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Oximes are contraindicated in which poisoning: NEET 13: (A) Malathion, (B) Diazinon, (C) Phorate, (D) Carbamate | Answer is D. Ans. Carbamate | |
High environmental temperature, best step for malaria control-: (A) Remove breeding place, (B) Full sleeve cloth, (C) Indoor insecticide, (D) Early treatment | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Remove breeding place "The most important step in reducing number of mosquitoes is to eliminate their breeding places "..............ParkAntilarval MeasuresEnvironmental control(source reduction)Chemical control(Larvicidal agents)Biological controlThe most important step in reducing numbe... | |
A 42 yr old male from srilanka presented with multiple polyps in nose .the causative agent might be: (A) Histoplasma, (B) Rhinospiridium, (C) Coccidiodes, (D) Mucor | Answer is B. Rhinosporidiosis -common in India, Srilanka .pt presents with multiple friable polyps in nose, mouth or eye. It is a chronic granulomatous disease Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 552 | |
In a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation with a regular beat of 60/min , the most probable cause is -: (A) Sleep, (B) Digitalis toxicity, (C) Sino nodal block, (D) Hypothyroidism | Answer is B. None | |
A 50 year old male patient complains of heaviness of face, headache and blocked nose. Patient gives history of chronic sinusitis. Waters view x-ray was taken. If the patient’s mouth is open during x-ray, the sphenoid sinus is seen superimposed over-: (A) Nasal bone, (B) Coronoid process, (C) Maxillary sinus, (D) Palate | Answer is D. Waters view-
The image receptor is placed in front of the patient and perpendicular to the midsagittal plane. The patient’s head is tilted upward so that the canthomeatal line forms a 37-degree angle with the image receptor. If the patient’s mouth is open, the sphenoid sinus is seen superimposed... | |
Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is due to liberation of-: (A) TSS - 1, (B) Enterotoxin, (C) Pyrogenic exotoxin, (D) Endotoxin | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyrogenic exotoxin . Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome ---> Pyrogenic exotoxin 'A' . Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome -Toxic shock Syndrome Toxin Type - 1 (TSST-1) also known as enterotoxin-F or Pyrogenic exotoxin C. Rarely enterotoxin B or C may also cause TSS. | |
Symptoms of opioid withdrawal are all, EXCEPT:: (A) Polyuria, (B) Yawning, (C) Fever, (D) Insomnia | Answer is A. Opioid withdrawal syndrome may resemble a severe flu-like illness. The syndrome is characterized by rhinorrhea, sneezing, yawning, lacrimation, abdominal cramping, leg cramping, piloerection (gooseflesh), nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dilated pupils, fever, and insomnia. Heroin and methadone withdrawal sympt... | |
NSAIDs attenuate action of which of the following diuretics:: (A) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, (B) Loop diuretics, (C) Thiazide diuretics, (D) Spironolactone | Answer is B. Loop diuretics increase prostaglandin production by stimulating Cycloxygenase enzyme (COX) and NSAIDs attenuate the diuretic action of these drugs. | |
Which one of the following needs cholesterol and other lipids for growth -: (A) Mycobacterium TB, (B) Chlamydia, (C) Hemophilus, (D) Mycoplasma | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mycoplasma . Unique among prokaryotes is the requirement of most mycoplasma for cholesterol and related sterols, which are incorporated in their surface membrane. | |
Which among the following is the best method to assess intake of fluid in poly trauma patient:: (A) Urine output, (B) CVP, (C) Pulse rate, (D) BP | Answer is A. None | |
The threshold limit value of mercury exposures is:: (A) 0.01 mg / m3, (B) 0.05 mg/ m3, (C) 0.1 mg /m3, (D) 0.001 mg /m3 | Answer is B. None | |
A CKD patient had to undergo dialysis. His Hb was 5.5. So two blood transfusions were to be given. First bag was completed in 2 hours. Second was staed and midway between he developed shoness of breath, hypeension. Vitals: BP 180/120 mm Hg and pulse rate 110/min. What is the cause?: (A) Allergic, (B) Transfusion relate... | Answer is B. Usually 1 bag takes 4 hr. Option A- Allergic it is very nonspecific symptom Here word mismatch blood transfusion would be a better answer. Option B- TACO As he has been administered with 2 units of blood at a very fast rate causing volume overload Contributing to pulmonary edema Volume expansion-HTN- Compe... | |
A 30-year-old male, Rajinder presents to your office with fatigue, muscle weakness and headache. His blood pressure is 170/120 mm Hg and his hea rate is 100/min. Laboratory evaluation reveals hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and decreased plasma renin activity. On CT scan, a mass was noted on left suprarenal gland. Pat... | Answer is D. Mosty likely diagnosis in this patient is aldosterone secreting tumor (adenoma) leading to primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's Syndrome). Aldosterone excess will cause hypeension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and depressed renin. Aldosterone antagonists such as spironolactone or eplerenone can be used a... | |
Reduction of diametervat the muzzle end of a barrel of shotgun is called: (A) Rifling, (B) Choking, (C) Yawing, (D) Tembling | Answer is B. Choking Reduction of diameter at the muzzle end of the barrel of a shotgun is called choking Choking reduces the dispersion of pellets and holds the pellets together for a longer distance Choke- bore means diameter of the barrel is reduced at the muzzle end. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNA... | |
CSF pressure depends primarily on:: (A) Rate of CSF absorption, (B) Rate of formation from the choroid plexus, (C) Cerebral blood flow, (D) Blood pressure | Answer is A. Rate of CSF absorption | |
Meig's syndrome is commonly associated with:: (A) Teratoma, (B) Brenner tumour, (C) Fibroma, (D) Theca cell tumour | Answer is C. Meig's syndrome is present with ovarian fibroma, ascites and right sided pleural effusion Any other ovarian tumor or a pedunculated fibroid causing ascites with pleural effusion is known as Pseudo Meig's syndrome Most common cause of Pseudo meig's syndrome is Brenner tumor. | |
The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include the following except:: (A) Hydrolysis, (B) Reduction, (C) Oxidation, (D) Conjugation | Answer is D. Biotransformation reactions can be classified into:
Nonsynthetic/Phase 1/Functionalization reactions:
A functional group (- OH, -COOH, -CHO, H2, - SH) is generated or exposed- metabolite may be active or inactive.
