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Contents of mesorectum are all except: (A) Inferior rectal vein, (B) Superior rectal vein, (C) Pararectal node, (D) Inferior mesenteric plexus
Answer is A. Mesorectum is enclosed by mesorectal fascia which is derived from the visceral peritoneum, and is also known as visceral fascia of mesorectum, fascia propria of rectum or presacral wing of hypogastric sheath Upper rectum is derived from the embryological hind gut, it is surrounded by mesorectum and its con...
A 24-year-old male law student presents with a 3-wk history of increasing dyspnea. He has a history of chronic sputum production of about 100 cc of purulent material each day for many years. In the past, he was hospitalized for a left pneumothorax. He is on inhaled bronchodilator as an outpatient. CXR is shown below.Th...
Answer is C. This x-ray shows a bilateral cystic-appearing lesion with airfluid levels consistent with cystic bronchiectasis. The opacities are predominantly in the upper zones. There is hyperinflation with flattened diaphragm and areas of hyperlucency in the left upper lobe peripherally. This is consistent with chroni...
Radiomimetric BACTEC detect growth of M tuberculosis in how much time ?: (A) 1 week, (B) 2-3 week, (C) 4-8 week, (D) > 10 weeks
Answer is B. Ans. is `b' i.e., 2-3 weeks
a benign epithelial cell neoplasm derived from non-glandular surfaces is referred to as:: (A) papilloma, (B) sarcoma, (C) adenoma, (D) hamartoma
Answer is A. Papillomas are benign, outward-growing lumps that may cause problems in some locations. Papillomas do not spread. They are not aggressive or cancerous. It is important to get any lump or skin lesion seen by a doctor, though. This is to be sure that it is benign and not something to worry about. If a lump t...
All of the following are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly, EXCEPT:: (A) They are lean and have low body mass, (B) Have reduced renal function with age, (C) Have increased baroceptor sensitivity, (D) Have reduced hepatic metabolism
Answer is C. Baroreceptor sensitivity decreases with aging. This decline in baroreceptor sensitivity alters the central nervous system control of sympathetic nervous outflow. Due to this insensitive baroreceptor, large change in blood pressure is needed to activate the baroreceptor and produce an appropriate compensato...
Egg is ideal protein because it has –: (A) High cholesterol, (B) High protein per 100 gm, (C) High biological efficiency and NPU, (D) No limiting amino acid
Answer is C. Egg is ideal protein because it has high biological efficiency and NPU : NPU for egg : 100    Fish : 77    Wheat : 51 NPU for meat : 80   Rice : 65    Pulses : 45-50 NPU for milk : 75    Soyabean : 55
Transpo of drug through biological membrane is through ?: (A) Passive diffusion, (B) Fascilitated diffusion, (C) Active transpo, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above
All of the following are true about peritoneal fluid, EXCEPT:: (A) Lack of fibrinogen-related clot formation, (B) Peritoneal fluid is directed toward aerial flow, (C) Free movement of viscera, (D) Removes excess fluid and paiculates
Answer is B. Normal amount of peritoneal fluid is less than 50 mL of free peritoneal fluid, with the following characteristics: Specific gravity below 1.016 Protein concentration less than 3 g/dL White blood cell count less than 3000/microL Complement-mediated antibacterial activity Lack of fibrinogen-related clot form...
Delayed wound healing is seen in all except-: (A) Malignancy, (B) Hypertension, (C) Diabetes, (D) Infection
Answer is B. None
Most common nodule found in the liver is: (A) Hepatoma, (B) Haraoma, (C) Hemangioma, (D) Cholangiodenoma
Answer is C. Hemangioma Most common benign tumor of the liver Mainly seen in women of 45 years Small capillary hemangiomas(no clinical significance), larger cavernous hemangioma Usually single and <5 cm in diameter, occur equally in right and left liver Giant hemangioma: lesion>5cm Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1456-...
True about pyogenic liver abscess -: (A) Single & large abscess, (B) Systemic complaints, fever & jaundice common, (C) X-ray features are diagnostic, (D) Liver enzyme abnormalities are common & severe
Answer is A. About 50% of hepatic abscesses are solitary. Their size may vary from less than a millimetre to several centimetres in diameter. It can be multiloculated or a single cavity. It usually involves the right lobe (~75%) Clinical features the classical description of the hepatic abscess is - fever, jaundice and...
Which of the following drugs requires a dose adjustment in patient during radiotherapy in order to prevent radiation toxicity: March 2013 (h): (A) Vincristine, (B) Dactinomycin, (C) Cyclophosphamide, (D) 6-Mercaptopurine
Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Dactinomycin
Which is most common side effect of inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate?: (A) Pneumonia, (B) Oropharyngeal candidiasis, (C) Atrophic rhinitis, (D) Pituitary adrenal suppression
Answer is B. * Most of the side effects of steroids are mainly hoarseness, orophyrangeal candidiasis, decreased growth in children with adrenal suppression.* The plausible explanation is that since these drugs are inhaled, they avoid the first pass metabolism that orally administered steroids undergo and hence have pre...
