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All are used to produce controlled hypotension except: (A) Nitroglycerine, (B) Isoflurane, (C) Esmolol, (D) Propofol | Answer is D. Isoflurane > sevoflurane > desflurane are the inhalational agents of choice for controlled hypotension. | |
Relative Risk can be obtained from -: (A) Case study, (B) Coho study, (C) Case control study, (D) Experimental study | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coho study | |
A 60-year old male has a long 5tanding history of breathlessness lie has been a heavy smoker since the age of 20 years. Physical examination reveals an anxious male who is emaciated, puffing for breath but is not cyanosed. The chest is barrels shaped. An additional clinical finding would be -: (A) Elevated domes of the... | Answer is C. From the history and clinical findings,the patient is having chronic obstructive pulmonary disease-emphysematous type.it is characterised by hyperinflation of lungs with low set diaphragm.Breath sounds are typically quiet.Right hea failure and cor pulmonale can occur in severe cases,evident as bilateral pi... | |
All of the following are true about nosocomial infections except: (A) May manifest within 48 hours of admission, (B) May develop after discharge of patient from the hospital, (C) Denote a new condition which is unrelated to the patient's primary conditions, (D) May already present at the time of admission | Answer is D. Nosocomial infection occurs in a patient already suffering from a disease and a new infection is set up from another host or another external source. It occurs 48hours after admission or discharge from the hospital. Ref: Ananthanarayan& Paniker&;s textbook of microbiology, 9th edition. Pg no.71 | |
Tumor marker for Ca colon for follow up: (A) CEA, (B) CA 125, (C) CA 19-9, (D) AFP | Answer is A. Up to a half of all patients with colorectal cancer will develop liver metastases at some point and regular imaging of the liver (by ultrasound and CT scan) and measurement of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is designed to diagnose this early, in order to allow curative metastectomy. Trials of the optimum f... | |
If parents or guardian is not available consent can be taken from teacher or principal under: (A) Therapeutic privilege, (B) Emergency doctrine, (C) Loco parentis, (D) Therapeutic waiver | Answer is C. Loco parentis In an emergency involving children, when their parents or guardian are not available, consent can be taken from the person who is in charge of the child, eg. teacher or the principal of the residential school. They can give consent in the place of the parent. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICO... | |
True statements about Pneumococcus are all except: (A) Pneumolysin a thiolactivated toxin, exes a variety of effect on ciliary & PMN's, (B) Autolysin may contribute to the pathogenesis of pneumococcal disease by lysing the bacteria, (C) Anticapsular antibodies are serotype specific, (D) The virulence of pneumococci is ... | Answer is D. The virulence of Streptococcus pneumoniae depends on; Capsular polysaccharide, because of its acidic and hydrophilic propeies, protects the cocci from phagocytosis. Capsulated streptococcus pneumoniae are not phagocytosed efficiently in fluid media or exudates, however, they are susceptible to surface phag... | |
Keshan disease is caused by deficiency of:: (A) Thiamine, (B) Zinc, (C) Selenium, (D) Proteins | Answer is C. Ans. C. Selenium* Selenium is a constituent of glutathione peroxidase, an antioxidant in red blood cells and other tissues.* Glutathione peroxidase scavenges free Hydro peroxidases generated during fatty acid oxidation, thus protecting the cell from damage due to free radical formation.* Severe deficiency ... | |
Postganglionic sympathetic fibres are: (A) A alpha, (B) C, (C) B fibres, (D) A gamma | Answer is B. The axons of postganglionic neurons are mostly unmyelinated C fibres and terminate on visceral effectors. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:263. | |
Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of Heparin Induced thrombocytopenia?: (A) Abciximab, (B) Lepirudin, (C) Warfarin, (D) Alteplase | Answer is B. Lepirudinis a recombinant preparation of hirudin which acts by inhibiting thrombin directly. It is the recommended drug for treatment of heparin induced thrombocytopenia. Ref: Goodman And Gillman's Manual of Pharmacology, 2007, Page 955; Clinical Hematology & Oncology By Bruce Furie, 2003, Page 488. | |