Synthetic / Conjugation / Phase lI reactions:
An endogenous radical is conjugated to ... | |
Oblique popliteal ligament is pierced by ?: (A) Anterior branch of popliteal aery, (B) Medial inferior genicular branch of popliteal aery, (C) Medial superior genicular branch of popliteal aery, (D) Middle genicular branch of popliteal aery | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Middle genicular branch of popliteal aery Oblique popliteal ligament It is an expansion from the tendon of semimembranosus attachment to intercondylar line of femur.It is closely related to popliteal aery and is pierced by middle genicular vessels and nerve and the terminal pa of the post... | |
A nurse is giving instructions to a client who is receiving Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) and Mycophenolic acid (Myfortic) after undergoing a heart transplant. The nurse tells the client to anticipate the following side effects, except?: (A) Insomnia., (B) Vomiting., (C) Hypertension., (D) Diarrhea. | Answer is A. These medications can cause diarrhea, vomiting, sepsis, back pain, neutropenia and hypertension. | |
Mechanism of action of theophylline in bronchial asthma is:: (A) Phosphodiesterase 4 inhibition, (B) Beta2 agonism, (C) Anticholinergic action, (D) Inhibition of mucociliary clearance | Answer is A. Ans. (A) Phosphodiesterase 4 inhibition(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p345; KDT 8th/e p245)Theophylline is used in bronchial asthma. Its mechanism of action is:Inhibition of phosphodiesterases particularly PDE-4.Antagonism of adenosine receptors.Enhancement of histone deacetylation. Acetylation of histone is require... | |
Structure forming medial boundary of femoral ring is:: (A) Inguinal ligament, (B) Pecten pubis, (C) Lacunar ligament, (D) Conjoint tendon | Answer is C. Ans. C i.e. Lacunar ligament | |
Following admission to the hospital for intestinal obstruction, a 48-year-old woman states that she previously had undergone cholecystectomy and choledochoduodenostomy. The most likely indication for the performance of the choledochoduodenostomy was:: (A) Hepatic metastasis were present., (B) Multiple stones were prese... | Answer is C. Multiple stones were present in the CBD at the previous operation. During exploration of the CBD, most stones can be removed by using Desjardin's forceps or under direct vision using a choledochoscope and Dormia basket. However, if there are multiple stones impacted in the lower part of the CBD, a drainage... | |
Normal role of Micro RNA is: (A) Gene Regulation, (B) RNA splicing, (C) Initiation of translation, (D) DNA conformational change | Answer is A. MicroRNA (abbreted miRNA) is a small non-coding RNA molecule (containing about 22 nucleotides) found in plants, animals, and some viruses, that functions in RNA silencing and post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression.miRNAs (microRNAs) are sho non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression post-tra... | |
Malignant tumor associated with Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia includes -: (A) Smoldering myeloma, (B) Primary effusion lymphoma, (C) Mycosis fungoides, (D) Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma | Answer is D. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia is a syndrome in which high levels of IgM lead to symptoms related to hyperviscosity of the blood. It occurs in older adults , most commonly associated with lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma. Smoldering myelomas an uncommon variant of multiple myeloma defined by a lack of symptoms an... | |
Death occurs faster in: MP 08: (A) Fresh water drowning, (B) Salt water drowning, (C) Near drowning, (D) Warm water drowning | Answer is A. Ans. Fresh water drowning | |
All are to access platelet functions EXCEPT:: (A) Prothrombin time, (B) Bleeding time, (C) Clot retraction time, (D) Prothrombin deactivation | Answer is A. Prothrombin time REF: Wintrobe's hematology lied page 1242 Tests for platelet function: Bleeding time: Hemostasis in a small superficial wound, such as that produced when measuring the bleeding time, depends on the rate at which a stable platelet plug is formed and, thus, provides a measure of the efficien... | |
Bohn's nodules are: (A) Cystic swellings in neonates, (B) Cysts associated with soft palate, (C) Cysts of gingiva in growing children, (D) Warts on the tongue | Answer is A. None | |
Gluconeogenesis can occur from all except: (A) Lactic acid, (B) Aceto acetate, (C) Glycerol, (D) Alanine | Answer is B. Substrates for gluconeogenesis are lactate (lactic acid), pyruvate, glycerol, glucogenic amino acids (all amino acids except leucine and lycine), propionate and intermediates of the citric acid cycle. | |
Which of the following vasculitis is ANCA negative: (A) Microscopic polyangitis, (B) Churg straus syndrome, (C) Granulomatosis with polyangitis, (D) Polyarteritis nodosa | Answer is D. ANCAs are not seen in Polyarteritis nodosa. | |
