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Virulence factor of group A beta hemolytic streptococci:-: (A) Protein M, (B) Protein T, (C) Protein R, (D) Lipotechoic acid | Answer is A. Option 1 2 3 Cell wall antigens: Inner thick peptidoglycan layer (confers cell wall rigidity, induces inflammatory response and has thrombolytic activity) C-carbohydrate antigen: Present as middle layer and is group specific Outer layer of protein (M, T, R) and lipoteichoic acid (helps in adhesion) M prote... | |
The earliest symptom to occur in corneal ulcer is: (A) Pain, (B) Photophobia, (C) Loss of sensation, (D) Diminished vision | Answer is A. Ans. Pain | |
Hernias at lateral border of rectus abdominis is:: (A) Spigelian hernia, (B) Ventral hernia, (C) Epigastric, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Spigelian hernias can occur anywhere along the length of the Spigelian line or zone -- an aponeurotic band of variable width at the lateral border of the rectus abdominis. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 35. | |
When stem cells transforms to form cells characteristic of other tissues, the process is called as: (A) De-differentiation, (B) Re-differentiation, (C) Trans-differentiation, (D) Sub-differentiation | Answer is C. Transdifferentiation, also known as lineage reprogramming, is a process in which one mature somatic cell transforms into another mature somatic cell without undergoing an intermediate pluripotent state or progenitor cell type. It is a type of metaplasia, which includes all cell fate switches, including the... | |
Commonest tumor of ovary occurring in a young woman is :: (A) Immature teratoma, (B) Yolk sac tumor, (C) Endometroid tumor, (D) Dysgerminoma | Answer is D. Dysgerminoma | |
The nerve that supplies skin over the angle of mandible, if involved in parotid injuries forms a part of anatomical basis for gustatory sweating:: (A) Auriculotemporal nerve, (B) Greater auricular nerve, (C) Zygomaticotemporal nerve, (D) Buccal nerve | Answer is B. (b) Greater auricular nerve(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 1254)The nerve that supplies skin over the angle of mandible is Greater auricular Nerve. Sometimes during parotid surgeries, Greater auricular Nerve also gets injured along with the Auriculotemporal Nerve. In this situation with the aberrant regeneration ... | |
True regarding the following is: (A) A is having highest efficacy, (B) A is having least potency, (C) D is having highest potency, (D) C is least potent | Answer is D. The picture shows dose response curves of various drugs in which right sided is most potent (least dose is required to produce effect), left is least potent(high dose required to produce the effect). So drug C is least potent. Efficacy is estimated by height -Drug D is most efficaciousRef: Katzung 11th ed ... | |
The Sequence of development of pubey in girls is :: (A) Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche, (B) Pubarche, Thelarche, Menarche, (C) Pubarche, Menarche. Thelarche, (D) Menarche, Thelarche, Pubarche | Answer is A. Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche In girls the sequence of development of pubey is (Mnemonic * BPH in males).deg B - Breast development (Thelarche)deg P - Pubic hair development (Pubarche)deg H - Height increases; peak grown velocitydeg attained - growth spu in males = Menstruation stas (Menarche)deg (Axillary... | |
Bronchogenic carcinoma commonly metastasise to which endocrine organ -: (A) Ovaries, (B) Testes, (C) Thyroid, (D) Adrenals | Answer is D. None | |
In Snyder's Test, the saliva is said to be highly cariogenic
if colour change is observed at (hrs): (A) 24, (B) 48, (C) 72, (D) 96 | Answer is A. None | |
Commonest dangerous complication of posterior dislocation of knee is-: (A) Popliteal aery injury, (B) Sciatic nerve injury, (C) Ischaemia of lower leg compament, (D) Femoral aery injury | Answer is A. Dislocation of the knee- *This rare injury results from severe violence to the knee so that all of its suppoing ligaments are torn. *It is a major damage to the joint, and is often associated with injury to the popliteal aery. *Treatment is by reduction followed by immobilization in a cylinder cast. Clinic... | |
Which of the following is/are AT1 receptor blocker -: (A) Spironolactone, (B) Losartan, (C) Captopril, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Losartan | |
Most common site of Actinomycosis among the following: (A) Rib, (B) Tibia, (C) Femur, (D) Mandible | Answer is D. Mandibular Actinomyces is a uncommon disease caused by Actinomyces israelli CERVICOFACIAL ACTINOMYCOSIS This is the most common and recognized presentation of the disease. Actinomyces species are commonly present in high concentrations in nsillar crypts and gingivodental . Many patients have a history of p... | |
Unfamiliarity of familiar things is seen in :: (A) Deja vu, (B) Jamais vu, (C) Deja entendu, (D) Deja pence | Answer is B. B i.e. Jamais Vu Deja vu feelings are defined as those in which unfamiliar situations feel 'strangely' familiar Q. It may occur as a normal phenomenon and is also associated with several forms of epilepsy and schizophrenia. Jamais vu are those feelings in which the familiar situations are perceived unfamil... | |
District TB Control programme is mainly concerned with – a) Finding out new casesb) Finding out resistant casesc) Detecting cases and treatmentd) All of the above: (A) a, (B) ac, (C) ad, (D) b | Answer is B. District Tuberculosis Programme (DTP)
NTP operates through the district tuberculosis Programme which is the backbone of NTP.
