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Tympanic membrane develops from?: (A) Mesoderm, (B) Endoderm, (C) Ectoderm, (D) All three germ layers | Answer is D. Ans. (d) All three germ layersRef: Longman's medical embryology 12th ed. / 326 | |
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma arises form: (A) Epithelium, (B) Myoepithelium, (C) Acinus, (D) Mucin secreting and epidermal cells | Answer is D. Mucoepidermoid carcinomas are composed of variable mixtures of squamous cells, mucus-secreting cells, and intermediate cells. "The low-grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma is composed of largely mucin-secreting cells, whereas in high-grade tumors, the epidermoid cells predominate." They are the most common malig... | |
Parasites causing lung infestation are -: (A) H. Nana, (B) Paragonimus westermanii, (C) Taenia saginata, (D) E. granulosus | Answer is B. The worm lie in the lung parenchyma and are surrounded by a fibrous capsule formed by host tissue.Inflammatory reaction to the worms and their eggs lead to granuloma formation,cystic dilatation of bronchi,abscesses and pneumonitis.Patient present with cough,chest pain and haemoptysis (refer pgno:131 baveja... | |
Culex mosquito is a vector for:: (A) Chikungunya fever, (B) Dengue fever, (C) Japanese encephalitis, (D) Malaria | Answer is C. ANOPHELES CULEX AEDES MANSONIA Boat shaped Small in clusters Single ; Cigar shaped Star shaped ; in clusters Rest parallel to water surface Rest at an angle to water surface Rest at an angle to water surface Attached to roots of Aquatic plants - Sits by making an angle of 45o with surface - Have straight b... | |
True statement about diphtheria toxin is: (A) Toxin is phage mediated, (B) Toxin is required for local infection, (C) Endotoxaemia causes systemic manifestation, (D) Toxin acts by inhibiting synthesis of capsule | Answer is A. Toxigenicity of the diphtheria bacilli depends on the presence in it of corynephages which acts as the genetic determinant controlling toxin production. The diphtheria toxin acts by inhibiting protein synthesis. Specifically, a fragment B heparin binding and fragment A inhibits polypeptide chain elongation... | |
All except one are formulas used to calculate fluid replacement in burns patient: (A) Brooke formula, (B) Evan's formula, (C) Parkland regime, (D) Holiday segar formula | Answer is D. Holiday segar formula is not used to calculate fluid replacement in burns patient. | |
Drug of choice for multidrug resistant staphylococcus aureus is:: (A) Clindamicin, (B) Streptogramins, (C) Vancomycin, (D) Aztreonam | Answer is C. Ans: c (Vancomycin)Ref: Harrison 16 ed pg. 821, KDT 6 ed. Pg.732Vancomycin is the drug of choice for MRS A. Quinupristin and dalfopristin are both streptogramin antibiotics that act on MRSA and VRSA. They are used mainly for VRSA.Drugs useful against MRSA:Vancomycin Cotrimoxazole Doxycycline Minocycline Fl... | |
A 26 year old female patient complains of discoloration with her upper front teeth. Intra-oral examination reveals intrinsic staining with maxillary incisors. Dentist prepares the tooth to receive veneers. This type of margin design is called as:: (A) Chromatic induction, (B) Blending effect, (C) Chromatic assimilation... | Answer is B. The blending effect is predominantly related to smaller restorations, surrounded by hard dental tissues, such as composite restorations. It can reduce suboptimal shade matches due to operational error or lack of satisfactory match in the shade guide or restorative material. The veneers designed with “conta... | |
A 2 year old born out of consanguineous marriage, had a history of the collodion membrane. He had large, thick, plate-like brown scaling generalized distribution; no erythroderma and ectropion. Which disease is it?: (A) Ichthyosis vulgaris, (B) Lamellar ichthyosis, (C) X linked ichthyosis, (D) Netherton syndrome | Answer is B. Ans. B. Lamellar ichthyosisLamellar ichthyosis (LI)* Collodion baby at birth as the baby is covered by a thickened collodion-like membrane which is then shed* Scaling occurs over the whole body, including creases and bends* The scale in LI is typically large, dark brown or grey and firmly adherent* Droopin... | |
Carey coombs murmur, which is false -: (A) Delayed diastolic murmur, (B) Seen in rheumatic fever, (C) Can be associated with A.R., (D) Low pitched murmur | Answer is A. A sho, mid-diastolic murmur is rarely heard during an episode of acute rheumatic fever (Carey-Coombs murmur) and probably is due to flow through an edematous mitral valve. An opening snap is not present in the acute phase, and the murmur dissipates with resolution of the acute attack. Complete hea block wi... | |
Tolvaptan is approved for use in-: (A) High Na, (B) High K, (C) High Ca, (D) Low Na | Answer is D. Tolvaptan is a vasopressor receptor antagonist used to correct hyponatremia in the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate water excretion or SIADH :-
Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH is caused due to excesive secretion of antiduretic hormone.