Anitskov's cells are modified:: (A) Neutrophils, (B) Macrophages, (C) Lymphocytes, (D) Eosinophils | Answer is B. Ans: b (Macrophages) Ref: Robbins, p. 593In acute rheumatic fever, focal inflammatory lesions found in the heart are called Ashoff bodies. They consist of foci of swollen eosinophils, collagen surrounded by lymphocytes, but occasionally they contain plasma cells and plump macrophages. These plump macrophag... | |
Increased blood volume in tissue is known as -: (A) Hypermia, (B) Edema, (C) Congestion, (D) Purpura | Answer is A. Hyperemia is an active process due to aeriolar dilatation and increased blood inflow, resulting in high blood volume at tissues. Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.: 75 | |
Deformity is most commonly seen in primary osteoarthritis of the knee joint -: (A) Genu valgum, (B) Germ recurratum, (C) Genu varus, (D) Procurvaturn. | Answer is C. In knee joint osteoarthritis, medial joint space is affected earliest and causes asymmetrical joint space narrowing. This results in varus deformity (genu varus). | |
First increase of reticulocyte count occurs after how many hours of iron therapy: (A) 48 - 72 hrs, (B) 24 hrs, (C) 96 hrs, (D) 6 hrs | Answer is A. Ans: a (48 - 72 hrs) Ref: OP Ghai, 6th ed, p. 302Rise in reticulocyte count occurs by 48 - 72 hrs after start of Iron therapy.Course of events after starting iron therapy :1. Child becomes less irritable and appetite improves within 24 hrs2. Bone marrow response is observed within 48 hrs3. Rise in reticulo... | |
Tongue anomaly is called as:: (A) Fissured tongue, (B) Bifid tongue, (C) Macroglossia, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. A completely cleft or bifid tongue is a rare condition that is apparently due to lack of merging of the lateral lingual swellings of this organ. A partially cleft tongue is considerably more common and is manifested simply as a deep groove in the midline of the dorsal surface. The partial cleft results bec... | |
Lymphocytic colitis: (A) Bloody diarrhea, (B) Intra epithelial lymphocytes, (C) Lymphocytes is stools, (D) Through Ileoscopy look for payer's patches | Answer is B. The characteristic feature of LC is an infiltration by lymphocytes into the colonic epithelium. Collagenous colitis (CC) shares this feature but additionally shows a distinctive thickening of the subepithelial collagen table. LC and CC have been suggested to represent different phases of a single pathophys... | |
The most aggressive and destructive cyst is: (A) Periapical cyst, (B) Dentigerous cyst, (C) Globulornaxillary cyst, (D) Nasopalatine cyst | Answer is B. None | |
A Bone marrow transplant receipient patient, developed chest infection. ON chest Xray Tree in Bud appearance is present. The cause of this is:: (A) Klebsiella, (B) Pneumocystis, (C) TB, (D) RSV | Answer is D. D i.e. (RSV) - Most common cause of tree in bud (bronchiectasis) appearance is Mycobacterium tuberculosis (endobronchial). Most common specific cause of tree in bud appearance in HSL (bone marrow) transplant patients is CMV (30-70%) > RSV (18%) > M. tuberculosis (5-6%) > Pneumocystis > Invasive aspergillos... | |
A newborn baby presents with shock, hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia. What is the most likely diagnosis-: (A) Septicemia, (B) Inborn error of metabolism, (C) Diabetes mellitus, (D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Congenital adrenal hyperplasia | |
Dissociated sensory loss is seen in: (A) Syringomyelia, (B) Vitamin B12 deficiency, (C) Transverse myelitis, (D) Pellagra | Answer is A. Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition. * The classical presentation in syringomyelia is a central cord syndrome consisting of a dissociated sensory loss and areflexic weakness in upper limbs | |
Subacute combined degeneration of cord is due to deficiency of:-: (A) Vitamin B1, (B) Vitamin B6, (C) Folic acid, (D) Vitamin B12 | Answer is D. Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to:- Megaloblastic anemia Pernicious anemia Sub-acute combined degeneration of spinal cord Peripheral neuropathy Infeility Atrophic glossitis. | |
H.P. inclusion bodies in trachoma are seen to be:: (A) Extracellular, (B) Intracytoplasmic, (C) Intranuclear, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. Intracytoplasmic | |
Maximum effect of bronchodilatation in asthma is caused by -: (A) Corticosteroids, (B) Theophylline, (C) Anticholinergic, (D) Beta 2-Agonist | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., b2-Agonist b-agonists in Asthmao Bronchi have b2-adrenergic receptors which cause bronchodilatation - So, the adrenergic drugs used in asthma are selective b2 agonists.o b2-agonists are the most effective bronchodilatorso b2-agonists have some other effects also on airways (other than bon... | |
