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Treatment of severe intraoral infections in children
differs from that in adult because:: (A) More children are allergic to penicillin, (B) Dehydration occurs more rapidly and severely in children, (C) Leucocytopenia develops more frequently in children, (D) Incidence of bleeding disorders is greater in children | Answer is B. Treatment of severe intraoral infections in children differs from that in adult because dehydration occurs more rapidly and severely in children. | |
An 80-year-old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Treatment of choice is:: (A) Hemimandibulectomy, (B) Commando operation, (C) Segmental mandibulectomy, (D) Marginal mandibulectomy | Answer is C. Mandibulectomy Marginal mandibulectomy Segmental mandibulectomy - Conservative mandibulectomy - Refers to paial excision of the superior poion of mandible in veical phase - Inner coical surface and a poion of underlying medullary cavity is excised - Preserve mandibular continuity - Indicated when tumor lie... | |
Which of the following is not sexually transmitted-: (A) Echinococcus, (B) Chlamydia, (C) Treponema pallidum, (D) Nesseria gonorrhae | Answer is A. Bacterial Diseases transmitted with sexual intercourse Neisseria gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis Treponema pallidum Haemophilus ducreyi Note the list does not include Haemophilus Vaginalis, the cause of bacterial vaginosis Viruses transmitted by sexual intercourse HIV (types 1 and 2) Human T-cell lymphot... | |
Which one of the following congenital heart diseases has cyanosis without cardiomegaly and/or congestive heart failure –: (A) Transposition of great arteries, (B) Fallot's tetralogy, (C) Congenital mitral regurgitaion, (D) Congenital pulmonary stenosis | Answer is B. Cardiomegaly and CHF do not occur in Fallot's tetrology.
No Cardiomegaly
First you should know the following facts : -
Pressure overload to ventricles causes concentric hypertrophy without dilatation.
Volume overload to ventricles causes hypertrophy with dilatation → Eccentric hypertrophy.
Due to pul... | |
Which drug can be given in G6PD deficiency?: (A) Chloroquine, (B) Probenecid, (C) Aminopyrine, (D) Primaquine | Answer is A. Chloroquine rarely cause hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. Drugs initiate hemolysis and should be avoided: Dapsone Methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue) Phenazopyridine Primaquine Rasburicase Tolonium chloride (toluidine blue) Nitrofurantoin, sulfonamides Aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammat... | |
Which is true of closed dental camp?: (A) Preselected area like school for camp, (B) Serving large number of people in community, (C) Resent close dental camp, (D) No such term | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is responsible for protection from ultraviolet rays: September 2011: (A) Stratum corneum, (B) Langerhans cells, (C) Apocrine sweat glands, (D) Melanocyte | Answer is D. Ans. D: Melanocyte Structure involved in protection against ultraviolet radiation is melanin produced by melanocytes and transferred to keratinocytes | |
In case of uncontrolled epistaxis, ligation of internal maxillary artery is to be done in the -: (A) Maxillary antrum, (B) Pterygopalatine fossa, (C) At the neck, (D) Medial wall of orbit | Answer is B. None | |
All are useful in acute appendicitis except:: (A) Antibiotics, (B) Analgesics, (C) IV fluids, (D) Purgation | Answer is D. Ans: d (Purgation)Ref: Bailey & Love, 24,hed, p. 1211 &23rded, p. 1085 | |
Prussak's space is seen in ?: (A) Epitympanum, (B) Hypotympanum, (C) Mesotympanum, (D) Ear Canal | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., EpitympanumPrussak's space is a small space between the shrapnel's membrane/pars flaccida laterally. neck of malleus medially, sho process of malleus below and lateral process of malleus above.Prussak's space communicates with epitympanum through a posterior gap.Prussak's space is impoant... | |
Protein A of staphylococcus binds to -: (A) IgA, (B) IgG, (C) IgD, (D) IgE | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgG Virulence factors of staphylococcus aureuso Protein 'A' binds to Fc terminal of IgG (IgG 1,2 & 4 but not IgG3) and prevents opsonophagocytosis by PMNs . It is a B-cell mitogen. It is chemotactic, anti-complementory and antiphagocytico Heat stable nuclease (DNAase) is a characteristic ... | |
A farmer who is working in poultry developed acute onset of fever with chills. On physical examination, there is hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy. Blood culture shows Brucella abous. He must have got the infection through all the following ways, EXCEPT:: (A) Infected meat, (B) Ingestion of raw milk, (C) Man to ma... | Answer is C. The infection is transmitted from animals to humans. Brucella abous (cattle), B suis(hogs), and B melitensis (goats) are the main agents. Transmission to humans occurs by contact with infected meat (slaughterhouse workers), placentae of infected animals (farmers, veterinarians), or ingestion of infected un... | |