Antidiuertic hormone (ADH) or arginine vasopressin is ... | |
Organ most vulnerable to ischaemic due to shock?: (A) Lungs, (B) Adrenals, (C) Kidney, (D) Hea | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hea o The susceptibility of a tissue to hypoxia influences the likelihood of infarction. o Neurons are most sensitive to hypoxia (irreversible changes develop in 3-4 minutes) followed by myocardial cells (irrversible changes develop in 20-40 minutes). o Fibroblasts are amongst the most re... | |
After premature delivery, mother's milk is low in: (A) Lactose, (B) Fat, (C) Protein, (D) Sodium | Answer is A. Ans. a (Lactose) (Ref OP Ghai 6th/ p. 158; 7th/p. 131, 134)After premature delivery, mother's milk is low in:# Calcium # Phosphates # LactoseADVANTAGES OF BREAST MILK# Docosahexanoic acid (DHA, W3, 2:3) present in breast milk helps in brain development.# Maximum synthesis of breast milk occurs at 12 months... | |
Alkaline douch solution of nose does not contain:: (A) NaCI, (B) Na biborate, (C) NaHCO3, (D) Glucose | Answer is D. Ans. D Nasal irrigation and removal of crusts - warm normal saline or an alkaline solution made by Soda bicarbonate 1 pa Sodium biborate 1 pa Sodium chloride 2 pas in 280 ml of water Initially irrigation are done 2 or 3 times a day but later every 2 or 3 days is sufficient 25 % glucose in glycerine - nose ... | |
True about tumor lysis syndrome -a) Hyperkalemiab) Hypercalcemiac) Lactic acid d) Hyperuricemia: (A) b, (B) c, (C) ad, (D) ab | Answer is C. None | |
Shoest acting anticholinesterase is -: (A) Edrophonium, (B) Pyridostigmine, (C) Glycopyrrolate, (D) Neostigmine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Edrophonium o Edrophonium is the shoest acting anti-ChE. o Why is it so, lets see : o When carbamates (other than edrophonium) and organophophates react with cholinesterase, they form covalent bond at esteratic site, which is considerably resistant to hydrolysis. o In contrast, edrophoniu... | |
Injury to the nerve originating from C5 in Brachial plexus leads to: (A) Loss of abduction of the arm, (B) Loss of abduction of arm, (C) Loss of shrugging, (D) Winging of scapula | Answer is D. The question speaks of Dorsal scapular nerve on whose damage leads to winging of scapula. | |
All of the following are presentin pterygomandibular space except: (A) Nerve to mylohyoid, (B) Chorda tympani, (C) Long buccal nerve, (D) Nerve to pterygoid | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following features is not included in psychosis: (A) Panic attack, (B) Delusion, (C) Hallucination, (D) Hypochondriasis | Answer is A. A i.e. Panic attack - Hypochondrial symptoms are commonly present in major depression. Panic attacksQ (generalized anxiety disorder) is a neurotic disorder Delusion & hallucinations are common in psychosis (MDP, Schizophrenia & delusional disorder). | |
True about composition of hospital waste: (A) Metal 1%, (B) Paper 10%, (C) Glass 5%, (D) Infectious waste 3% | Answer is A. - the average composition of hospital wastes in India is; - 15% - 10% metals- 1% infectious wastes-1.5% -4% wastes-53.5% Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:790, table 2. <\p> | |
Spring catarrah is -: (A) Type I hypersensitivity reaction, (B) Type II hypersensitivity reaction, (C) Type III hypersensitivity reaction, (D) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction | Answer is A. It is considered a hypersensitivity reaction to some exogenous allergen, such as grass pollens. VKC is thought to be an atopic allergic disorder in many cases, in which IgE-mediated mechanisms play an impoant role. Such patients may give personal or family history of other atopic diseases such as hay fever... | |
Most common histological type of thyroid carcinoma is: (A) Follicular type, (B) Papillary type, (C) Anaplastic type, (D) Medullary type | Answer is B. (B) Papillary type # Morphological variants of thyroid carcinoma and their approximate frequencies are: Papillary carcinoma 75-85% Follicular carcinoma 10-20% Medullary carcinoma 5% Anaplastic carcinoma < 5%> Histology type Incidence Papillary 80% Follicular 10% Medullary 5% Anaplastic 1 %> Papillary carci... | |
Which vitamin deficiency may be observed in a patient on INH therapy: September 2012: (A) Thiamine, (B) Pyridoxine, (C) Folic acid, (D) Cyanocobalamin | Answer is B. Ans: B i.e. Pyridoxine The main cause of pyridoxine deficiency is a lack of pyridoxine in the diet. Another cause of vitamin B6 deficiency is the use of the ATT medication isoniazid, and for this reason, it is usually replaced with vitamin B6 whilst using this drug. | |
Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in -: (A) Microcytic hypochronic anemia, (B) Sideroblastic anemia, (C) Megaloblastic anemia, (D) Hemolytic anemia | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Megaloblastic anemia Findings of megaloblastic anemiaPeripheral bloodo Macrocytosis i.e., megaloblastic RBC - Due to nuclear1 cytoplasmic asynchrony,o Macrocytes lack central pallor of normal RBC.o Anisopoikilocytosis - Marked variation in shape and size,o Majority of RBCs appear as macro... | |