The diluent used for BCG is -: (A) Distilled water, (B) Normal saline, (C) Dextrose solution, (D) Ringer - lactate | Answer is B. <p>BCG Aim- To induce a benign,aificial primary infection which will stimulate an acquired resistance to possible subsequent infection with virulent tubercle bacilli, and thus reduce the morbidity and moality from primary tuberculosis among those most at risk. WHO recommends the &;Danish 1331&; strain for ... | |
Adverse reaction following whole cells pertussis immunization is -: (A) Fever, (B) Ecessive cry, (C) Local swelling, (D) All of above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e.. All of above Advese effect with pertusis (used in DPT)o Local pain, swelling, rednesso Fevero Convulsiono Anaphylaxiso Hypotensive, hyporesponsive episod. | |
Which of the following arises from infraglenoid tubercle -: (A) Longheadofbiceps, (B) Longheadoftriceps, (C) Shoheadofbiceps, (D) Coracobrachialis | Answer is B. Ans. is'b' i.e., Long head of tricepsSupraglenoid tubercle of scapula : origin oflong head ofbiceps.Infraglenoid tubercle of scapula : origin of long head of triceps | |
In metabolism of xenobiotics, all of the following reactions occur in phase one EXCEPT ?: (A) Oxidation, (B) Reduction, (C) Conjugation, (D) Hydrolysis | Answer is C. None | |
Thickness of lead apron to prevent radiation -: (A) 1 mm, (B) 3 mm, (C) 0.5mm, (D) 7mm | Answer is C. lead aprons of thickness 0.5mm will reduce the intensity of scattered X rays over 90% and should be worn by all workers regularly exposed to X ray procedures. Radiation protection is the youngest bramch of hygiene and is called radiation hygiene. Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edi... | |
The names Brechner and Bethune are associated with which of the following devices?: (A) Precordial Doppler, (B) Transesophageal echocardiography, (C) Plethysmography, (D) End tidal capnography | Answer is D. Ans. d. End tidal capnography (Ref: Bethune, R. W. M., and Brechner, V. L. (1968). Detection of venous air embolism by carbon dioxide monitoring. Anesthesiology, 29, 178)Brechner and Bethune are associated with end-tidal capnography. | |
Sexually active male comes with complaints of recurrent ulcers over the glans which heals with hyperpigmentation . Lesions characteristically recur after intake of sulfonamidees, probable diagnosis is -: (A) Aphathous ulcer, (B) fixed drug eruption, (C) Herpes genitalis, (D) Chlamydial infection | Answer is B. Fixed drug eruption It characteristically recur at the same site following administration of offending drugs or occasionally a member of the same group of drugs. They occur 30min to 8hrs after drug administration Most common drugs: Sulfonamides NSAIDS Dapsone Batbiturates Ciprofloxacin Phenytoin Griseofulv... | |
Why pyridostigmine is preferred in myasthenia gravis?: (A) It doesn't cross BBB, (B) Longer acting than neostigmine, (C) It crosses BBB, (D) Sho-acting than neostigmine | Answer is B. DOC FOR myasthenia gravis is pyridostigmine as it long acting than neostigmine.both are quaternanry coumpounds and so cant cross BBB Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 101-102 | |
A black necrotic mass was seen in the nose of an elderly diabetic patient. The most probable diagnosis is?: (A) Lupus vulgaris, (B) Aspergillosis, (C) Mucormycosis, (D) Pseudomonas infection | Answer is C. The most probable diagnosis is mucormycosis which is a fungal infection of the nose and paranasal sinuses. It is seen in those on immunosuppressive therapy or those with uncontrolled diabetics. It is associated with rapid destruction due to the affinity of the fungus to aeries causing endothelial damage an... | |
The efferent limb of the cremasteric reflex is provided the-: (A) Femoral branch of the genitofemoral, (B) Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, (C) Ilioinguinal nerve, (D) Pudendal nerve | Answer is B. Ans. B. Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerveCremasteric Reflexa. Contraction of the cremaster muscle is elicited by lightly stroking the skin on the medial aspect of the superior part of the thigh with an applicator stick or tongue depressor. The afferent limb is ilio-inguinal nerve supplies this area... | |
Most abundant immunoglobulin present in breast milk?: (A) IgA, (B) IgM, (C) IgG, (D) IgE | Answer is A. Most abundant type of Ig = IgA > IgD > IgG, IgM & IgE Anti-infective factors present in breast milk are: IgA (ratio of IgA: IgG is 100:1) Lymphocytes Anti- streptococcal factor Lysosome Lactoferrin Living cells. | |
Moality rates are taken into account while calculating: March 2011: (A) General feility rate, (B) NRR, (C) Total feility rate, (D) Gross reproduction rate | Answer is B. Ans. B: NRR Net reproduction rate measures the number of daughters a woman would have in her lifetime if she experiences prevailing age-specific feility and moality rates Net reproduction rate/NRR It is the average number of daughters that would be born to a female (or a group of females) if she passed thr... | |