Malaria protection comes from all except ?: (A) G6PD deficiency, (B) Thalassemia, (C) Sickle cell anemia, (D) Acanthocytosis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Acanthocytosis Types of anemia that have protective effect against P. falciparum malaria : ? G6PD deficiency, Sickle cell anemia, Thalassemia, HbC, Pyruvate kinase deficiency | |
A 22-year old software engineer was brought in an unconscious state to the casualty. Clinical examination revealed features suggestive of shock, DIC and multisystem failure. CSF and petechial rashes yielded gram-negative diplococcic, which subsequently grew on modiefied Thayer-Martin medium. This isolation is known to ... | Answer is A. Ans- A Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome This uncommon but catastrophic syndrome is characterized by the following:An overwhelming bacterial infection, which is classically associated with Neisseria meningitidis septicemia but occasionally is caused by other highly virulent organisms, such as Pseudomonas sp... | |
MEN-1 include all except: (A) Prolactiomas, (B) Parathyroid hyperplasia, (C) Pancreatic endocrine tumours, (D) Medullary carcinoma thyroid | Answer is D. MEN 1 is characterised by the triad of tumours in the anterior pituitary gland, mostly presenting as prolactinomas or non-functioning tumours, hyperplasia of the parathyroids causing primary hyperparathyroidism (pHPT) and Pancreaticoduodenal endocrine tumours (PETs). also called Wermer's syndrome. It is ca... | |
In which of the following conditions, MTP can be indicated -a) Pregnancy caused by rapeb) Husband is willing but mother is not agreeingc) If maternal health is in dangerd) Pregnancy after contraceptive failuree) Pregnant women have received cytotoxic drugs: (A) bce, (B) bde, (C) acde, (D) abde | Answer is C. Pregnancy due to rape, danger to maternal health, receiving cytotoxic drugs (can cause fetal damage and risks of a born child with physical/mental abnormalities) and pregnancy due to contraceptive failure are indications for abortion under MTP act. | |
Host related biological propeies of a disease agent are the following except: (A) Virulence, (B) Infectivity, (C) Pathogenicity, (D) Communicablity | Answer is D. Host related biological propeies of disease agent are Infectivity Pathogenicity Virulence Ref : parks textbook of PSM 24th edition page no : 41 | |
Huxley- Henley layers is a pa of: (A) Nail, (B) Skin, (C) Hair, (D) Sweat glands | Answer is C. Hair * Hair is derived from ectoderm, but dermal papilla is of mesoderm-derivation * Hair follicle is positioned at an angle; base of follicle typically within the subcutaneous fat Longitudinal anatomy * Infundibulum: upper poion of follicle extending from surface of epidermis to opening of sebaceous gland... | |
A 37-year-old female presents to the emergency room with a fever. Chest x-ray shows multiple patchy infiltrates in both lungs. Echocardiography and blood cultures suggest a diagnosis of acute bacterial endocarditis limited to the tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the most probable etiology?: (A) Congenital hea... | Answer is B. The most probable etiology of bacterial endocarditis involving the tricuspid valve is illicit intravenous drug use, which can introduce skin organisms into the venous system that then attack the tricuspid valve. Staphylococcus aureus accounts for between 60% and 90% of cases of endocarditis in intravenous ... | |
Karyotype of Complete mole is?: (A) 46 XY, (B) 46 XX, (C) 69 XXX, (D) 69 XXX | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) 46XXREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 201Repeat in December 2011See APPENDIX-63 for "COMPLETE AND PARTIAL HYDATIDIFORM MOLES" APPENDIX - 63Complete and Partial Hydatidiform Moles:FeaturePartial Hydatidiform MoleComplete Hydatidiform MoleKaryotype69XXY, Triploid, paternal and maternal origin46XX, Diploid, mo... | |
Which of the following is an epiphyseal lesion?: (A) Chondroblastoma, (B) Chondrosarcoma, (C) Fibrosarcoma, (D) Non ossifying fibroma | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chondroblastoma | |
Histologic examination of lung tissue reveals multiple suppurative, neutrophil-rich exudates that fill the bronchi and bronchioles and spill over into the adjacent alveolar spaces only. The majority of lung tissue is not involved in this inflammatory process. Hyaline membranes are not found. This histologic appearance ... | Answer is B. Pulmonary infections may be caused by bacteria, fungi, viruses, or mycoplasma. Bacterial infections generally result in a polymorphonuclear (neutrophil) response. Bacterial infection of the lung (pneumonia) results in consolidation of the lung, which may be patchy or diffuse. Patchy consolidation of the lu... | |
Tissue suturing glue contains:: (A) Cyanoacrylate, (B) Ethanolamine oleate, (C) Methacrylate, (D) Polychloroprene | Answer is A. Most tissue adhesives or glue are cyanoacrylate polymers, such as n-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate (eg, Histoacryl®, PeriAcryl®) or 2-octyl cyanoacrylate (eg, Dermabond®, Surgiseal).