The activities of DTC include : -
Case finding and treatment
Free treatment on domiciliary basis.
Programme is inte... | |
All are related to criminal responsibility of insame except -: (A) Currens rule, (B) Durhan rule, (C) MeNaughten rule, (D) Resp ispa loquitar | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Resp ispa ioquitar o Criminal responsibility of insane is judged by following rules :1. Mc Naughten rule (legal test or right or wrong test) :It states that an accused person is not legally responsible, if it is clearly proved that at the time of commiting the crime, person was suffering ... | |
Which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl ?: (A) Chest wall rigidly, (B) Tachycardia, (C) Pain in abdomen, (D) Hypertension | Answer is A. None | |
Most common malignancy after cholecystectomy is of: (A) Colon, (B) Stomach, (C) Pancreas, (D) Ileum | Answer is A. Bile acids can induce hyperproliferation of the intestinal mucosa a number of intracellular mechanisms Cholecystectomy, which alters the enterohepatic cycle of bile acids, has been associated with a moderately increased rise of proximal colon cancers It cannot be ruled out, however, that it is less the eff... | |
All are features of Pertussis except –: (A) Encephalopathy, (B) Cerebellar Ataxia, (C) Subconjunctival hemorrhage, (D) Bronchiectasis | Answer is B. Complications of Pertussis
Respiratory -
Patchy Atelectasis
Subcutaneous emphysema
Pneumonia
Interstitial Pneumonia
Bronchiectasis
Pneumothorax
Otitis media
Neurological
Persistent seizures
Paraplegia
Ataxia
Hemiplegia
Convulsions & Encephalopathy
Gastro-Intestinal mani... | |
"Doughnut" sign is seen in: (A) Intussusception, (B) Carcinoma colon, (C) CHPS, (D) Volvulus | Answer is C. .CONGENITAL HYPEROPHIC PYLORIC STENOSIS is hyperophy of musculature of pyloric antrum, especially the circular muscle fibres, causing primary failure of pylorus to relax. Duodenum is normal. Clinical features of congenital pyloric stenosis 1. Vomiting 2. VGP 3. Palpable mass 4. Constipation and dehydration... | |
Sutural separation seen in: (A) Diastatic fracture, (B) Penetrating fracture, (C) Cut fracture, (D) Performing fracture | Answer is A. Diastatic fracture or sutural fracture: Suture separation is called a diastatic fracture. Penetrating and performing fracture: They are fractures produced by penetrating objects like a bullet, pointed sharp weapon, sword or dagger. Fracture which is having an entry and an exit is called a performing fractu... | |
A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following: (A) Hepatic encephalopathy, (B) Uremic encephalopathy, (C) Hypoxic encephalopathy, (D) All | Answer is A. Answer is A (Hepatic encephalopathy): Symmetric, high voltage, triphasic slow wave (2-5/second) fattern on Electroencephalogram (EEG) is characteristic (hut non specific) of hepatic encephalopathy- Harrison 16th/1868 The diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy should be considered when four major factors are p... | |
All are measures of dispersion around central value except: (A) Mode, (B) Variance, (C) Standard detion, (D) Mean | Answer is B. The several measures of variation or dispersion of which the following are widely known Range The mean or Average detion The standard detion Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition - Pgno. 848 | |
A woman receives an organ transplant from her sister who is an identical twin. What type of graft is it?: (A) Allograft, (B) Autograft, (C) Xenograft, (D) Isograft | Answer is D. An Isograft is a graft of tissue between two individuals who are genetically identical (i.e. monozygotic twins). Transplant rejection between two such individuals viually never occurs Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 183 | |
WHO recommended salt intake -: (A) < 5 gm/d, (B) < 6 gm/d, (C) < 7 gm/d, (D) < 8 gm/d | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., < 5 gm/d Ranges of population nutrient intake goalsDietary factorGoal (% of total energyunless otherwise statedTotal fatSaturated fatty acidsPolyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs)15-30%< 15%6-10%n-6 Polyunsaturated fatty' acids (PUFAs)n-3 Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs)Trans fatty acidsM... | |
All are true about multicystic Dysplastic kidney except: (A) Unilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney is more common than bilateral, (B) Prognosis is good if MCDK is isolated and unilateral, (C) Unilateral MCDK leads to potter sequence, (D) Bilateral MCDK has poor prognosis | Answer is C. Bilateral MCDK has poor prognosis and this leads to potter sequence. | |
