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Earliest method of diagnosing pituitary tumour: (A) CT scan, (B) Visual field chaing, (C) Visual evoked potential, (D) X-ray skull | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., CT Scan | |
Shortest incubation period in malaria -: (A) P. vivax, (B) P. falciparum, (C) P. malariae, (D) P. ovale | Answer is B. None | |
Maintenance of oral health is best achieved by: (A) hard bristle tooth brush, (B) Mouth wash, (C) A soft bristle brush and tooth paste, (D) A soft bristle brush and dental floss | Answer is D. None | |
FAST -: (A) CT, (B) USG, (C) MRI, (D) X-ray | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., USG o FAST stands for focused assessment with sonography for trauma,o FAST is the preferred triage method for determining the presence of hemoperitoneum in blunt trauma patients or cardiac tamponade in blunt and penetrating trauma patients,o The four areas scanned in FASTSubxiphoid areaRt... | |
In gingival index score 2 means:: (A) Bleeding on slight provocation, (B) Spontaneous bleeding, (C) Colour change in gingiva, (D) No change in gingiva | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following vitamins can be used for treatment of hypercholesterolemia?: (A) Thiamine, (B) Biotin, (C) Pyridoxine, (D) Nicotinic acid | Answer is D. ANTI-DYSLIPIDEMIC AGENTS Group Mechanism Drugs Special points Statins HMG CoA reductase inhibition Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin Max LDL lowering capacity Fibrates Stimulation of PPAR-alpha Clofibrate Fenofibrate Gemfibrozil Max TG lowering capacity Bile acid sequestrants Binds bile acids in GIT Cholestyramin... | |
True about EMLA:: (A) Can be used for intubation, (B) Mixture of local anesthesia, (C) Faster acting, (D) All | Answer is B. B i.e. Mixture of local anesthesia - Procaine, Mepivacaine & BupivacaineQ (Provide me BUM) are never used topically. - EMLA is eutectic mixture of local anesthetics (2.5% lidocaine & 2.5% prilocaine)Q commonly used to make venepuncture painless especially in children. | |
Dose of Carbetocin for post paum hemorrhage: (A) 100 microgram intramuscular, (B) 50 microorgam Inravenous, (C) 150 microgram intravenous, (D) 200 microgram intramuscular | Answer is A. Refer Goodman Gilman 12th/1851 Carbetocin is along acting Oxytocin that us useful to prevent post pay hemorrhage given intramuscularly or intravenously in a dose of 100 microorgam | |
Schatzki's ring is present in -: (A) Upper end of esophagus, (B) Mid-esophagus, (C) Squamocolumnar junction in esophagus, (D) Fundus of stomach | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Squamocolumnar junction in esophagus Schatzki's ringo It occurs at the junction of squamous and columnar epithelium at the lower end of oesophagus and has also been called lower oesophageal ring.o Usually seen in patients above 50 years of age.o Cause is unknown.o Symptomatic patients com... | |
All are true about ulnar nerve except:: (A) Root value C8TI, (B) Pass through cubital tunnel, (C) Supply flexor digitorum superficialis, (D) Supply flexor carpi ulnaris | Answer is C. Ans. c. Supply flexor digitorum superficialis Nerve course:Root value of ulnar nerve is C7, C8 6 T1.Ulnar nerve (C8, T1) arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus & descends in the interval b/w the axillary aery & veinAt elbow, ulnar nerve passes behind the medial epicondyleThe cubital tunnel is a... | |
True about the location of parotid gland:: (A) Between the ramus of the mandible and buccinator., (B) Between the ramus of the mandible and sternocleidomastoid., (C) Between the ramus of the mandible and masseter., (D) Between the ramus of the mandible and medial pterygoid. | Answer is B. None | |
Collagen is found in following, except?: (A) Ligament, (B) Tendon, (C) Fibroblasts, (D) Aponeurosis | Answer is C. Fibroblasts | |
True about blood pressure measurement is all/except: (A) Cuff width should be 40% of arm circumference, (B) Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fouh Korotkoff sound, (C) Small cuff measures spuriously elevated Diastolic blood pressure, (D) Monkenberg sclerosis causes pseudohypeension | Answer is B. Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fouh Korotkoff sound According to American Hea Association- onset of phase I Korotkoff s sound corresponds to systolic pressure and the disappearance of sounds (phase V) corresponds to diastolic pressure . More points about measuring blood pressure The standard tech... | |
In status epilepticus, drug of choice is:: (A) I/V diazepam, (B) I/M diazepam, (C) Oral clonazepam, (D) I/M phenytoin | Answer is A. A i.e. IV diazepam Status epilepticus is said to occur when seizures lasts beyond 30 minutes or seizures are repetitive, prolonged & the patient remains unconscious in between the seizures. The drug of choice is /V Lorazepam (Benzodiazipine)Q 0.1 mg/kg at rate of 2 mg/min. Pharmacologic treatment of genera... | |
When activated by b-adrenergic receptors, the G protein:: (A) Activates phospholipase C, (B) Activates adenylate cyclase, (C) Activates protein kinase C, (D) Conves guanosine diphosphate (GDP) to guanosine triphosphate (GTP) | Answer is B. When norepinephrine binds to a beta-adrenergic receptor, it activates a G protein (i.e., a guanosine triphosphate (GTP) binding protein), which, in turn, activates adenylate cyclase. Adenylate cyclase catalyzes the formation of cyclic adenosine 3',5'-monophosphate (cAMP), which activates a variety of kinas... | |
Generator area in a nerve cell is: (A) Cell body, (B) Initial segment, (C) Axon, (D) Dendrites | Answer is B. The first poion of the axon is called the initial segment. The Initial segment in spinal motor neurons, the initial node of Ranvier in cutaneous sensory neurons is a site where propagated action potentials are generated.(Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition) | |
Coronary blood flow is maximum during?: (A) Isovolumetric contraction, (B) Rapid ejection, (C) Slow ejection, (D) Isovolumetric relaxation | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) I so volumetric relaxationREF: Ganongs 22nd ed page 621CORONARY BLOOD FLOW:Coronary blood flow, like blood flow in other vessels, is dependent on a pressure gradient, principally driven by mean arterial pressure. However, because aortic pressure can vary widely and because the heart beats conti... | |
Ideal age for repair of vaginal agenesis is :: (A) 6 months, (B) 3 years, (C) At pubey, (D) Before marriage | Answer is D. Before marriage Repair of vaginal agenesis (seen in testicular feminizaton syndrome and Rokitansky-Kuster Hauser syndrome) is done by vaginoplasty. Vaginoplasty should only be performed when the girl is just married or about to be married. Techniques : 1. Frank dilatation (Non surgical method). 2. Construc... | |
Which type of articulators permit horizontal as well as vertical motion, but do not orient the motion to the TMJ via facebow transfer?: (A) Class I, (B) Class II, (C) Class III, (D) Class IV | Answer is B. Class II articulator:
Articulator which permit horizontal and vertical motion but they do not orient the movement to TMJ with a facebow.