Cyanoacrylate tissue adhesives are liquid monomers that undergo an exothermic reaction on exposure to moisture (eg, on the skin surfa... | |
Pain in early labor is transmitted through: (A) T11 - T12, (B) L2 - L3, (C) L4 - L5, (D) S2 - S3 | Answer is A. . | |
Snake that causes paralysis with convulsions: NEET 14: (A) Vipers, (B) Sea snakes, (C) Cobra, (D) Krait | Answer is C. Ans. Cobra | |
A female patient has adenocarcinoma uterus along with sarcoma of uterus. It is known as -: (A) Homologous sarcoma, (B) Sarcoma uterus, (C) Mixed mullerian carcinogenesis, (D) Heterologous sarcoma | Answer is C. Of the Uterine Sarcomas Almost 50% of are Mixed and are called the Mixed Mesodermal tumors (Synonymously called Mixed mullerian tumors). These mixed tumors can be Homologous 25% Heterologous 20% Adencarcinomas in 5% cases. The other Uterine sarcomas are Leiomyosarcoma in 33% cases and Stromal sarcoma in 16... | |
A patient presented to you after an assault and penetrating knife injury to the abdomen. X-Ray shows gas under the diaphragm. Most common organ damaged in this case:: (A) Spleen, (B) Intestine, (C) Liver, (D) Lung | Answer is B. Ans.B intestine X-Ray shows gas under the diaphragm suggests perforating injury . Most common organ damaged in Penetrating or stab injury : Liver Most common organ damaged in Perforating injury : Small Intestine Most common organ damaged in Blunt abdominal injury : Spleen Most common organ damaged in Seat ... | |
Which of the following is not a feature of juvenile CML?: (A) Thrombocytopenia, (B) Lymphadenopathy, (C) Presence of Philedelphia chromosome, (D) High HbF | Answer is C. Philedelphia chromosome positivity is a feature of adult CML. Juvenile CML is commonly seen in children between 1-2 years of age. It is characterised by enlarged lymphnodes, spleen and liver. Lab findings includes thrombocytopenia, leukocyte count lower than classic CML, and in increase in propoion of feta... | |
Maximum cones are seen in: (A) Limbus, (B) Fovea centralis, (C) Macula lutea, (D) Blind spot | Answer is B. Optic disc, 1.5 mm in size, is responsible for blind spot of Mariotte Rods and cones are sensory end organs of vision Rods are absent in the foveal region. Ganglion cell layer is thickest in the macular region. Foveola is the most sensitive pa of retina. It contains only cones and their nuclei covered by a... | |
The term metaplasia refers to: (A) Irregular, atypical proliferative changes in epithelial or mesenchymal cells, (B) Loss of cell substance producing shrinkage of the cells, (C) Replacement of one type of adult cell by another type of adult cell, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. None | |
Hypoglycemic unawareness that occurs in diabetic patients when transferred from oral hypoglycemics to insulin, is due to :: (A) Autonomic neuropathy, (B) Insulin resistance, (C) Lipodystrophy, (D) Somogi phenomenon | Answer is A. Answer is A (Autonomic neuropathy): Hypoglycemic unawareness refers to a loss of warning symptoms that ale individuals to the presence of hypoglycemia and prompt them to eat and'abo the episode. Hypoglycemic unawareness can be attributed to two factors : Autonomic neuropathy Loss of catecholamine response ... | |
True about Epidural anesthesia – a) Effects start immediatelyb) C/I in coagulopathiesc) Given in subarachnoid spaced) Venous return decreases: (A) bd, (B) d, (C) ab, (D) ac | Answer is A. Epidural anesthesia is given outside the dura in epidural (extradural) space (not in subarachnoid space).
Onset of effect takes place in 15-30 minutes (not immediately). In contrast, spinal anesthesia has immediate effect (approximately 5 minutes).
Neuraxial block (spinal & epidural) anesthesia is contrain... | |
A boil is due to staphylococcal infection of -: (A) Hair follicle, (B) Sweat gland, (C) Subcutaneous tissue, (D) Epidermis | Answer is A. • Folliculitis, carbuncles and furuncles are all types of localized (superficial) skin infections that fall under the category of boils.
