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Vibrio parahemolyticus is seen in which of the following if undercooked?: (A) Crab, (B) v, (C) Prawn, (D) Fish | Answer is B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections are associated with the consumption of raw shellfish, cross-contaminated food, and the exposure of wounds to seawater containing V. parahaemolyticus. It is the cause of numerous outbreaks of foodborne illness where raw or uncooked seafoods are commonly consumed. | |
Ankle sprain due to forced inversion of a plantar flexed foot is due to injury to: (A) Anterior talofibular ligament, (B) Posterior talofibular ligament, (C) Calcaneofibular ligament, (D) Posterior fibres of deltoid | Answer is A. Ans. a. Anterior talofibular ligament | |
Zones of operation theatre includes all except:: (A) Septic zone, (B) clean zone, (C) Protective zone, (D) Sterile zone | Answer is A. Ans: a-septic zone...Protective Zone: Areas included in this zone are:ReceptionWaiting areaTrolley bayChanging roomClean Zone: Areas included in this zone are:Pre-op roomRecovery roomPlaster roomStaff roomStoreSterile Zone: Areas included in this zone are:Operating SuiteScrub RoomAnesthesia Induction RoomS... | |
A 20 year old man complains of difficulty in reading the newspaper with his right eye, three weeks after sustaining a gun shot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Macular edema, (B) Sympathetic ophthalmia, (C) Optic nerve avulsion, (D) Delayed viterous hemorrhage | Answer is B. B i.e. Sympathetic opthalmitis | |
A 56 year old man is brought to the emergency depament with rapid onset of severe abdominal pain. But physical examination seemed to be out of propoion to his symptom. Acute mesenteric ischemia was diagnosed. What is the MOST common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia?: (A) Aerial thrombosis, (B) Venous thrombosis, (C) ... | Answer is C. Acute mesenteric ischemia occurs when prolonged reduction in the splanchnic blood flow occurs. The most common cause is aerial embolism, which accounts for 50% of cases. The emboli most commonly originate from a cardiac source. Most emboli lodge in the superior mesenteric aery (SMA) because of the angle fr... | |
Untrue about acute cholecystitis: (A) Jaundice is the earliest symptom, (B) Mild raise in serum bilirubin level, (C) Right upper quadrant pain, (D) Vomiting is relatively common | Answer is A. (A) Jaundice is the earliest symptom # ACUTE CHOLECYSTITIS often begins as an attack of biliary pain that progressively worsens.> Approximately 60 to 70% of patients report having experienced prior attacks that resolved spontaneously.> As the episode progresses, however, the pain of acute cholecystitis bec... | |
Fallen fragment sign is a feature of ?: (A) Simple bone cyst, (B) Aneurysmal bone cyst, (C) Giant cell tumor, (D) Fibrous dysplasia | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Simple bone Simple bone cyst (Solitery/Unicameral bone cyst) Simple bone cyst occurs before the age of 20 years The most common site is proximal humerus (50%)followed by Proximal femur (25-30%). Radiological features are : - Concentric Metaphyseal Expansile lucent (lytic) Well defined bor... | |
The sensation of posterior aspect of tongue is by: (A) Glossopharyngeal nerve, (B) Vagus nerve, (C) Hypoglossal nerve, (D) Mandibular nerve | Answer is A. The glossopharyngeal nerve is the nerve for both general sensation and taste for the posterior one third of the tongue including the circumvallate papillae.The posterior most pa of the tongue is supplied by the vagus nerve through the internal laryngeal branch.The sensory supply of anterior two thirds is l... | |
A 56-year-old woman with diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia is found to have an A1C of 11 despite her best attempts at diet and faithfully taking her metformin and glyburide. The patient mentions that she has been unable to exercise much, partially due to severe fatigue and sleepiness in the daytime. On examina... | Answer is D. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) that has gone untreated contributes to increased insulin resistance. This appears to have an additional effect even beyond the common cooccurrence of obesity as in this patient. Treatment of OSA can lead to improvement in glucose control. This patient is obese, has a crowded o... | |
What is the size of particle is rapid sand filter ?: (A) 0 .1 mm, (B) 0.2, (C) 0.5, (D) 0.4 to 0.7 mm | Answer is D. Rapid sand filter → 0.4 - 0.7 mm
Slow sand filter → 0.2 - 0.3 | |
Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by fleas?: (A) Plague, (B) Endemic typhus, (C) Chiggerosis, (D) Trench fever | Answer is D. Diseases transmitted by fleas include: Plague Endemic typhus Chiggerosis Hymenolepis diminuta. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 719. | |
Fetal blood loss occurs in :: (A) Uterine rupture, (B) Placenta pre, (C) Vasa pre, (D) Circumvallate | Answer is C. Vasa pre | |