A 20-year-old male presented with high-grade fever, groin pain and a swollen scrotum for 1 week and are worsening progressively. On examination, Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy Scrotal swelling with hydrocoele Lymphatic streaking Blood samples are taken and a parasite infection is suspected. Which of the following is t... | Answer is A. This is a case of filariasis (acute lymphadenitis) due to Wuchereria bancrofti. Microfilariae are found in blood, hydrocoele and other body fluids. 1 Wuchereria bancrofti Sheath, no nuclei in the tip of the tail 2 Brugia malayi Sheath, 2 distinct nuclei in the tip of the tail 3 Loa loa Sheath, nuclei exten... | |
All causes brain lesions except: (A) Giardiasis, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Cysticercosis, (D) Bacteriodes | Answer is A. giardiasis is caused by Giardia lamblia. the parasite attaches itself to the epithelial surface of duodenum and jejunum and causes disturbance of intestinal function leading to malabsorption of fat. Patient presented with loose stool and mild steatorrhoea. .Baveja textbook of parasitology 3rd edition. | |
All of the following metabolic pathways occur in both Cytoplasm and Mitochondria, except:: (A) Glycolysis, (B) Gluconeogenesis, (C) Heme Synthesis, (D) Urea cycle | Answer is A. Ans. (a) GlycolysisRef.: Harpers Biochemistry 30th edti. /142-144* Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.* There are two major sites for gluconeogenesis, the liver and the kidneys.* The liver accounts for 90% of gluconeogenesis in the body and the remaining 10% occur in the kidney and other tissues of the body.* ... | |
Shailza, a 40-year-old female is having headache for the past 6 months. All her investigations were normal. She had several consultations and she had no relief of her symptoms. She still believes that she has some problem in her brain. Likely diagnosis could be: September 2010: (A) Acute mania, (B) Acute depression, (C... | Answer is D. Ans. D: Hypochondriasis Hypochondriasis, hypochondria refers to excessive preoccupation or worry about having a serious illness. An individual suffering from hypochondriasis is known as a hypochondriac. Often, hypochondria persists even after a physician has evaluated a person and reassured them that their... | |
Not a feature of acute aerial Occlusion ?: (A) Cyanosis, (B) Pallor, (C) Paralysis, (D) Paraesthesia | Answer is A. Ans is 'a' ie Cyanosis | |
Bajaj committee in 1986 proposed?: (A) Multipurpose health worker, (B) Manpower and planning, (C) Rural Health Service, (D) Integrated health services | Answer is B. <p> Manpower and planning. Reference:India health repo 2010,page no;132. <\p> | |
Instrument of choice for diagnosing pediatric retinal disorders: (A) OCT, (B) Fluorescein angiography, (C) Slit lamp examination, (D) Retcam | Answer is D. Retcam has been used to diagnose pediatric retinal disorders. It has a probe which is put over eye which captures the fundus photo. It can also do fluorescein angiography and is used for tele consultation too High Yield Facts *Factors responsible for ROP : Low GA is more impoant than LBW *WHO Vision 2020 p... | |
Brunner's glands are seen in -: (A) Jejunum, (B) Upper duodenum, (C) Lower duodenum, (D) Appendix | Answer is B. The presence of mucous duodenal (Brunner’s) glands in the submucosa is indicative of upper duodenum. These submucosal glands are absent in the jejunum, ileum and the entire large intestine. | |
All are seen in injury to common peroneal nerve except?: (A) Loss of sensation over sole, (B) Foot drop, (C) Injury to neck of fibula, (D) Loss of dorsiflexion of toe | Answer is A. A i.e. Loss of sensation ove soleSole is supplied by medial & lateral plantar and sural branches of tibial nerveQ anteriorly (from medial to lateral) and calcaneal branches of tibial nerveQ posteriorly (i.e. over heel). So it is not affected in common peroneal nerve injury. | |
Haemoglobin can bind to all the following except: (A) O2, (B) CO2, (C) SO2, (D) NO | Answer is C. Ans: c (SO2) Ref.Ganong 22nd ed/p.667.Hb does not bind to SO2.Functions of Hb:-It facilitates 02 transportIt facilitates C02 transportIt has an important role as a bufferIt transports NO.Hemoglobin binds NO in the lungs and releases it in the tissues, where it promotes vasodilation.In arterial blood,Total ... | |
Cadaveric spasm -a) Immediate after deathb) After 2 hours of deathc) Affects voluntary musclesd) Affects involuntary muscle: (A) ac, (B) bc, (C) ad, (D) b | Answer is A. Cadaveric spasm occurs immediately after death and affects voluntary muscles. | |
The treatment of acute myocardial infarction includes which of the following-: (A) Aspirin, (B) Heparin, (C) Alteplase, (D) Oral anticoagulants | Answer is A. Ref : harrisons-manual-of-medicine-16th-edition pg no: 622-623 TREATMENT Initial Therapy Initial goals are to: (1) quickly identify if patient is candidate for reperfusion therapy, (2) relieve pain, and (3) prevent/treat arrhythmias and mechanical complications. * Aspirin should be administered immediately... | |