• Hair follicles serve as portals for a number of bacteria, although S. aureus is the MC cause of localized folliculitis. | |
A 14-year-old boy has difficulty in expressing himself in writing and makes frequent spelling mistakes, does not follow instructions and cannot wait for his turn while playing a game. He is likely to be suffering from: (A) Mental retardation, (B) Lack of interest in studies, (C) Specific learning disability, (D) Examin... | Answer is C. Specific Learning Disability (SLD) in youth is a neurodevelopmental disorderproduced by the interaction of heritable and environmental factors that influence the brain's ability to effeciently perceive or process verbal and non verbal information. It is characterised by persistent difficulty learning acade... | |
The cone of tissue removed in the operation of conization consists of :: (A) All the racemose glands, (B) Eroded area of the cervix, (C) Some of the racemose glands, (D) A+B | Answer is D. A+B | |
Which is not transmitted through blood -: (A) Westnile, (B) Cholera, (C) Toxoplama, (D) HBV | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., CholeraInfections transmitted by bloodViralBacterialParasiteso HCVo Pseudomonaso Taxoplasmao HBVo Yersiniao Malariao HIVo Coagulase negative stapho Babesiao CMVo Borrefia burgdorferio Chagas dis.o HTL V - Type 1(Lyme dis) o Hepatitis G virus (GBV-C) o Parvovirus B-19 o Hepatitis A (rarely... | |
A 29year old primigravida at 36weeks with Rh negative pregnancy came to labor room with complaints of bleeding per vaginum followed by abdominal trauma. Which of the following test is advised to estimate the size of fetomaternal haemorrhage?: (A) Rosette test, (B) Kliehaure acid elution test, (C) Indirect coombs test, ... | Answer is B. * kliehauer Betke test is the procedure of choice to assess the volume of the fetal maternal bleeding * It should be done as soon as possible (within 2hours) after delivery in women with suspected large feto maternal haemorrhage who need larger amounts of anti D * This method is based on the fact that an a... | |
A hemodynamically stable patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the best investigation is ?: (A) CECT abdomen, (B) MRI abdomen, (C) DPL, (D) FAST | Answer is A. CT Scan of Abdomen: It is most commonly used and better investigation for abdominal trauma. It is useful in blunt/penetrating trauma, suspected pancreas, spleen, liver, duodenal, retroperitoneal injuries. Smaller injuries, early haemoperitoneum are better detected. It is noninvasive, highly specifi c, high... | |
Which of the following radio of Iodine is used for thyroid scan: September 2008: (A) 1-123, (B) 1-125, (C) 1-127, (D) 1-131 | Answer is A. Ans. A: 1-123 The radionuclides that are used in thyroid scans are two isotopes of iodine, 1-131 and 1-123, and an isotope of technetium known as 99m Tc. Technetium scanning is preferred for some diagnostic workups because it is relatively fast and does not require the patient to fast beforehand. Many pref... | |
Which of the following is not a suprahyoid space?: (A) Masticator space, (B) Peritonsillar space, (C) Anterior visceral space, (D) Parapharyngeal space | Answer is C. Ans. is'c'i.e., Anterior visceral spaceRef: Ballenger's Otorhinolaryngology: Heat and Neck Surgery 1//e by james Byron Snow, Phillip A. Wackym, John lacob Ballenger p. 1021, Cummings Otolaryngology- Head and Neck Surgery Sh/e, Ch. 14Suprahyoid neckThese spaces are :-Peritonsillar spaceSubmandibular 6 subli... | |
Doxycycline is used in the treatment of following disease except:: (A) Leptopirosis, (B) Q fever, (C) Borreliosis, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. TETRACYCLINES These are a class of antibiotics having a nucleus of four cyclic rings. The tetracyclines still available in India for clinical use are: Tetracycline Oxytetracycline Demeclocycline Doxycycline Minocycline Uses: Although tetracyclines are broad-spectrum antibiotics, they should be employed onl... | |
External cephalic version is contraindicated in all except: March 2012: (A) Antepaum haemorrhage, (B) Multiple pregnancy, (C) Contracted pelvis, (D) Breech presentation | Answer is D. Ans: D i.e. Breech presentation Indications for external cephalic version are breech presentation & transverse lie. | |
Which of the following is/are the side effect/s of using argon laser -: (A) Hypopigmentation, (B) Crusting, (C) Keloid formation, (D) All the above | Answer is D. argon gases causes all d side effects. REF:khurana,pg no 461 | |
Number of amino acids in A chain and B chain of insulin is:: (A) 30, 21, (B) 28, 32, (C) 32, 28, (D) 21, 30 | Answer is D. Ans: d (21 and 30) Ref: Vasudevan,4th ed, p. 108Insulin is a protein hormone with 2 polypeptide chains; the A chain with 21 amino acids and B chain with 30 amino acids.Insulin:T 1/2 of insulin is 5 minutes.Normal daily insulin secretion is 50 units.Tissues independant of insulin - RBC, brain, renal medulla... | |
The macrophage to epitheliod conversion in Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is mediated by:: (A) TNF alpha, (B) IFN-g, (C) IL-4, (D) TGF-Beia | Answer is B. Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition, Pg: 183Explanation:T Cell-Mediated (Type IV) HypersensitivityThe cell-mediated type of hypersensitivity is initiated by antigen-activated (sensitized T lymphocytes, including CD4+ and CD8+ Tcells.Tubercle bacilli colonizing the lungs are persistent or ... | |