Long acting insulin is ?: (A) Insulin glargine, (B) Insulin lispro, (C) Insulin aspart, (D) Insulin glulisine
Answer is A. None
All are true regarding bleaching powder, except -: (A) Contains about 33% of available chlorine, (B) It is stable compound, (C) White amorphous compound, (D) Strong bleaching agent
Answer is B. Bleaching powder (Chlorinated lime) CaOCl2 It is a white amorphous powder with a pungent smell which contains 33% of available chlorine. It is an UNSTABLE compound. It can be stabilised by mixing with an excess of lime. It should be stored in dark, cool and dry place in a closed container that is resistant...
Three layers of embryo are formed at what age?: (A) 8 days, (B) 12 days, (C) 16 days, (D) 21 days
Answer is D. Ans. (d) 21 daysRef: Langmanris embryology 10th ed ch:5
Drug which does not cause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency is ?: (A) Primaquine, (B) Dapsone, (C) Corticosteroids, (D) Methylene Blue
Answer is C. None
If a doctor gives a -false medical certificate to a patient, he is liable to be prosecuted under which section of the IPC -: (A) 137, (B) 147, (C) 167, (D) 197
Answer is D. 197 IPC: Issuing or signing (attesting) false certificate by a doctor is a criminal offence.
Isotretinoin to be stopped before pregnancy: (A) 3 days, (B) 2 week, (C) 3 month, (D) 3 years
Answer is C. Isotretinoin iseffective for treating severe acne but it is is category X drug in pregnancy. It is recommended that a woman should wait at least 1 month after stopping Isotretinoin before trying to became pregnant but the desirable time is 3 months.
All of the following are advantages of using raloxifene over estrogen in post-menopausal women EXCEPT:: (A) Reduces fracture rates, (B) Avoids endometrial hyperplasia, (C) Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis, (D) No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma
Answer is C. None
The doctrine of resipsa loquitur means -: (A) Common knowledge, (B) Medical maloccurance, (C) Fact speaks for itself, (D) Oral evidence
Answer is C. Ans-C Doctrine of res ipsa loquituro It means "the thing or fact speaks for itself".o In a case of professional negligence of a physician, the patient need not prove negligence.o It is applied when the following conditions are fulfilled :That is the absence of negligence the injury would not have occurred ...
Self breast examination by females is advisable to be done at which of the following time?: (A) Premenstrual period, (B) During menses, (C) 7-10 days after menses, (D) Ovulatory period
Answer is C. Ans. C. 7-10 days after menses. (Ref Textbook of Gynaecology by D C Dutta 5th/pg. 538).Textbook of Gynaecology by D C Dutta 5th/pg. 53S....under the heading "Breast self examination":"Breast self examination should be made into a habit, certainly by the age of 20. The examination should be made on a monthl...
Which of the following are bounded by membrane containing sterols: March 2011: (A) Klebsiella, (B) Staphylococcus, (C) Mycobacteria, (D) Mycoplasma
Answer is D. Ans. D: Mycoplasma Mycoplasma are devoid of cell walls The cells are bounded by a soft trilaminar unit membrane containing sterols
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for panic disorder?: (A) Buspirone plus benzodiazepines, (B) Benzodiazepines plus suppoive therapy, (C) Sho - term benzodiazepine plus SSRI plus CBT, (D) Long - term benzodiazepine plus venlafaxine
Answer is C. Management plan for panic disorder Psychological treatment Self-help books, computerized cognitive behavioral therapy Cognitive behavioral therapy Pharmacotherapy Antidepressants Social interventions
The earliest sign of tuberculosis of vocal cords is: (A) Mouse nibbled appearance, (B) Hyperemia of the free margin, (C) Turban epiglotitis, (D) Ulceration of vocal cord
Answer is B. The weakness of voice is the earliest symptom followed by hoarseness of voice. Ulceration of larynx produces severe pain, which may radiate to ears. Pain during swallowing is seen in later stages. On examination, hyperemia of the vocal cord in its whole extent or confined to posterior pa with impairment of...
Richest source of retinoids is?: (A) Cod liver oil, (B) Halibut liver oil, (C) Butter, (D) Margarine
Answer is B. Ans. (b) Halibut liver oilRef: Harper's Biochemistry 27/e, chapter 44, Textbook of medical biochemistry S. Ramakrishnan 3/e, p 393
Erethism occur in -: (A) Hg, (B) As, (C) Pb, (D) Cu
Answer is A. Erethism is seen in mercury poisoning.