An 8 year old boy presented with fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy with prior history of sore throat. There was no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows > 20% lympho-plasmacytoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is -: (A) Influenza, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Infectious mononucleosis, (D) Acute lymphobla... | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Infectious Mononucleosis Infectious mononucleosis Infectious mononucleosis : Is the most characteristic disease produced by Epstein Barr Virus Clinical features : o Most infections are asymptomatic. o Headache, Abdominal pain, chills also seen in few casees. o Fever, malaise, sore throat,... | |
In surgical anterolateral approach to tibia, incision is taken over the tibialis anterior muscle mass rather than over the shaft. What is/ are the advantages?: (A) Medially based flap, (B) Less chances of wound dehiscence, (C) Can be converted to an extensile approach, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above * In surgical anterolateral approach to tibia, incision is taken over the tibialis anterior muscle mass rather than over the shaft. Following are the advantages :i) If required can be converted to an extensile approach. Entire tibia from knee to ankle can be exposed.ii) Open... | |
A young patient had a history of fall. The physician placed his hand on the patient's chin and instruct him to rotate his head to the opposite side against resistance. But he was unable to perform the action. Which of the nerve is injured in this patient?: (A) Posterior auricular nerve, (B) 10th cranial nerve, (C) Spin... | Answer is C. The sternocleidomastoid muscle creates the borders for both the anterior and the posterior triangles of the neck, and is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI). To test the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the physician will place her hand on the patient's chin and instruct him to rotate his head to t... | |
Most common cause of death in measles is: (A) Pneumonia, (B) Meningitis, (C) Dehydration, (D) Encephalitis | Answer is A. . | |
One of the following infections is caused by anaerobic gram positive cocci: (A) Puerperal infection, (B) Food poisoning, (C) Endocarditis, (D) Septicemia | Answer is A. None | |
IQ in mild mental retardation is: (A) 50-70, (B) 35-49, (C) 20-34, (D) < 20 | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 50-70 | |
Reticulocytosis is NOT a feature of:: (A) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, (B) Following acute bleeding, (C) Hereditary spherocytosis, (D) Anemia in CRF | Answer is D. Answer is D (Anemia of chronic Renal Failure) Anemias of chronic renal failure and chronic disease are associated with low or normal reticulocyte counts. Elevated reticulocyle count is a feature of hyperproliferative anemias including PNH, hereditary spherocytosis and anemia after blood loss. | |
Feline esophagus is seen in:: (A) Eosinophilic esophagitis, (B) Radiation esophagitis, (C) GERD, (D) Carcinoma esophagus | Answer is A. - Feline esophagus is seen in both Eosinophilic Esophagitis>GERD. It is characteristic of Eosinophilic esophagitis so it serves as a better answer. - Eosinophilic Esophagitis: A barium swallow should be the first test obtained in the patient with dysphagia EE has a characterised finding often called the "R... | |
A drug which is not used to provide conscious sedation
in a child is: (A) Nitrous Oxide, (B) Chloral Hydrate, (C) Hydroxyzine, (D) Lincomycin | Answer is D. None | |
Lady with infeility with bilateral tubal block at cornua : best method of management is :: (A) Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy, (B) Hydrotubation, (C) IVF, (D) Tuboplasty | Answer is C. IVF | |
Local anesthetic action is a result of blockade of the movement of wof channels: (A) Chloride, (B) Sodium, (C) Potassium, (D) Calcium | Answer is B. LOCAL ANAESTHETICS MECHANISM OF ACTION The LAs block nerve conduction by decreasing the entry of Na+ ions during upstroke of action potential (AP). As the concentration of the LA is increased, the rate of rise of AP and maximum depolarization decreases causing slowing of conduction. Finally, local depolari... | |
Odd pair -: (A) Erythema marginatum-rheumatic fever, (B) Erythema gyrens ripens-malignancy, (C) Necrotic acral erythema-HCV, (D) Erythema chrcnieum migrans ->> malignancy | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Erythema chronicum migrans - malignancyo "Erythema gvratum repens" is a rare and characteristic rash strongly associated with malignancy .It consists of wavy erythematous concentric bands that can be figurate, gyrate or annular.These bands are arranged in parallel rings and lined by a fin... | |
