar mucosa, (B) hard palate and gingiva, (C) buccal and alveolar mucosa, (D) hard and soft palate | Answer is B. None | |
Distal interphalangeal joints are involved in all except ?: (A) Psoriatic ahritis, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Reactive ahritis, (D) Osteoahritis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rheumatoid ahritis | |
Pearls index: (A) Per 10 woman years, (B) Per 100 woman years, (C) Per 1000 woman years, (D) Per 10,000 woman years | Answer is B. Pearl index is defined as the number of failures per 100 woman years of exposure (HWY) Failure rate per Hundred Women Years = Total accidental pregnancies X 1200/ Total months of exposure Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 510 | |
Occult thyroid malignancy with nodal metastasis is seen in -: (A) Medullary carcinoma, (B) Follicular ca, (C) Papillary ca, (D) Anaplastic ca | Answer is C. A small percentage of cancers present with enlarged lymph nodes in the jugular chain or pulmonary metastases with no palpable abnormality of the thyroid.
The primary tumor may be no more than a few millimetres in size and is termed occult. Such primary foci of papillary carcinoma may also be discovered in ... | |
In which type of nerve fibers is conduction blocked maximally by pressure: (A) A alpha, (B) A beta, (C) A gamma, (D) C | Answer is A. None | |
In stab wounds, Langer's lines determine: NEET 14: (A) Direction, (B) Gaping, (C) Shelving, (D) Healing | Answer is D. Ans. Healing | |
Which cranial nerve is affected the earliest in acoustic neuroma?: (A) CN 5, (B) CN 7, (C) CN 10, (D) CN 9 | Answer is A. The pear shapped tumour from the cranial nerve VIII continue to enlarge and compress the trigeminal nerve. Cranial nerve 5 is the earliest nerve to be involved in Acoustic neuroma. The tumor is almost always arises from the Schwann cells of the vestibular, but rarely from the cochlear division of VIIIth ne... | |
Which of the following decreases affinity of oxygen with hemoglobin?: (A) Decreased H+ ions, (B) 2,3 BPG, (C) Decrease in temperature, (D) Decreased sorbitol | Answer is B. Decrease affinity of oxygen with hemoglobin-Oxygen hemoglobin curve shift to right -increaseddelivery of oxygen to the tissue Increase affinity of oxygen with hemoglobin -Oxygen hemoglobin curve shift to left- Increased delivery of oxygen to the HEMOGLOBIN in lungs Factors increase hydrogen ions (acidosis ... | |
Non-septate hyphae with a tendency to branch at 90 degree angle is characteristic of:: (A) Mucormycosis, (B) Aspergillosis, (C) Cryptococcus neoformans, (D) Coccidioides immitis | Answer is A. The organisms appear as large, nonseptate hyphae with branching at obtuse angles. Round or ovoid sporangia are also frequently seen in the tissue section.