"Cobblestone" appearance seen on colonoscope is cheracteristic of the following disease: (A) Crohn's disease, (B) Ulcerative colitis, (C) TB colitis, (D) Irritable bowel syndrome
Answer is A. .in crohn&;s disease,Fibrosis, stricture formation, deep ulcers, oedema of mucosa between ulcer areas which looks like 'cobble stone', skipped normal areas in between, serosal opacity, mesen-teric fat stranding, enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes, abscesses in the mesentery, fistula are the pathology. Small m...
The mechanism of action of Sofosbuvir?: (A) Inhibits RNA dependent RNA polymerase of HCV, (B) Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase of HCV, (C) Inhibits RNA dependent RNA polymerase of HBV, (D) Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase of HBV
Answer is A. Sofosbuvir is used orally for Hep C. Orally given once daily in combination with ledipasvir or ribavirin or PEG-interferon for 24 weeks. It is a Hep C NS5B polymerase inhibitor. Ref: HL.Sharma 3rd ed. Pg 800
Which of the following is porphyrines gives stools their characteristics brown color?: (A) Biliverdin, (B) Urobilinogen, (C) Heme, (D) Stercobilin
Answer is D. Stercobilin is a tetrapyrrolic bile pigment and is one end-product of heme catabolism. It is the chemical responsible for the brown color of human feces and was originally isolated from feces in 1932Urobilinogen is a colourless by-product of bilirubin reduction.Heme or haem is a cofactor consisting of a Fe...
The following is true about Nesidioblastosis except?: (A) Presents with hypoglycemic attacks, (B) Histopathology shows hyperplasia of islet cells, (C) Diazoxide is used for treatment, (D) More common in adults than in children
Answer is D. Nesidioblastosis In 1938, Laidlow coined the term nesidioblastosis to describe the neodifferentiation of islets of Langerhans from pancreatic ductal epithelium. Severe recurrent hypoglycemia associated with an inappropriate elevation of serum insulin, C-peptide and proinsulin defines this disorder. The d...
Most common cause of acute epididymitis in young males: (A) Chlamydia, (B) E Coli, (C) N. Gonorrhoea, (D) Proteus
Answer is A. Young males most common organism is chlamydia Age > 40 most common organism is E Coli
Vanilloid receptors are activated by: (A) Pain, (B) Vibration, (C) Touch, (D) Pressure
Answer is A. Vanilloid receptors are VR 1 and VRL 1 for painful temperature.
Source of ATP in RBCs is -: (A) Glucose, (B) Fatty acid, (C) Aminoacid, (D) Ketone body
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glucose* RBCs don't have mitochondria* RBC membrane integrity is maintained by Na+K+ATPase. This pump pumps out 3 sodium ions and reciprocally pumps in 2 potassium ions. In other words, this pump helps in maintaining low sodium concentration within RBCs. Sodium accumulation is avoided, as...
Location Hasner's of valve?: (A) Opening of nasolacrimal duct, (B) Sphenoidal sinus opening, (C) Frontal sinus opening, (D) Ethmoidal sinus opening
Answer is A. Opening of nasolacrimal ductNasolacrimal duct opens into inferior meatus and is closed by a mucosal flap called Hasner's valve
Deficiency of cortisol causes:: (A) Cushing syndrome, (B) Graves disease, (C) Addison disease, (D) Acromegaly
Answer is C. Addison’s Disease: Addison’s disease results from an inability of the adrenal cortices  to  produce  sufficient  adrenocortical  hormones. In  Addison’s  disease,  either  glucocorticoid  or mineralocorticoid deficiency may come first, but eventually all patients fail to secrete both classes of corticosteroi...
All of the following are inhalational anesthetic agents except: (A) Halothane, (B) Ketamine, (C) Enflurane, (D) Isoflurane
Answer is B. None
Features of healthy gallbladder on laparotomy are all except: (A) Typical "sea-green" coloured, (B) Wall is thin and elastic, (C) Can be emptied, (D) Not easily visible
Answer is D. Healthy Gallbladder Greenish blue or sea-green color Thin and elastic wall Can be emptied by squeezing Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1494
Immediate source of energy is -: (A) Corps cycle, (B) HMP, (C) ATP, (D) TCA cycle
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., ATP o There are three energy systems to provide energy for muscular activities.Immediate energy system : Energy is provided by stored ATP and creatine phosphate.Anaerobic glycolytic system (lactic acid system) : Energy is generated by utilization of glucose or glycogen by anaerobic glycol...
