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Increased LH secretion just before ovulation is due to: (A) Positive feed-back by progesterone, (B) Positive feed-back by estrogen, (C) Positive feed-back by FSH, (D) Positive feed-bad by relaxin | Answer is B. Luteinizing hormone (LH) a gonadotropin of the anterior pituitary gland, acting with follicle-stimulating hormone to cause ovulation of mature follicles and secretion of estrogen by thecal and granulosa cells of the ovary; it is also concerned with corpus luteum formation. In the male, it stimulates develo... | |
The median of values 2, 5, 7, 10, 10, 13, 25 ?: (A) 10, (B) 13, (C) 25, (D) 5 | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10 | |
Salicylate intoxication is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:: (A) Hyperventilation, (B) Hypoprothrombinemia, (C) Hypothermia, (D) Metabolic acidosis | Answer is C. Salicylate intoxication is associated with hypehermia and not hypothermia, as the drug causes uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, resulting in increased metabolism. Mild chronic salicylate intoxication is called salicylism. When fully developed, the syndrome includes headache, dizziness, tinnitus, dif... | |
Which muscle causes opening of the upper end of esophagus?: (A) Epiglottis, (B) Thyropharungeus, (C) Stylopharyngeus, (D) Cricopharyngeus of inferior constrictor | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cricopharyngeus of inferior constrictor Upper esophageal sphinctor* The upper esophageal sphincter surrounds the upper part of the esophagus.* It consists of skeletal muscle, but is not under voluntary control.* Opening of the upper esophageal sphincter is triggered by the swallowing refl... | |
Which of the following is the ego-expansion of JSY?: (A) Janani Sampoorna Yojana, (B) Janani Samridhi Yojana, (C) Janani Swarojgar Yojana, (D) Janani Surakshan Yojana | Answer is D. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
• Launched on 12th April 2005
• It is a ‘modification of National Maternity Benefit Scheme
• Objectives of JSY: Reduction of maternal mortality and infant mortality (through institutional deliveries and care especially for poor women.) | |
Drug used in refractory glaucoma ?: (A) Systemic glucocoicoid, (B) ACE inhibitor, (C) Alpha agonist, (D) Beta blocker | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Alpha agonist Drug of choice for initial treatment of open angle glaucoma is either an topical b-blocker or topical PG analogue (latanoprost) It target IOT is not attained either change over to alternative drug or use both concurrently. In refractory cases (who are not responding to (3-bl... | |
A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm 1st hr. Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case-: (A) Nutritional rickets, (B) Re... | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hyperparathyroidism o You can solve the question just looking at calcium value. Amongst the given options only hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia. The patient in question has an increased serum Ca', decreased serum phosphorus and increased values of alkaline phosphatase, all of whic... | |
'Safe zone' of the eye ball is:: (A) At the limbus, (B) 3-4 mm behind the limbus, (C) 8-9 mm behind the limbus, (D) 12 mm behind the limbus | Answer is C. Ans. 8-9 mm behind the limbus | |
Peutz Jeghers syndrome-all are true EXCEPT:March 2013: (A) Pigmentation of lips & oral mucosa, (B) Polyposis of jejunum, (C) Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice, (D) May turn malignant | Answer is C. Ans. C i.e. Radiotherapy is the treatment of choict. | |
A 45 year old male had multiple hypoaesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is –: (A) Lepromatous leprosy, (B) Borderline leprosy, (C) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy, (D) B... | Answer is D. This patient has:-
Multiple lesions
Hypoesthetic
Bilateral symmetrical nerve thickening
These favour lepromatous end of the spectrum.
Now question arises, whether it is BL or LL.
Point two (Hypoesthetic) differentiates the two:-
Sensations
IL : Hypoesthetic or Normoesthetic
TT : Anesthetic
BT : Hypoe... | |
True of poisonous snakes are all, except: Delhi 06: (A) Fangs present, (B) Belly scales are small, (C) Small head scales, (D) Grooved teeth | Answer is B. Ans. Belly scales are small | |
In Abetaltipoproteinemia result in absence of:: (A) Chylomicron, (B) LDL, (C) VLDL, (D) All | Answer is D. A i.e. Chylomicron, B i.e. LDL, C i.e. VLDLAbetalipoproteinemia: is a rare autosomal recessive disease due to defective synthesis or secretion of apo BQ & leads to absent or low level of chylomicrons, VLDL and LDLQ. [Apo protein B is major component of chylomicron (B-48), VLDL & LDL (B- 100)1 | |
The secondary attack rate of measles is more than mumps. What is the conclusion?: (A) Measles is more dangerous than mumps., (B) Mumps is more dangerous than measles., (C) Measles is more infectious than mumps., (D) Measles is more common than mumps. | Answer is C. Ans. c (Measles is more infectious than mumps). (Ref: Park PSM 22nd/pg. 58, 96)SECONDARY ATTACK RATE# It is defined as "the number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of IP, following exposure to primary case"SAR =Number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of I... | |