An 18 years old male reported with chief complaint of sensitivity and deep, dull, radiating pain during chewing. Intra-oral examination showed sparase plague and dental calculus deposits, distolabial migration of the maxillary incisors with diastema formation, mobility of maxillary and mandibular incisors and first mol... | Answer is C. None | |
The Sphenopalatine foramen is formed by all of the following structures, EXCEPT:: (A) Vomer, (B) Palatine bone, (C) Sphenoid bone, (D) Sphenopalatine notch | Answer is A. Sphenopalatine foramen is formed by the junction of the sphenopalatine incisure of the palatine bone with the sphenoid bone, located immediately posterior to the middle turbinate. This is the principal foramen through which branches of the sphenopalatine aery and maxillary nerve pass from the pterygopalati... | |
Vitamin, which acts as a hormone is :: (A) A, (B) C, (C) D, (D) E | Answer is C. None | |
MRI is contraindicated in patients with:: (A) Metallic foreign body in eye, (B) Sensitivity to dye, (C) Intracranial hemorrhage, (D) Agaro phobia | Answer is A. Ans. A. Metallic foreign body in eyeApplications of MRI are many, but amongst the commonly imaged parts are brain, spine and musculoskeletal tissues.Contraindications to MRI:a. Cardiac pacemakersb. Intraocular metallic foreign bodyc. Cochlear implantsd. Prosthetic heart valvese. Aneurysmal clipsf. Claustro... | |
True about cross section study-: (A) Prevalence study, (B) Useful for chronic disease, (C) Simple study, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Cross - sectional studieso Cross sectional study is the simplest form of an observational study.o It is also known as prevalence study.o It is based on a single examination of a cross - section of population at one point of timeo Results of this examination can be project... | |
Angiotensin II receptor antagonist is: (A) Perindopril, (B) Enalapril, (C) Benazepril, (D) Losartan | Answer is D. (Losartan) (453-54-KDT) (469-70-BB) (488-KDT6th)I. ACE-Inhibitors - Captropril, Enalapril, Lisinopril, benazepril, ramipril, perindopril (Available in India)* Quinapril, cilazapril, Zolfenopril, fosinopril (Marketed in other countries)II. Angiotensin Antagonists* Losartan, Candesartan and Irbesartan (Avail... | |
Arsenic causes :: (A) Rain drop pigmentation, (B) Basal cell Ca, (C) Alopecia, (D) All | Answer is A. A i.e. Rain drop pigmentation | |
Part of eukaryotic DNA contributing to polypetide synthesisa) Exonb) Enhancerc) Leader sequenced) tRNAe) ncRNA: (A) ac, (B) a, (C) ad, (D) ab | Answer is D. Exon (coding protein) : Sequence of a gene that is represented as m-RNA.
Enhancer: Are special cis-acting DNA sequences that increase the rate of initiation of transcription of eukaryotic genes by RNA polymerase II.
Leader sequence: Sequence at the 5' end of a mRNA that is not translated into protein.
Non-... | |
Laminin is seen in -: (A) Basement membrane, (B) Lens, (C) Bone, (D) Cartilage | Answer is A. None | |
Following are the features of persistent post operative pain except?: (A) Pain that develops after surgical procedure, (B) Pain present for atleast 3 months, (C) Pain where other causes are excluded, (D) Pain from pre surgical problem is excluded | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pain present for atleast 3 months Precision does not currently exist in defining persistent post operative pain, however following features are taken into consideration :- Pain that develops after surgical procedure Pain present for atleast 2 months Pain where other causes are excluded Pa... | |
Jone's fracture is?: (A) Avulsion fracture of base of fifth metatarsal, (B) Bimalleolar fracture of the ankle, (C) Burst fracture of 1st cervical vertebra, (D) Avulsion fracture of the medial femoral condyle | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Avulsion fracture of base of fifth metatarsalREF: APPENDIX-68 below for "ALPHABETICAL LIST OF EPONYMOUS FRACTURES"Jones fracture is avulsion fracture of base of fifth metatarsal APPENDIX - 68Alphabetical List of Eponymous FracturesFractureDescriptionMechanism of injuryAviators fractureFracture ... | |
Most common cause for subdural hematoma: (A) Injury to middle meningeal artery, (B) Injury to middle meningeal vein, (C) Tearing of cortical bridging veins, (D) Rupture of berry aneurysm | Answer is C. Injury to MMA or MMV - Epidural.