Regular drinking of which of the following can help prevent Urinary Tract infection (UTI): (A) Grape juice, (B) Orange juice, (C) Cranberry juice, (D) Raspberry juice
Answer is C. Cranberry juice Mechanism of prevention of UTI: Proanthocyanidis in cranberry juice prevent bacterial fimbriae from attaching to wall of Urinary Bladder and urinary tract Ref: How cranberry juice can prevent Urinary tract Infections, Science daily, July 21,2008)
Vit B 12 is absorbed in: (A) Stomach, (B) Deudenum, (C) Ileum, (D) Colon
Answer is C. The  cobalamin-lF complex travels through the gut. The complex binds to specific receptors on the surface of the mucosal cells of the ileum. The binding of the complex and entry of B12 into the mucosal cells is mediated by Ca2+ ions. In the  mucosal  cells,  B12  is  converted  to methyf cobalamin. lt is t...
Height of contour of tooth is determined by: (A) Survey line, (B) Non undercut area, (C) Undercut area, (D) None of the above
Answer is A. None
All of the following are true about Raynaud\'s disease except -: (A) More cormnon in females, (B) Positive antinuclear antibodies, (C) Most common cause of raynaud's phenomenon, (D) Has good prognosis
Answer is B. None
The ducts of all the following glands consist of stratified cuboidal epithelium except: (A) Sweat gland, (B) Sebaceous glands, (C) Salivary glands, (D) Pancreas
Answer is B. Sebaceous glands are microscopic exocrine glands in the skin that secrete an oily or waxy matter, called sebum, to lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair of mammals. In humans, they occur in the greatest number on the face and scalp, but also on all pas of the skin except the palms of the hands and sol...
Gingival enlargement with leathery consistency with characteristic minutely pebbled surface is seen in: (A) Idiopathic gingival enlargement, (B) Drug induced gingival enlargement, (C) Pregnancy gingival enlargement, (D) Puberty gingival enlargement
Answer is A. None
Regarding medullary sponge kidney-a) Autosomal dominantb) Nephrocalcinosisc) Minimal proteinuriad) More common in females: (A) acd, (B) abd, (C) abc, (D) ab
Answer is C. None
Childbirth trauma leading to Urinary incontinence is seen least in females with:: (A) Android pelvis, (B) Anthropoid pelvis, (C) Gynecoid pelvis, (D) Platypelloid pelvis
Answer is A. Childbirth trauma causes damage of the pelvic floor and pubocervical fascia leading to urinary incontinence. The injury is more common in gynecoid and least in android pevis.
A person laughs to a joke, then suddenly loses tone of all muscles. Diagnosis is: DNB 09; JIPMER 13: (A) Cataplexy, (B) Catalepsy, (C) Sleep attack, (D) Sleep paralysis
Answer is A. Ans. Cataplexy
The following tests are related to blood coagulation disorders in obstetrics except:: (A) Thrombocytopenia is a feature of fibrinolytic process and not of DIG, (B) In Die, RBC will be 'helmet' shaped or fragmented in fibrinolytic process, the cell morphology is nominal, (C) Weiner clot observation test gives a rough es...
Answer is A. A complete coagulation profile is done which includes fibrinogen,fibrin degradation products,paial thromboplastin time,prothrombin time,platelet count.The best marker of severity is the fibrinogen level (refer pgno:137 sheila textbook of obstetrics 2 nd edition)
Fibrocystic disease of the breast has been associated with elevated blood levels of: (A) Testosterone, (B) Progesterone, (C) Estrogen, (D) Luteinizing hormone
Answer is C. Fibrocystic disease (chronic cystic mastitis) is a common disorder of the adult female breast. It is rare after cessation of ovarian function, either natural or induced. Its association with estrogens is inferential. In postmenopausal women it only occurs when replacement estrogen therapy is in use. Its ma...
ATP synthetase is a marker of ?: (A) Golgi apparatus, (B) Mitochondria, (C) Cytosol, (D) Endoplasmic reticular
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mitochondria
DNA topoisomerase 1 autoantibody is specific for?: (A) Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, (B) Mixed connective tissue disease, (C) Diffuse scleroderma, (D) SLE
Answer is C. Scl-70 antibodies are associated with more severe scleroderma disease. Anti-topoisomerase antibodies can be classified according to their immunoglobulin class (IgM, IgG or IgA). IgG-ATA is found most frequently in scleroderma, with IgA being quite common but IgM very infrequent. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 230
What is the abnormality shown in this shoulder Radiograph?: (A) Anterior Dislocation Of Shoulder, (B) Posterior Dislocation Of Shoulder, (C) Chondrosarcoma, (D) Simple Bone cyst
Answer is B. Electric Bulb/Light Bulb Appearance on Shoulder Radiograph Is suggestive of posterior Dislocation of Shoulder.
Most common vasculitis in children: (A) Henoch Schonlein purpura, (B) Kawasaki disease, (C) Wegener's granulomatosis, (D) Polyarteritis nodosa
Answer is B. UPDATE- Most common vasculitis in children Kawasaki Disease.