During radiotherapy the Buccal Mucosa exhibits radiation reaction before skin due to -: (A) Rapid cellular turn-over in bone, (B) Slow cellular turn-over in blood vessel, (C) Rapid cellular turn-over in skin, (D) Rapid cellular turn-over in mucosa | Answer is D. Rapidly dividing cells are generally more radio sensitive then slowly dividing cells, reflecting radiation induced inhibition of D.N.A. synthesis. | |
Tributaries of Lt renal vein are all except:: (A) Left lumbar vein, (B) Left gonadal vein, (C) Left suprarenal vein, (D) Left diaphragmatic vein | Answer is A. Ans is 'a' ie left lumbar vein (Ref. BDC (vol II), 3/e, p 272)Tributaries of left renal veinLeft gonadal veinLeft suprarenal veinLeft inferior phrenic veinOn right side they open directly into the inferior vena cava. | |
Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis ?: (A) Chloramphenicol, (B) Gentamicin, (C) Erythromycin, (D) Penicillin | Answer is D. None | |
All the following represent risk factors associated with pelvic inflammatory disease except: (A) Recent new sexual paner, (B) Doughing, (C) Low socioeconomic status, (D) Age 30 - 39 years | Answer is D. Ans is 'd' i.e., Age 30 - 39 yearRisk factors associated with pelvic inflammatory disease are :DouchingSingle statusSubstance abuseMultiple sexual panersLower socio - economic statusRecent new sexual panerYoung age 10 - 19 yearsOther sexually transmitted infectionsSexual paner with urethritis or gonorrheaP... | |
A 45 year old victim of head Injury from an accident Who is unconscious requires an emergency surgical Intervention. In the absence of any consenting pay, the doctor should: (A) Not operate at all, (B) Obtain consent from the police, (C) Operate without consent, (D) Obtain consent from the magistrate | Answer is C. No duty to inform arises in an emergency in which the patient is unconscious or otherwise incapable of giving valid consent and harm from failure to treat is imminent. However, an emergency does not give the doctor a license to do whatever he deems advisable for the patient; it suppos only limited measures... | |
A 55 year old male presented with painless terminal hematuria. Cystoscopic examination revealed a solitary papillary tumor. Histopathological examination of completely resected tumor is suggestive of grade transitional cell carcinoma with no muscle invasion. fuher management of this patient is best done by: (A) Just fo... | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intravesical BCG Management of bladder cancer Cystoscopy and transurethral resection or biopsy - initially, any pt. with hematuria is examined by cystoscopy and any tumor seen is removed by transurethral resection (if possible) or biopsied. Fuher treatment decisions are made after tumor s... | |
Preservative added in DPT vaccine is :: (A) Zinc phosphate, (B) Aluminum phosphate, (C) MgS04, (D) ZnS04 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. Aluminium Phosphate Aluminium phosphate is used as an adsorbent in DPT vaccine. Adsorption increases the immunological effectiveness of the vaccine | |
Serratus arterior is supplied by -: (A) Thoracodorsal nerve, (B) Axillary nerve, (C) Musculocutaneous nerve, (D) Nerve of bell | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Nerve of bell o Serratus anterior causes protraction of scapula,o It is supplied by long thoracic nerve (Nerve of Bell),o It forms medial boundary of axilla.Serratus anterioro Origin : Outer surface of upper 8 ribs by 8 digitations (multipennate muscles),o Insertion : Medial border of sca... | |
Froment's sign is positive in cases of weakness of ?: (A) Thumb adduction, (B) Thumb abduction, (C) Thumb flexion, (D) Thumb extension | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thumb adduction Normally when a person is asked to grasp a book between the thumb and index finger, he will grasp the book firmly with thumb extended, taking full advantage of the adductor pollicis and the first dorsal interosseous muscles. If the ulnar nerve is injured the adductor polli... | |
The laboratory test of choice to confirm myxoedema coma is -: (A) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), (B) Thyrotropine releasing hormone (TRH), (C) Tri-iodothyronine (T3), (D) Tetra iodothyronine (T4) | Answer is A. Laboratory studies are impoant to confirm the diagnosis of myxedema coma. However, if the condition is suspected, treatment should be staed immediately without waiting for the results. Thyroid function tests TSH is elevated in most patients indicating a primary thyroid disorder Free T4 and free T3 levels a... | |
Infection with Sporothrix schenckii (formerly Sporotrichum schenckii) is an occupational hazard for gardeners. The portal of entry for this organism is the: (A) Lymphatic system, (B) Respiratory tract, (C) Skin, (D) Mouth | Answer is C. Cutaneous sporotrichosis, caused by S. schenckii, begins at the site of inoculation, usually on an extremity or the face. The organism often is found on thorns of rose bushes. Ulceration is common and new lesions appear along paths of lymphatic channels. Extracutaneous sporotrichosis is seen primarily in b... | |