An 18-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea, milk discharge, weight loss. Diagnosis is: (A) Pituitary Cancer, (B) Anorexia nervosa, (C) Hypothyroidism, (D) Hypothalamic cause | Answer is A. Its tempting here to go for Hypothyroidism but that is usually associated with weight gain. However, pituitary tumors and craniopharyngiomas can cause increase in PRL and consequent galactorrhea , weight loss attributed then to the malignant process. Ref - Harrison 20e pg2673 | |
Which of the following is NOT a prodrug ?: (A) Enalapril, (B) Imipramine, (C) Sulphasalazine, (D) Cyclophosphamide | Answer is B. None | |
Clavipectoral fascia is derived from which ligament: (A) Coracoacromial, (B) Coracoclavicular, (C) Costoclavicular, (D) Costocoracoid | Answer is D. CLAVIPECTORAL FASCIAStrong fascial sheet deep to clavicular head of pectoralis major muscle.Fills space between clavicle and pectoralis major.Extend:-Verically-clavicle above to axillary fascia below.Medially-first rib and costoclavicular ligament.Laterally- coracoid process and blends with coracoclavicula... | |
The following are indications for assisted ventilation in acute severe asthma EXCEPT?: (A) PEFR 50-60% of predicted value, (B) Rising PaCO2> 6kPa (45 mm Hg), (C) Diminishing level of consciousness, (D) Falling PaO2< 8kPa (60 mm Hg) | Answer is A. PEFR of 50-60% indicates moderate asthma. Indication for intubation in asthma exacerbation is a poor response to oxygen with salbutamol nebulisation and oral steroids. The definition of poor response is: 1. FEV1< 40%. 2. PaCO2> 45mmHg. 3. Features of carbon dioxide narcosis. 4. Hypoxia defined as PaO2<60 m... | |
All of the following are causes of vasogenic type of cerebral edema except: (A) Tumours, (B) Trauma, (C) Infections, (D) Hydrocephalus | Answer is D. Vasogenic edema occurs due to a breakdown of the tight endothelial junctions that make up the blood-brain barrier. This allows intravascular proteins and fluid to penetrate into the parenchymal extracellular space. Some premature babies have bleeding in the brain, which can block the flow of CSF andcause h... | |
The ovarian cycle is initiated by:: (A) FSH, (B) Estrogen, (C) LH, (D) Progesterone | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. FSHRef: Shaw 14th/ed, p41, Dutta Gynae 5th/ed, p82Ovarian cycle is initiated by FSHRemember: Following questions asked, previously on FSHFSHi. It is the hormone which initiates ovarian cycleii. In menopausal females- Since primordial follicles are decreased so levels of estrogen is decreased... | |
All of the following cephalosporins have good activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa except ?: (A) Cephadroxil, (B) Cefepime, (C) Cefoperazone, (D) Ceftazidime | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cephadroxil o Cephalosporins with antipseudomonal activity :- Ceftazidime, Cefoperazone, Cefepime | |
A young woman is evaluated by a neurosurgeon because of injuries she received in an explosion. She has numerous lacerations of the front and back torso and bruising of the craniofacial region. Neurological examination shows lack of movement in her right lower extremity with hyperreflexia, and loss of proprioception and... | Answer is C. None | |
Structure damaged most commonly during Surgery on Ranula is?: (A) Lingual Aery, (B) Lingual Nerve, (C) Submandibular duct, (D) Sublingual duct | Answer is C. Submandibular duct REF: Clinical surgery: Volume 9 Head and neck edited by Charles Rob, Rodney, Smith page 56 "The treatment of ranula constitutes a problem, owing to the technical difficulty of complete excision without damage to adjacent structures such as the submandibular duct" | |
Puppe's rule deals with?: (A) Chemical injuries, (B) Multiple impact injuries, (C) Sexual assault, (D) Percentage of burns | Answer is B. Ans. is `b' i.e., Multiple impact injuries | |
NOT a content of carpal tunnel: (A) Flexor pollicis longus, (B) Flexor digitorum profundus, (C) Ulnar nerve, (D) Median nerve | Answer is C. Carpal tunnel Contents - 1. 4 tendons of Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP) 2. 4 tendons of Flexor Digitorum Superficialis (FDS) 3. 4 tendons of Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL) 4. Median nerve Structure passing anterior to carpal tunnel: 1. Ulnar nerve 2. Ulnar aery 3. Palmaris longus tendon. Structure embedded... | |
Sensitivity is a measure of: (A) True positive, (B) False positive, (C) True negative, (D) False negative | Answer is A. (A) True positive # Term Sensitivity was introduced by Yarushalmy in 1940s as a statistical index of diagnostic accuracy.> It has been defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, that is "True positive".> A 90% sensitivity means that 90% of the diseased people scr... | |
OPV Bivalent vaccine contain:: (A) P1 & P2, (B) PI & P3, (C) P2 & P3, (D) P1, P2 & P3 | Answer is B. b. P1 & P3(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1561, 3212, Ghai 8/e p 190-194)Monovalent OPVs (mOPVs) & bivalent OPV (bOPV) are 2.5-3 times more efficacious than trivalent OPVIn bivalent OPV, the type 2 component is removed | |