Most common primary leading to secondaries in pancreas:: (A) Lung, (B) Breast, (C) Colon, (D) Stomach | Answer is A. Ans. (a) LungRef: Blumgart 5/e p 930-933* Secondary deposits in Pancreas is mc from Renal cell cancer (But on Postmortem studies- Lung cancer has been the topmost to produce secondary to pancreas) | |
Most common nerve injury associated with thyroid surgery: (A) Right recurrent laryngeal, (B) Left recurrent laryngeal, (C) Right internal laryngeal, (D) External branch of superior laryngeal nerve | Answer is D. .The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) is at risk of injury during thyroid operations when dissection of the superior pole and ligation of the superior thyroid vessels (STV) are carried out. From that perspective, EBSLN injury poses a threat to handicap all patients undergoing thyroid... | |
Water is used for hardening in -: (A) Sodalime, (B) Baralime, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is B. Water of crystallization is used in Baralime and silica is used in sodalime | |
In tumour lysis syndrome all of the following are seen EXCEPT:: (A) Hypernatremia, (B) Hypercalcemia, (C) Hyperkalemia, (D) Hyperphosphatemia | Answer is B. . Hypercalcemia | |
Which of the following most strongly suggests the diagnosis of primary hyperparathyrodism?: (A) Serum acid phosphatase above 120IU/L, (B) Serum calcium above 11 mg/dL, (C) Urinary calcium below 100 mg/day, (D) Serum alkaline phosphatase abve 120 lU/L | Answer is B. Diagnostic criteria for primary hyperparathyroidism and its surgery Ref - semantischolar.org | |
Damage to lower pons, leaving upper pons intact, will result in:: (A) Apneusis, (B) Rapid, shallow breathing, (C) Irregular gasping type of breathing, (D) No change in pattern of breathing | Answer is B. Damage to lower pons will damage the apneustic center. This center was causing the breathing to be slow and deep. Upper pons has pneumotaxic center. It causes the breathing to be rapid and shallow. Since this center is intact (and apneustic is damaged), breathing will become shallow and rapid. | |
Pagets disease increases the risk of: (A) Osteoma, (B) Osteosarcoma, (C) Fivrosarcoma, (D) All | Answer is B. Osteosarcoma Osteosarcomas are bulky tumors that are gritty, gray-white, and often contain areas of hemorrhage and cystic degeneration (Fig. 26-24). The tumors frequently destroy the surrounding coices and produce soft tissue masses. They spread exten- sively in the medullary canal, infiltrating and replac... | |
Mechanism of action on ondensetron -: (A) RANK ligand inhibitor, (B) MMDA antagonist, (C) NK 1 receptor antagonist, (D) 5 HT3 antagonist | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 5HT3 antagonist Ondansetron* It is the prototype of a distinct class of antiemetic drugs developed to control cancer chemotherapy/radiotherapy induced vomiting, and later found to be highly effective in PONV and disease/drug associated vomiting as well.* It blocks the depolarizing action ... | |
DOC for Tenia Ungum: (A) Ampthotericin B, (B) Miconazole, (C) Gresiofulvin, (D) Nystatin | Answer is C. C i.e. Griseofulvin | |
Mechanism of action of statins:: (A) Inhibit HMG CoA synthase, (B) Stimulate HMG CoA reductase, (C) Inhibit HMG CoA reductase, (D) Stimulate HMG CoA synthase | Answer is C. Ref: KDT 6th ed. pg. 614* HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors (statins): This class of compound is the most efficacious and best tolerated hypolipidaemic drugs.* MOA: Competitively inhibit conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate by the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase.* Drugs (Statins): Lovastatin, Simvastatin, Pravstatin, A... | |
HU units value of bone -: (A) 0, (B) 40, (C) -100, (D) 1000 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., +1000 SubstanceHU unitsWaterDense cortical boneSoft tissueFatLung tissueAir0+ 1000 (+400 to + 1000)+ 40 to + 80- 60 to -100- 400 to -600- 1000 | |
What is histological appearance of vaginal mucosa ?: (A) Stratified squamous, (B) Glandular, (C) Simple squamous, (D) Cuboidal | Answer is A. The vagina is a muscular tube. The lining epithelium is stratified squamous. Underneath the epithelium is a layer of lamina propria, which is rich in elastic fibres, and does not have any glands. Under the lamina propria layer is a layer of smooth muscle, which has an inner circular and outer longitudinal ... | |
The influence of maternal smoking and LBW incidence is studied. Detailed smoking history is taken at first AN visit and smoking history and bih weight were studied later. The type of study is-: (A) Retrospective coho study, (B) Cross sectinal study, (C) Clinical trial, (D) Prospective coho study | Answer is D. prospective coho studies is one which the outcome has not yet occurred at the time the investigation begins.most prospective studies begin in the present and continue into future. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 73 | |
The percentage of glutaraldehyde, as a medicament
during primary tooth pulpotomy is: (A) 4.00%, (B) 3.00%, (C) 1.50%, (D) 2.00% | Answer is D. None | |
Snellen's cha is used to test:: (A) Vision, (B) Refraction, (C) Presbyopia, (D) Colour blindness | Answer is A. Ans. Vision | |