Secretion of estrogen is maximum at: (A) Just before menopause, (B) At pubey, (C) At menstruation, (D) Before ovulation | Answer is D. Estrogen is a generic term for any of the estrus-producing compounds (female sex hormones), including estradiol, estriol, and estrone. Called also estrogenic hormone. In humans, the estrogens are formed in the ovary, adrenal coex, testis, and fetoplacental unit, and are responsible for female secondary sex... | |
Which of the following is aberrant epiphysis: (A) Coracoid process, (B) Greater tubercle of humerus, (C) Base of 1" metacarpal, (D) Base of 2nd metacarpal | Answer is D. Aberrant epiphysis: is not always present example: epiphysis at the head of first metacarpal and base of other metacarpalRef BD CHAURASIA S Handbook of General Anatomy Fouh edition Pg no 42 | |
disorder where amenorrhea was once needed for diagnosis was: (A) anorexia nervosa, (B) metabolic syndrome, (C) bulimia nervosa, (D) binge eating | Answer is A. Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Inte... | |
In Vitamin A deficiency, respiratory tract infection due to:: (A) Keratinization of upper epithelial cells, (B) Lack of antibody production, (C) Dysfunction of epithelial layer, (D) Defective chemotaxis | Answer is C. Vitamin A: - Role 1) Vision 2) Reproduction & growth 3) Maintenance of epithelial cell 4) Stabilization of cellular and intra Cellular membrane 5) Synthesis of glycoprotein 6) Antioxidant 7) Skin & Bone Metabolism | |
All of the following are decrease in Nephrotic syndrome except -: (A) Transferrin, (B) Ceniloplasmin, (C) Fibrinogen, (D) Albumin | Answer is C. None | |
What is the working time of amalgam?: (A) One to two minutes, (B) Three to four minutes, (C) Five to six minutes, (D) Seven to eight minutes | Answer is B. None | |
An old man who is edentulous developed squamous cell carcinoma in buccal mucosa that has infiltrated to the alveolus. Following is not indicated in treatment: (A) Radiotherapy, (B) Segmental mandibulectomy, (C) Marginal mandibulectomy involving removal of the outer table only, (D) Marginal mandibulectomy involving remo... | Answer is C. Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of outer table is not recommended. Marginal mandibulectomy -- It include incontinuity excision of tumour with margin of the mandible and overlying gingival at least 1 cm thick mandible inferiorly. It is indicated in carcinoma close proximity to the lower gingival or ext... | |
A child with complaints of cough. Characteristic inspiratory whoop. Sample for investigation is ?: (A) Nasopharyngeal swab, (B) Tracheal aspiration, (C) Cough plate culture, (D) Sputum culture | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nasopharyngeal swab "Culture of nasopharyngeal secretion remains the gold stadard for diagnosis of whooping cough" | |
In PHC how to dispose placenta -: (A) Incineration, (B) Microwaving, (C) Autoclaving, (D) Chemical treatment | Answer is A. - placenta is a human anatomical waste that comes under category no 1. - category no 1 wastes are discarded in yellow colour plastic bag and should be treated by incineration. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no: 793,794 <\p> | |
Chi square test is applied to test the independence of cross distribution of two variables and each of them should have: (A) Equal number of cases, (B) Mutually exclusive cases, (C) Normal distribution, (D) Non-mutually exclusive cases | Answer is B. None | |
Mc benign epithelial ovarian tumor is: (A) Serous cystadenoma, (B) Mucinous cystadenoma, (C) Brenner tumor, (D) Ovarian fibroma | Answer is A. Serous cystadenoma and cystadenocarcinoma
Serous cystadenoma and cystadenocarcinoma are amongst the most common of cystic ovarian neoplasms, accounting about 50% of all ovarian tumours; of these, 60-70% are benign, 15% borderline and 20-25% are malignant. | |
What is the MOST likely diagnosis for this 25-year-old man with sickle cell trait?: (A) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, (B) Angiomyolipoma, (C) Renal medullary carcinoma, (D) Transitional cell carcinoma | Answer is C. A large infiltrative mass is present in the right kidney with extension of mass into the renal pelvic fat, the right renal vein and IVC. There is also retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can involve the kidney but is seen on presentation in only 5.8% of cases. Althou... | |
The term 'id' was coined by:: (A) Freud, (B) Skinner, (C) Weyker, (D) Weyker | Answer is A. A. i.e. Freud | |
Kit B given at subcentre –: (A) Vit A, (B) ORS, (C) Paracetamol, (D) Iron | Answer is C. Sub-center kit A contains :- (i) Iron (Ferrous sulphate) & folic acid; (ii) Zinc sulphate; (iii) Cotrimoxazole; (iv) Vitamin A; (v) ORS; and (vi) Gentian violet crystals.