Foraminal brain herniation leads to?: (A) Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation, (B) Locked in state, (C) Respiratory arrest, (D) Ipsilateral hemiplegia
Answer is C. Foraminal brain herniation leads to compression of the medulla leading to respiratory arrest. Third nerve palsy causing ipsilateral pupillary dilatation and ipsilateral hemiplegia occurs in uncal (midbrain) herniation Locked in state occurs due to a lesion of ventral pons.
Random sampling is not done in?: (A) Cluster sampling, (B) Quota sampling, (C) Stratified sampling, (D) Simple random
Answer is B. Quota sampling is a method for selecting survey paicipants that is a non-probabilistic version of stratified sampling. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 913
Cerebral Ischemia occur when cerebral blood flow is less than -: (A) 10 ml/100g/minute, (B) 20 ml/100g/minute, (C) 40 ml/100g/minute, (D) 50 ml/100g/minute
Answer is B. None
Regarding rabies, true is:: (A) Incubation period depends on the site of bite, (B) Diagnosis is by eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion, (C) It is a DNA virus, (D) Caused only by dogs
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Incubation period depends on the site of bite(Ref: PSM Park, 19th/e, p. 228)Variability of Incubation Period* Incubation period of rabies depends on:- The site of bite.- Number of wounds.- Species of biting animal.- Severity of bite.- Amount of virus injected.- Protection provided by clot...
The commando operation is -: (A) Abdomino-perineal resection of the rectum for carcinoma, (B) Disaiculation of the hip for gas gangrene of the leg, (C) Extended radical mastectomy, (D) Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, pa of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc
Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, pa of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc
Insulin resistance syndrome includes all of the following, Except:: (A) Dyslipidemia, (B) Hypeension, (C) Hyperuricemia, (D) Low HDL
Answer is C. Answer is C (Hyperuricemia): Hyperuricemia is not a feature of Insulin resistance metabolic syndrome. Insulin resistance syndrome refers to the metabolic syndrome associated with insulin resistance. Besides insulin resistance, the associated manifestations of the syndrome include hypeension, dyslipidemia T...
A multigravida came for routine antenatal check up. She had a history of medical termination of pregnancy due to fetus with anencephaly. Anencephaly is best diagnosed in the present pregnancy by using:: (A) Maternal Alpha fetoprotein, (B) Amniotic fluid beta hCG, (C) USG, (D) X-ray
Answer is C. Anencephaly is a lethal defect characterized by absence of the brain and cranium above the base of the skull and orbits. In the first half of pregnancy, the diagnosis made by elevated alpha-feto protein in amniotic fluid and confirmed by sonography. Inability to obtain a view of the biparietal diameter sho...
False for pelvic congestion syndrome is: (A) A recognized cause of chronic pelvic pain in women, (B) Associated with lumbo-ovarian vein varices, (C) Dyspareunia, when present, may be a poor prognostic indicator, (D) Symptom are often worse after Menstruation
Answer is D. Pelvic congestion syndrome is a recognized cause of chronic pelvic pain in women that has been associated with lumbo-ovarian vein varices.Dyspareunia, when present, may be a poor prognostic indicator. Symptoms are often worse with fatigue, before menstruation, and in the upright position.
True about Rabies a) Bats Transmit disease in some parts of the world b) Brainstem encephalitis is characteristic c) Negri bodies commonly found in thalamus and anterior pituitary d) Paraesthesia is not seen e) Recovery is the usual course: (A) ab, (B) abc, (C) abd, (D) bcd
Answer is A. None
Senile plaques in brain is a feature of: (A) Multiple sclerosis, (B) Parkinsonism, (C) Alzheimer's disease, (D) Wilson's disease
Answer is C. None
Stapedius muscle is supplied by:: (A) 5th nerve, (B) 6th nerve, (C) 7th nerve, (D) 8th nerve
Answer is C. (7th nerve): Ref: 225-LT (91-D 4th)STAPEDIUS MUSCLE - after emerging from the pyramid, is inserted into the neck of the stapes* It has an action of damping the movement of the stapes by tilting outwards the anterior end of the foot plate.* Supplied by facial nerveTENSOR TYMPANI MUSCLE - arise from the cart...
Synaptic transmission between pain fibers from the skin and spinal cord neurons is mediated by:: (A) Acetylcholine, (B) Substance P, (C) Endorphins, (D) Somatostatin
Answer is B. Substance P is found in neurons within the hypothalamus and spinal cord. It is released from small A delta and C fibers that relay information from nociceptors to neurons within the substantia gelatinosa of the spinal cord. Endorphins and other opioid neurotransmitters may paially inhibit the perception of...