Site of b-oxidation is ?: (A) Cytosol, (B) Mitochondria, (C) Lysosome, (D) Golgi apparatus | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mitochondria | |
An enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is -: (A) Myeloperoxidase, (B) MAO, (C) Superoxide dismutase, (D) Hydroxylase | Answer is C. None | |
About H. Influenza all true except aEUR': (A) Requires factor X and V for growth, (B) Rarely presents as meningitis in children less than 2 months of age, (C) Capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for virulence, (D) M.0 invasive disease of H influenza is meningitis | Answer is C. Capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for virulence Hemophilus Infl uenzae Hemophilus influenzae is a grain negative rod. The name hemophilus influenzae shows some of its features. Hemophilus means "blood loving" This organism requires blood containing medium.for growth H. influenzae requires 2 eryth... | |
In a case of chest pain with pericarditis and pericardial effussion, pain is referred by?: (A) Phrenic nerve, (B) Superficial cardiac plexus, (C) Deep cardiac plexus, (D) Vagus nerve | Answer is A. Phrenic nerveThe pericardium is composed of two layers.The tough external layer, the fibrous pericardium. The parietal layer of serous pericardium is attached to its internal surface. The visceral layer of serous pericardium is fused to the hea.The fibrous and parietal pericardia are supplied by the phreni... | |
The root canal instrument most likely to break during use is a: (A) File, (B) Broach, (C) Reamers, (D) Spreaders | Answer is B. None | |
A 60 yrs old male comes to casualty with acute retention of urine since 12 hrs. On examination there was distended bladder. His wife gives a history of taking some drug by the patient since 2 days as he is suffering from depression. The most likely drug is:: (A) CPZ, (B) Amitriptyline, (C) Haloperidol, (D) Pimozide | Answer is B. Anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are most common. These effects result in dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, and confusion. They are more common with teiary amine TCAs such as amitriptyline and imipramine than with the secondary amine TCAs desipramine and... | |
Root value of intercostobrachial nerve is: (A) T1, (B) T2, (C) T3, (D) T4 | Answer is B. The intercostobrachial nerve is a lateral cutaneous branch of the second intercostal nerve that supplies sensation to the skin of the Axilla . It leaves the second intercostal space at the midaxillary line and subsequently pierces the serratus anterior muscle to enter the subcutaneous tissues of the axilla... | |
What is the most probable diagnosis in this neonate shown below?: (A) Infant of diabetic mother, (B) Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome, (C) Congenital hypothyroidism, (D) IUCR baby | Answer is A. a. Infant of diabetic mother(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 898-899)Large for date baby with hairy pinna suggests a diagnosis of Infant of diabetic mother. | |
True about boundaries of inguinal canal are all, EXCEPT:: (A) Conjoint tendon is seen anteriorly, (B) Fascia transversalis forms posterior boundary, (C) Inguinal ligament forms the base, (D) Internal oblique forms the roof | Answer is A. Conjoint tendon is formed by the condensation of fibers of internal oblique and transverse abdominis. It forms the posterior wall of inguinal canal.Boundaries of inguinal canal:Anterior wall of inguinal canalis made up of external oblique aponeurosis with some fibers of internal oblique which attach to lat... | |
Which of the following is the investigation of choice for assessment of depth of penetration and perirectal node involvement in rectal cancer?: (A) MRI scan, (B) CT scan pelvis, (C) Double contrast barium enema, (D) Transrectal ultrasound | Answer is A. Investigations for rectal carcinoma: For Diagnosis: Best diagnosed by sigmoidoscopy (rigid not flexible) and biopsy of tumour Barium enema For Staging: TRUS (transrectal ultrasonography) CT MRI TRUS (Transrectal Ultrasonography) The depth of the tumour invasion can be accurately determined by TRUS, but it ... | |
"White plague" is: (A) Pneumonic Plague, (B) Bubonic Plague, (C) Tuberculosis, (D) leprosy | Answer is C. In 1700s,TB was called "White Plague" due to the Paleness of Patients. Ref: Pg No: 317, IAPSM Textbook of Community Medicine | |
Upon contact between the sperm head and the zona pellucida, penetration of the sperm into the egg is allowed because of:: (A) The acrosome reaction, (B) The zona reaction, (C) The perivitelline space, (D) Pro nuclei formation | Answer is A. Ans. A. The acrosome reactionThe acrosome reaction causes a fusion of the plasma membrane and the acrosomal membrane of the sperm, with subsequent release of proteolytic enzymes that help the sperm enter the ovum. The zona reaction and Pro nuclei formation occur after the sperm has entered the ovum. Sperm ... | |
QRS complex is due to -: (A) Ventricular repolarization, (B) Atrial depolarization, (C) Conduction through AV node, (D) Ventricular depolarization | Answer is D. Ans. is "d" i.e., Ventricular depolarization Event of ECGCauseP-waveAtrial depolarizationQRS complexVentricular depolarizationTwaveVentricular repolarizationPR intervalRepresents time taken by impulse to travel from SA node to ventricle (Atrial depolarization and AV conduction)QT intervalDuration of full v... | |
The symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include:: (A) Constipation and muscle weakness, (B) Anorexia and weight loss, (C) Polydipsia and polyuria, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. (d) All of the aboveClinical features of Hypoparathyroidism:* Weakness* Fatigue* Polydipsia, Polyuria, Nocturia,* Bone and Joint Pain* Constipation, Decreased appetite, heart burn* Pruritus* Depression* Memory loss* CapO4 and Ca. Oxalate Renal calculi | |
Anorectal anomalies are commonly associated with:: (A) Cardiac anomalies, (B) Duodenal atresia, (C) CMS abnormalities, (D) Abdominal wall defects | Answer is A. Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th editionExplanation:Anorectal malformations (ARMs)or Imperforate anusThese are birth defects in which the rectum is malformed.The cause of ARMs is unknownThe genetic basis of these anomalies is very complexAnorectal Malformation in Currarino Syndrome represent t... | |
A transection made at the lower end of medulla through the pyramids would cause all/except:: (A) In coordination, (B) Involuntary movements, (C) Spasticity, (D) Increased tendon reflexes | Answer is B. B. i.e. Involuantry movements LMN involves anterior horn cells, anterior spinal nerve root and peripheral nerve.- Involuantry movements & tremors are characteristic features of extrapyramidal disorder- Inocordination (ataxia) is mostly seen in cerebellar lesions but UMN lesions may also present with incord... | |
A 48-year-old woman presents with complaints of moderate weight loss over the past 6 months, heat intolerance, palpitations, and fine tremors in the hands. Physical examination reveals the presence of a diffuse goiter and exophthalmos. Which of the following laboratory findings would be expected in this individual?: (A... | Answer is D. The description given above is of an individual with Graves' disease. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone because of stimulation of the TSH receptor by thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins results in excessive movement of thyroglobulin from the colloid to the plasma. The presence of exophthalmos is thought to... | |
Causative agent of malaria -: (A) Protozoa, (B) Mosquito, (C) Bacteria, (D) Virus | Answer is A. Malarial parasite infecting human belongs to genus plasmodium. P.vivax, P.falciparum,P.malariae,p.ovale.They are protozoa causing malaria in man.In India P.vivax and P. Falciparum are very common.(refer pgno:54 baveja 3 rd edition) | |
Morbid jealousy is diagnostic of-: (A) Cocaine, (B) Cannabis, (C) Alcoholism, (D) Tabacco Intoxication | Answer is C. Morbid (pathological) jealousy is seen in alcoholism. | |
All of the following have a causative association with primary epistaxis in an elderly patient except:: (A) Winter season, (B) NSAIDs, (C) Alcohol Consumption, (D) Hypeension | Answer is D. Factors associated with Primary adult Epistaxis: 1. CHRONOBIOLOGY The frequency of admission is greatest in the autumn and winter months.This seasonal variation correlates with fluctuations in environmental temperature and humidity. A chronobiological rhythm is also observed at the circadian level where on... | |
Calabar swelling is produced by-: (A) Onchocerca volvulus, (B) Loa loa, (C) Brugia malayi, (D) Wuchereria bancrofti | Answer is B. Calabar Swelling: Localized angioedema and erythema usually on the extremities, characterized by fugitive, swollen lumps of subcutaneous tissue caused by a parasitic filarial worm (Loa loa) endemic to Central and West Africa.
The swollen areas migrate with the worm through the body at a speed of about 1 cm... | |
Following several days of 12-hour daily rehearsals of the symphony orchestra for a performance of a Wagnerian opera, the 52-year-old male conductor experienced such excruciating pain in the posterior aspect of his right forearm that he could no longer direct the musicians. When the maestro's forearm was palpated 2 cm d... | Answer is D. The Deep radial nerve courses between the two heads of the supinator and is located just medial and distal to the lateral epicondyle. It can be compressed by hyperophy of the supinator causing pain and weakness. The Median nerve passes into the forearm flexor compament. Superficial radial nerve courses dow... | |
Which of the following will occur in an exclusively breast fed baby -: (A) Jaundice, (B) Scurvy, (C) Tetany, (D) Eczema | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Jaundice o "13% of breast fed infants develop unconjugated hyperlbilirubinemia in the 1st week of life. The breast fed infants have higher, bilirubin levels than formula fed infants." o It is due to inhibitory substances (Pregananediol and free fatty acids) in breast milk that interfere w... | |
In school water fluoridation, amount of F used is:: (A) 0.7-1.2 ppm, (B) 1.6-3 ppm, (C) 3-4 ppm, (D) 12 ppm | Answer is C. None | |
The chemotherapy drug fluorouracil undergoes a series of chemical changes in vivo that result in a covalent complex such that it is bound to both thymidylate synthase and methylene-tetrahydrofolate. The inhibition of deoxythymidilate formation and subsequent blockage of cell division is due to: (A) Allosteric inhibitio... | Answer is C. Since rapidly multiplying cancer cells are dependent upon the synthesis of deoxythymidilate (dTMP) from deoxyuridylate (dUMP), a prime target in cancer therapy has been inhibition of dTMP synthesis. The anticancer drug fluorouracil is conveed in vivo to fluorodeoxyuridylate (FdUMP), which is an analogue of... | |