Rupture of berry aneurysm - SAH. | |
Which of the following is not a features of simple tongue thrust swallowing: (A) Contraction of facial muscle, (B) Contraction of mandibular elevators, (C) Teeth apart swallow, (D) Anterior open bite | Answer is C. None | |
All of the following statement are true about wiskott Aldrich syndrome except: (A) It is an autosomal recessive disorder, (B) There is failure of aggregation of platelets in response to agonists, (C) Thrombocytopenia, (D) Patient present with eczema | Answer is A. Ref Robbins 9/e p242;218 Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an X-linked recessive disease characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and a marked vul- nerability to recurrent infection, ending in early death; the only treatment is bone marrow transplantation. This is a curious syndrome in... | |
If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies: (A) Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable, (B) Disease is non-fatal, (C) Calculation of prevalence & incidence is wrong, (D) Nothing can be said, as they are independent | Answer is A. Prevalence = Incidence * Duration of illnessIf incidence is high and prevalence is low compared to the incidence, it means the duration of illness is low.Duration can be low if the disease is fatal or disease is easily curable.Park 23e pg: 62 | |
The distance of aoic constriction of the oesophagus from the upper incisor teeth: (A) 15 cm, (B) 22.5 cm, (C) 27.5 cm, (D) 40 cm | Answer is B. First constriction, at the pharyngo-esophageal junction, 9 cm (6 inches) from the incisor teeth. Second constriction, where it's crossed by the arch of aoa, 22.5 cm (9 inches) from the incisor teeth. Third constriction, where it's crossed by the left principal bronchus, 27.5 cm (11 inches) from the incisor... | |
Acanthosis with intraepithelial vacuolation and hyperpara keratosis is seen in:: (A) Hairy tongue (Lingua villosa), (B) Hyperplastic candidiasis, (C) Speckled leukoplakia, (D) Desquarnative gingivitis | Answer is C. None | |
At autopsy, a patient who had died with acute anuria and uremia is found to have ischemic necrosis of the coex of both kidneys with relative sparing of the medulla. These pathological findings are MOST likely related to which of the following underlying conditions?: (A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation, (B) Multi... | Answer is A. Diffuse coical necrosis, as described in this patient, is usually seen in the setting of disseminated intravascular coagulation, typically in the context of overwhelming sepsis. It can also be seen following hypotension combined with vasoconstriction. Multiple myeloma is associated with renal deposition of... | |
Down Syndrome, All are seen except?: (A) t(14 ; 21), (B) Trisomy 21, (C) t(11 : 14), (D) t (15 :21) | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., t (11:14) In 95% of cases of Down Syndrome - trisomy of 21 Extra chromosome is of maternal in origin 1% have mosaic with 46 chromosomes o 4% have robesonian translocation. t (13 : 21) t(14:21) t (15 : 21) o Very rarely long arm of chromosome 21 is triplicate (Paial trisomy) | |
In an 8 yr old girl with symptoms of rickets, lab investigations show Serum Calcium 7.2 mg/dl, Serum Phosphates 2.3 mg/dl Alkaline Phosphatase 2420 IU/L. The most probable diagnosis is?: (A) Vitamin D dependant type II, (B) Hypophosphatemic Rickets, (C) Nutritional Rickets, (D) Secondary Hyperparathyroidism | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Nutritional RicketsREF: Nelson 17th edition page 2342 Table 691-2Table 691-2 Clinical variants of Rickets and Related ConditionsTypeSerum calcium LevelSerumPhosphorusLevelAlkaline Phosphatase ActivityUrine Concentration of Amino AcidsGeneticsI. Calcium deficiency with secondary hyperparathyroid... | |
Which of the following drugs has spasmolytic activity and could also be used in the management of seizure caused by an overdose of a local anesthetic?: (A) Baclofen, (B) Dantrolene, (C) Diazepam, (D) Tizanidine | Answer is C. None | |
Reilly bodies are seen in?: (A) Gangliosidosis, (B) Bechet's disease, (C) Gaucher's disease, (D) Hurler disease | Answer is D. Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPSs) are characterized by defective degradation and excessive storage of mucopolysaccharides in various tissues. Hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal deformities, lesions of hea valves, subendothelial aerial deposits, paicularly in the coronary aeries, and lesions in the brain, are features... | |
Dehydrogenase in HMP shunt act in oxidative phase to generate which of the following?: (A) NADP+, (B) NADPH, (C) FAD+, (D) FADH | Answer is B. . | |
A 47-year-old man with type II diabetes repos for his 6-month checkup. His doctor prescribes a daily 30-minute routine of walking at a brisk pace. During aerobic exercise, blood flow remains relatively constant to which of the following organs?: (A) Brain, (B) Hea, (C) Kidneys, (D) Skeletal muscle | Answer is A. Cerebral blood flow at rest is about 750 mL/min and remains unchanged during any grade of muscular exercise. During exercise, coronary blood flow is increased by four to five times with 100% O2 utilization. Renal blood flow is also decreased by 50-80% in severe exercise. During strenuous exercise muscle bl... | |
The most frequent symptom of gastric diverticulum is: (A) Epigastric pain, (B) Haematemesis, (C) Vomiting, (D) Pain relieved by food | Answer is A. None | |
HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes
except: (A) Saliva, (B) Needle prick injury, (C) Blood transmission, (D) Sexual intercourse | Answer is A. None | |