Which of the following is false about Chicken pox: (A) Causative agent is varicella zoster, (B) IP is 14-16 days, (C) Secondary attack rate is about 60%, (D) Rash spares palms & soles | Answer is C. SAR of Chicken pox is 90%. | |
What is true about spigelian hernia: (A) It is seen in femoral triangle region, (B) Occur only in male, (C) It is due to defect in transversus abdominalis muscle and lies in between muscle layers, (D) It always contains appendix | Answer is C. None | |
A child aged 3 years presented with severe sensorineural deafness, he was prescribed hearing aids but showed no improvement. What is the next line of management?: (A) Fenestration surgery, (B) Stapes mobilisation, (C) Cochlear implant, (D) Conservative | Answer is C. The patient suffers from sensorineural deafness, so fenestration and stapes mobilisation cannot be done. Such patients require heating aid or cochlear implant. Since hearing aid has not shown any benefit, cochlear implant will be indicated to provide hearing and develop speech and language. There is no con... | |
True about clomiphene citrate :: (A) Enclomiphene has antiestrogenic affect, (B) Chance of pregnancy is three fold as compared to placebo, (C) Risk of multiple pregnancy is 2-4%, (D) It can also be used for male infeility with oligozoospermia | Answer is A. Clomiphene Citrate : It is a non-steroidal triphenylethylene derivative Selective estrogen receptor modulator with both estrogen agonist and antagonist propeies Racemic mixture of two stereoisomers Enclomiphene (trans): 62% Zuclomiphene (cis): 38%, responsible for ovulation Mechanism of action: It is struc... | |
Which cement base has the highest modulus of elasticity?: (A) Zinc polycarboxylate, (B) Polymer reinforced ZOE cement, (C) Zinc phosphate, (D) Glass inomer cement | Answer is C. None | |
Time period between occurrence of osteosarcoma following radiation therapy:: (A) 1 year, (B) 3 years, (C) 5 years, (D) 10 years | Answer is D. D i.e. 10 yearsRef: Diagnostic Pathology: Bone, By G. Petur Nielsen, Andrew E Rosenberg, 2nd edition, pageExplanation:Post-radiation OsteosarcomaLatent period from radiation is long: Median 11 years.Rarely as little as 2 years.Latency inversely related to radiation dose.OsteosarcomaThe X-ray appearances ar... | |
Multiple myeloma-all are true except?: (A) Proteinuria, (B) Visual disturbance, (C) Bleeding, (D) Dystrophic calcification | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Dystrophic calcification(Ref: R 9th/pg 598-602)Calcification in multiple myeloma is due to hypercalcemia (metastatic calcification) and not dystrophic calcification. | |
All are true about Dieulafoy's lesion except:: (A) Angiographic embolization is the preferred treatment, (B) Endoscopic treatment can be given, (C) Pulsation of artery causes ulceration, (D) Submucosal artery | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Angiographic embolization is the preferred treatmentRef: Sabiston 19th Edition, Page 1168* Dieulafoy's lesion is most common in lesser curve near cardia (6cm from OG junction)* Dilated tortuous artery bleeding in submucosa (It is a branch from left gastric Artery)* Painless massive hemorrhage occu... | |
Baby born premature at 29 wks on examination at 42 wks with ROP both eyes shows stage 2 zone I plus disease, how will you manage the natient?: (A) Examination the patient after I week, (B) Laser photocoagulation of both eyes, (C) Laser photocoagulation of worse eye, follow up of othr eye, (D) Vitreoretinal surgery | Answer is B. B i.e. Laser photocoagulation of both eyes | |
Life span of cut380a -: (A) 10yrs, (B) 20yrs, (C) Iyrs, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10 years "The Cu-T 380A is approved for use for 10 years. However, the Cu-T 380A has been demonstrated to maintain its efficacy over at least 12 years of use -- ParkIntra-uterine deviceso An intrauterine device is a long acting reversible contraceptive birth control device placed in the u... | |
Erythematous lesions with Collarets of scales on trunk: (A) Pityriasis rubra, (B) Pityriasis rosea, (C) Pityriasis versicolor, (D) Pityriasis alba | Answer is B. . | |
Salivary calculus is more common in: (A) Submandibular gland, (B) Sublingual gland, (C) Parotid gland, (D) Minor salivary gland | Answer is A. None | |
Most common intra abdominal solid organ tumor in child is-: (A) Neuroblastoma, (B) Rhabdomyoblastoma, (C) Wilm's tumor, (D) Hypernephroma | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neuro blastoma MC intra abdominal solid tumor in children.Derived from neural crest.90% present before 5 years of age.50% present before 2 years of age.MC soft tissue sarcoma in children < 15 years of age.Half present below 5 years.2/3 present below 10 years.o Wilm's tumor (Nephroblastoma... | |