Histopathologically, mucormycosis should be differentiated from aspergillosis in which the former has an acute angulating branched hyphae of smaller wid... | |
Meniscal tears usually result from which of the following circumstances?: (A) Hyperextension, (B) Flexion and rotation, (C) Simple hyperflexion, (D) Compression | Answer is B. Most meniscal tears are produced by flexion and rapid rotation. A classic example ("football knee") involves a player who is hit while running. The knee, supporting all the player's weight, usually is slightly flexed, and the foot is anchored to the ground by cleats. Impact from an opposing player usually ... | |
Minimum reabsorption through renal tubule, among the following: (A) Glucose, (B) HCO3, (C) Urea, (D) Uric acid | Answer is C. Urea is a toxic waste product and it reabsorbed in minimal level.Ref: Ganong&;s Review of Medical Physiology; 24th edition; page no: 678 | |
In formocresol, ratio of formalin to cresol:: (A) 3:02, (B) 2:03, (C) 1:02, (D) 2:01 | Answer is C. Formocresol is a solution of 19% formaldehyde, 35% cresol in a vehicle of 15% glycerine and water. To prepare a 1:5 concentration of this formula, first thoroughly mix 3 parts of glycerin with 1 part of distilled waler, then add 4 parts of this preparation to 1 part Buckley’s formocresol, and thoroughly mi... | |
V. cholera is able to stay in GIT because of ?: (A) Acid resistance, (B) Bile resistance, (C) Motility, (D) Binds to specific receptors | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Motility | |
Apex of maxillary sinus points towards: (A) Zygomatic bone, (B) Nasal Cavity, (C) Orbital surface, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Udai Pareek scale does not include: (A) Education, (B) Family members, (C) House, (D) Income | Answer is D. None | |
The caudate lobe of liver corresponds to which segment of Counaud's classification: (A) Segment I, (B) Segment II, (C) Segment III, (D) Segment IV | Answer is A. Caudate lobe is segment I Quadrate lobe is segment IVa The caudate lobe (segment I) is the dorsal poion of the liver and embraces the IVC. It lies posterior to the left poal triad inferiorly and left and middle hepatic vein superiorly. Caudate lobe is unique in sense that it receives blood supply from both... | |
Which of the following can be found in ocular muscles?: (A) Trichinella, (B) Ascaris, (C) Enterobius, (D) None | Answer is A. Trichinella spiralis
→ It is a parasite of pig. Man is an incidental host.
→ Infective form is encysted 1st stage larva which is transmitted by eating uncooked pork.
→ Larva penetrates intestine and migrates to muscles where it undergoes encystation.
→ Most commonly involved muscles are extraocular muscles... | |
Continuous cell culture of bacteria: (A) U tube, (B) Craige tube, (C) Chemostat device, (D) Agar dilution method | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chemostat device Bacterial cultures can be maintained in a state of exponentional growth over long periods of time using a system of continuous culture. Continuous culture, in a device called chemostat, can be used to maintain a bacterial population at a constant density, a situation that... | |
Which is the most common tumor associated with superior vena cava syndrome?: (A) Lung cancer, (B) Lymphoma, (C) Metastasis, (D) Thyroid cancer | Answer is A. The superior vena cava syndrome usually is caused by neoplasms that compress or invade the superior vena cava, such as bronchogenic carcinoma or mediastinal lymphoma. -produces a characteristic clinical complex consisting of marked dilation of the veins of the head, neck, and arms associated with cyanosis.... | |
All of the following enzymes are active within a cell except: (A) Trypsin, (B) Futnerase, (C) Hexokinase, (D) Alcohol dehydrogenase | Answer is C. Red Blood Cell Enzymopathies Hexokinase (HK), the red cell enzyme with the lowest activity in the glycolytic pathway, catalyzes the initial step in the utilization of glucose and thus is required for both glycolysis and the pentose shunt and produces glucose 6-phosphate. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 407 | |
Pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane is also called as: (A) Reissner's membrane, (B) Shrapnel's membrane, (C) Basilar membrane, (D) Secondary tympanic membrane | Answer is B. Situated above the lateral process of malleus between the notch of Rivinius and the anterior and posterior malleolar fold. Reference: Dhingra 6th edition | |
DNA analysis of chorionic villus/amniocentesis is not likely to detect:: (A) Tay-Sach's disease, (B) Hemophilia A, (C) Sickle cell disease, (D) Duchenne muscular dystrophy | Answer is A. Ans. is a, i.e. Tay-Sachs diseaseRef. JB Sharma TB of Obs pg 161; Williams Obs 25/e, p 296Ref Operative Obs and Gynae by Randhir Puri, Narendra Malhotra 1/e, p 261, 262; Obs. and Gynae Beckmann 5/e, p 45In chorionic villous biopsy, trophoblastic tissue is obtained from the chorionic villi, followed by bioc... | |
A 37-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a productive cough, fever, and night sweats. An X-ray film of the chest shows an ill-defined area of consolidation at the periphery of the right middle lobe and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Sputum culture grows acid-fast bacilli. Lymph node biopsy in this patient would... | Answer is A. Tuberculosis is a chronic, communicable disease in which the lungs are the prime target. The disease is caused principally by Mycobacterium tuberculosis hominis (Koch bacillus), but infection with other species occurs, notably M. tuberculosis bovis (bovine tuberculosis). Primary tuberculosis consists of le... | |
Zidovudine toxicity is increased by all except: (A) Azithromycin, (B) Probencid, (C) Cisplatin, (D) Cyclophosphamide | Answer is A. None | |
Most common abdominal mass in children:: (A) Hydronephrosis, (B) Wilms' tumor, (C) Neuroblastoma, (D) Rhabdomyosarcoma | Answer is C. c. Neuroblastoma(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2464-2466, Ghai 8/e 617-618)Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial solid tumor in childrenLocalized Neuroblastoma can manifest as an asymptomatic mass or can cause symptoms because of the mass itself, including spinal cord compression, bowel obstruction & superi... | |
Healthworker-hand washing: (A) Cleaning hands with spirit before and after examination of each patient, (B) Visible blood stain on hand is washed with soap and water, (C) Use of soap an Dettol only for hand washing before surgery, (D) Hand rub cannot be used in place of hand washing | Answer is A. (A) Cleaning hands with spirit before and after examiation of each patient > Introduction of easily accessible dispensers with an alcohol-based waterless handwashing antiseptic led to significantly higher handwashing rates among health care workers. | |
All of the following statement about Renal Calculi are true, Except:: (A) Cystine stones form in acidic urine, (B) Struvite stones form in alkaline urine, (C) Oxalate stones are radiopaque, (D) Uric acid stones are resistant to ESWL | Answer is D. Answer is D (Uric acid stones are resistant to ESWL): Uric acid stones are not resistant to ESWL. Uric acid stones are infact most responsive to Lithotripsy along with calcium oxalate dehydrate stones. | |
Shenton line is seen in X-ray of: (A) Knee, (B) Shoulder, (C) Elbow, (D) Hip | Answer is D. Shenton line is an imaginary curved line drawn along the inferior border of the superior pubic ramus (superior border of the obturator foramen) and along the inferomedial border of the neck of femur. Ref essentials of ohopaedic maheshwari and mhaskar 6/e p150 | |
Normal size but non functioning uterus is usually associated with :: (A) Stenosis of the external os, (B) Uterine synechiae, (C) Paial agenesis of the vagina, (D) Complete absence of vagina | Answer is B. A hysterosalpingogram or preferably a diagnostic hysteroscopy helps to establish the diagnosis of Asherman syndrome, first described in 1948. Operative hysteroscopy to lyse the synechiae, followed by cyclic hormonal therapy with high doses of conjugated oestrogens of 2.5-5.0 mg/day for 3-6 months, results ... | |
All are used in treating spasmodic dysmenorrhea except:: (A) Bromocriptine, (B) Ibuprofen, (C) Mefenamic acid, (D) Norethisterone and ethinyl estradiol | Answer is A. Spasmodic dysmenorrhoea is another name for primary dysnenorrhoea. (i.e. no pelvic pathology is responsible for pain)