What will be reversible damage?: (A) Fev1 decrease by 50 % by SABA, (B) Fev1 increase by 12% by SABA, (C) Fev1 decrease by 25% by SABA, (D) Fev1 decrease by 5% by SABA | Answer is B. In this question primarily we talking about asthma= We give salbutamol FEV1 becomes Normal Change of FEV1 before & after giving salbutamol (SABA) should be at least 12% to call it Bronchial Asthma. | |
All are true about congenital rubella syndrome, except–: (A) Cardiac abnormality, (B) Renal anomalies, (C) Deafness, (D) Cataract | Answer is B. None | |
4 drugs in AKT used because -: (A) Decrease in resistance by mutation, (B) Decrease in resistance by conjugation, (C) To cure disease early, (D) None | Answer is A. <p> 4 drugs used in AKT because of decrease in resistance by mutation. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,22nd edition,page no:173. <\p> | |
The child , Makes tower of 9 cubes at age of ____________: (A) 24 months, (B) 30 months, (C) 36 months, (D) 48 months | Answer is B. Emerging patterns of Adaptive milestones from 1-5years of age 15months Makes a tower of 3 cubes Makes a line with a crayon Inses raisin in a bottle 18months Makes a tower of 4 cubes Imitates scribbling Imitates veical stroke Dumps raisin from a bottle 24months Makes a tower of 7 cubes (6 at 21 mo) Scribble... | |
Actinomycosis most commonly affects: (A) Thorax, (B) Facio - cervical region, (C) Liver, (D) Pelvis | Answer is B. Facio - cervical Actinomycosis is most common type. | |
Pseudosulcus in larynx is: (A) Laryngopharangeal reflux, (B) Vocal abuse, (C) Chronic steroid use, (D) Tuberculosis | Answer is A. Laryngeal pseudosulcus refers to edema of the ventral surface of the true vocal fold that extends from the anterior commissure to the posterior larynx. Patients with pseudosulcus are nearly 2.5 times more likely to have pH-documented Larynopharyngela reflux. | |
Thinnest pa of retina: (A) surrounding optic nerve head, (B) Foveola, (C) Fovea, (D) Nasally to fovea | Answer is B. Foveola High Yield Facts Posterior Pole: Macula + Optic nerve head. Optic disc: 1.5 mm Macula: 5.5 mm (Temporal to optic disc) Fovea - Centralis : Central depressed pa of Macula, 1.5 mm Foveola - 0.35 mm. Thinnest pa of retina after ora serrata. Contains no ganglion cells, only cones. | |
Absolute contraindications of oral contraceptive pill are all EXCEPT :: (A) Valvular hea disease, (B) Focal migraine, (C) Breast cancer, (D) Smoking | Answer is D. Smoking | |
True statement about obesity -: (A) Dexenfluramine is drug of choice, (B) Sibutramine is only or epinephrine uptake inhibitor, (C) According to WHO body mass index greater then 25 is overweight, (D) Long term effect of orlistat is known | Answer is C. None | |
A 22 year old man presents with a solitary 2 cm space occupying lesion of mixed echogenicity in the right lobe of the liver on ultrasound examination. The rest of the liver is normal. Which of the following tests should be done next –: (A) Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lesion, (B) Hepatic scintigraphy, (C) Hepatic an... | Answer is B. Lesion in right hepatic lobe with mixed echogenicity on USG suggests the diagnosis of hemangioma.
MRI is the most accurate method of diagnosing liver hemangioma and is indicated when liver hemangioma is suspected on USG and the diameter of the lesion is smaller than 2.5 cm. However, MRI is not provided in ... | |
True about Lucio's phenomenon is-: (A) Associated with tuberculoid leprosy, (B) Occurs as side effect of treatment of leprosy, (C) Ischemic necrosis, (D) Also known as type 2 Lepra reaction | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. Ischemic necrosis * Lucio's phenomenon is seen in untreated cases of lepromatous leprosy.Lucio's phenomenon* Lucio's phenomenon is seen in lepromatous leprosy (LL). It occurs in patients who are untreated. Patients develop recurrent crops of large sharply marginated, ulcerative lesions, pa... | |
Anakinrais-: (A) TNF a antagonist, (B) IL 1 antagonist, (C) IL 2 antagonist, (D) IL 6 antagonist | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., IL 1 antagonist BIOLOGIC RESPONSE MODIFIER (BRMs)* Several recombinant proteins/monoclonal antibodies that bind and inhibit cytokines, especially TNFa or IL-1 have been used succesfully in autoimmune diseases like RA, IBD, psoriosis or scleroderma.A. TNF-a inhibitorsa. Etanercept# It is a... | |
Excessive sexual desire in females is known as?: (A) Nymphomania, (B) Satyriasis, (C) Frigidity, (D) Impotency | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Nymphomania Sexual dysfunction* Sexual dysfunction are characterized by repeated inability to participate in sexual relationship or its unsatisfying nature. Important sexual dysfunctions are: -1. Disorder of sexual desire:- i) Excessive sexual desire - Satyriasis in males and nymphomania i... | |
Sertoli cells in male secrete -: (A) Testosterone, (B) Dehydroepiandrosterone, (C) MIH, (D) Progesterone | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c1 i.e., MIHo Sertoli cells are stimulated by FSH and secreteAndrogen binding protein (ABP)InhibinMullerian inhibiting substance (MIS) or Mullerian inhibiting hormone (MIH)o Leydig cells are stimulated by LH and secrete androgens (testesterone), dihydrotestosterone, androstendione, dehydroepiandro... | |