In a person who has fasted for 5 days, all are seen except:: (A) GH levels decreased, (B) Glucose tolerance decreased, (C) Immunoreactive insulin decreased, (D) Free fatty acids (Plasma) increased
Answer is A. None
The bad prognostic factors of schizophrenia include: (A) Age 18 yrs, (B) Age 40 yrs, (C) Sudden onset, (D) Female
Answer is A. Age below 18years early age of onset, poor compliance to medications, poor insight, poor knowledge, attitude and practice among family members, expressed emotions among family members , male gender, insidious onset of illness , simple and hebephrenic type of schizophrenia are usually bad prognostic factors...
A 26-year-old lady, complains to her gynaecologist of discomfo during intercourse. Pelvic examination demonstrates a frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge with a strong odour and small, red, ulcerations of the vaginal wall. A wet mount preparation demonstrates motile, flagellated protozoa. Which of the following is th...
Answer is B. Trichomonas vaginalis, the causative organism of trichomoniasis, is a single-celled protozoan parasite with a predilection for infecting the vagina. The organism can be identified with intra-office wet mount preparations, cultured, or recognized on Pap smears (although this should be confirmed by culture, ...
Which personality disorder of DSM-IV is not classified as PD & is placed with schizophrenia in ICD 10 -: (A) Schizoid, (B) Paranoid, (C) Narcissistic, (D) Schizotypal
Answer is D. A schizotypal personality disorder is classified in cluster 'A' in DSM-IV-TR classification. In ICD- 10 classification schizotypal disorder is classified with schizophrenia and related disorder.
Which of the following TCA cycle intermediate is a part of heme metabolism?: (A) Alpha ketoglutarate, (B) Fumarate, (C) Succinyl CoA, (D) Malate
Answer is C. Ans. (c) Succinyl CoARef: Harpers Biochemistry 30th Ed; Page No- 325Steps of Synthesis of Heme* To produce 1 molecule of heme, 8 molecules each of glycine and succinyl-CoA are required.* It is divided into1. Synthesis of Porphobilinogen (Monopyrrole)2. Synthesis of Uroporphyrinogen (Tetrapyrrole)3. Convers...
Amiddle aged female presents with polyahritis with elevated rheumatoid factor and A.N.A. levels, which among the following will help you to differentiate rheumatoid ahritis from SLE?: (A) Soft tissue swelling at the proximal inter phalangial joint, (B) Juxta aicular osteoporosis on X-ray, (C) Aicularerosions on X-ray, ...
Answer is C. Aicular erosions on X-ray Always remember this impoant point about SLE "Erosions on joint X-ray are rare, their presence suggests a non lupus inflammatory ahropathy such as rheumatoid ahritis". This fact has been asked so many times in various exams as : ? "Non erosive ahritis is a. feature of which of the...
Every 3 degree abduction of arm at shoulder region, the scapular rotation accounts to: (A) 1 degree, (B) 2 degrees, (C) 3 degrees, (D) 0.5 degrees
Answer is A. None
Which of the following is a metastasis suppressor gene in relation to prostate cancer: (A) KAI - 1, (B) NM 23, (C) KISS, (D) p53
Answer is A. Prostate cancers account for 43% of all cancers diagnosed in American men. It is estimated that in 1996, 317,000 new cases of prostate cancer were diagnosed and 41,000 men died of the disease. The challenge of treating prostate cancer lies in accurately distinguishing those histologically-localized cancers...
Hera lal a 35 year old man was found to be positive for HBsAg and HBeAg , accidentally during a screening for blood donation. On Lab examination SGOT and SGPT are normal. What should be the most appropriate next step?: (A) Observation, (B) Liver biopsy, (C) Interferon therapy, (D) HBV-DNA estimation
Answer is D. Patient in the question is positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, so he is more likely to be highly infectious and must be associated with the presence of Hepatitis B virions and a detectable HBV DNA. Ref: Harrisons Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 304, Page 2540 ; Review of Medical Microbiology and Immunol...
True about CSF rhinorrhea is -a) Occurs due to break in cribriform plateb) Contains glucosec) Requires immediate surgeryd) Contains less protein: (A) acd, (B) bcd, (C) abc, (D) abd
Answer is D. Let us see each option Separately Option a – Occurs due to break in cribriform plate. This is correct Option b – CSF contains glucose and option d It has less proteins In comparison to nasal secretions – CSF contains more of glucose and less of proteins (Turner 10/e, p 28) hence both options b and d are ...
Enzyme defect in galactosemia: (A) Uridyl transferase, (B) Galactokinase, (C) Epimerase, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. Galactosemia 1. There is deficiency of enzyme galactose-1phosphate uridyl transferase. It is an inborn error of metabolism. The incidence is 1 in 35,000 bihs. Hermann Kalckar described it in 1958. 2. Due to the block in this enzyme, galactose-1phosphate will accumulate in liver. This will inhibit galactoki...