Characteristics of spasmodic dysmenorrhoea
• Seen in adolescent girls
• Pain appears within 2 years of menarche
• Family history may be present
• Pain is spasmodic nature. It is located in ... | |
Which of the following is not a characteristic of right sided failure -: (A) Pulmonary oedema, (B) Ascites, (C) Oliguria, (D) Dependent | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pulmonary edema Pulmonary edema is due to Lt sided hea failure that results in increased back pressure in pulmonary circulation. Signs of CHF in infants Left sided failure Tachypnea Tachycardia Cough Wheezing Rales in chest Hoarse Cry Failure of either side Cardiac enlargement Gallop rhyt... | |
An 8 years old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 months history of an ill defined, hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Pityriasis alba, (B) Indeterminate leprosy, (C) Vitiligo, (D) Calcium deficiency | Answer is B. Indeterminate leprosy is characterized by: a. Solitary, hypo pigmentary patch over face in a child b. Scaling absent c. Atrophy present d. Patient from endemic area eg Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh Differential diagnosis Pityriasis alba Intermediate leprosy Solitary, hypo pigmentary patch over face in a c... | |
A 25yr old male with thyroid swelling Biopsy shows intense lymphocytic infiltration along with huhle cell change TSH increased: (A) Hashimoto's thyroiditis, (B) Grave's disease, (C) follicular carcinoma, (D) Medullary carcinoma thyroid | Answer is A. Hashimoto&;s Thyroiditis Biopsy features of lymphocytic infiltrate along with huhle cell change in thyroid swelling is diagnostic of hashimoto&;s thyroiditis ref : robbins 10th ed | |
The lineage specific marker for B cells is: (A) CD 19, (B) CD 20, (C) CD 21, (D) CD 22 | Answer is A. Lineage specific B cell marker is CD 19. However on IHC the best marker is CD 20. CD 21 is the receptor for EBV | |
Reversible loss of polarity with abnormality in size and shape of cells is known as -: (A) Metaplasia, (B) Dysplasia, (C) Hyperplasia, (D) Anaplasia | Answer is B. Metaplasia Metaplasia is an adaptive change in which one adult (mature) cell type is replaced by another adult (mature) cell. In this differentiation is not lost, rather it changes from one lineage to another, i.e. stems cell differentiates along a new pathway. But, the resulting cells are fully mature and... | |
All of the following statements are true regarding sumatriptan except: (A) It has 99% oral bioavailability, (B) It is contraindicated in coronary aery disease, (C) It constricts cranial vessels, (D) It is selective 5-HT 1B/ID receptor agonist | Answer is A. TRIPTANS Sumatriptan is the drug of choice for aboing acute attack of migraine. It acts as a selective agonist at 5 HT1B/1D receptors. This result in constriction of cranial vessels. It also suppresses the vomiting of migraine. It is a sho acting drug and has low oral bioavailability. Frovatriptan is the l... | |
The most common form of dissociative hysteria is:: (A) Fugue, (B) Amnesia, (C) Multiple personality, (D) Somnambulism | Answer is B. Dissociative amnesia is the most common type of dissociative disorder. | |
Which is a large granular lymphocyte?: (A) NK cell, (B) B-lymphocyte, (C) T-lymphocyte, (D) Macrophage | Answer is A. Ans. (a) NK cell(Ref: Wintrobe's clinical hematology - 12th ed, pg 300; Robbins 9th/pg 192; 8th/pg 188)Most lymphocytes in blood are small (<=10mm), while some are large, known as large granular lymphocytes (LGL), as they contain azurophilic granules in their cytoplasm.These cells are LGL type of natural k... | |
Schaumann bodies are seen in -: (A) Sarcoidosis, (B) Chronic bronchitis, (C) Asthma, (D) Syphilis | Answer is A. question repeated In pathology, Schaumann bodies are calcium and protein inclusions inside of Langhans giant cells as pa of a granuloma. Many conditions can cause Schaumann bodies, including: Sarcoidosis, Hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and Berylliosis. uncommonly, Crohn's disease and tuberculosis. | |
Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage-: (A) Cisplatin, (B) Steptozotocin, (C) Methysergide, (D) Cyclophosphamide | Answer is A. Some nephrotoxic agents which cause tubular necrosis. o Aminoglycosides o Colistin o Methoxyfluranes o Sulfonamides o Amphotericin B o Cyclosporine o Polymyxin o Tetracyclines o Cephaloridine o Intravenous immune globulin o Radioiodinated contrast o Acetaminophenmedium o Cisplatin REF : katzung pharmacolog... | |
Which of the following nucleus in brain is common to IX, X & XI cranial nerves?: (A) Nucleus solitarius, (B) Nucleus ambiguus, (C) Dentate nucleus, (D) Red nucleus | Answer is B. Nucleus ambiguus consists of large motor neurons and is situated deep within the reticular formation. The emerging nerve fibers join the glossopharyngeal, vagus and cranial pa of the accessory nerve and are distributed to voluntary skeletal muscle. The neurons in the nucleus ambiguus innervate the ipsilate... | |
Digoxin toxicity it can be increased by all except: (A) Renal impairment, (B) Hyperkalemia, (C) Hypetmagmesimia, (D) Hypercalcemia | Answer is B. Hyperkalemia is the usual electrolyte abnormality precipitated by digoxin toxicity, primarily in the acute setting. Hyperkalemia may be associated with acute renal failure that subsequently precipitatesdigoxin toxicity. Chronic digoxin toxicity does not usually causehyperkalemia. Refer katzung 11e p216 | |
A double apical impulse is seen in: (A) AS & AR, (B) TR&TS, (C) MI, (D) HOCM | Answer is D. (D) HOCM# Physical findings of HCM are associated with the dynamic outflow obstruction that is often present with this disease.> Upon auscultation, the heart murmur will sound similar to the murmur of aortic stenosis.> However, a murmur due to HCM will increase in intensity with any maneuver that decreases... | |
Safest method of contraception in sickle cell anaemia:: (A) Oral 'Pill', (B) IUCD, (C) Barrier method, (D) Progestin only pill or implant | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following agent is used in day care surgery?: (A) Propofol, (B) Thiopentone, (C) Ketamine, (D) Diazepam | Answer is A. Ans. a. Propofol (Ref: Miller's Anesthesia 8/e p726; Lee 13/e p158-160; Morgan 3/e 173, 884)Propofol is used in day care surgery.'Any induction agents used in day-case anesthesia should ensure a smooth induction, good immediate recovery and a rapid return to street fitness. Propofol is now used widely as t... | |
Which of the following can prevent neural tube defects in pregnancy?: (A) Iron, (B) Vit B12, (C) Folic acid, (D) Zinc | Answer is C. Ans: c (Folic acid) Ref: Dutta, 6th ed, p. 104, 409Folic acid is supplemented in the first trimester to prevent neural tube defects.Folic acid supplementation:1. Normal pregnancy -0.5 mg in first trimester2. Pregnancy with history of NTD - folic acid 4mg daily, 1 month before conception continued for 12 we... | |
Which one of the following hepatic lesions can be diagnosed with high accuracy by using nuclear imaging ?: (A) Hepatocellular Carcinoma, (B) Hepatic Adenoma, (C) Focal Nodular Hyperplasia, (D) Cholangiocarcinoma | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Focal nodular hyperplasia Liver parenchyma is primarily made up of two types of cells. i) Hepatocytes -> Perform excretory and synthetic function ii) Kupffer cells -> They have reticuloendothelial function Both these cells can be investigated with 99mTc labelled cells. Two types of radion... | |
Flexion, adduction and medial rotation of arm is done by which muscle: (A) Serratus Anterior, (B) Pectoralis major, (C) Pectoralis minor, (D) Subclavius | Answer is B. Muscle Action Pectoralis major Adducts and medial rotation of arm Pectoralis minor Stabilizes the scapula Subclavius anchors and depresses the scapula Serratus Anterior protracts the scapula laterally rotates the scapula overhead abduction | |