Which of the following enzymes does NOT contain Zn? (NOT RELATED): (A) Alcohol Dehydrogenase, (B) Arginase, (C) Alkaline Phosphatase, (D) Carbonic Anhydrase | Answer is B. Zinc is required for the activity of > 300 enzymes, covering all six classes of enzymes. alcohol dehydrogenase; superoxide dismutase; transferases like RNA polymerase and aspaate transcarbamoylase; hydrolases like carboxypeptidase A and thermolysin; lyases like carbonic anhydrase and fructose-1,6-bisphosph... | |
A patient presents with vomiting and severe colicky abdominal pain. He underwent bariatric surgery 5 years ago. He is advised to undergo an emergency reoperation. Which of the following procedures did he most likely undergo 5 years ago?: (A) Laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, (B) Laparoscopic adjustable gastric ban... | Answer is A. Patient must have underwent Laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass 5 years ago Now presented with internal hernia- late complication of gastric bypass surgery Closure of hernia defects at the time of gastric bypass surgery reduces the incidence of symptomatic internal hernias in future. | |
Reese-Ellsworth classification is used for?: (A) Rhabdomyosarcoma, (B) Retinoblastoma, (C) Optic nerve sheath tumor, (D) Meningioma | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) RetinoblastomaREF: Decision Making in Radiation Oncology, Volume 2 by Jiade J. Lu page 1041Repeat from June 2008Reese-Ellsworth classification of Retinoblastoma:TypeDescriptionGroup I"Very favourable"ASolitary tumor, less than 4 dd in size, at or posterior to the equatorBMultiple tumors, none o... | |
Which of the following is an indication for the use of folinic acid?: (A) Prophylaxis of neural tube defects in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medications, (B) Counteracting toxicity of high dose methotrexate therapy, (C) Pernicious anemia, (D) Anemia associated with renal failure | Answer is B. Prophylaxis of neural tube defects require treatment with folic acid. Methotrexate toxicity can be prevented by 5'-formyltetrahydrofolate (folinic acid). Pernicious anemia requires the therapy with vitamin B12. Anemia associated with chronic renal failure is treated with erythropoietin. | |
Narcotic overdose can be antagonized by: (A) Diphenhydramine, (B) Atropine, (C) Naloxane, (D) Nalorphine | Answer is C. None | |
True about lupus anticoagulant include the following except -: (A) Bleeding episodes can be life threatening, (B) ↑aPTT, (C) May occur without clinical signs, (D) May be associated with recurrent mid trimester abortions | Answer is A. None | |
Patient presents with varicose vein with sapheno-femoral incompetence and normal perforator. Management options include all of the following except: (A) Endovascular stripping, (B) Sclerotherapy, (C) Sapheno-femoral flush ligation, (D) Saphenofemoral flush ligation with striping | Answer is B. Ans. b. Sclerotherapy | |
Neuro surgical intervention may be necessitated in all of the following Except: (A) SDH, (B) EDH, (C) Depressed fracture, (D) Diffuse axonal injury | Answer is D. Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) is a form of traumatic brain injury. It happens when the brain rapidly shifts inside the skull as an injury is occurring. The long connecting fibers in the brain called axons are sheared as the brain rapidly accelerates and decelerates inside the hard bone of the skull. DAI typi... | |
Subclan aery is divided by which muscle ?: (A) Pectoralis minor, (B) Teres minor, (C) Scaleneus anterior, (D) Trapezius | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Scaleneus anterior Scaleneus anterior muscle divides subclan aery into three pas :?A) First pa :This pa is medial (proximal) to scaleneus anterior. Branches from first pa are :?Veebral aeryInternal thoracic aeryThyrocervical trunk:Costocervical trunk (on left side only).B) Second pa :This... | |
NICE project is associated with:: (A) Female literacy, (B) Population control, (C) Rural infrastructure, (D) Care of elderly | Answer is D. National Institute of Social Defence has launched NICE project (National Initiative on Care for Elderly) in 2000. Ref: National Health Programmes in India, J.Kishore, 10th edition pg: 795 | |
Commonest feature of hypothyroidism in children is: (A) Cataract, (B) Recurrent seizures, (C) Cold extremities, (D) Laryngospasms | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cold extremities o Amongst the given options cold extremities is the best answer. o Prolongation of physiological jaundice is the earliest sign. | |
Left medial sector contains segment: (A) III, IV, (B) II, III, (C) I, II, (D) I, IV | Answer is A. Left medial sector contains segment III and IV Left lateral sector contains only one segment II Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1421-1422 | |
The medicolegal importance of postmortem lividity is all except -: (A) Cause of death elsewhere, (B) Time since death, (C) Manner of death, (D) Position of the body at the death | Answer is C. Medicolegal importance of postmortem staining are :-
It is a sign of death.
Helps to know time since death.
Helps to know the position or posture of dead body.