Oral vancomycin can be used for treatment of ?: (A) Hepatic encephalopathy, (B) Pseudomembranous colitis, (C) Staphylococcal food poisoning, (D) None of the above
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pseudomembranous colitis o Vancomycin is used orally to treat pseudomembranous colitis by clostridium difficile because it is not absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and higher concentration reaches the colon.
A 5-month-old pale and lethargic male infant is brought to emergency. On examination, HR is 240 bpm and it does not change with crying. Lungs are clear and no hepatomegaly present. His ECG is given below. Which of the following is the first step in management of this patient?: (A) Rapid verapamil infusion, (B) Transtho...
Answer is C. ECG s/o Supraventricular tachycardia Characterized by rapid hea rate (about 250 beats per minute)and a consistent P wave for each QRS complex. Prolonged SVT can lead to hea failure with hepatomegaly and respiratory compromise. Fetal SVT can lead to hydrops fetalis. The first-line treatment is to stimulate ...
Hydatid disease of liver is caused by -a) Strongloidesb) Echinococcus granulosusc) Taenia soliumd) Trichinella spiralise) Echinococcus multilocularis: (A) ab, (B) be, (C) bc, (D) ce
Answer is B. Hydatid disease: Echinococcus granulosus: Causes Hydatid disease—Hepatomegaly (60—70% of cases), then lungs E. multilocularis: Causes Alveolar Hydatid disease (90%-liver involvement) E. oligarthrus and E.vogeli: Causes Polycystic Hydatid disease.
Health care made universally accessible to individuals and acceptable to them is called: (A) Primary health care, (B) Essential health care, (C) Community health care, (D) Social Medicine
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Primary health care
A child is receiving corticosteroids for medical therapy. The following is not a contraindication in this child for receiving a live viral vaccine:: (A) When child is receiving 2 mg/kg of prednisolone for at least 2 weeks at present, (B) When child has received 2 mg/kg of prednisolone for at least 2 weeks in the past o...
Answer is D. d. Chronic asthmatic child receiving low dose inhaled steroid for 10 months(Ref: Ghai 8/e p 142)Low dose steroids are not a contraindication to live vaccines.
Kleptomania means: (A) Irresistible desire to set fire, (B) Irresistible desire to steal things, (C) Compulsive hair pulling, (D) Pathological gambling
Answer is B. Disruptive, Impulse-Control & Conduct Disorder: include intermittent explosive disorder, pyromania, kleptomania, conduct disorder*, antisocial personality disorder* , oppositional defiant disorder*. (* - usually described as a type of personality disorders) Feature Of Impulse-Control Disorders failure to r...
All of the following are zoonosis, except:: (A) Plague, (B) Japanese Encephalitis (JE), (C) HIV, (D) Tuberculosis (TB)
Answer is C. Zoonosis is defined by the Joint FAO/WHO Expe Committee as 'those diseases and infections which are naturally transmitted between veebrate animals and man'. There are more than 150 diseases and infections having reservoir as animals and is communicable to man. These zoonotic diseases may be caused by virus...
Inherited coagulation defect with T coagulation is found in -: (A) Protein C deficiency, (B) Protein S deficiency, (C) Antithrombin III deficiency, (D) All
Answer is D. Ans. is 'a'i.e Protein C deficiency; 'b' i.e., Protein S deficiency; 'c' i.e., Antithrombin III deficiency
Paltauf's hemorrhages are seen in -: (A) Hanging, (B) Strangulation, (C) Drowning, (D) Thermal injury
Answer is C. Paltauff's haemorrhages: Usually seen in the lower lobes of the lungs in drowning. They may be seen on the anterior surface and interlobar surfaces of lungs. They are red or grey patches. They may be seen on the surface due to interstitial emphysema. They may however be absent. This condition of the lung i...
Looser's zones are seen in which of the following ?: (A) Osteomalacia, (B) Paget's disease, (C) Renal osteodystrophy, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. Condition where milkman's fracture may be seen *Rickets/osteomalacia *Renal osteodystrophy *Paget's disease *Fibrous dysplasia *Hereditary hyperphosphatasia *Idiopathic Looser&;s Zone ( Milkman&;s Pseudofractures ) Pathognomonic * Looser zones are radiolucent lines that are often penetrating through the co...
Contributory negligence is related with:: (A) Eggshell skull rule, (B) Master servant rule, (C) Avoidable consequences rule, (D) Common knowledge rule
Answer is C. Contributory Negligence: Negligence of both patient and doctors. For e.g Doctor puts tight plaster on patient (Doctor Negligent). The patient develops numbness but does not inform doctor and suffers injury (patient negligent). It is a defence only in civil negligence and has no place in criminal negligence...