In a patient with poor glycemic control, hypertriglyceridemia, low HDL, which of the following drug Rx would be best without the risk of myositis as its side effect?: (A) Fibric acid derivatives, (B) Nicotinic acid, (C) Atorvastatin, (D) Simvastatin | Answer is B. Ans.B Nicotinic acidLIPID-LOWERING AGENTSDrugEffect on LDLEffect on HDLEffect on triglyceridesSide effects/problemsHMG-CoA reductase Inhibitors(Lovastatin, Simvastatin) pravastatin, Atorvastatin)|||||Expensive, reversible LFT's MyositisNiacin|||||Red, flushed fate, which is by aspirin or long-term useBile ... | |
For acute leukaemia the blast cells should be more than ____%-: (A) 10, (B) 20, (C) 30, (D) 40 | Answer is B. None | |
Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism-: (A) Iatrogenic, (B) Medullary carcinoma thyroid, (C) Parathyroid adenoma, (D) Parathyroid hyperplasia | Answer is C. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is autonomous secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by a parathyroid adenoma. Single adenoma (90%), multiple adenomas(4%), nodular hyperplasia(5%), carcinoma(1%). Reference : page 769 Davidson's Principles and practice of Medicine 22nd edition | |
O2 delivery to tissues depends on all of the following factors, EXCEPT:: (A) Cardiac output, (B) Type of fluid administered, (C) Hemoglobin concentration, (D) Affinity of hemoglobin for O2 | Answer is B. The fundamental purpose of the cardiorespiratory system is to deliver O2 and nutrients to cells and to remove CO2 and other metabolic products from them. Proper maintenance of this function depends not only on intact cardiovascular (cardiac output) and respiratory systems but also on an adequate number of ... | |
Which of the following is commonest primary intraocular tumour in childhood is: (A) Neurofibromatosis, (B) Retinoblastoma, (C) Cavernous haemangioma, (D) Melanotic melanoma | Answer is B. (Retinoblastoma): Ref: 280-KH, 358-K, 397-PRETINOBLASTOMA - is the most common primary intraocular malignancy of childhood.* The retinoblastoma may be heritable (40%) or non heritable (60%)* The predisposing gene (RPE1) is at 13q14* Leukocoria (white papillary reflex) is the commonest (60%) presentation* D... | |
Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA-: (A) Transformation, (B) Conjugation, (C) Transduction, (D) None | Answer is A. None | |
Sho stature, secondary to growth hormone deficeincy is associated with -: (A) Normal body propoion, (B) Low bih weight, (C) Normal epiphyseal development, (D) Height age equal to skeletal age | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Normal body propoion | |
Malignant hyperthermia is caused due to which of the following mechanism?: (A) Increased intracellular Na, (B) Decreased intracellular chlorine, (C) Increased intracellular Ca, (D) Increased serum K | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased intracellular Ca o The mechanism involves a sudden rise in intracellular calcium due to release of stored calcium in sarcoplasmic reticulum, stimulating contraction, rhabdomyolysis and a hypermetabolic state.o Tachycardia and not bradycardia, is a feature of malignant hypertherm... | |
Posterior cardinal vein develops into:: (A) Superior vena cava, (B) Internal jugular vein, (C) External jugular vein, (D) Common iliac vein | Answer is D. -Right Posterior cardinal veins contribute to inferior vena cava and common iliac veins. Left anterior and Left posterior cardinal veins regress - Superior vena cava and jugular veins develop from anterior cardinal veins. | |
All of the following are seen in polycythemia rubra vera except :: (A) Increased Vit B12 binding capacity (>9000 micromols/dL), (B) Decreased LAP Score, (C) Leucocytosis, (D) Increased platelets | Answer is B. Answer is B (Decreased LAP Score): Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase is increased in polycythemia vera Characteristic features associated of polycythemia vera Elevated Red Cell Mass/ haematocrit (polycythemia)Q Normal aerial oxygen saturation (a low oxygen saturation would be a physiological stimulus) Plasma ... | |
A 21 year male with fracture surgical neck humerus presented with regimental badge sign and difficulty in abduction, most likely to be injured: (A) Ulnar nerve injury, (B) Axillary nerve injury, (C) Klumpke's paralysis, (D) Supraclavicular nerve injury | Answer is B. None | |