Maternal moality rate is calculated :-: (A) Till delivery, (B) Till 1 week after delivery, (C) Till 42 days after delivery, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Maternal moality rate : - 'Maternal death' is defined as 'Death of a woman anytime in pregnancy ,during labour/delivery or within 42 days of delivery Maternal deaths expressed as per 100,000 live bihs is MMR. Direct cause of MMR - Post-paum hemorrhage. Indirect cause of MMR - Anemia. | |
Ramesh a 40 yr old male patient presenting with polyuria, pain abdomen, nausea, vomiting, and altered sensorium was found to have bronchogenic carcinoma. Which of the following electrolyte abnormality can be seen in him?: (A) Hypokalemia, (B) Hyperkalemia, (C) Hypocalcaemia, (D) Hypercalcemia | Answer is D. There are several paraneoplastic syndromes associated with bronchogenic carcinoma. This patient's symptoms of polyuria, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and altered mental status indicates a diagnosis of hypercalcemia occurring secondary to the release of PTHrP by squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Small... | |
Which of the immunoglobulins is present in the Peyer's patch?: (A) IgM, (B) IgG, (C) IgA, (D) IgD | Answer is C. IgA is the predominat immunoglobulin produced in Peyer's patches. IgA producing lymphocytes are more abundant in these tissues than in lymph nodes or spleen. The direct secretion of secretory IgA onto mucosal epithelia represents the major effector mechanism of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). IgA... | |
NOT true statement regarding Urinary bladder among the following is: (A) lnterureteric ridge is also known as Bar of Mercier, (B) Muscularis mucosa is absent in Trigone making it smooth, (C) Trigonal muscle forms Urethral Crest, (D) Uvula vesicae in formed by Median lobe of prostate | Answer is B. Submucosa is absent in Trigone making it smooth. | |
Nail is involved in:: (A) Psoriasis, (B) Lichen planus, (C) Fungal infection, (D) All | Answer is D. A i.e., Psoriasis B Lichen planus C i.e., Fungal infection | |
All are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except: (A) Sensory and motor, (B) Derived from S2, 3, 4, (C) Comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen, (D) Main nerve supply of pelvic organs | Answer is D. Pudendal nerve is a somatic nerve and is not the main supply of pelvic viscera (D). It is the nerve of perineum carrying root value S-2, 3 & 4 (B) and is a mixed nerve with both the sensory and motor (A) components. | |
A patient is more talkative than usual. He used to speak loudly. While talking, he rapidly shifts from topic to topic. He also keeps himself busy in chatting or messaging friends. Likely diagnosis of such a case:March 2013 (f): (A) Mania, (B) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, (C) Depression, (D) Obsessive Compu... | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Mania | |
In which of the following poisoning abdominal colic is a presenting feature?: (A) Arsenic poisoning, (B) Cyanide poisoning, (C) Mercuric poisoning, (D) Lead poisoning | Answer is D. Abdominal colic in lead poisoning is called saturnine colic.It is usually noctural colic and is a late symptom of lead poisening. | |
Which diuretic could be considered appropriate for combining with ACE inhibitors: (A) Spironolactone, (B) Eplerenone, (C) Hydrochlorothiazide, (D) Amiloride | Answer is C. ACE inhibitors are contra-indicated in the presence of hyperkalemia.Aldosterone antagonists and epithelial sodium channel blockers are potassium sparing diuretics and should not be combined with ACE inhibitors. Thiazides on the other hand cause hypokalemia and can be combined with ACE inhibitors. | |
Which of the following is the commonest cause of malaria in the world?: (A) P. vivax, (B) P. ovale, (C) P. falciparum, (D) P. malariae | Answer is A. Malaria has a worldwide distribution between 45degN and 40degS latitude, generally at altitudes below 1800 m. P vivax is the most widely distributed of the four species, and together with the uncommon P malariae, is found primarily in temperate and subtropical areas. P falciparum is the dominant organism o... | |
Tick borne Relapsing Fever is caused by:: (A) Borrelia recurrentis, (B) Borrelia burgdorferi, (C) Rickettsia prowazeki, (D) Borellia hermsii | Answer is D. Borellia hermsii | |
Best bone of the following to assess the age of a person between 20-50 years is: (A) Skull, (B) Ribs, (C) Sternum, (D) Pubic symphysis | Answer is D. Age changes at pubic symphysis The changes in the pubic symphysis are the best criteria to assess the age from third to fifth decade. The changes occurs on three components: dorsal surface, ventral surface, and margin. At the age of about 20 years, there is formation of horizontal ridges of bone on the aic... | |