The conversion of a fatty acid to an active fatty acid is catalysed by which of the following enzymes?: (A) Acyl-CoA synthetase, (B) Enoyl CoA hydratase, (C) Thiolase, (D) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase | Answer is A. Fatty acids must first be converted to an active intermediate before they can be catabolized. This is the only step in the complete degradation of a fatty acid that requires energy from ATP. In the presence of ATP and coenzyme A, the enzyme acyl-CoA synthetase (thiokinase) catalyzes the conversion of... | |
In which of the following structure of central nervous system the major autonomic reflex centers are found?: (A) Cerebellum, (B) Medulla oblongata, (C) Hypothalamus, (D) Thalamus | Answer is B. The medulla oblongata, commonly called the medulla, is located at the level of the foramen magnum. It serves as the major autonomic reflex center that relays visceral motor control to the hea, blood vessels, respiratory system, and gastrointestinal tract. It possesses the nuclei for the glossopharyngeal, v... | |
Similar features between cerebral abscess and cerebral infarct -: (A) Coagulative necrosis, (B) Liquefactive necrosis, (C) Heal by collagen formation, (D) lways develop from emboli from other site | Answer is B. Causes of acquired cerebral palsy may include1,2: Brain damage in the first few months or years of life. Infections, such asmeningitis or encephalitis. Problems with blood flow to the brain due to stroke, blood clotting problems, abnormal blood vessels, a hea defect that was present at bih, orsickle cell d... | |
Metastasis from follicular carcinoma should be treated by: September 2007: (A) Radioiodine, (B) Surgery, (C) Thyroxine, (D) Observation | Answer is A. Ans. A: Radioiodine Follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC) is a well-differentiated tumor. In fact, FTC resembles the normal microscopic pattern of the thyroid. FTC originates in follicular cells and is the second most common cancer of the thyroid, after papillary carcinoma. Follicular and papillary thyroid ca... | |
Contraindications of ergometrine is -: (A) Diabetes mellitus, (B) Excessive post-partum hemorrhage, (C) Heart disease, (D) Anaemia | Answer is C. Ans: C | |
Hypercalcemia in ECG is diagnosed by-: (A) Increased QT interval, (B) Decreased QT interval, (C) Increased PR interval, (D) Tall T waves | Answer is B. The main ECG abnormality seen with hypercalcaemia is shoening of QT interval In severe hypercalcaemia, Osborn wave (J waves) may be seen Ventricular irritability and VF arrest has been repoed with extreme hypercalcaemia Increased PR interval and tall T waves are not seen in hypercalcemia Ref Harrison 20th ... | |
A 8-year-old male had non-blanching rashes over the shin and swelling of the knee joint with haematuria +++ and protein +. Microscopic analysis of his renal biopsy specimen is most likely to show –: (A) Tubular necrosis, (B) Visceral podocyte fusion, (C) Mesangial deposits of IgA, (D) Basement membrane thickening | Answer is C. This child has →
i) Rash
ii) Arthritis (swelling of knee joint)
iii) Haematuria
All these suggest the diagnosis of Henoch Schonlein purpura
HSP is characterized by deposition of IgA in the mesangium. | |
FIGLU excretion test is used for assessment of deficiency of -: (A) VitaminBn, (B) Niacin, (C) Folic acid, (D) Pyridoxin | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Folic acid Assessment of folate deficiencyo Following tests are used for assessment of folate deficiency.Blood levelNormal level in scrum is about 2-20 nanogram/mJ and about 200 micorgram.'ml of packed cells.Histidine load test or FIGLU excretion test :- Histidine is normally metabolized ... | |
100. A Patient presents with pain in Meta-Tarso-Phalangeal joints and is a known case of chronic renal failure. This is due to accumulation of:: (A) Rh factor, (B) Uric acid, (C) Serum urea, (D) HLA B27 typing | Answer is B. Ans. b. Uric acid The underlying basis of gouty ahritis is increased serum uric acid level. Most common joint involved in gout: Meta-Tarso-Phalangeal jointsQ Precipitation of monosodium urate crystalsdeg into the joints is the underlying basis for these urate crystals is increased total body urate levels | |
Amount of water lost in stools: (A) 50ml, (B) 200ml, (C) 300ml, (D) 350ml | Answer is B. Normal" Output: 1400-2300 mL/d Urine: 800-1500 mL Stool: 200 mL-250mL Insensible loss: 600-900 mL (lungs and skin). (With fever, each degree above 98.6degF adds 2.5 mL/kg/d to insensible losses; insensible losses are decreased if a patient is undergoing mechanical ventilation; free water gain can occur fro... | |
Cerebral angiography was performed by: (A) Sir Walter Dandy, (B) George Moore, (C) Seldinger, (D) Egas Moniz | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Egas Moniz | |
Which of the following is used for acute variceal bleeding?: (A) Octreotide, (B) Oxytocin, (C) Somatotropin, (D) Dexamethasone | Answer is A. Ans. A. Octreotide.The medical management of acute variceal hemorrhage includes the use of vasoconstricting agents, usually somatostatin or Octreotide. Vasopressin was used in the past but is no longer commonly used. Balloon tamponade (Sengstaken- Blakemore tube or Minnesota tube) can be used in patients w... | |
Lateral wall of mastoid antrum is related to ?: (A) Superficial temporal aery, (B) External auditory canal, (C) Emissary vein, (D) Meningeal aery | Answer is B. MacEwen's triangle or suprameatal triangle overlies the lateral wall of mastoid antrum. It is bounded above by supramastoid crest, anteroinferiorly by posterosuperior margin of external auditory canal and posteriorly by a tangent drawn from zygomatic arch. | |