Detection of aneuploidy in 1st trimester:: (A) hCG and PAPP-A, (B) hCG and AFP, (C) hCG, PAPP-A and AFP, (D) AFP and estriol
Answer is A. Ans. A. hCG and PAPP-ARef: William's 24th/ed, p289Table 2: Selected Down syndrome screening strategies and their detection rateStrategyAnalytesDetection Rate3 (%)First-trimester screenNT, PAPP-A, and hCG or free p-hCG79-87NTNT alone64-70Triple testMSAFP hCG OR free p-hCG, uE361-70Quadruple (Quad) testMSAFP...
Deficiency of zinc causes all of the following except: March 2010: (A) Growth retardation, (B) Sexual infantilism, (C) Alopecia, (D) None
Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. None
Epulis is?: (A) Benign, (B) Malignant, (C) Reactive process, (D) Precancerous
Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) BenignREF: Textbook of Surgery by Roshan Lai Gupta 2nd ed Page 471EPULISEpulis represents a family of benign tumors of gingiva. The classification includes:Granulomatous epulis, pyogenic granulomaGiant cell epulis (Myeloid epulis)Fibrous epulis (Most common)
Community health centres covering a population of -: (A) 40-60,000, (B) 60-80,000, (C) 80-1,20,000, (D) More than 1,20,000
Answer is C. As on march 31st 2014 ,5363 community health centers were established by upgrading the primary health care covering a population of 80,000 to 1.20 lakh with 30 beds and specialist in surgery,medicine,obstetrics,gynaecology and paediatrics with x- ray and laboratory facilities (refer pgno:907 park 23 rd edi...
Which of the following medications essential for ameliorating the toxicity of pemetrexed:: (A) Folinic acid and vitamin B6, (B) Folic acid and vitamin B12, (C) Vitamin 136 and Vitamin B1,, (D) Folic acid and dexamethasone
Answer is A. Ans. b. Folic acid and vitamin B12 Pemetrexed Toxicity Pemetrexed toxicity mirrors that of methotrexate, with the additional feature of a prominent erythematous and pruritic rash in 40% of patientsQ. Dexamethasone, 4 mg twice daily on days -1, 0 and +1, markedly diminishes this toxicity. Unpredictably, sev...
Pyridoxine is used in treatment of ?: (A) Galactosemia, (B) Phenylketonuria, (C) Propionic acidemia, (D) Homocystinuria
Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Homocystinuria Inborn error of metabolism and Treatment Alkaptonuria Vitamin C, Folic acid Homocystinuria Pyridoxine + Folic acid Cystinuria Alkalization of urine + d-Penicillamine, Captopril Hanup disease Nicotinamide Multiple carboxylase eficiency Biotin Methyl malonic academia Vitamin ...
Benedict's hand is due to injury to -: (A) Ulnar nerve, (B) Median nerve, (C) Axillary nerve, (D) Radial nerve
Answer is B. Ans. is'b'i.e., Median nerveBenediction deformity of hand (Benedict hand) and positive Benediction test are seen in median nerve injury.
The crescent formation is characteristic of the following glomerular disease -: (A) Minimal change disease, (B) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, (C) Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis, (D) Rapidly non progressive glomerulonephritis
Answer is B. Regardless of the cause, the classical histological picture of RPGN is characterized by the presence of crescents in most of the glomeruli. So, RPGN is also known as crescentic glomerulonephritis. Crescent formation Despite the wide variety of diseases that causes RPGN, all types of RPGN are characteriz...
All are true about Mastoid antrum except: (A) Thickness of bone of lateral wall is about 1.5 cm, (B) It does not communicate with middle ear, (C) Air cells are present in the upper part, (D) Surface marking done by Me Ewen's Traingle
Answer is B. (B) It does not communicate with middle ear# Mastoid Antrum:> Is a large, air-containing space in the upper part of mastoid and communicates with the attic through the aditus.> Its roof is formed by the tegmen antri and is a continuation of the tegmen tympani and separates it from the middle cranial fossa....
All are absolute contraindications for regional anesthesia Except: (A) Patient refusal, (B) Lack of nerve stimulator, (C) Lack of resuscitation facilities, (D) INR > 2 in ophthalmic procedures
Answer is D. INR > 2 is a relative contraindication for ophthalmic anaesthesia
Which among the following appears as spinal cord edema in MRI scan?: (A) Myelodysplasia, (B) Spinal cord infarctions, (C) Myeloschisis, (D) Cord tumors
Answer is B. Most spinal cord infarctions are detected by MRI. After a few days, there are obvious lesions on the T2 sequences, presumably reflecting edema that extends over several levels. There may be slight enhancement after infusion of gadolinium. MRI taken in the first hours or day is often normal. In the chronic ...
Digitalis acts in CHF by:: (A) Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition, (B) Na+ K+ ATPase stimulation, (C) Blockade of calcium channels, (D) Increasing the refractory period of AV node
Answer is A. None