Turner's syndrome is maximally associated with the following cardiac condition:: (A) Aoic stenosis, (B) Coarctation of aoa, (C) VSD, (D) Mitral valve prolapse | Answer is B. The most common cardiovascular abnormalities are bicuspid aoic valve, which is present in 10% to 20%, and coarctation of aoa, present in 10% of adult cases. The prevalence of these abnormalities is higher in children. Less common cardiovascular anomalies include, Aoic stenosis Systemic hypeension Mitral va... | |
Hinge fracture is seen in:: (A) Wrist, (B) Mandible, (C) Basilar skull fracture, (D) Cl vertebra fracture | Answer is C. Ref: Apleys System of Orthopaedics and Fractures, 9th editionExplanation:HINGE FRACTUREBasilar fracture of skull.Involves middle cranial fossa and pituitary fossa.Divides the skull into anterior and posterior segments.Mechanism of injuryo Blow to chin, e.g. Boxingo Motor-cycle accident - Due to impact on t... | |
In TB, immunity is provided by:: (A) CD4+ cells, (B) CD8+ cells, (C) IgG, (D) IgM | Answer is A. Activated CD4+ helper T cell is the specific immune mechanism effective in TB.
It is a ‘cell-mediated' type of immunity (since it is intracellular). | |
Antihelminthic also acting as immunomodulator is :: (A) Albendazole, (B) Levamisole, (C) Mebendazole, (D) Piperazine | Answer is B. None | |
Treatment of choice for coccidioidomycosis is :: (A) Amphotericin, (B) Fluconazole, (C) Flucytosine, (D) Griseofulvin | Answer is B. None | |
Following are transmitted by mosquito except -: (A) Japanese encephalitis, (B) Dengue fever, (C) Yellow fever, (D) Plague | Answer is D. Plague is primarily and basically, a zoonosis caused by Y.pestis, involving rodents and fleas. It exists in natural foci and is transmitted by infected flea bites to humans living or intruding into the same ecological environment Plague occurs in many forms - enzootically, epizootically, sporadically and i... | |
Eye infection in newborn is NOT caused by: March 2004: (A) Staphylococcus aureus, (B) Proteus mirabilis, (C) Gonococci, (D) Chlamydia | Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Proteus mirabilis | |
A 22-year-old man has symptoms of low back pain and stiffness. After several months of mild symptoms, he notes more severe stiffness at night and hip pain. On physical examination, there is paravertebral muscle tenderness and limited flexion of the lumbar spine. Figure shows an x-ray of the lumbar spine. Which of the f... | Answer is C. (c) Source: (Kasper, p. 1993) AS occurs in 1-6% of adults inheriting human lymphocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27). However, the prevalence in B27-positive relatives of patients with AS is up to 30%. Men are three times more likely to be affected. | |
Which drug does not need dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of: (A) Ciprofloxacin, (B) Sparfloxacin, (C) Lomefloxacin, (D) Trovafloxacin | Answer is D. Dose adjustment is not required for Trovafloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Pefloxacin and Nalidixic acid for patient with decreased creatinine clearence. Trovafloxacin will cause liver damage and increase in liver enzymes. So it is contraindicated in patients with active liver disease. Ref: Sherwood L. Gorbach, John... | |
Delusions are features of all except ?: (A) Delirium, (B) Schizophrenic, (C) OCD, (D) Alcohol withdrawal | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., OCD Delusions are seen in psychotic disorders Organic Delirium (Acute confusional state) Substance :- Abuse (alcohol, amphetamines) and withdrawal (alcohol). Non organic Schizophrenia Affect/mood disorders (Mania & depression) Other non-organic psychosis :- Delusional disorders, Schizoaff... | |
The largest organ of the body is: (A) Liver, (B) skin, (C) Gluteus maximus, (D) Femur | Answer is B. The liver is the largest gland in the body and has a wide variety of functions (265-Snell 7th )
The liver is the largest gland in the body. (283-BDC-2)
Femer is the longest and the strongest bone of the body (16-B DC-2)
Skin is the largest organ of the body (278-K- Sembulingam physiology)
Skin is considere... | |
All of the following statements are true regarding lipoproteins, EXCEPT:: (A) VLDL transpos endogenous lipids, (B) LDL transpos lipids to the tissues, (C) Increased blood cholesterol is associated with increased LDL receptors, (D) Increased HDL is associated with decreased risk of coronary disease | Answer is C. LDL receptor are present in all cells most abundant in hepatic cells and adrenal coex. When apo B100 in LDL bind to LDL receptor, receptor-LDL complex is internalized by endocytosis. A deficiency of functional LDL receptors causes a significant elevation in plasma LDL and therefore increase in plama choles... | |