Flapping tremors are seen in the following conditions except -: (A) Uremic encephalopathy, (B) Parkinsonism, (C) Hepatic encephalopathy, (D) Carbon dioxide narcosis | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following are true about rituximab except?: (A) Chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD-20 B cell antigen, (B) Most common side effect is infusion reaction, (C) First FDA drug approved for resistant lymphomas, (D) Dose independent pharmacokinetics | Answer is D. Ans. d. Dose independent pharmacokinetics (Ref: Harrison 19/e p2147,18/e p2749; Katzung 12/e p646; htt[://www.isdbweb. org/documents/file/1442_2pdf)Pharmacokinetics of rituximab (monoclonal antibodies) is dose dependent.'The rate of uptake and elimination of antibodies by target-mediated pathways is a func... | |
NOT a constituent of embalming fluid: AIIMS 08: (A) Formalin, (B) Methanol, (C) Ethanol, (D) Glycerin | Answer is C. Ans. Ethanol | |
Which of the following is true of mumps ?: (A) Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids, (B) The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargement, (C) Menigoencephalitis can precede parotitis, (D) Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infeility | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis "Aseptic meningitis may develop before, during, after or in the absence of parotitis." About other options o Mainly parotid glands are involved, but sublingual and submaxillary glands may also be involved. o Patient is infectious 4-6 days before t... | |
Which of the following is not a characteristic finding in Henoch Schonlein Purpura?: (A) Palpable purpura, (B) Nephritis, (C) Thrombocytopenia, (D) Abdominal pain | Answer is C. Henoch Schonlein Purpura is a small vessel vasculitis characterized by palpable purpura, ahralgia, gastrointestinal signs and symptoms and glomerulonephritis. Patients have a normal platelet count, other laboratory findings includes mild leukocytosis, occasional eosinophilia, normal serum complement and el... | |
False statement about selegeline is -: (A) It is a MAO -A inhibitor, (B) Does not cause cheese reaction, (C) May be used in on - off phenomenon, (D) It is used in parkinsonism | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., It is a MAO-A inhibitor o Selegeline (deprenyl) inhibitis MAO-B o Unlike nonselective MAO inhibitors, selegiline in low doses does not interfere with peripheral metabolism of dietary amine (tyramine), accumulation and hypeensive reaction (cheese reaction) does not develop, while intracere... | |
Most common cause of ARDS in children is:: (A) Aspiration, (B) Injury, (C) Severe pneumonia with sepsis, (D) DIC | Answer is C. c. Severe pneumonia with sepsis(Ref: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4/e By Brian K. Walsh p 564)Pneumonia, sepsis and aspiration are the most common cause of ARDS and ALI in children | |
The most frequently implicated antibiotic among the causes of drug induced liver injury is:: (A) Tetracycline, (B) Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid, (C) Erythromycin, (D) Nalidixic acid | Answer is B. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid : The most frequently implicated antibiotic among cases of drug-induced liver injury. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2560 | |
Which of the following is a nonmodifiable risk factor for coronary hea disease?: (A) Cigarette smoking, (B) Elevated serum cholesterol, (C) Alcoholism, (D) Age | Answer is D. park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *non modifiable risk factors for CHD :age,sex,ethnicity, genetic factors. *modifiable risk factors: obesity,alcohol,physical activity, saturated fat, socio-economic status. | |
Families which lags behind rest of community, is known as: (A) Communal family, (B) Elementary family, (C) Problem Family, (D) Broken Family | Answer is C. Problem Family: Is a family which lags behind rest of the community; underlying factors in most problem families are those of personality, relationships, backwardness, povey, illness, mental and social instability, character defects and marital disharmony. Standards of life are generally far below the acce... | |
The serum concentration in which of the following human IgG subclasses is maximum?: (A) IgG1, (B) IgG2, (C) IgG3, (D) IgG4 | Answer is A. IgG 1 - 65%, IgG2- 23%. IgG3 -8% IgG4 - 4% | |
29 year old female with history of Sjogren's syndrome presents with a 2 day episode of watery diarrhea 2 days ago. Physical examination is unremarkable. Because of her history, the physician decides to check her urine electrolytes. Urine chemistry: K = 31, Na = 100, Cl = 105. Her current diagnosis is?: (A) Renal tubula... | Answer is A. * The urine electrolytes are used to distinguish between A and diarrhea * UAG is an indirect measure of ammonium excretion * UAG = (Na + K) - Cl * UAG = ( 100 + 31 ) - 105 = 26 * A positive UAG suggest A because in the setting of diarrhea, ammonium chloride concentration in the urine would be high and the ... | |