In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea, you order serum prolactin and b-hCG assays. The pregnancy test is positive, and the prolactin comes back at 100 ng/mL (normal <25 ng/mL in this assay). This patient requires: (A) Routine obstetric care, (B) Computed tomography (CT) scan o... | Answer is A. There is a marked increase in levels of serum prolactin during gestation to over 10 times those values found in nonpregnant women. If this woman were not pregnant, the prolactin value could easily explain the amenorrhea and further evaluation of hyperprolactinemia would be necessary. The physiologic signif... | |
Knee with leg x- ray of an adolescent boy is shown. Probable diagnosis:: (A) Chondromyxoid fibroma, (B) Osteosarcoma, (C) Bone cyst with fracture, (D) Osteitis Fibrosis cystica | Answer is A. Chondromyxoid Fibroma Disease of adolescent Knee X-ray Sclerotic lesion around the coex in the tibia. . Small eccentric lytic lesion which lie parallel to the long axis of the bone. * Bone cyst with fracture will show a larger lesion and is mostly unilateral. * Osteitis Fibrosis cystica will present with m... | |
Centrilobular necrosis of liver may be seen with -: (A) Phosphorus, (B) Arsenic, (C) CCI4, (D) Ethanol | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., CC14 Hepatocellular necrosis: - o Liver necrosis is a common manifestation of many liver diseases and it can present in various ways, o If severe it can cause liver failure. o In some cases however the necrosis is subclinical, revealed only by elevations of liver enzymes in serum, o Vario... | |
Most diffusable ion in excitable tissue is -: (A) Na+, (B) K+, (C) PO4-, (D) Cl- | Answer is B. Points to note
Concentration of ions
Na+ concentration higher in ECF
K+ concentration higher in ICF
Cl- concentration higher in ECF
K+ leak channels allow K+ to move from ICF to ECF
Na+ is prevented from entering the cell.
Thus diffusion is highest for K+, then Cl- and least for Na+, when the cell is at... | |
which of the following tricyclic antidepressent used for peripheral neuropathy: (A) amitriptilline, (B) clomipramine, (C) fluoxetine, (D) imipramine | Answer is A. TCA * MECHANISM This is an antidepressant with three rings. It acts by blocking the transpoers of neurotransmitters resulting in increased neurotransmitters in synapse DRUGS AMITRYPTILLINE IMIPRAMINE CLOMIPRAMINE DESIPRAMINE NORIPTILLINE DOXEPINE * USE AMITRYPTILLINE========PAIN WITH DEPRESSION IMIPRAMINE=... | |
Which aery does not contribute to Little's area: (A) Septal branch of facial aery, (B) Anterior ethmoidal aery, (C) Sphenopalantine aery, (D) Posterior ethmoidal aery | Answer is D. LITTLE'S AREA (Anterior inferior pa of nasal septum) - Usual site for epistaxis in children. Four Aeries anastomose here and form Kiesselbach's Plexus. Anterior ethmoidal aery(Ophthalmic aery) Sphenopalatine(Maxillary aery) Septal branch of superior labial(Facial aery) Greater palatine aery(Maxillary aery)... | |
Erythrophagia and Mononuclear cell infiltration ulcers are seen in -: (A) Necrotising colitis, (B) Ulcerative colitis, (C) Crohn's disease, (D) Typhoid ulcers | Answer is D. Erythrophagocytosis (erythrophagia) is characteristic of typhoid ulcer. | |
Velvety appearance of stomach is seen in poisoning with:(1995): (A) Abrus precatorius, (B) Barbiturates, (C) Arsenic, (D) lead | Answer is C. Ans: cRef: Parikh, 6th ed, p. 9.10 and 5th ed, p. 748 | |
All are used for the treatment of Pulmonary hypeension except: (A) Endothelin receptor antagonist, (B) Phosphodiesterase inhibitors, (C) Calcium channel blockers, (D) Beta blockers | Answer is D. Refer kDT 6/e p 297 Vasodilators are used for the treatment of Pulmonary hypeension. Treatments include: endothelin receptor antagonists - such as bosentan, ambrisentan and macitentan phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors - sildenafil and tadalafil prostaglandins - epoprostenol, iloprost and treprostinil soluble ... | |
Which of the following is the national level system that provides annual national as well as state level reliable estimation of feility and moality -: (A) Civil registration system, (B) Census, (C) Adhoc survey, (D) Sample registration system | Answer is D. . | |
The classification proposed by the International Lymphoma Study Group for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is known as:: (A) Kiel classification, (B) REAL classification, (C) WHO classification, (D) Rappapo classification | Answer is B. Answer is B (REAL Classification) In 1994, a group of hematopathologists, oncologists and molecular biologists came together (International Lymphoma Study Group) and introduced a new classification, called the 'Revised European-American Classification of Lymphoid Neoplasms (REAL). WHO has now reviewed and ... | |
Normal intracranial pressure in a child is:: (A) < 5mm of Hg, (B) 50-80 mm of Hg, (C) 10-15 mm of Hg, (D) 20-30 mm of Hg | Answer is C. Normal intracranial pressures : - Newborns : < 5mm of Hg - Infants : 6-15 mm of Hg - Children : 10-15mm of Hg ICP is considered severely elevated, if raised above 40mm of Hg | |