A 12 year old boy presents with recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis for the last 2 years with intense itching and ropy discharge. The diagnosis is:: (A) Vernal conjunctivitis, (B) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis, (C) Trachoma, (D) Viral conjunctivitis | Answer is A. Vernal conjunctivitis | |
All the following conditions can Lead to depapillation of the tongue EXCEPT: (A) Plummer-Vinson syndrome, (B) Amyloidosis, (C) Pernicious anemia, (D) Luetic glossitis | Answer is B. None | |
Glycogen storage diseases include the following: (A) Fabry’s disease, (B) Fragile syndrome, (C) Von Gierke’s disease, (D) Krabbe’s disease | Answer is C. None | |
A Sepsis Wound score includes all except: (A) Scours discharge, (B) Purulent discharge, (C) Erythema, (D) Induration | Answer is D. A Sepsis Wound score :
A - Additional treatement
Antibiotics for wound infections.
Drainage of pus under local Anaesthesia.
Debridement of wound under GA.
S - Serous Discharge.
E - Erythema.
P - Purulent Discharge.
S - Separation of deep tissues.
I - Isolation of bacteria from wound.
S - Stay as inpatien... | |
Antepaum hemorrhage occurs after how many weeks :: (A) 12 weeks, (B) 18 weeks, (C) 20 weeks, (D) 28 weeks | Answer is D. 28 weeks | |
Treatment of choice of desmoids tumour is:: (A) Surgery, (B) Chemotherapy, (C) Radiotherapy, (D) Surgery + Radiotherapy | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Surgery + Radiotherapy* Role of Radiotherapy in Abdominal wall desmoids is still controversial.* But there are studies showing better results with RT combined with surgery, rather than surgery alone.* So let us opt for both | |
The L or D form of a sugar is determined by its relation to:: (A) Fructose, (B) Glycogen, (C) Glyceraldehyde, (D) Glucose | Answer is C. An optical isomer can be named by the spatial configuration of its atoms.The D/L system does this by relating the molecule to glyceraldehyde.Glyceraldehyde is chiral itself, and its two isomers are labeled D and L | |
Vitamin B level in chronic myeloid leukemia is: (A) Elevated', (B) Decreased, (C) Normal, (D) Markedly | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Elevated CML there will be rise in B1, level LDH level And decreased levels of ALP. | |
Serial 7 substraction is used to test ?: (A) Working memory, (B) Long term memory, (C) Mathematical ability, (D) Recall power | Answer is A. Ans. A. Working memorySerial sevens substraction testSerial sevens, counting down from one hundred by sevens, is a clinical test used to test mental function; for example, to help assess mental status after possible head injury or in suspected cases of dementia.This well-known test, in active documented us... | |
Which of the following is false about Wilm's tumor: September 2010: (A) Presents before the age of 5 years, (B) Mostly presents as abdominal mass, (C) Spreads mostly by lymphatics, (D) Responds well to treatment | Answer is C. Ans. C: Spreads mostly by lymphatics Wilms' tumor or nephroblastoma is cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children, rarely in adults. The majority (75%) occur in otherwise normal children (1-6 years); a minority (25%) is associated with other developmental abnormalities. It is highly responsive... | |
Carriers for Herpes simplex virus is: March 2009: (A) Man, (B) Monkey, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. A: Man Humans are the only natural hosts and the sources of infection are saliva, skin lesions or respiratory secretions. Asymptomatic carriers form the more impoant source of infection, especially in genital infection. | |
After rupture of middle meningeal aery bleeding occurs in which region -: (A) Subdural bleed, (B) Extradural bleed, (C) Intracerebral bleed, (D) Subarachnoid bleed | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' ie Extradural bleed | |
A 27-year-old woman comes to psychiatrist complaining of sleep difficulty since her breakup a month ago. On exploring fuher she repos difficulty in work, decision making, socializing without his help. Since early age she has struggled with low self-confidence and fears of rejection and abandonment. She appears anxious ... | Answer is D. Patient's excessive dependency on her boyfriend,indecisiveness, and fear of being alone are suggestive of dependent personality disorder. It is a cluster C PD .Additionally in this patient is uncomfoable when alone. | |