Prolonged latent phase is seen in :: (A) Placenta prae, (B) Unripe cervix, (C) Abruptio placenta, (D) Excessive sedation | Answer is B. In primi, the latent phase is often long (about 8 hours) during which effacement occurs; the cervical dilatation averaging only 0.35 cm/hr. In multi, the latent phase is sho (about 4 hours) and effacement and dilatation occur simultaneously. Latent phase is the preparatory phase of the uterus and the cervi... | |
A 60-year-old female is having proximal muscle weakness with increased serum creatinine kinase. The probable diagnosis is:: (A) Polymyositis, (B) Dermatomyositis, (C) Inclusion body myositis, (D) Limb-girdle muscle dystrophy | Answer is A. A. It is a subacute inflammatory myopathy affecting adults, without rash, involvement of eye, family history of neuromuscular disease B. Dermatomyositis is identified by a rash preceding muscle weakness. C. Inclusion body myositis has an asymmetrical muscle involvement. D. Limb girdle muscular dystrophy an... | |
Translocation between the 2 acrocentric chromosomes with breakpoint occurring close to the centromeres, so that very large and very small chromosomes are obtained from which smaller fragment is usually lost. The type of cytogenic abnormality is:: (A) Deletion, (B) Balanced translocation, (C) Robertsonian translocation,... | Answer is C. None | |
You are in the causlity when a student, Kumar is brought in with a shoulder injury sustained while playing football. In comparing the symmetry of his two shoulders, you notice a marked elevation of the distal end of his clavicle with respect to the acromion on the injured side. X-ray exam reveals a grade III shoulder s... | Answer is B. A shoulder separation is an injury to the acromioclavicular joint. A first degree separation involves stretching the ligaments, but maintenance of the joint. A second degree separation involves tearing of the joint capsule and coracoclavicular ligament, but still continuity. A third degree separation invol... | |
A 45 years old lady present with a lump in her right breast. The lump is 4 cms in diameter with evidence of cutaneous oedema (peau d' orange), not fixed to pectoralis major muscle. The axillary lymph nodes are not enlarged. What is the status of T in T.N.M. classifcation.: (A) T
1
>2, (B) T
2
is 2-5, (C) T
3
> 5, (D)... | Answer is D. None | |
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is characterized by -a) Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemiab) ↓ed LDHc) Thrombocytopeniad) Renal failuree) Positive Coomb's test: (A) abc, (B) ad, (C) acd, (D) bde | Answer is C. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is characterized by the triad of :
Anemia (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia).
Renal failure (microangiopathy of kidney involving glomerular capillaries and arterioles).
Thrombocytopenia (due to platelet consumption).
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is mos... | |
All of the following antihistaminic agents lack anticholinergic property EXCEPT :: (A) Promethazine, (B) Astemizole, (C) Levocetirizine, (D) Loratadine | Answer is A. All the drugs listed in the question are second generation anti-histaminic agents except promethazine. | |
Totipotency of embryonic stem cell is due to that they?: (A) Can differentiate into all the tissues of embryonic or extraembryonic cell types., (B) Can differentiate into cells derived from any of the three germ layers., (C) Can differentiate only into cells of a closely related family, (D) Can differentiate only in to... | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Can differentiate into all the tissues of embryonic or extraembryonic cell types Stem cells base on their potency* Potency refers to ability of stem cells to differentiate into specialized (mature) cell type:-A. Totipotent stem cells - These cells are produced from fertilization of sperm ... | |
Copper -- T is preferably inseed postnatal after :: (A) 2 weeks, (B) 4 weeks, (C) 5 weeks, (D) 8 weeks | Answer is D. 8 weeks | |
Stress concentration in Root dentin is least with:: (A) Smooth tapered post., (B) Serrated tapered post, (C) Smooth parallel post., (D) Serrated parallel post | Answer is C. None | |
Pneumothorax of what size generally needs operative treatment?: (A) >10%, (B) >20%, (C) >30%, (D) >40% | Answer is B. Small pneumothoraxes (<20%) that are stable may be monitored if the patient has few symptoms Moderate (20%-40%) and large (>40%) pneumothoraxes nearly always are associated with persistent symptoms that cause physical limitations and require intervention. | |
Which of the following is the cause of break of glomerular basement membrane sometimes and sub epithelial deposits in electron microscopy?: (A) Membranous glomerulonephritis (MGN), (B) Focal glomerular sclerosis, (C) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN), (D) Minimal change (MCD) | Answer is A. None | |
Most Common extranodal site of Lymphoma in 14W is?: (A) CNS, (B) GIT, (C) Retroperitoneum, (D) Mediastinum | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., CNS | |