MIC-2 is a marker of? -: (A) Ewing sarcoma, (B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, (C) Mantle cell lymphoma, (D) All of these | Answer is A. Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition In Ewings sarcoma - the cell surface marker by the tumor cells of ES / PNET group is CD99 which is a product of MIC2 gene located on X and Y chromosome. . | |
Cause of hairy leukoplakia which is characterised by severe discomfort on lateral part of the tongue: (A) HIV, (B) EBV, (C) Herpes virus, (D) HPV | Answer is B. (B) EBV # Hairy leukoplakia is a distinctive oral lesion that is seen in immunocompromised patients.> Approximately 80% of patients with hairy leukoplakia have been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); the presence of this lesion sometimes calls attention to the existence of the infection.... | |
Which of the following is an impoant disinfectant on account of effectively destroying gram positive and gram negative bacteria, viruses and even spores at low pH levels -: (A) Phenol, (B) Alcohol, (C) Chlorine, (D) Hexachlorophene | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chlorine | |
Which of the following infection, if occurs in the first trimester, leads to maximum incidence of congenital malformations: March 2010: (A) Rubella, (B) Toxoplasmosis, (C) CMV, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. A: Rubella T = toxoplasmosis: Caused by protozoan - Toxoplasma gondii - Domestic cat is the definitive host with infections : Ingestion of cysts (meats, garden products), Contact with oocysts in feces - Much higher prevalence of infection in European countries - Acute infection usually asymptomatic 1/... | |
All are antioxidant except -: (A) Vitamin A, (B) Catalase, (C) Cystein, (D) Glutamine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Glutamineo There are two types of antioxidant systems :-Enzymatic antioxidant systemThis includeCatalaseSuperoxide dismutase (SOD)Glutathione peroxidaseNon-enzymatic antioxidant systemThis is further subdivided intoVitamins : Vitamin E, Vitamin A & beta carotene. Vitamin C.Minerals : Sele... | |
Patient because of positive biopsy findings and negative workup undergoes a radical prostatectomy. The pathology repo reveals Gleason score 9/10 and involvement of several pelvic lymph nodes. Which is the most likely site for prostatic cancer metastasis?: (A) Liver, (B) Kidney, (C) Lung, (D) Bone | Answer is D. Bone metastasis is a characteristic feature of prostatic cancer. The lesions are typically osteoblastic on x-ray, and the serum acid phosphatase level becomes elevated | |
Ahus reaction is what type of hypersensitivity reaction: (A) Localized immune complex, (B) Ag- Ab reaction, (C) Complement mediated, (D) Ab mediated | Answer is A. Ahus reaction Localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from acute immune complex vasculitis, usually elicited in the skin. "SHARP" S- Serum sickness, Schick test, SLE H- HS pneumonitis (Farmers lung), HSP A- Ahus reaction R- Reactive ahritis, RA, Raji assay P - PAN, PSGN | |
Investigation of choice for dysphagia for solids:: (A) Barium swallow, (B) Endoscopy, (C) X-ray chest, (D) C.T. scan | Answer is D. Answer is D (Manometry) Esophageal manometry is the gold standard test for esophageal motility disorders. Esophageal Motility Disorders : Manometry is the test of choice Achalasia Cardia Diffuse Oesophageal Spasm (Discoordinated motility) Nutcracker Oesophagus (Hypercontractile motility) Hypeensive LES (Hy... | |
The following anticancer drug has high emetogenic potential: (A) Chlorambucil, (B) Vincristine, (C) 6-Mercaptopurine, (D) Cisplatin | Answer is D. PLATINUM COORDINATION COMPLEXES Cisplatin Mech of action:- It is hydrolysed intracellularly to produce a highly reactive moiety which causes cross linking of DNA. The oured site is N7 of guanine residue. Adverse effects:- It is a highly emetic drug. Antiemetics are routinely administered before infusing it... | |
Spironolactone should not be given with: (A) Chlohiazide, (B) Beta blockers, (C) ACE inhibitors, (D) Amlodipine | Answer is C. Sprinolanctone is a potassium sparing diurectic It doesn't excrete potassium - increasing potassium levels in the blood ACE IN. also increases potassium levels in the blood Hence the combination is contraindicated Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | |
A total of 5000 patients of glaucoma are identified and surveyed by patient interviews regarding family history of glaucoma. Such a study design is called-: (A) Case series repo, (B) Case control study, (C) Clinical trial, (D) Coho study | Answer is A. Case series repo: A case series repo is a descriptive study where in more than one patients having a paicular disease are studied. No cause related analysis or hypothesis testing is involved. Case control study: Backward looking/ retrospective study in which multiple risk factors are studied together. Odd'... | |
Based upon this PA ulnar detion view of the wrist, what is the MOST likely diagnosis?: (A) Osteomyelitis, (B) De Quervain tenosynovitis, (C) Hyperophic osteoahropathy, (D) Rheumatoid ahritis | Answer is B. There is focal periostitis at the radial styloid. The radial styloid itself is normal. This is secondary to adjacent inflammation at the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons (De Quervains tenosynovitis). The periosteal reaction of osteomyelitis is usually associated with abnormal u... | |