Which statement regarding transmission of viral illness through homologous blood transfusion is true?: (A) The most common viral agent transmitted via blood transfusion is HIV, (B) Blood is routinely tested for CMV because CMV infection is often fatal, (C) The most frequent infectious complication of blood transfusion ... | Answer is D. CMV is harbored in blood leukocytes. While acute CMV infection may cause transient fever, jaundice, and hepatosplenomegaly in cases of large blood donor exposures, post transfusion l.CMV infection (seroconversion) is not a significant clinical problem in immunocompetent recipients, and therefore blood is n... | |
Deformity with decreased carrying angle is: (A) Cubitus varus, (B) Mannus varus, (C) Cubitus valgus, (D) Mannus valgus | Answer is A. Refer Apleys 9th e p 372 Cubitus varus develops which is reduced carrying angle and Cubitus valgus is increased carrying angle | |
Aery forming anastomosis around surgical neck humerus -: (A) lst pa of axillary aery, (B) 2nd pa of axillary aery, (C) 3rd pa of axillary aery, (D) Subclan aery | Answer is C. Ans. is'c'i.e., 3rd pa of axillary aeryAnastomosis around surgical neck of humerus is formed by -Anterior circumflex humeral aery.Posterior circumflex humeral aeryBoth are branches of 3rd pa of axillary aery. | |
In which of the following state, a person is mute and akinetic, but can be awakened and even be ale?: (A) Stupor, (B) Delirium, (C) Twilight state, (D) Oneiroid state | Answer is A. Ans.A. StuporStupor refers to a higher degree of arousability in which the patient can be transiently awakened only by vigorous stimuli, accompanied by motor behaviour that leads to avoidance of uncomfoable or aggravating stimuli. | |
The deltoid ligament is a strong ligament. It is attached to all of the following structures, EXCEPT?: (A) Medial malleolus, (B) Medial cuneiform, (C) Spring ligament, (D) Sustentaculum tali | Answer is B. Medial collateral ligament (deltoid ligament) attaches to the medial malleolus of the tibia and the navicular, talus, and calcaneus bones. This ligament prevents medial distraction (eversion) and excessive range of motion. It is subdivided into four pas:Tibionavicular pa attaches the margin of the plantar ... | |
The major purpose of Randomization in clinical trials is to -: (A) Facilitate double blinding, (B) Help ensure that the study subjects are representative of general population, (C) Ensure that the groups are comparable on baseline characteristics, (D) Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment | |
Which of the following is an indor air-pollutonts-: (A) Carbon dioxide, (B) HCN, (C) Methan, (D) Perfluoro carbons | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carbon dioxide Important indoor air pollutantsPOLLUTANTSSOURCESRespirable particlesTobacco smoke, Stove, Aerosol sprays.Carbon monoxideCombustion equipment, Stove, Gas heaters.Nitrogen dioxideGas cookersCigarettesSulphur dioxideCoal combustionCarbon dioxideCombustion, respirationFormaldeh... | |
Which of the following is a feature of Vit B12 deficiency anemia?: (A) Hypersegmented neutrophils, (B) Macro-ovalocytes, (C) Megaloblastic anemia, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Clinical manifestations of Vitamin B12 deficiency: Haematological: Macro-ovalocytes, Hypersegmentation of neutrophils. Neurological: Demyelination in peripheral nerves and spinal cord B12 deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia due to folate trap The peripheral smear given below shows hypersegmented neutr... | |
Rate of involution of uterus is: March 2011: (A) 0.75 cm per day, (B) 1 cm per day, (C) 1.25 cm per day, (D) 1.5 cm per day | Answer is C. Ans. C: 1.25 cm per day During the first 24 hours after delivery, the level of the uterus remains constant; thereafter there is a steady decrease in height by 1.25 cm (half inch) in 24 hours, so that by the end of 2^d week, the uterus becomes a pelvic organ Remember: Puerperium period: 6 weeks after delive... | |
The CSF findings in TB meningitis include –: (A) High sugar + low protein, (B) Low sugar + high protein and Lymphocytosis, (C) High sugar + high chloride, (D) Low sugar + high protein and Lymphopenia | Answer is B. CSF in T meningitis
Low sugar o Predominant cells --> Lymphocytes o Opening pressure is elevated
High protein o Very low chloride | |
All are true about Dermatitis herpetiformis EXCEPT:: (A) The lesions are intensely itchy, (B) Lesions have epidermal bullae, (C) IgA in Papillary tips, (D) Associated with gluten enteropathy | Answer is B. Lesions have epidermal bullae REF: Fitzpatrik dermatology 6th ed p. 558-73 Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH) is an intensely pruritic, papulovesicular skin disease characterized by lesions symmetrically distributed over extensor surfaces (i.e., elbows, knees, buttocks, back, scalp, and posterior neck). Almost ... | |
During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus.