Sometimes cause of death can be known by peculiar distribution, e.g. in hanging or drowning. | |
Saffron coloured meconium is seen in:: (A) Postmaturity, (B) TB, (C) Breech, (D) Normal in appearance | Answer is A. Postmaturity syndrome is the description of a clinical syndrome in which fetus experiences placental insufficiency and resultant growth restrictions.The classical syndrome describes a neonate with wrinkled ,peeling skin coated with meconium,overgrown nails ,well developed palm and sole creases ,reduced sub... | |
First change of improvement noted after iron therapy is initiated: (A) Decreased irritability, (B) Reticulcytosis, (C) Increase in serum iron levels, (D) Replenishment of iron stores | Answer is A. First change of improvement noted after iron therapy is decreased irritability followed by increased reticulocyte count. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | |
Expectant management of placenta pre includes all except: (A) Anti-D, (B) Cervical encirclage, (C) Blood transfusion, (D) Steroids | Answer is B. The regimen advocated by Macafee Carried out in a teiary care Complete bed rest with bedside toilet facilities Anaemia has to be looked for and corrected by blood transfusion Iron ,vitamins,calcium should be continued Antenatal steroids can be given to promote lung maturity Anti -D should be given (refer p... | |
Which of the following enzyme leads to release of free glucose from glycogen during glycogenolysis in muscle?: (A) Glycogen phosphorylase, (B) Glucose-1-phosphatase, (C) Glucose-6-phosphatase, (D) Debranching enzyme | Answer is D. Debranching enzyme Has 2 catalytic sites in a single polypeptide chain. Glucan transferase and debranching enzyme are the two separate activities of the same enzyme. Glucan transferase 1,6-glycosidase transfers a trisaccharide unit from one branch to the other, exposing the 1 - 6 branch point. Breaks a (1-... | |
Which of the following tumours present with proptosis?: (A) Nephroblastoma, (B) Neuroblastoma, (C) Ewings sarcoma, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. PROPTOSIS It is defined as forward displacement of the eyeball beyond the orbital margins. Causes of bilateral proptosis include: Tumours: These include symmetrical lymphoma or lymphosarcoma, secondaries from neuroblastoma, nephroblastoma, Ewing's sarcoma and leukaemic infiltration. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg n... | |
Macula is stimulated by: (A) Gravity, (B) Head position change, (C) Linear acceleration, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Macula senses the position of the head in response to gravity and linear acceleration. Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE and THROAT by PL Dhingra; 6th edition; page no.16 | |
Skin scrapings from a patient with tinea corporis were taken and cultured on SDA. Figure shows the LCB mount. Likely identity of the causative dermatophyte is-: (A) Epidermophyton floccosum, (B) Microsporum audouinii, (C) Microsporum gypseum, (D) Trichophyton rubrum | Answer is C. M. gypseum-numerous fusiform (spindle) shaped macroconida M. audouinii- racquet shaped macroconidia E. floccosum- club shaped macroconidia T. rubrum- arrangement of microconida has been described as "birds on a wire" where the pyriform (teardrop shaped) microconidia are attached to the hyphae at the narrow... | |
The term 'myopia' refers to:: (A) Near sightedness, (B) Far sightedness, (C) Constriction of the pupil, (D) Dilation of the pupil | Answer is A. None | |
Karsakoff's Psychosis is diagnosed by: (A) Peripheral neuropathy, (B) Visual hallucination, (C) Impairment of long term memory, (D) Seizures | Answer is C. C i.e. Impairment of long term memory | |
Toxicity of leigonella is due to:: (A) Capsule, (B) Toxin, (C) Phage, (D) Plasmid | Answer is B. Toxin | |
Best method of treatment of Methyl alcohol -: (A) Calcium gluconate, (B) Ethyl alcohol, (C) Amphetamines, (D) 1% Ammonia | Answer is B. Among the given options only ethyl alcohol is used. | |
Carcinoma cervix extends to the lateral pelvic wall in which stage: (A) Stage I, (B) Stage II, (C) Stage III, (D) Stage IV | Answer is B. Stage III B more precisely. Ref mudaliar textbook of obstetrics 6e p561 | |
Most common site of curling's ulcer?: (A) Proximal Duodenum, (B) Esophagus, (C) Distal duodenum, (D) D. jujenum | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Proximal duodenum(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 762)Curling ulcers-Ulcers occurring in the proximal duodenum and associated with severe burns or trauma | |
In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is: (A) Infrahepatic inferior vena cava, (B) Infrarenal inferior vena cava, (C) Hepatic veins, (D) Portal veins | Answer is C. None | |
Parenchymatous xerosis of conjunctivitis is caused by: (A) Trachoma, (B) Vitamin A deficiency, (C) Vernal catarrh, (D) Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis | Answer is A. A i.e. Trachoma Vit A deficiency causes epithelial xerosisQ. Parenchymal xerosis is caused by widespread destructive interstitial conjunctivitis as seen in trachoma Q, diptheria, Steven Jonson Syndrome, pemphigus or pemphigoid conjunctivitis, thermal, chemical or radiational burns of conjunctiva Q and expo... | |
Treatment for impetigo ?: (A) Dicloxacillin, (B) Ciprofloxacin, (C) Gentamycin, (D) Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dicloxacillin Treatment of impetigo is either dicloxacillin or cephalexin can be given at a dose of 250 mg four times daily for 10 days. Topical mupirocin ointment is also effective. | |