Turbinate that aiculates with ethmoid is:: (A) superior, (B) Middle, (C) Inferior, (D) All the above | Answer is C. Middle turbinate and superior turbinate are a pa of the ethmoidal bone where as inferior turbinate is an independant bone which aiculates with the ethmoid bone,completing the medial wall of Nasolacrimal duct. Ref. Scotts Brown 7/e,Vol 2 p 1329. | |
An enzyme that recognizes a specific (palindromic) sequence and cuts within a DNA molecule is?: (A) Exonuclease, (B) Methylase, (C) Modification enzyme, (D) Restriction endonuclease | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) Restriction endonucleaseREF: Basic Genetics: Textbook and Activities by Ahmed Abouelmagd, Hussein M. Ageely page 117A palindromic sequence is a nucleic acid sequence {DNA or RNA) that is the same whether read 5' (five-prime) to 3' (three prime) on one strand or 5' to 3' on the complementary str... | |
In pontaic fever, which antigen is seen in urine-: (A) Group specific antigen of Legionella serogroup- 1 (LP 1), (B) Group specific antigen of L egionella serogroup- 1. (LP 2), (C) Group specific antigen of Legionella serogroup- 4 (LP 4), (D) Group specific antigen of Legionella serogroup- 6 (LP 6) | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Group specific antigen of Legionella serogroup-1 (LP1) o The examination of urine for legionella antigen by ELISA is a rapid and specific method for identifying L pneumophila,o However, disadvantage of urine antigen test is that it only detects Legionella pneumophila serogroup 1 (LP-1) an... | |
A patient with Hypeension presents with Hypokalemia. Aldosterone levels and Renin levels are both elevated. The most likely diagnosis is: (A) Renal Aery stenosis, (B) Primary Hyperaldosteronism {Conn's syndrome}, (C) Addison's disease, (D) Cushing's syndrome | Answer is A. Answer- A. Renal Aery stenosisThe association of High aldosterone and High Renin levels in a hypeensive patient with hypokalemia suggests a diagnosis ofSecondary Hyperaldosteronism of from Renal Aery Stenosis. | |
Mycosis fungoides: March 2013: (A) Cutaneous T cell lymphoma, (B) Fungal infection, (C) Bacterial infection, (D) Cutaneous B cell lymphoma | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Cutaneous T cell lymphoma Mycosis fungoides Mycosis fungoides is also known as: Cutaneous T cell lymphoma, Special features: - MC skin lymphoma, - Pautrier's microabscesses - Presents with diffuse erythroderma | |
Me Callum patch is seen in the:(1988): (A) Right atrium, (B) Left atrium, (C) Left ventricle, (D) Right ventricle | Answer is B. Ans: b | |
The main catabolic product/products of purine nuleotides in humans is which one of the following:: (A) Ammonia + CO2, (B) Ammonia, (C) Uric Acid, (D) CO2 and Water | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Uric AcidRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th edn. pg. 347-357Purines are metabolized by several enzymes:GUANINE* A nuclease frees the nucleotide* A nucleotidase creates guanosine* Purine nucleoside phosphorylase converts guanosine to guanine* Guanase converts guanine to xanthine* Xanthine oxidase (a ... | |
Intraoperative Radiotherapy for treating pancreatic carcinoma mainly uses: (A) Alpha Rays, (B) Gamma Rays, (C) Electron Beam, (D) Proton beam | Answer is C. Electron Beam is preferred for intraoperative Radiotherapy. The Intraoperative radiotherapy (IO) appears to be an ideal therapeutic strategy for pancreatic cancer, Having the advantage of enabling the delivery of high doses of radiation to areas that are at risk for microscopic disease, saving critical org... | |
Distally, Gubernaculum attaches to all except:-: (A) Pubic symphysis, (B) Superficial perineal pouch, (C) Anterior superior iliac spine, (D) Inguinal ligament | Answer is D. Gubernaculum is the fibro muscular band which helps in descent of testes. Proximally, it is attached to:- Lower pole of testis. Peritoneum of saccus vaginalis in front of testis. Mesonephric duct. Distally, it is attached to:- Bottom of scrotum. Superficial perineal pouch. Pubic symphysis above penis. Saph... | |
MMR (Measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine is an example of:: (A) Live attenuated vaccine, (B) Conjugated vaccine, (C) Polysaccharide vaccine, (D) Killed vaccine | Answer is A. Ans: a. Live attenuated.. LIVE ATTENUATEDKILLED WHOLE ORGANISMTOXOID PROTEINSPOLYSACCHARIDEGLYCOCONJUGATERCOMBINANTBCG, Yellow fever, OPV, Measles, Mumps, Rubella,Typhoid, Varicella,Rotavirus, Cholera,Cold-adapted influenza,Rotavirus reassoants.ZostTyphoid, Cholera, Plague,Peussis, Influenza,Typhus, lPV, R... | |
Which is the most common aerobic bacteria found in vagina?: (A) Lactobacilli, (B) Gardnerella, (C) Mobilincus, (D) Clostridium | Answer is A. Normal vaginal flora is mostly aerobic with an average of six different species of bacteria, most common of which is hydrogen peroxide producing lactobacilli. Other commonly found aerobic bacteria found in the vagina are Diphtheroids, Streptococci, Staphylococcus epidermidis and Gardenella vaginalis. Most ... | |