Most important receptor involved in chemotherapy induced vomiting is :: (A) Histamine H1 receptor, (B) Serotonin 5–HT3 receptor, (C) Dopamine D2 receptor, (D) Opioid µ receptor | Answer is B. None | |
Hagemann factor is involved in: March 2009: (A) Extrinsic pathway, (B) Intrinsic pathway, (C) Fibrinolysis, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. B: Intrinsic pathway Hageman factor is factor XII, also known as glass factor. The initial reaction in the intrinsic system is conversion of inactive factor XII to active factor XII (XIIa). This activation, which is catalyzed by high-molecular-weight kininogen and kallikrein, can be brought about in v... | |
Respiratory centre depression is caused by all exceptaEUR': (A) Opium, (B) Strychnine, (C) Barbiturates, (D) Gelsemium | Answer is B. Strychnine Strychnine is a respiratory stimulant, itfant, it stimulates all pas of CN.S. -In strychnine poisoning the person is not able to breathe but it does not occur due to respiratory centre depression instead it is caused by spasm of the diapharm and thoracic muscles. Respiratory depression with opio... | |
An 18-year-old boy presented with repeated epistaxis and there was a mass arising from the lateral wall of his nose extending into the nasopharynx. It was decided to operate him. All of the following are true regarding his management except: (A) Requires adequate amount of blood to be transfused, (B) A lateral rhinotom... | Answer is C. TREATMENT OF NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA Surgery:- Surgical excision is the treatment of choice though radiotherapy and chemotherapy singly or in combination have also been used. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-248,249 | |
Bacteria causing acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is: (A) Staphylococcus aureus, (B) Streptococcus hemolyticus, (C) Pneumococcus, (D) Pseudomonas | Answer is C. Pneumococcus is the only bacteria causing acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis. | |
In the cou of law, professional secrecy can be divulged under: MAHE 11: (A) Doctrine of Common Knowledge, (B) Privileged communications, (C) Res ipsa loquitor, (D) Therapeutic privilege | Answer is B. Ans. Privileged communications | |
"Cruising" is a developmental milestone attained at the age of:: (A) 8 months, (B) 10 months, (C) 13 months, (D) 15 months | Answer is B. Cruising is attained by 10-11 months "Cruising" is an action in which a child pulls to the standing position and then scuffles around holding onto a piece of furniture. Ref: Ghai Essentials Pediatrics 9th edition Pgno: 43 | |
Which of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action –: (A) Atracurium, (B) Vecuronium, (C) Rocuronium, (D) Doxacurium | Answer is D. On this, there is controversy in different books :-
According to Goodman & Gilman, Pancuronium is the longest acting.
According to Lee Pipecuronium is the longest acting.
Some books have given Doxacurium as longest acting (KDT, Ajay Yadav)
You are lucky as you have got only one amongst these three. For... | |
Superior rib notching is not associated with which of the enlisted conditions?: (A) Hyperparathyroidism, (B) Marfan syndrome, (C) Blalock-Taussig shunt, (D) Systemic lupus erythematosis | Answer is C. . | |
Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures is:: (A) Valproic acid, (B) Phenytoin, (C) Ethosuximide, (D) Carbamazepine | Answer is A. None | |
Amniocentesis conducted during genetic counseling of a pregnant woman reveals a fetal adenosine deaminase deficiency. This autosomal recessive immunodeficiency is usually associated with which of the following?: (A) Humoral Immunity - Normal; Cellular Immunity - Normal, (B) Humoral Immunity - Normal; Cellular Immunity ... | Answer is D. Immunodeficiency disorders can be categorized according to whether the defect primarily involves humoral immunity (bone marrow derived, or B lymphocytes) or cellular immunity (thymus derived, or T lymphocytes) or both. Swiss-type hypogammaglobulinemia, ataxia-telangiectasia, the Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, a... | |
Breast feeding is not contraindicated if:: (A) Mother has active infection of herpes on breast, (B) Mother has hepatitis B infection, (C) Mother has tuberculosis, (D) Mother is on Chemoprophylaxis for leukemia | Answer is B. Breast feeding is not contraindicated if the mother has hepatitis B infection. Infants routinely receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin and hepatitis B vaccine if mother is HBsAg positive. No delay in initiation of breastfeeding is required. Contraindications of Breastfeeding: Donot Breastfeed Infant factors C... | |
In the absence of any clear history of trauma, this radiograph done in a patient of shoulder pain most likely suggests:: (A) Shoulder dislocation, (B) Calcific tendinitis, (C) Acromioclavicular dislocation, (D) Hill Sachs lesion | Answer is B. Ans. B Calcific tendinitisCalcific density is seen adjacent to the greater tuberosity of humerus - mostly this is within the supraspinatus tendon and seen in chronic calcific tendinitis. | |
Most common causative organism for bacterial meningitis beyond 3 years of age is -: (A) Pneumococcus, (B) Staphylococcus aureus, (C) Meningococcus, (D) H. influenzae Type b | Answer is A. Most common causative organism for bacterial meningitis beyond 3 years of age is - Pneumococcus | |
Rhinoscleroma occurs due to: (A) Auto immune cause, (B) Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis infection, (C) Inflammatory cause, (D) Mycotic infection | Answer is B. Rhinoscleroma
The causative organism is Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis Frisch bacillus, which can be cultured from the biopsy material.