Diencephalon represents: (A) Lateral ventricle, (B) 3rd ventricle, (C) 4th ventricle, (D) Aquedct | Answer is B. The diencephalon is the pa of brain between the cerebrum and brainstem.The cavity within it is called third ventricleThe pas of diencephalon are:ThalamusMetathalamusEpithalamusSubthalamusHypothalamus(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy Second Edition pg -123) | |
A 65-year-old male patient complains of loss of libido and is found to have a low free and total testosterone level. Treatment is commenced with testosterone supplemental therapy. What is the next step in management after testosterone administration?: (A) Check PSA levels, (B) Testosterone levels are decreased, (C) Dec... | Answer is A. PSA levels can increase because both benign and malignant prostatic tissue are sensitive to testosterone (hormonal) therapy. There is increased prostatic growth with elevation of PSA and possible polycythemia. | |
Which one of the following is not a prion associated disease -: (A) Scrapie, (B) Kuru, (C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob's disease, (D) Alzheimer's disease | Answer is D. None | |
Naegler's reaction is due to:: (A) Coagulase, (B) Hyaluronidase, (C) Lecithinase, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Ans. is. 'c' i. e. Lecithinase | |
All form boundaries of triangle of auscultation except: (A) Trapezius, (B) Latissmusdorsi, (C) Scapula, (D) Rhomboid major | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rhomboid major Triangle of auscultation has the following boundaries Superiorly and medially, by the inferior poion of the Trapezius. Inferiorly, by the Latissimus Dorsi. Laterally, by the medial border of the scapula. The superficial floor of the triangle is formed by the Serratus anteri... | |
Cholinomimetic drugs can be used for treatment of all of the following conditions except: (A) Closed angle glaucoma, (B) Bradycardia, (C) Cobra bite, (D) Myasthenia gravis | Answer is B. Refer kDT 6/e p 104 Cholinomimetic drugs can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect and this cannot be used for the treatment | |
All of the following are risk factors for thoracic aoic aneurysm (TAA) rupture except:: (A) Symptomatic aneurysm, (B) Concurrent dissection, (C) Increased patient age, (D) Anticoagulation use | Answer is D. TAAs are those occurring distal to the left subclan vein. The risk for rupture is increased with : Increasing aneurysm size Advanced age History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) Concurrent dissection. Anticoagulation is not a risk factor for rupture. | |
Acute angled septate hyphae are seen in -: (A) Aspergillus, (B) Mucor, (C) PeniciIlium, (D) Candida | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., .Aspergillus o Septate hyphae with acute branching-Aspergilluso Non septate hyphae with obtuse branching-Rhizopus/mucoro Septate hyphae with dichotomous branching into two equal divisons at a regular angle of 45deg are typical of Aspergillus.o Mucor and rhizopus are non-septate (aseptate)... | |
Comment on the site of damage for a patient exhibiting the following symptom?: (A) Substantia Nigra, (B) Neocerebellum, (C) Archicerebellum, (D) Ventromedial nucleus thalamus | Answer is B. Past pointing and intentional tremors- Lesion of neo-cerebellum. Archicerebellum lesion-Truncal ataxia. Damage to Substantia nigra -Parkinsonism- Resting tremor is seen. | |
The most common postoperative psychiatric condition is:: (A) Schizophrenia, (B) Delirium, (C) Chronic brain syndrome, (D) Depression | Answer is B. Delirium | |
Prelabour pains are mediated through: (A) Tit-T12, (B) T2-L3, (C) S1-S3, (D) L3-L4 | Answer is A. T11-T12 Pain pathways during labour The pain of labour arises from - Contraction of myometrium, against the resistance of cervix and perineum - Progressive dilatation of the cervix and lower uterine segment - Stretching and compression of pelvic and perineal structures Pain during the, first stage of labou... | |
Purkinje cells of cerebellum are connected to: (A) Basket cells, (B) Stellate cells, (C) Deep cerebellar nuclei, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Purkinje cells are flask-shaped cells in the molecular layer of cerebellum. The entire output of the cerebellar coex is through axons of the Purkinje cells.Basket cells, stellate cells, granule cells and intracerebellar nuclei except flocculonodular lobe synapses with Purkinje cells.(Ref: vishram Singh tex... | |
Mechanism of action of zeulton is?: (A) Inhibits production of IgE, (B) Inhibits Lipoxygenase, (C) Inhibits Cyclooxygenase, (D) Inhibits activity of mast cells | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) Inhibits LipoxygenaseREF: Goodman and Gillman s 11th ed page 479LEUKOTRIENE-SYNTHESIS INHIBITORS:The formation of leukotrienes depends on lip oxygenation of arachidonic acid by 5-lipoxygenase. Zileuton is a potent and selective inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase activity and thus blocks the formation ... | |