Which one of the following stains is specific for Amyloid?: (A) Periodic Acidschif (PAS), (B) Alzerian red, (C) Congo red, (D) Von -Kossa | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Congo Red "To differentiate amyloid from other hyaline deposits (eg. Collagen andfibrin), a variety of histochemical techniques are used, of which the most widely used is Congo Red " - Robbins 7th/e p. 259Staining for Amyloido Congo red : It is the most widely used specific stain for amyl... | |
Physiological uncoupler is ?: (A) Thyroxine, (B) Free fatty acids, (C) Thermogenin, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above | |
Type II hypersensitivity -: (A) Blood transfusion reaction, (B) Ahus reaction, (C) Hay Fever, (D) Glomerulonephritis | Answer is A. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, transfusion reactions,idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura,graves disease,myasthenia gravis are the examples of type 2 hypersensitivity.Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition | |
Drug used in mild hemophilia is :: (A) Corticosteroids, (B) DDAVP, (C) Vitamin K, (D) Tranexamic acid | Answer is B. None | |
Gas gangrene is caused by: March 2012: (A) Clostridium welchii, (B) Clostridium tetani, (C) Clostridium botulinum, (D) Clostridium difficile | Answer is A. Ans: A i.e. Clostridium welchii Conditions and pathogens Established pathogens (clostridium) for gas gangrene (group) includes Cl. Perfringens/ welchii, Cl. septicum & Cl. Novyi Established pathogen (clostridium) for tetnaus include Cl. Tetani Established pathogens (clostridium) for food poisoning (group) ... | |
The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is -: (A) Cytochrome P-450, (B) Glutathione S-transferase, (C) NADPH cytochrome P-450-reductase, (D) Glucuronyl transferase | Answer is A. Most important reaction in biotransformation of xenobiotics is oxidation reaction. The most important enzyme for oxidation reactions is cytochrome P450. | |
ABC transpoer ?: (A) P. glycoprotein, (B) Membrane sparing, (C) Channel, (D) Adenylyl cyclase | Answer is A. Ans. is'a' i.e., P. glycoproteinATP-binding cassette transpoers (ABCtranspoers) are integral transmembrane proteins that utilize ATP as an energy source to translocate a variety of substrates across membranes.P-glycoprotein is an ATP-binding cassette (ABC) transpoer and is an impoant factor to limit membra... | |
Site where endolymph is seen:: (A) Scala vestibuli, (B) Scala media, (C) Helicotrema, (D) Scala tympani | Answer is B. (b) Scala media(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2, page 545)Endolymph is present in the membranous labyrinth, whereas perilymph is present in the bony labyrinth.Hence scala vestibuli, scala tympani and their interconnection helicotrema, which are parts of bony labyrinth, are filled with perilymph.Scala medi... | |
Which of the following drug is an inverse agonist at H3 receptors used for Narcolepsy?: (A) Dexmedetomidine, (B) Pitolisant, (C) Icatibont, (D) Secukinumab | Answer is B. Pitolisant (Tiprolisant) is a inverse agonist of H3 receptors approved for Narcolepsy. H3 receptors are presynaptic receptors and inverse agonist will lead to increased histamine release and promote wakefulness. | |
Not true regarding Pectus excavatum?: (A) Heart shifted towards left side, (B) Features may suggest RML consolidation, (C) Anterior ribs are more vertically oriented - 7 shaped ribs, (D) Heart shifted towards right side. | Answer is D. Ans DIn pectus excavatum the heart is shifted towards left side. As right heart border goes behind the sternum it is obscured and can thus mimic right middle lobe disease. | |
Whip-lash' injury is caused due to: (A) A fall from a height, (B) Acute hyperextension of the spine, (C) A blow on top to head, (D) Acute hyperflexion of the spine | Answer is B. B i.e. Acute hyperextension of the spine | |
How to differentiate between staphylococci and micrococci?: (A) Catalase test, (B) Modified Oxidase test, (C) Gram staining, (D) AFS | Answer is B. Micrococci:Micrococci are gram-positive cocci which occur mostly in pairs, tetrads or irregular clusters. They are catalase and modified oxidase positive and aerobic. They are ordinarily non-pathogenic. The resemble Staphylococci, but in general, they are large in size and tetrads. The common laboratory te... | |
Following are the factors for increased risk of wound infection EXCEPT: (A) Malnutrition, (B) Good blood supply, (C) Metabolic diseases (diabetes, uraemia), (D) Immunosuppression | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Good Blood Supply(Ref. Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition Page 33)Systemic Factors causing non healing of Wound:* Diabetes* Radiation* Extremes of age* Hypothermia* Hypoxemia* Hypocholesterolemia* Hyperglycemia (Even if transit)* Malnutrition* Vitamin C and A deficiency* Zinc and Iron deficiency* Drugs: St... | |
Therapeutic aboion was accepted by: (A) Declaration of Genava (1948), (B) Declaration of Oslo (1970), (C) Declaration of Helsinki, (D) Declaration of Tokyo | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Declaration of Oslo (1970) | |