The disease is endemic in several parts of the world.
In India, it is seen more open in northern than in the southern parts.
Biopsy shows infiltration of submucosa with plas... | |
High heat obturation technique is: (A) thermofill, (B) ultrafill, (C) sectional filling, (D) obtura II | Answer is D. None | |
Nerve which loops around submandibular duct?: (A) Mandibular nerve, (B) Lingual nerve, (C) Hypoglossal nerve, (D) Recurrent laryngeal nerve | Answer is B. Submandibular duct It is 5 cm long duct and runs forwards on hyoglossus, between lingual and hypoglossal nerves. At the anterior border of the hyoglossus muscle it is crossed by lingual nerve which loops around it. It opens into the floor of mouth, on the summit of the sublingual papilla at the side offren... | |
How soon after feilization occurs within the uterine tube does the blastocyst begin implantation?,: (A) Within minutes, (B) By 12 hours, (C) By day 1, (D) By day 5 | Answer is D. The blastocyst begins implantation by day 5 after feilization. | |
The thickness of the distobuccal flange must be adjusted to accommodate all of the following except:: (A) Ramus, (B) Coronoid process., (C) Temporalis, (D) Masseter | Answer is C. None | |
In a pregnant women of 28 weeks gestation IUD is earliest demonstrated on X-ray by :: (A) Increased flexion, (B) Overlapping of cranial bones, (C) Spalding's sign, (D) Gas in vessels | Answer is D. Gas in vessels | |
Average duration of function of primary dentition: (A) 6 years, (B) 8 years, (C) 10 years, (D) 12 years | Answer is A. Average duration of function of primary dentition is 6 yrs while maximum duration is 10 years. | |
A patient comes with 6 weeks amenorrhoea and features of shock-: (A) Ectopic pregnancy, (B) H. Mole, (C) Twin pregnancy, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ectopic pregnancy Clinical features of ectopic pregnancyo Classical triad is abdominal pain (100%), amenorrhea (75%) & vaginal bleeding (70%).o Amenorrhea usually of short period (6-8 weeks)o Abdominal pain it is acute, agonising & colicky. Located in lower abdomen: unilateral, bilateral ... | |
The carrying capacity of any given population is determined by its: (A) Population growth rate, (B) Bih rate, (C) Death rate, (D) Limiting resource | Answer is D. Limiting resource Carrying capacity : The suppoable population of an organism, given the food, habitat, water and other necessities available within an ecosystem is known as the ecosystem is known as the ecosystem's carrying capacity for that organism RRefers to the number of individuals who can be suppoed... | |
FNAC is the IOC is given below thyroid conditions except: (A) Papillary carcinoma, (B) Medullary carcinoma, (C) Anaplastic carcinoma, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. FNAC is the IOC for most of thyroid disorder except Anaplastic carcinoma. Thyroid lymphoma & Reidel's thyroiditis where "tru - cur biopsy" is the investigation of choice. | |
The treatment of choice for hydatiform mole with a uterine size of 28 weeks is:: (A) Suction evacuation, (B) Intra -amniotic saline followed by oxytocin, (C) Evacuation by misoprostol and Mifepristone, (D) Methotrexate administration | Answer is A. Management of vesicular mole/complete mole Suction evacuation (also do a gentle curettage with a sharp curette) Do USG after a week to rule out retained bits Do CXR to rule out metastasis HCG follow up | |
Which of the following is true regarding olazapine except-: (A) It causes marked anti-muscarinic action, (B) It causes weight gain, (C) It causes mild increase in prolactin, (D) Less epileptogenic action than phenothiazine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Less epileptogenic action than phenothiazine o Clozapine and olanzapine are most epileptogenic antipsychotics. o Olanzapine blocks multiple monoaminergic (D2, 5-HT2, al, a2) as well as muscarinic and H1receptors. o It causes weight gain o It causes little rise in prolactin level. | |
Juxtaglomerular apparatus lies in relation to :: (A) Proximal convoluted tubule, (B) Ascending loop of Henle, (C) Descending loop of Henle, (D) Glomerulus | Answer is D. Glomerulus As the name implies ju.aglomerulus apparatus (JGA) lies at hilum of glomerulus Juxtaglornerulus apparatusThe juxtaglomerular apparatus is a microscopic structure in the kidney, which regulates the function of Lech nephron. The juxtaglomerular apparatus is named for its proximity to the glomerulu... | |
Founder effect describes the distribution of diseases on the basis of: (A) Occupation, (B) Environment, (C) Genetics, (D) None | Answer is C. In population genetics, the founder effect is the loss of genetic variation, and/or occurrence of genetic disorders when a new population is established by a very small number of individuals from a larger population. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 888 | |