A 30 year old male presents with severe pain chest, breathlessness, hypotension and ECG shows ST elevation in V3, V4 V5 and V6 leads. He will be best treated with:: (A) Streptokinase, (B) t-PA, (C) Heparin, (D) PTCA | Answer is D. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PCTA or angioplasty) is a procedure that is commonly performed on people with hea disease. This procedure is done to open up the blood vessel to allow the blood to pass through more easily PTCA is a minimally invasive procedure to open up blocked coronary aer... | |
Figure B shows:: (A) Spinal tap needle, (B) Shortened Spinal tap needle assembled with H file, (C) Side vent needle for irrigation, (D) Needle with file for simultaneous filing and irrigation | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following-is the first sign of sexual maturity in boys?: (A) Increase in height, (B) Appearance of facial hair, (C) Change in voice, (D) Increase in testicular size | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Increase in testicular sizePlease refer explanation of question 40 | |
Thomsen friedensreich phenomenon is -: (A) Red cells infection by CMV, (B) Red cell agglutination by all blood group sera, (C) Hemolysis of transfused blood, (D) Due to B antigen | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Red cell agglutination by all blood group sera Thomsen-Freidenreich Phenomenono Red cell suspensions contaminated with certain bacteria, e.g. pseudomonas aeruginosa, become aggluiinable by alt blood group sera and even by normal human sera,o This is known as Thomsen Friedenreich phenomeno... | |
In mood disorder, rapid cyclers are defined as: (A) 4 or more episodes per year, (B) Mania occuring during summer, (C) Mania consistent during lunar year, (D) Depressive episodes during winter | Answer is A. (A) 4 or more episodes per year# Rapid cycling:> Most people who meet criteria for bipolar disorder experience a number of episodes, on average 0.4 to 0.7 per year, lasting three to six months.> Rapid cycling, however, is a course specifier that may be applied to any of the above subtypes. It is defined as... | |
Best marker of SLE?: (A) Anti Sm antibodies, (B) Anti-ds DNA antibodies, (C) Anti-Histone antibodies, (D) Anti Ro (SS-A) antibodies | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Anti-ds DNA antibodies(Ref: Harrison 18th/chapter 319)Anti dsDNA is specific for SLE, only in high titers;But still, anti ds DNA is the best marker for SLE because its prevalence in SLE is 70%;Whereas, Anti Sm antibody, which is specific for SLE, but is seen in only 25% patients with SLE | |
Enzyme deficiency in Hurler syndrome?: (A) Iduronate sulfatase, (B) a-l-Iduronidase, (C) b-Galactosidase, (D) Galactosamine 6-sulfatase | Answer is B. Disease name Abbretion Enzyme Defective GaG(s) affected Symptoms Hurler syndrome MPS I a-l-Iduronidase Dermatan sulfate, Heparan sulfate Mental retardation, coarse facial features, hepatosplenomegaly, cloudy cornea Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no:639; Table: 50-8 | |
Which of the following is a prodrug ?: (A) Lisinopril, (B) Enalapril, (C) Chlorpromazine, (D) Dopamine | Answer is B. All ACE inhibitors are prodrugs except captopril and lisinopril. | |
When the sympathetic nervous system is activated:: (A) Norepinephrine is released by the vascular smooth muscle cells, (B) Acetylcholine is released onto vascular smooth muscle cells, (C) Norepinephrine is released from axons onto the arteriolar wall, (D) The arterioles constrict because nitric oxide production is supp... | Answer is C. Ans. C. Norepinephrine is released from axons onto the arteriolar wallNerve fibers, not vascular smooth muscle, release norepinephrine. The norepinephrine from the sympathetic nerves simply diffuses from the axons and binds to specific receptors on smooth muscle cells. | |
Histological finding in Reye&;s syndrome is: (A) Budding and branching of mitochondria, (B) Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum, (C) Para nuclear micro dense deposits, (D) Glycogen depletion | Answer is D. Reyes syndrome characterised by mitochondrial injury and decreased synthesis of mitochondrial enzymes in liver. Which leads to rise in blood ammonia and accumulation of triglycerides within hepatocytes. TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY HARSH MOHAN 6TH EDITION PAGE 602 | |
All of the following play a significant role in bone resorption except:: (A) Parathyroid hormone., (B) Interleukin1., (C) Interleukin6., (D) Interferon-gamma. | Answer is D. Pro-resorptive factors are hormones and cytokines are:-
PTH (Parathyroid hormone)
1,25dihydroxyvitamin D3,
IL-1
IL-6
TNF (Tumour necrosis factor)
LIF (Leukaemia inhibitory factor)
Corticosteroids, which activate osteoblasts and stroma cells to produce RANKL and depress OPG. | |
Surgical treatment for asymptomatic uterine myoma is indicated if: (A) If myoma is pedunculated, (B) Tumour is larger than size of 3months pregnancy, (C) Diagnosis is unceain, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Management of myomas: Asymptomatic : observation with regular follow up Size < 12 weeks Uncomplicated pregnancy with fibroid Surgery: Size > 12weeks Cornual fibroid causing infeility Pedunculated cornual fibroid Pregnancy with torsion of pedunculated fibroid Symptomatic myoma: Medical: Hormones to shrink t... |
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