To determine the antral perforation what to do from the following: (A) Blow air through the nose with nostrils closed, (B) Probe the socket to check for perforation, (C) Enlarge th... | Answer is A. None | |
A 7 year old boy presented with sudden onset petechiae and purpura. There was a history of URTI 2 weeks back. On examination, there was no hepatosplenomegaly. He is most probably suffering from:: (A) ALL, (B) Acute viral infection, (C) ITP, (D) Aplastic Anemia | Answer is C. Ans. (c) ITP(Ref: 9th/pg 657-658; 8th/pg 667-668)A 7 year old boy presented with sudden onset petechiae and purpura with a history of URTI 2 weeks back and there is no hepatosplenomegaly. He is most probably suffering from ITP. For complete discussion on ITP; Refer to pretext of this chapter. | |
Which of the following sympathetic receptors acts as vasoconstriction and vasodilatation:: (A) Alpha 1 and Alpha 2, (B) Alpha 1 and Beta 1, (C) Alpha 1 and Beta 2, (D) Beta 1 and Beta 2 | Answer is C. (Ref: Katzung 14th ed. pg. 145-47)Alpha 1 and Beta 2 receptors present at blood vessels causing vasoconstriction and vasodilatation respectively.Sympathetic receptors, their location, function and G protein.ReceptorLocationFunctionG-Proteina1BV, smooth muscle, Salivary glandsVasoconstriction Increase secre... | |
H pylori is associated with of the following except?: (A) Increased risk of peptic ulcer disease, (B) Increased risk of gastric lymphoma, (C) Increased risk of antral gastric carcinoma, (D) Increased risk of adenocarcinoma of esophagus | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Increased risk of adenocarcinoma of esophagus Diseases associated with H. Pylori infection Duodenal ulcer Gastric ulcer Chronic superficial gastritis Chronic atrophic gastritis Gastric adenocarcinoma Lymphoproliferative disease (MALT) Gastroesophageal reflux disease | |
Hormone replacement therapy (H) is indicated in:: (A) women with breast cancer, (B) Osteoporosis, (C) women with uterine cancer, (D) previous history of thromboembolic episode | Answer is B. H Indications symptomatic women who suffer from oestrogen defeciency(therapeutic) high risk cases for menopausal complications like cardiovascular disease,osteoporosis,stroke,alzheimers disease,colonic cancer(prophylactic) premature menopause,spontaneous or following surgery(tubectomy,hysterectomy) gonadal... | |
Haemostasis in scalp wound is best achived by -: (A) Direct presure over the wound, (B) Catching and crushing the b;,=.eders by haemostats, (C) Eversion of galea aponeurotica, (D) Coagulation of bleeders | Answer is A. None | |
A young male patient presents with LDL 600mg/dl, triglycerides 140 mg/dl. What would be the most likely finding on physical examination: (A) Tendon xanthoma, (B) Planar xanthoma, (C) Lipemia retinalis, (D) Tuberoeruptive xanthoma | Answer is A. A i.e. Tendon Xanthoma | |
Which of the following can be prevented by screening -: (A) Ca cervix, (B) Ca breast, (C) Ca prostate, (D) Ca Lung | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ca cervix o This question is tricky one and is different from previous one. o In this question examinar is asking about the cancers which can be prevented by screening. o The cancers, which have well known precancerous condition, can be diagnosed and treated at pre-cancerous stage to prev... | |
A 25 year male presented with nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, Na+ level is 125 meq/L. Treatment start with: (A) Give hypotonic saline, (B) Ultra centrifugation, (C) Haemodialysis, (D) High protein diet | Answer is A. (Give hypotonic saline) (758- 61 - CMDT- 08) (277-79, 2223-2224-Hl7th)* Treatment consist of replacement of lost volume with isotonic or half normal (0.45%) saline or lactated Ringer *s infusion in hypovolemic Hypotonic Hyponatremia* Asymptomatic hyponatremia - water restriction, 0.9% saline Demeclocycline... | |
Beta-2 microglobulin is a marker for?: (A) Multiple Myeloma, (B) Mycosis fungoides, (C) B-Cell lymphoma, (D) Mantle cell lymphoma | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple myeloma * Serum b2 microglobulin is increased in multiple myeloma and is the most important prognostic factor and can substitute for staging.* b2 Microglobulin level:a) < .004g/L - Median survival of 43 months.b) .004 g/L - Median survival of only 12 months. | |
An individual is said to be 'overweight' if his BMI is in the range of: (A) 24.0 - 26.9, (B) 24.0 - 27.9, (C) 25.0 - 28.9, (D) 25.0 - 29.9 | Answer is D. None | |
Immunohistochemistry marker of histiocytosis X: (A) CD1a, (B) CD57, (C) CD3, (D) CD68 | Answer is A. . | |
True abour Herpes virus: (A) HSV 1 causes encephalitis, (B) EBV affects, (C) CMV is always symptomatic, (D) Herpes zoster is not activated | Answer is A. HSV encephalitis though rare is most common sporadic acute viral encephalitis in most pas of the world. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 8TH EDITION PAGE NO:469 | |