A patient with parkinsonism suddenly presented with trembling, dizziness and upward reeling of eyes. It may be due to -: (A) Oculygyric crisis, (B) Cholinergic crisis, (C) Cerebrellar infarct, (D) Cerebral infarct | Answer is A. None | |
In Maroteaux- Lamy syndrome, the enzyme deficient is?: (A) Arylsulfatase B, (B) Glucosidase, (C) Hydroxylase, (D) b-glucuronidase | Answer is A. Ans. A (Arylsulfatase B). (Ref. Harrison, Medicine, 18th/ Chapter 361. Lysosomal Storage Diseases) Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome (MPS type VI) is due to deficiency of N-acetyl galactosamine (arylsulphatase B enzyme). Mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS) Disorder Enzyme Deficiency Stored Material Inheri- tance Neuro- logi... | |
Following accidental intra-aerial injection of thiopentone, which should not be done?: (A) Remove the needle, (B) Intra -aerial heparin, (C) Intra-aerial papaverine, (D) Do a stellate ganglion block | Answer is A. Thiopental slows the activity of your brain and nervous system. Thiopental is used to help you relax before you receive general anesthesia with an inhaled medication.Thiopental may be used for other purposes not listed in this medication guide. | |
Not seen in Neuroblastoma is -: (A) Diarrhoea, (B) Proptosis, (C) Splenomegaly, (D) Bone involvement | Answer is C. None | |
Bih weight triples at: Odisha 11: (A) 9 months of age, (B) 1 year of age, (C) 2 years of age, (D) 2.5 years of age | Answer is B. Ans. 1 year of age | |
A 7 year old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of the body. Urinary examination reveals Grade 3 proteinuria and the presence of hyaline and fatty casts. She has no history of Hematuria. Which of the following statements about her condition is TRUE?: (A) No IgG deposits or C3 deposition on Renal bi... | Answer is A. A young girl presenting with generalized edema, significant proteinuria, absence of hematuria and hyaline and fatty casts is most likely to be suffering from Minimal change disease (Lipoid nephrosis), the most common type of Nephrotic Syndrome. In patients with Minimal change disease, C3 levels are normal ... | |
What is the cardiothoracic ratio in children is -: (A) 30-35%, (B) 40-45%, (C) 50-55%, (D) 60-65% | Answer is C. “The cardiac silhouette occupies 50-55% of the chest width.
Cardiomegaly is present when the cardiothoracic (CT) ratio is more than 55%” he CTR is measured on a PA chest x-ray and is the ratio of maximal horizontal cardiac diameter to maximal horizontal thoracic diameter (inner edge of ribs / edge of pleur... | |
Which ophthalmological investigation is being performed on the patient?: (A) Retinoscopy, (B) Indirect ophthalmoscopy, (C) Direct ophthalmoscopy, (D) Oblique illumination test | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Direct ophthalmoscopyThe only confusion (if any) should be with Retinoscopy, as both the instruments look the same, but retinoscopy is usually performed from a distance of 1 meter. | |
Phase 1 biotransformation includes ?: (A) Reduction, (B) Acetylation, (C) Sufate conjugation, (D) Methylation | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reduction Types of biotransformation reactions Biotransformation reactions (metabolism) of drugs can be classified : A. Non-synthetic (phase I) reactions Metabolism brings about a change in the drug molecule by : Oxidation Hydrolysis Decyclization Reduction Cyclization The new metabolite ... | |
True about central nystagmus is: (A) Changing direction, (B) Not suppressed by optic fixation, (C) Horizontal or veical, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Nystagmus is central when the lesion is in the central neural pathways. It cannot be suppressed by optic fixation. The direction of nystagmus is changing and is non-fatiguable. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition) | |
Most common site of primary carcinoma in a case of Krukenberg tumor is:: (A) Gallbladder, (B) Stomach, (C) Breast, (D) Ovary | Answer is B. Krukenberg tumor is secondaries to the ovary, it is most commonly from the CA Stomach (usually adenocarcinoma of gastric pylorus). Other primary sites are breast cancer, appendix, colon, small intestine, rectum gall bladder, biliary tract. Firm to solid waxy consistency and it is bilateral in 90% cases Sig... | |
Abnormal a-fetoprotein is seen in :: (A) Trisomy 18, (B) Twin pregnancy, (C) Neural tube defect, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. All of the above | |
ASA grading is to assess?: (A) Cardiac status, (B) Respiratory status, (C) Risk factors, (D) Mental status | Answer is C. Ans is 'c' i.e. risk factors * ASA is the simplest and most widely used system for describing patient's physical status to assess the risk factors before anaesthesia.* Brain dead patient is ASA grade-2.American society of anaesthesiologist (asa) classification* ASA classification is for the Preoperative as... | |