A patient presents with intense chest pain of 2 hrs duration ECG shows ST depression in leads I and V1 to V4. There is associated T inversion and CPK-MB is elevated. Which of the following should be included in his management: (A) Nitroglycerine drip, (B) Aspirin, (C) i.v. metoprolol, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following is the Post - Chemotherapy based staging system used in Wilm's tumor?: (A) National Wilm's Tumor Staging System (NWTSG), (B) International Society of Pediatric Oncology (SIOP), (C) AJCC TNM Staging, (D) Chadwick Staging | Answer is B. International Society of Pediatric Oncology-SIOP staging system is the post - chemotherapy based staging system used in Wilm'stumor. Protocol of SIOP consists of initial clinical staging by physical examination, radiologic examination and neoadjuvant chemotherapy. The tumor burden is reduced by preoperativ... | |
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Neisseria meningitidis infection?: (A) It is the most common cause of meningitis in children, (B) All strains are uniformly sensitive to sulfonamides, (C) Vaccines are contraindicated in immunosuppressed, (D) In India serotype B is most common cause | Answer is A. For children >3 months old, the most common organisms are S. pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Staphylococcus aureus, with a lower incidence of S. pneumoniae meningitis since routine vaccinations with the conjugate vaccine. Penicillin has long been the treatment of choice for meningococcal infections... | |
All are true about Retained Antrum Syndrome except:: (A) Technetium 99 m scan is used for diagnosis, (B) Seen after Billroth II surgery, (C) Positive Secretin Stimulation Test, (D) Calcium Provocation test is negative | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Positive Secretin Stimulation testRef: Internet SourcesRetained Antrum Syndrome:* A complication following Billroth 2 Reconstruction, in which part of antrum and pylorus is left along with the duodenum.* Characterized by excess secretion of Gastrin from retained antrum exposed to alkaline medium i... | |
Most common adverse effect of colchicine -: (A) Diarrhoea, (B) Peptic ulcer, (C) Dyspepsia, (D) Pulmonary fibrosis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., diarrhoea "Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal pain are the most common untoward effects of colchicine". - Goodman & Gilman | |
Soft tick transmits:: (A) Relapsing fever, (B) KFD, (C) Tularemia, (D) Indian tick typhus | Answer is A. Among the given options soft tick transmits relapsing fever while the KFD, tularemia and Indian tick typhus are transmitted by hard ticks. Ref: Park Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th Edition, Pages 622-23, 634-35 | |
Diagnosis of ABO incompatiability can be from all of the following except?: (A) Sweat, (B) Saliva, (C) Semen, (D) CSF | Answer is D. Ans (d) CSF Ref Reddy , p 378 ABO group specific substances are found in high concentration in saliva, semen, vaginal secretion and gastric juice while in low concentration in sweat, tears and urine, so it is possible to determine blood group from an examination of these secretions. So for this question it... | |
A chronic alcoholic has an elevated serum alpha fetoprotein levels. Which of the following neoplasms is most likely -: (A) Prostatic adenocarcinoma, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Hepatocellular carcinoma, (D) Glioblastoma multiforme | Answer is C. Elevated levels of serum α-fetoprotein are found in 50 to 75% of patients with HCC.
False-positive results are encountered with yolk-sac tumors and many non-neoplastic conditions, including cirrhosis, massive liver necrosis, chronic hepatitis, normal pregnancy, fetal distress or death, and fetal neural tub... | |
Eaton agent is -: (A) Chlamydia, (B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae, (C) Klebsiella, (D) H. influenzae | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mycoplasma pneumoniae | |
True about primary angle closure glaucoma –a) More common in femalesb) Shallow anterior chamber is a risk factorc) Deep anterior chamber is a risk factord) Shorter diameter of cornea is a predisposing factore) Common in myopes: (A) acd, (B) abd, (C) abc, (D) ab | Answer is B. PACG is more common in females.
Shallow anterior chamber, small diameter of cornea and hypermetropic eye (not myopia) are risk factors. | |
Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by: (A) M. kansasii, (B) M. ulcerans, (C) M. chelonae, (D) M. smegmatis | Answer is C. None | |
Black foot disease is seen in?: (A) Arsenic, (B) Lead, (C) Mercury, (D) Thallium | Answer is A. None | |
Typically bilateral inferior subluxations of the lens is seen in –: (A) Marfan's syndrome, (B) Homocystinuria, (C) Hyperinsulinemia, (D) Ocular trauma | Answer is B. In Homocystinuria there is inferomedial (inferonasal) dislocation of lens. |
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