Huhle cells seen in ?: (A) Papillary carcinoma, (B) Hashimoto Thyroiditis, (C) Granulomatous thyroiditis, (D) Thyroglossal cyst | Answer is B. Ans. is `b' i.e., Hashimoto ThyroiditisPathological features of Hashimoto's thyroiditis 1. Cross featuresDiffuse symmetrically enlarged thyroidAlthough the gland is symmetrically enlarged, the accentuation of lobulations may make the gland appear lobular on gross examination.Capsule is intactCut surface is... | |
A gravida 3 female with kilo 2 previous 2nd trimester aboion presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of cervix Most appropriate management would be:: (A) Administer dinoprostone and bed rest, (B) Administer misoprostol and bed rest, (C) Apply fothergill stretch, (D) Apply McDonald stitch | Answer is D. Ans. is d i.e. Apply MC Donald stitch In this question : A gravida 3 female is presenting with 2 previous 2nd trimester losses and with funneling of cervix at 22 weeks of gestation which means that the patient has incompetent cervix. Management of this condition as discussed in previous question is applica... | |
Remnant of rostral neuropore is -: (A) Septum transversum, (B) Ligamentusteres, (C) Lamina terminalis, (D) Cerebellum | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Lamina terminalisThe cranial open end of neural tube is called as rostral (anterior) neuropore which closes on or before day 26 giving rise to lamina terminalis of brain. | |
patient having inguinal mass likely diagnosis ?: (A) anal ca., (B) prostate ca., (C) testiclar ca., (D) penile ca. | Answer is A. Lymphatic drainage of anal canal is through the mesorectal (also known as inferior rectal) nodes to the inguinal and femoral nodes. Anal cancers are more likely to produce inguinal adenopathy, with internal iliac adenopathy also occurring when the tissues near the anorectal junction are involved. ref : bai... | |
All of the following are poor prognostic factors for Hodgkin's disease, Except:: (A) Younger age, (B) Systemic manifestations, (C) Lymphocyte depletion, (D) Mediastinal disease | Answer is A. Answer is A (Younger age) Lymphocyte depletion subtype, presence of mediastinal disease and systemic manifestation are all established poor prognostic factors Stomach involvement reflects advanced stage of disease and is likely to be associated with a poor prognosis. | |
Which of the following is not the criteria for diagnosis of Metabolic syndrome?: (A) Hypeension, (B) Central obesity, (C) Hyperiglyceridemia, (D) High LDL | Answer is D. Metabolic syndrome/Syndrome X: Central obesity: Waist circumference >102cm in males,>88cm in females. Hyperiglyceridemia: >150mg% Low HDL cholesterol: <40mg%I(male), <50mg% (female) Hypeension: >130/80 mmHg Fasting blood glucose >100 mg% / previously diagnosed type 2 diabetes. NOTE:Raised LDL is NOT a feat... | |
A region is divided into 50 villages for the purpose of a survey. 10 villages are then selected randomly for the purpose of a study. This type of sampling is termed as:: (A) Simple Random sampling, (B) Stratified sampling, (C) Cluster Sampling, (D) Systematic Sampling | Answer is C. Cluster samples may be chosen where individuals fall naturally into groups or clusters. In the above scenario, a sample of the clusters is chosen at random, and then a random sample of units is chosen from within this selection of clusters. The villages are naturally formed groups or clusters in the region... | |
Life span of mosquito is?: (A) 1 week, (B) 2 weeks, (C) 1 month, (D) 1 year | Answer is B. Under orable conditions of temperature and food supply, the life cycle from the egg to adult is complete in 7-10 days. Normally the adult mosquito lives for about 2 weeks. The males are generally sho-lived Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg | |
Air forced, or sucked in to the connective tissue and facial spaces are known as?: (A) Empyema, (B) Asphyxia, (C) Emphysema, (D) Aspiration | Answer is C. None | |
A patient with long standing constipation enters a clinical research study. After a complete physical examination,a small intraluminal balloon is inseed through the anus to the rectum. Transducers are also inseed to measure internal and external anal sphincter pressures. Inflation of the rectal balloon causes the exter... | Answer is C. The defecation reflex that is evoked when the rectum is distended involves three responses: 1) the internal anal sphincter relaxes, 2) the external anal sphincter contracts, and 3) a conscious urge to defecate is perceived. This neural reflex involves the pelvic nerve, which provides the parasympathetic pr... | |
Which of the following is a contraindication for medical management of Gall stones:: (A) Radio-opaque stones, (B) Radioluscent stones, (C) Normal functioning gall bladder, (D) Small stones | Answer is A. Contraindications for medical management are: 1. Radio-opaque concretions 2. Gallstones >20mm in diameter 3. Non opacified gall bladder 4. Acute &/or chronic cholecystitis 5. Complications of gallstones 6. Poor patient compliance In carefully selected patients with a functional GB and with radiolucent ston... | |