Sub-center kit contains :- (i) Paracetamol; (ii) Dicyclomine hydrochloride; (iii) Albendazole; (iv) Methylergometrine; (v) Povidone iodi... | |
Triple helix is found in: (A) Cystine, (B) Collagen, (C) Pectin, (D) DNA | Answer is B. Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 63 The collagens are composed of three seperate polypeptide chains braided into a ropelike triple helix. | |
Hypersensitivity vasculitis involve: (A) Capillary, (B) Aerioles, (C) Postcapillary venules, (D) Medium sized aeries | Answer is C. Hypersensitivity vasculitis, which is usually represented histopathologically as leukocytoclastic vasculitis (LCV), is a term commonly used to denote a small-vessel vasculitis. There are many potential causes of hypersensitivity vasculitis; however, up to 50% of cases are idiopathic. Hypersensitivity vascu... | |
A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department after an automobile collision. Radiographic examination reveals multiple fractures of the humerus. Flexion and supination of the forearm are severely weakened. She also has loss of sensation on the lateral surface of the forearm. Which of the following nerves ... | Answer is B. The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and brachialis, which are the flexors of the forearm at the elbow. The musculocutaneous nerve continues as the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve, which supplies sensation to the lateral side of the forearm (with the forearm in the anatomic position)... | |
After 28 weeks of gestation true is/are:a) Viableb) > 1000 gm c) Lecithin/Sphingomyelin ratio >2d) Type II pneumocytes presente) Phosphatidyl glycerol present: (A) abd, (B) bcd, (C) abc, (D) ab | Answer is A. None | |
In a study following interpretation are obtained: Satisfied, Very satisfied, Dissatisfied. Which type of scale is this?: (A) Nominal, (B) Ordinal, (C) Interval, (D) Ratio | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' i.e. Ordinal Repeat from All India 07, AIIMS May 2005, Nov. 2003Statistical data can be of two types -Qualitative data -Quantitative dataQualitative DataIn such data there is no notion of magnitude or size of the variables as they cannot be measuredVariables can be categorized according to some ... | |
Beillon system is for -: (A) Anthropometry, (B) Dactylography, (C) Dentition, (D) Nuclear sexing | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., AnthropometryBeillion system is anthropometry. | |
Translocation (8;14) is characteristic of -: (A) Burkitt's lymphoma, (B) Ataxia telengieactasia, (C) ALL, (D) CML | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Burkitt's lymphoma Chromosomal translocations Associated Neoplasmo 8-14-Burkitt's lymphoma.Acute lymphocytic leukemia (FAB type L3) Immunoblastic B cell lymphomao 15-17-Promyelocytic leukemiao 4-11-Acute lymphocytic leukemiao 11-14-Chronic lymphocytic leukemiao 14-18-Follicular lymphomao ... | |
In a population having mid-year population of 1000, there are 150 children less than 15 years and 50 elderly more than 65 years of age. Calculate dependency ratio ?: (A) 0.2, (B) 200, (C) 0.25, (D) 250 | Answer is C. Dependency ratio = (Propoion of ppl in < 15yrs of age + >65yrs of age) / Propoion of ppl in 15-64 yrs of age = 150+50/800 = 0.25 | |
What are the Rushton bodies ?: (A) Hyaline bodies of odontogenic cyst, (B) Refractile bodies of radicular cyst, (C) Bodies seen in ameloblastomes, (D) Hyaline bodies seen in dentigerous cysts | Answer is A. Rushton Bodies Rushton Bodies or hyaline bodies of odontogenic cysts feature as eosinophilic, straight or curved, irregular or rounded structure within the epithelial lining of odontogenic cyst Rushton bodies occur almost exclusively within odontogenic cyst Ref: Shafers 6th edition Pgno : 268 | |
A 69-year-old man has had mild arthritis involving many joints for several years. Over 1 or 2 days, he develops severe pain and swelling of his knee. His x-ray reveals calcifications in his articular cartilage. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) acute gout, (B) RA, (C) pseudogout, (D) infectious ... | Answer is C. The articular calcification chondrocalcinosis is typical for pseudogout or calcium pyrophosphate disease (CPPD). The most common joint involved is the knee, but the wrist, shoulder, ankle, elbow, and hand are also frequently involved. Definitive diagnosis depends on finding typical rhomboid-shaped crystals... | |
NOT a ductus dependent congenital heart disease
among the following is: (A) Tetralogy of fallot, (B) linterrupted Aortic Arch, (C) Tricuspid atresia, (D) Truncus arteriosus | Answer is D. Other than Truncus arteriosus, rest all lesions among the choices include maintaining Ductus arteriosus as a part of treatment. | |