Hamaoma is: (A) Proliferation of cells in foreign site, (B) Proliferation of native cells in tissue, (C) Malignant condition, (D) Acquired condition | Answer is B. Ref Robbins 8/e p262;7/e p272; 9/e p267 Hamaomatous Polyps Hamaomatous polyps occur sporadically and as compo- nents of various genetically determined or acquired syn- dromes (Table 14-6). As described previously, hamaomas are disorganized, tumor-like growths composed of mature cell types normally present ... | |
Which herniation is the one that leads to brain stem injury-: (A) Cingulate, (B) Hippocampal, (C) Sub falcine, (D) Cerebellar tonsils | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following organism is most commonly associated with urinary tract infection in Healthcare facility?: (A) Staphylococcus epidermidis, (B) Staphylococcus aureus, (C) klebsiella, (D) Streptococcus | Answer is C. Different type of such healthcare infection and their most common causative organism:- | |
Most common paroxysmal symptom of pheochromocytoma:: (A) Headache, (B) Palpitation, (C) Abdominal pain, (D) Hypotension | Answer is A. Answer is A (Headache): The single most common paroxysmal symptom repoed in patients with pheochromocytoma is headache 'Most adult patients have paroxysmal symptoms, lasting minutes to hours, consisting of headache (80%), perspiration (70%), and palpitations (60%)' - Endocrine Tumors (PMPH-USA, 2003)/ 104 ... | |
False statement regarding HCG is:: (A) It is secreted by cytotrophoblasts, (B) It acts on same receptor as LH, (C) It has luteotrophic action, (D) It is a glycoprotein | Answer is A. The HCG secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast of the placenta is released into both the fetal and maternal circulation. Ref: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (Hgc) By Larry Cole, 2010, Page 20 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C.Dutta, 5th Edition, Page 59 | |
Squamous cell carcinoma spreads commonly ?: (A) Implantation, (B) Hematogenous spread, (C) Lymphatic spread, (D) Trancoelomic spread | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymphatic spread Spread of carcinoma Commonly by lymphatics o Spread of sarcoma --> Commonly hematogenous | |
Which of the following is true of cholera-: (A) Recent epidemic was due to classical type, (B) Causes secretory diarrhoea, (C) Caused by endotoxin, (D) Vibriocidal antibodies correspond to susceptibility | Answer is B. Vibrio causes secretory diarrhea.
About Other options:
Recent epidemics are due to O1 ElTor and also O139 serovar. (Classical still exists and few cases were reported from Bangladesh)
Vibriocidal antibodies in serum (titer 1:20) have been associated with protection against colonization and disease. ……………... | |
Lens develops from: September 2012: (A) Neural crest, (B) Mesoderm, (C) Neuroectoderm, (D) Surface ectoderm | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Surface ectoderm Embryology of eyeball Structures derived from mesoderm: Corneal stroma & endothelium, Only smooth muscles of iris, All muscles (EXCEPT iris muscle) Structures derived from surface ectoderm: Conjunctival epithelium, Lens Structures derived from neuroectoderm: Epithelium of iris ... | |
Good prognosis in schizophrenia is indicated by -: (A) Soft neurological signs, (B) Affective symptoms, (C) Emotional blunting, (D) Insidious onset | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Affective symptoms o Presence of depression (affective symptom) is a good prognostic factor.PROGNOSTIC FACTORS FOR SCHIZOPHRENIAGood Prognostic FactorsPoor Prognostic Factorsl. Acute or abrupt onset1. Insidious onset2. Onset > 35 years of age (late onset)2. Onset < 20 years of age (early ... | |
In twin pregnancy, Vaginal delivery is contraindicated in: (A) Monochorionic monoamniotic, (B) First twin veex, 2nd breech, (C) Second twin transverse, (D) First twin Mentoanterior | Answer is A. Monoamniotic twins are at a great risk of developing cord accidents like entanglement which can lead to sudden fetal death. Therefore all monoamniotic twins have to be delivered by a Cesarean sections between 32-34 weeks , after ensuring lung maturation | |
Duration of T.I.A (Transient Ischemic Attacks) is less than?: (A) 12 hours, (B) 24 hours, (C) 48 hours, (D) 36 hours | Answer is B. The standard definition of TIA requires that all neurologic signs and symptoms resolve within 24 hours regardless of whether there is imaging evidence of new permanent brain injury. Stroke has occurred if the neurologic signs and symptoms last for >24 hours. |
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