Cremasteric muscle is supplied by:: (A) Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve, (B) Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve, (C) Lateral femoral nerve, (D) Ilio-inguinal nerve | Answer is A. A. i.e. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve | |
Most common malignant tumor of kidney in children is:: (A) Renal cell carcinoma, (B) Mesoblastic nephroma, (C) Wilm's tumour, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Wilms' tumor is the most common primary malignant tumor of the kidney in children. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39. | |
Breast milk at room temperature stored for: (A) 4 hrs, (B) 8 hrs, (C) 12 hrs, (D) 24 hrs | Answer is B. Breast milkCan be stored at room temperature for 8-10 hoursIn a refrigerator for 24 hoursIn a freezer for 3 months(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 286 - 290) | |
Excitatory Neurotransmitters are :: (A) Acetyl choline, (B) Glycine, (C) GABA, (D) Glutamine | Answer is D. D i.e. Glutamate | |
Fracture of the neck of fifth metacarpal occurs in: (A) Hangman's fracture, (B) Jefferson's fracture, (C) Greenstick fracture, (D) Boxer's fracture | Answer is D. Fracture of the neck of fifth metacarpal occurs usually due to striking the closed hand against a firm surface(Boxer's fracture) occurs in boxers. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 179 | |
The state of social dysfunction is called as:: (A) Illness, (B) Disease, (C) Sickness, (D) Unwell | Answer is C. "Sickness" refers to a state of social dysfunction. "Disease" is a physiological/psychological dysfunction. "Illness" is a subjective state of the person who feels aware of not being well. | |
KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of:: (A) Descemet's membrane, (B) Epithelium, (C) Endothelium, (D) Stroma | Answer is A. Ans: A (Descemet's membrane) Ref: BASAK Essentials of Ophthalmology. 5th edition, pg no 163Explanation: (See the following table)In KF ring, the copper deposits are seen in the vertical meridian (6 &12o'clock position) in the early stages.It is seen in all Wilson's patients if CNS is involvedWith penicilla... | |
A patient of rectal carcinoma found to have tumor invading through the muscularis propria into the perirectal tissues, and two enlarged lymph nodes. How will you manage the patient?: (A) Surgery only, (B) Surgery + Adjuvant chemotherapy, (C) Preoperative chemoradiation followed by surgical resection, (D) Palliative che... | Answer is C. Stage of rectal cancer in the given scenario- Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into the perirectal tissues- T3 Two enlarged lymph nodes- N1b Thus, making it stage 3 Management of rectal cancer according to its stage- Stage Management Tis Polypectomy I Segmental resection II Neoadjuvant chemoth... | |
The primary lateral incisors begin to calcify about
the:: (A) 4th month of life, (B) 4th month in utero, (C) 41/2 month in utero, (D) 5th month in utero | Answer is C. None | |
True about vagal nuclei are all except?: (A) There are 4 vagal nuclei, (B) They are found in the floor of 4th ventricle, (C) Nucleus Ambiguous is a vagal nucleus, (D) Spinal trigeminal nucleus is not a vagal nucleus | Answer is D. Ans. is'd'i.e., Spinal trigeminal nucleus is not a vagal nucleus(Ref: 'Functional and chemical anatomy of the afferent vagal system". Autonomic Neuroscience. 85 (I-3): I-17.)The vagus nerve includes axons which emerge from or converge onto four nuclei of the medulla.They are present deep in the medulla in ... | |
Local lymph nodules are enlarged near the infected wound. Increased amount of macrophages, lymphocytes, lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of plasma cells were revealed on histological examination. What process in the lymphatic nodules represent these histological changes?: (A) Antigen stimulation... | Answer is A. In the given question there is enlargement of local lymph nodes near the infected wound. Histologically:- Presence of Macrophages, Lymphocytes, Lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of Plasma cells. It is because the antigens from the wound are going to be drained to the lymph node. Thes... | |
Which one of the following antibacterial antibiotics are not recommend for lactating mothers ?: (A) Cephaslosporins, (B) Anti tubercular drugs, (C) Quinolones, (D) Aminoglycoside | Answer is C. Chloroquine, proguanil, and mefloquine are considered compatible with breastfeeding. The Center for Disease Control and Prevention indicates that atovaquone may be used during breastfeeding where the infant weighs at least 5kg. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | |
Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortality of cancer cells?: (A) DNA reverse transcriptase, (B) RNA polymerase, (C) Telomerase, (D) DNA polymerase | Answer is C. With respect to cancer, when tumor cells divide rapidly their telomeres often shorten.