True about acute post infective glomerulonephritis ?: (A) Crescent formation, (B) Subepithelial deposits, (C) Granular deposits of IgG, (D) Deposition of IgA | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Deposition of IgAPost streptococcal (Acute proliferative) glornerulonephritis Post streptococcal glornerulonephritis (PSGN) is an acute proliferative glomerulonephritis which is characterized by diffuse proliferation of glomerular cells, associated with influx of leukocytes. o PSGN is cha... | |
Despite their sho half lives(2hrs) proton pump inhibitors cause a prolonged suppresion of acid secretiin(upto 48hr) because:: (A) They are prodrugs and undergo activation gradually, (B) They exit from the palsma and enter acid secretory canaliculi and stay there blocking the secretion of acid for a long time, (C) They ... | Answer is C. They irreversibly inhibit the proton pump molecule and hence,acid secretion requires synthesis of new proton pumps(ref Rang and Dale 5/e p370-371, goidman gilman 12/e p1311-1312) The activated form of PPI binds covalently with sulfahydryl groups of cysteine in the H+ K+ atpase ,irreversbly inacativating th... | |
Sectoral sign is positive in -: (A) Avascular necrosis of femur head, (B) Osteoarthritis of btp, (C) Protrusio acetabuli, (D) Slipped capita! femoral epiphyses | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Avascular necrosis of femur headClinical features of AVNo In the earlier stages of AVN, the patient is asymptomatic, and by the time patient presents, the lesion is well advanced.o Common histories patient gives (Any of the following) : -i ) Dislocation of HipAlcoholismSteroid intake for ... | |
39 years female, 40 weeks gestation, 4mm dilated cervix. Which is the safest option for analgesia-: (A) Intramuscular pentazocin, (B) Epidural block, (C) Pudendal block, (D) Premixed nitrous oxide and oxygen | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epidural block o When complete relief ofpain is needed throughout labour, epidural analgesia is the safest and simplest method.o For Vaginal delivery - a complete block from T10 to S5For Caesarian section - a complete block from T4 to SI is needed.o Paracervical nerve blockUsed for pain r... | |
S.A. node acts as a pacemaker of the hea because of the fact that it:: (A) Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously, (B) Has rich sympathetic innervations., (C) Has poor cholinergic innervations, (D) Generates impulses at the highest rate. | Answer is D. D i.e. Generates impulses at the highest rate | |
The stereocilia of hair cells are embedded in which membrane?: (A) Basilar, (B) Reissner's, (C) Tectorial, (D) Tympanic | Answer is C. The scala media is bordered by the basilar membrane and Reissner's membrane and contains a tectorial membrane. The apical border of hair cells has stereocilia that are embedded in the tectorial membrane. | |
Food with maximum Cholesterol content -: (A) Eggs, (B) Coconut oil, (C) Hydrogenated Fats, (D) Ghee (Hydrogenated) | Answer is A. In egg cholesterol content is 250 mg. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 611) | |
Vesicoureteric reflux is diagnosed by:: (A) Micturating cystography, (B) X ray abdomen, (C) CECT Abdomen, (D) Intravenous pyelography | Answer is A. Ans. A. Micturating cystographyVesicoureteric reflux refers to the retrograde flow of urine from bladder to ureters and pelvis at rest or during micturition.Pathogenic organisms that might be present in the bladder can gain access to the renal parenchyma initiating inflammation and renal scarring. Two tech... | |
In a seriously ill patient, addition of amino acids in diet results in a positive nitrogen balance. The mechanism for this is: (A) Increased Growth hormones secretion, (B) Enhanced rate of gluconegenesis, (C) Increased absorption of amino acids from diet, (D) Increased secretion of Insulin | Answer is D. Nutrition experiments with various levels of calorie and protein intake were carried out on five healthy young men. Three series of experiments with two persons each were undeaken for periods up to 14 days. The first pa of each experiment, with 1100 to 1500 kcal/day, was immediately followed by the second ... | |
Patient on verapamil should not be given beta blocker as ?: (A) Conduction block, (B) Bronchospasm, (C) Neurogenic shock, (D) Anaphylaxis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Conduction block Adverse effects of CCBs Nausea, constipation and bradycardia are more common with verapamil. Verapamil can accentuate conduction defect-should be avoided in 2nd & 3rd degree block, in sick sinus syndrome and along with 13-blocker. Most common side effects of DHPs are palp... |
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