A 52 year old woman has long standing rheumatoid ahritis (RA) and is being treated with coicosteroids and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Which of the following cardiac complications may arise in this clinical setting?: (A) Constrictive pericarditis, (B) Dilated cardiomyopathy, (C) Hypersensitivity myoca... | Answer is D. Long-standing inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid ahritis (RA) are associated with deposition of a form of amyloid known as AA (amyloid-associated protein), which may involve kidneys, hea, liver, skeletal muscle, and skin, for example. Amyloid deposition in the myocardium results in decreased compli... | |
Bleeding time is not prolonged in-: (A) Von Willebrand's disease, (B) Christmas disease, (C) Haemophilia, (D) Polycythemia | Answer is D. Bleeding time is prolonged in all the platelet disorders like ITP ,TTP and heparin and also prolonged in all types of coagulation disorders and DIC Where is it is normal in vascular diseases like vascular purpuras Reference: textbook of Pathology, 7th edition author Harsha Mohan, page number 317 | |
The "gp 120" in HIV helps in:: (A) Virus attachment, (B) Virus replication, (C) Virus penetration, (D) Virus dissemination | Answer is A. Virus attachment | |
LASIK (Laser assisted in situ keratomileusis) is useful in treatment of: (A) Myopia, (B) Astigmatism, (C) Hypermetropia, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. d (All of the above) (Ref. Khurana's ophthalmology, 2nd ed., p 77; Parson's 20th/pg. 76)EXCIMER LASER IN SITU KERATOMILEUSIS (LASER)# Principle:- Myopia is corrected with preservation of Bowman's layer.- A superficial corneal flap (approx. 160 pm) is created with a microkeratome.- The keratome is with... | |
Bias is unlikely to invalidate cohort studies used to assess risk of exposure because -: (A) Data collection is prospective, (B) Large number of subjects is usually included, (C) Exposure is usually determined prior to disease occurrence, (D) Actual relative risk can be determined | Answer is C. None | |
The tissues most sensitive to atropine are: (A) The salivary, bronchial and sweat glands, (B) The gastric parietal cells, (C) Smooth muscle and autonomic effectors, (D) The hea | Answer is A. Atropine is highly selective for muscarinic receptors. Its potency at nicotinic receptors is much lower, and actions at nonmuscarinic receptors are generally undetectable clinically.The effectiveness of antimuscarinic drugs varies with the tissue and with the source of agonist. In most tissues, antimuscari... | |
Most common cause of scleritis -: (A) Rheumatoid arthritis, (B) SLE, (C) Sjogren's Syndrome, (D) Behcet's Disease | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rheumato.id arthritis Scleritiso Scleritis is an uncommon disorder which is characterized by cellular infiltration, destruction of collagen and vascular remodelling. Scleritis is usually a bilateral disease and occurs most frequently in women. It is associated with connective tissue disea... | |
Patellar plexus is formed by which nerve: (A) Lateral cutaneous nerve, (B) Intermediate cutaneous nerve, (C) Medial cutaneous nerve, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Patellar Plexus - It is a plexus of fine nerves situated in front of the patella, the ligamentum patellae and the upper end of the tibia. It is formed by contributions from: (a)The anterior division of the lateral cutaneous nerve, (b) the intermediate cutaneous nerve, (c) the anterior division of the media... | |
NADPH used in which pathway-: (A) Fatty acid synthesis, (B) Gluconeogenesis, (C) Beta oxidation, (D) Glycogenolysis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fatty acid synthesisUses of NADPH:* Reductive biosynthesis of lipids# Fatty acid synthesis# Cholesterol synthesis# Steroid hormone synthesis# Fatty acid elongation# Bileacid synthesis | |
Ankylosing spondylitis may be associated with: (A) Atrial fibrillation, (B) Pulmonary stenosis, (C) Aoic incompetence, (D) Mitral stenosis | Answer is C. Ref Davidson 23e p1030 | |
Sec. 377 IPC deals with: AIIMS 09: (A) Rape, (B) Adultery, (C) Sadism, (D) Sodomy | Answer is D. Ans. Sodomy |
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