Such telomeres (usually detected in leukocytes because of ease of obtaining them) have been implicated as a risk factor for many, but not all, solid tumors (eg, breast cancer).
Short telomeres appear to be of predicti... | |
Essential WHO criteria for polycythemia vera?: (A) Tyrosine kinase JAK2 V617F and other mutations, (B) Low levels of erythropoietin levels, (C) Thrombocytosis, (D) Increased MCV | Answer is A. None | |
"Reward pathway" is associated with: (A) Nucleus accumbens, (B) Nucleus ambiguous, (C) Dentate nucleus, (D) Substantia nigra | Answer is A. (A) Nucleus accumbens# NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS has a significant role in the cognitive processing of motivation, pleasure, and reward and reinforcement learning, and hence has significant role in addiction. | |
Which is most commonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts?: (A) HPV 16, (B) HPV 18, (C) HPV 31, (D) HPV 6 | Answer is D. Ans. is d, i.e. HPV 6Ref: Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p619"Low Risk HPV types 6 and 11 cause nearly all genital warts." - Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p67Genital Warts:* Genital warts are lesions created from productive infection with HPV (most common type 6 and 11).* They display various morphologies and appearances... | |
Most common type of optic nerve glioma is –: (A) Gemistocytic, (B) Fibrous, (C) Protoplasmic, (D) Pilocytic | Answer is D. Most common type of optic nerve glioma is juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma. | |
License to blood bank is given by:: (A) Drugs controller General of India, (B) Director General of Health Services, (C) Director General, Indian Council of Medical Research, (D) Director General Blood Bank Services | Answer is A. Drugs controller General of India GUIDELINES FOR OPENING AND LICENSING OF BLOOD BANK Blood Bank: - Blood bank means, a centre within an organisation or an institution for collection, grouping, cross-matching, storage, processing and distribution of Whole Human Blood or Human Blood Products from selected hu... | |
Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in: (A) Peutz-Jegher's polyp, (B) Familial polyposis coli, (C) Juvenile polyposis, (D) Hyperplastic polyp | Answer is B. NON NEOPLASTIC POLYPSPOLYPSLOCATIONHISTOLOGICAL TYPERISK OF MALIGNANCYASSOCIATED LESIONSHyperplastic polypscolonHyperplastic colonic epithelial celssRareJuvenile polypsLarge and small intestine, stomachHamaomasrarePeutz jeghers syndromeJejunum(mainly)hamaomasrarePigmentation in the mouth.tumours of the ova... | |
The average number of adult female mites on an individual suffering from the common form of scabies is about:: (A) 2, (B) 12, (C) 16, (D) 24 | Answer is B. The average number of adult female mites on an individual suffering from the common form of scabies is about 12. Only in crusted (Norwegian) scabies are large numbers of mites present. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition Pg 38.37. | |
A patient is trying to make a fist, but can only paially flex Index and Middle finger. Which nerve is damaged most probably:: (A) Median, (B) Ulnar, (C) Radial, (D) Anterior interosseous nerve | Answer is A. Median nerve injury leads to 'Benediction hand deformity', as observed in this patient. Hand of benediction occurs as a result of prolonged compression or injury of the median nerve at the forearm or elbow. Note: The answer can't be Anterior Interosseous Nerve, because in that case, Flexor digitorum superf... | |
What is the total dose of Vitamin - A given under national immunisation schedule: (A) 16 Lac IV, (B) 17 Lac IV, (C) 18 Lac IV, (D) 20 Lac IV | Answer is B. 1 lac IU @ 9 months age.