Dapoxetine is specifically developed for?: (A) Depression, (B) Psychosis, (C) Premature ejaculation, (D) Anxiety disorder | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Premature ejaculation Dapoxetine Dapoxetine is the first compound developed specially for the treatment of premature ejaculation (PE) in men 18-64 years old. Dapoxetine works by inhibiting the serotonin transpoer, increasing serotonin's action at the post synaptic cleft, and as a conseque... | |
In chronic alcoholics which the following enzymes are inhibited-: (A) Glycogen phosphorylase kinase, (B) Phosphofructokinase, (C) Lactate dehydrogenase, (D) Alcohol dehydrogenase | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycogen phosphorylase kinase Alcohol effects on Carbohyrate metabolism* Ethanol adversely affects the carbohydrate metabolism in skeletal muscle.* Chronic alcohol intake is associated with an increase in glycogen concentration in skeletal muscles because of incapacity to degrade glycogen... | |
Post traumatic stress syndrome is due to -: (A) Head injury, (B) Cardiovascular Disease, (C) Minor stress, (D) Major life threatening events | Answer is D. REACTION TO STRESS AND ADJUSTMENT DISORDERS This category in ICD-10 consists of disorders which are temporally related to an exceptionally stressful life event ( acute stress reaction and post-traumatic stress disorder) or a significant life change (adjustment disorders) immediately before the onset of ill... | |
Body dysmorphic disorder can be associated with all except: (A) Bulimia nervosa, (B) Mania, (C) OCD, (D) Anxiety | Answer is B. BDD (Body dysmorphic disorder) is a body-image disorder characterized by persistent and intrusive preoccupations with an imagined or slight defect in one's appearance. People with BDD can dislike any pa of their body, although they often find fault with their hair, skin, nose, chest, or abdomen. People wit... | |
All are associated with EBV except ?: (A) Infectious mononucleosis, (B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, (C) Oral hairy leukoplakia, (D) Epidermodysplasia | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Epidermodysplasia Epstein - Barr Virus (EBV) . Belongs to Herpes viruses family. . Infection is most common in early childhood, with a second peak during late adolescence. . Infectious mononucleosis (IM) is usually a disease of young adults. . EBV is transmitted by saliva (oral secretions... | |
The following is true about prevalence and incidence:: (A) Both are rates, (B) Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not, (C) Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not, (D) Both are not rates | Answer is C. Incidence rate is defined as 'the number of NEW cases occurring in a defined population during a specific period of time.' Disease prevalence refers specifically to all current cases(old and new) existing at a given point in time or over a period of time in a given population. Although referred to as a rat... | |
A child presents with Hepatosplenomegaly, Abdominal distension, Jaundice, Anemia and Adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the Diagnosis ?: (A) Adrenal hemorrhage, (B) Wolman's disease, (C) Pheochromocytoma, (D) Addison's disaease | Answer is B. Wolman disease is a congenital disease characterized by an impaired metabolism of the fats (lipids). It is the most severe type of lysosomal acid lipase deficiency. The lysomal acid lipase deficiency causes a buildup of lipids (fats) in body organs and calcium deposits in the adrenal glands. Reference: GHA... | |
Hyperparathyroidism (in 80% cases), pancreatic islet cell tumors, and pituitary adenomas are seen in:: (A) Men 1 (Wermer), (B) Men 2A (Sipple), (C) Men 2B, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Perifasicular atrophy of muscle fibres is seen in?: (A) Dermatomyositis, (B) Steroid myopathy, (C) Inclusion body myositis, (D) Viral myositis | Answer is A. A distinctive feature of dermatomyositis is atrophy and degeneration of myofibres at the periphery of fasicles (perifasicular) which occurs even in the absence of inflammation. | |
In rural area, cattle sheds should be ..... away from the houses ?: (A) 5 feet, (B) 10 feet, (C) 20 feet, (D) 25 feet | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 25 feet Rural housing In rural areas, the 'approved' standards may be lower than in towns. The following minimum standards have been suggested : There should be at least two living rooms. Ample verandah space may be provided. The built-up area should not exceed one-third of the total area... |
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