A patient operated for thyroid surgery for a thyroid swelling, later in the evening developed difficulty in breathing. There was swelling in the neck. The immediate management would be: (A) Epinephrine injection, (B) Tracheostomy, (C) IV calcium gluconate, (D) Open the wound sutures in the ward | Answer is D. Haemorrhage is the most frequent life-threatening complication of thyroidectomy. Around 1 in 50 patients will develop a haematoma, and in almost all cases this will develop in the first 24 hours. If an aerial bleed occurs, the tension in the central compament pressure can rise until it exceeds venous press... | |
Line of surgical divison of the lobes of the liver is -: (A) Falciform ligament to the diaphragm, (B) Gall bladder bed to IVC, (C) Gall bladder bed to the Lt crus of diaphragm, (D) One inch to the left of falciform ligament to the IVC | Answer is B. None | |
Developmental Quotient is calculated as:: (A) Average age at attainment / observed age at attainment x100, (B) Observed age at attainment / average at attainment x100, (C) Observed age at attainment x average age at attainment, (D) Observed age at attainment / average age at attainment | Answer is A. Ans. A. Average age at attainment/observed age at attainment x100Significant delays on screening is an indication for a detailed formal assessment of developmental status. By assessment, one can assign developmental quotient (DQ) for any developmental sphere. A DQ below 70 is taken as delay | |
Temperomandibular joint is:: (A) Devoid of the synovial membrane., (B) Has no synovial fluid., (C) Has rudimentary synovial membrane., (D) The synovial membrane does not cover the articular surface. | Answer is D. Temporo-mandibular joint is weight-bearing joint though not covered by hyaline cartilage like sterno-clavicular joint. Clavicle ossifies at five weeks followed by mandible at six weeks. Absence of hyaline cartilage is because no cartilaginous precursor exists at that time. This does not mean that the joint... | |
Which of the following ranges of haemoglobin O2 saturation from systemic venous to systemic aerial blood represents a normal resting condition?: (A) 25 to 75%, (B) 40 to 75%, (C) 40 to 95%, (D) 75 to 98% | Answer is D. In a normal res ng condition, the blood leaving the lungs is 98% saturated with oxygen, and the blood returning to the lungs is 75% saturated with oxygen. With vigorous exercise, blood leaving the lungs is still 98% saturated, but blood returning is usually less than 75% saturated because more oxygen is un... | |
Early deceleration pattern on cardiotocography indicates :: (A) Head compression, (B) Fetal distress, (C) Cord prolapse, (D) Hypoxia | Answer is A. Head compression | |
False about Gaucher's disease: (A) Beta Glucocerebrosidase defective, (B) Cherry red spots on fundoscopy, (C) Erlenmeyer's flask deformity, (D) Tarate resistant acid phosphatase -ve | Answer is D. Three biochemical markers of gaucher disease Angiotensin-conveing enzyme ( ACE ) Tarate-resistant acid phosphate ( TRAP ) Chitotriosidase ( CHITO ) These marker are elevated in active disease, these are useful indicators of disease progress and response to enzyme replacement therapy So gaucher disease is b... | |
The pseudo-isomorphic phenomenon is seen in: (A) Psoriasis, (B) Lichen planus, (C) Vitiligo, (D) Molluscum contagiosum | Answer is D. Koebner response or the isomorphic response, attributed to Heinrich Kobner, is the appearance of skin lesions on lines of trauma. The Koebner phenomenon may result from either a linear exposure or irritation. Pseudokoebner phenomenon-Conditions demonstrating linear lesions after a linear exposure to a caus... | |
Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by: (A) FISH, (B) FRAP, (C) Confocal microscopy, (D) Electron microscopy | Answer is B. B i.e. FRAPFRAP (fluorescence recovery after photobleaching) primarily measures rate of lateral diffusion of lipids and it can be used to investigate diffusion of biological macromolecules (such as proteins etc) including lateral diffusion in the plane of membrane and movements into & out of nucleus.- FRET... | |
Sensitivity of a screening test indicates: September 2006: (A) False positive, (B) False negative, (C) True negative, (D) True positive | Answer is D. Ans. D: True positive | |
All are features of Alzheimer's disease except: (A) Amyloid Angiopathy, (B) Lewy bodies, (C) Neurofibrillary tangles, (D) Senile plaques | Answer is B. Alzheimer's disease (AD), also referred to simply as Alzheimer's, is a chronic neurodegenerative disease that usually stas slowly and gradually worsens over time.It is the cause of 60-70% of cases of dementia. Gradually, bodily functions are lost, ultimately leading to death.[Although the speed of progress... | |
Which of the following is the most specific and sensitive screening test in a case of renovascular hypertension -: (A) HRCT, (B) CT guided angiography, (C) Captopril induced radionuclide scan, (D) MRI | Answer is D. None | |
The Lipid which accumulates in fatty liver is: (A) Trigylcerids, (B) FFA, (C) Lipoprotein, (D) Cholesterol | Answer is A. Fatty liver refers to the deposition of excess triglycerides in the liver cells. The balance between the factors causing fat deposition in liver versus factors causing removal of fat from liver determines the outcome.Causes of Fatty LiverA. Causes of fat deposition in liver1. Mobilization of NEFA from adip... |
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