2 lac IU every 6 months therefter, till the age of 5 years. | |
False about pioglitazone?: (A) It PPARy agonist, (B) Metabolized in liver, (C) Not given in case of diastolic dysfunction, (D) It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin helps in metabolism of carbohydrate | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin helps in metabolism of carbohydrate Pioglitazone has insulin sensitizing action, i.e., enhancing the effect of cinilating insulin. Therefore, insulin is neces? sary for the action of Pioglitazone, and it does not lower blood glucose i... | |
Glutathione peroxidase contains ?: (A) Cu, (B) Se, (C) Fe, (D) Hg | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Se | |
Oliguric phase of ARF is characterized by A/E: (A) Chest pain, (B) Acidosis, (C) Hypeension, (D) Hypokalemia | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypokalemia | |
I/V contrast is not used in -: (A) CT scan, (B) MRI, (C) IVP, (D) Myelography | Answer is D. In myelography the contrast agent is injected into the subarachanoid space. | |
All the following are true about branchial cyst except:: (A) It occurs at lower 2/3rd of sternocleidomastoid, (B) It is lined by squamous epithelium, (C) It develops from remnants of 2nd branchial cyst, (D) Usually presents in early or middle adulthood | Answer is A. Ans: A (It occurs at lower 2/3rd of sternocleido-mastoid) Ref: Bailey & Love '5 Short Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, pg. 728Explanation:Branchial cyst is located at the junction of the upper third and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle at its anterior border.BRANCHIAL CYSTAetiopathologyDevelops f... | |
Old age pigment is?: (A) Hemosiderin, (B) Melanin, (C) Lipofuscin, (D) Bilirubin | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lipofuscin o It is an insoluble pigment, also known as lipochrome and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.Lipofuscino It is an insoluble pigment, also known as I and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell ... | |
In a patient only HBs Ag is positive ins serum, all other markers are negative, This indicates -: (A) Acute hepatitis, (B) Chronic active hepatitis, (C) Persistent carrier, (D) Hepatitis B vaccination | Answer is D. Presence of only HBsAg indicate immunisation. REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.546&548 | |
A 35-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a complaint of shortness of breath. During physical examination it is noted that there is wide splitting in her S2 heart sound. Which of the following valves is/are responsible for production of the S2 heart sound?: (A) Mitral valve, (B) Pulmonary and aortic, (C) Aor... | Answer is B. The S2 heart sound refers to the second (dub) heart sound. This sound is produced by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves. The closure of mitral/bicuspid and tricuspid valves produce the first S1 (lub) heart sound. | |
All of the following are grievous injuries except -: (A) Facial burns, (B) Avulsion of nail, (C) Fracture of bone, (D) Emasculation | Answer is B. Facial bum (causing disfiguration), fracture and emasculization are grievous injuries. | |
Edward Jenner died in -: (A) 1749, (B) 1775, (C) 1823, (D) 1920 | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1823 o Edward Jenner was born on 17 may 1749 and died on 26 January 1823. o Edward Jenner discovered samll pox vaccine in 1796, which was the first ever vaccine to be discovered. o Edward Jenner also coined the term 'vaccine'. | |
Causes of exudative retinal detachment: (A) Central retinal aery detachment, (B) Hypeensive retinopathy, (C) Harada's syndrome, (D) All | Answer is C. C i.e. Harada's syndrome | |
Not true about pituitary gland ?: (A) Lies in sella turcica, (B) Coicotrophs are acidophilic, (C) ADH is secreted by posterior lobe, (D) Anterior lobe is developed from Rathke's pouch | Answer is B. Ans. is'b'i.e., Coicotrophs are acidophilicPituitary gland is situated in sella turcica.Anterior pituitary develops from Rathke's pouch and posterior pituitary develops from infundibular process from diencephalon.Coicotroph are basophils.ADH is secreted from posterior pituitary. | |
Which of the following flipped pattern of LDH is seen in myocardial infarction:: (A) LDH 1>2, (B) LDH 2> 1, (C) LDH 3>4, (D) LDH 5> 4 | Answer is A. In normal person, LDH-2 is more than LDH-1 in serum. BUT in myocardial infarction, LDH-1>>LDH-2. This is known as Flipped ratio of LDH in Myocardial Infarction. ADDITIONAL EDGE ON ISOENZYMES OF LDH: LDH-2 is raised in haemolytic anemia. (LDH-2 is mainly found in blood (Both WBC and RBC; WBC conc. > RBC con... | |
All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Allergic Fungal Sinusitis (AFS), EXCEPT:: (A) Areas of High Attenuation on CT scan, (B) Orbital invasion, (C) Allergic Eosinophilic mucin, (D) Type I Hypersensitivity | Answer is B. The diagnostic criteria for allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS) are the presence of characteristic allergic mucin, type I hypersensitivity (eosinophilic-lymphocytic inflammation), absence of fungal invasion, immuno-compromised individuals and radiological confirmation (areas of high attenuation on CT scan). | |
The couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of the: (A) Hepatic veins and poal vein, (B) Hepatic veins and biliary ducts, (C) Poal vein and biliary ducts, (D) Poal vein and hepatic aery | Answer is A. Functional anatomy of the liver is based on couinaud's division of liver into eight (subsequently nine) functional segments, based upon the distribution of poal venous branches and location of hepatic veins in the parenchyma Couinaud 1957 | |
Rollover phenomenon in audiometry is seen in: (A) Cochlear lesions, (B) Retro-cochlear lesions, (C) Lesion in inferior colliculus, (D) Lesion in medial geniculate body | Answer is B. Roll over phenomenon:- it is seen in retro cochlear hearing loss . With increase in intensity above paicular level phonetically balanced score (PB score) falls rather than maintain a plateau as in cochlear type of sensineural hearing loss . | |
Diffuse mesothelioma is seen with -: (A) Asbestos, (B) Arsenic, (C) Tobacco use, (D) TB | Answer is A. - asbestos enters the body by inhalation and fine dust may be deposited in the alveoli. - the dust deposited in the lungs causes pulmonary fibrosis leading to respiratory insufficiency and death. - it also causes mesothelioma of the pleura or peritoneum. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social ... |
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