Three types. | |
Sensory supply of vocal cord ?: (A) Internal laryngeal nerve, (B) Recurrent laryngeal nerve, (C) Superior laryngeal nerve, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Above the vocal cords the sensory innervation of larynx is internal laryngeal nerve (a branch of superior laryngeal nerve). Below vocal cords it is by way of branches of recurrent laryngeal nerve. The vocal cord itself receives dual innervation from both nerves"_en.wikipe... | |
Which is the following is not inherited as X-linked recessive: March 2005, September 2012, March 2013: (A) G-6-PD deficiency, (B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy, (C) Cystic fibrosis, (D) Hemophilia | Answer is C. Ans. C: Cystic fibrosis X-linked diseases usually occur in males. Males have only one X chromosome. A single recessive gene on that X chromosome will cause the disease. The Y chromosome is the other half of the XY gene pair in the male. However, the Y chromosome doesn't contain most of the genes of the X c... | |
The tensile strength of the wound stas and increases after: (A) Immediately after suturing, (B) 3-4 days, (C) 7-10 days, (D) 1 month | Answer is B. Wounds do not begin to gain tensile strength from collagen until 5 - 7 days. Wound achieves around 20 % by 3 weeks, and around 60 % by four months. Scar tissue continues to remodel for at least 6 - 12 months after an injury. | |
Characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease are all except: March 2007: (A) Reduced FEV1, (B) Reduced diffusion capacity, (C) Reduced residual volume, (D) Reduced mid expiratory flow rate | Answer is C. Ans. C: Reduced residual volume The diagnosis of COPD is confirmed by spirometry. Spirometry measures the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) which is the greatest volume of air that can be breathed out in the first second of a large breath. Spirometry also measures the forced vital capacity (FVC... | |
Which among the following is a true statement about Thymosin?: (A) A Pituitary hormone that regulates thymic development, (B) A Glycoprotein that confers passive immunity to non sensitized hosts, (C) An antiserum against thymocytes, (D) A thymic hormone that induces maturation of pre-T cells | Answer is D. Thymosin is a thymic hormone that regulates pre-T cell development. It is not released from the pituitary. Antithymocyte antibodies are not thymosin but are useful in transplantation rejection therapy. Lymphokines are released from T cells, but thymosin is a thymic hormone, not a lymphokine. Ref: Kipps T.J... | |
Which of the following malignant disease of children has the best prognosis?: (A) Wilm's tumor, (B) Neuroblastoma, (C) Rhabdomyosarcoma, (D) Primitive neuroectodermal tumor | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Wilms' tumour Ref: C.P.D.T 16th/e page 807-809, 811 Schwartz Surgery page 1748, 1749, 1747Prognosis depends most importantly upon staging but there are multiple factors affecting the prognosisAfter going through the survival rates of these tumours and confirming our answer with a paediatri... | |
Which of the following is true about fouh hea sound 'S4': (A) Can be heard by the unaided ear, (B) Frequency is greater than 20 Hz, (C) Heard during ventricular filling phase, (D) Heard during ventricular ejection phase | Answer is C. 4th hea sound cannot be heard even by a stethoscope since its frequency is below the audible limit (20 Hz). It is produced during last rapid filling of ventricles, which occurs due to atrial systole. Hence, it is also called "atrial sound". S1: Closure of A.V. valves (25-45 Hz) and S2: closure of semilunar... | |
All are included in Amsler's criteria, EXCEPT:: (A) Vaginal pH <4.5, (B) Positive amine test, (C) Clue cells> 20% of total vaginal epithelial cells, (D) Homogenous thin discharge | Answer is A. Amsler's criteria used for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is based on clinical & lab indicators: Vaginal pH >4.5, alkaline Positive amine test Clue cells> 20% of total vaginal epithelial cells Homogenous thin discharge Scanty / absent lactobacilli 3 out of 5 criteria suggests this diagnosis Ref: Sexu... | |
A 60 year old man presents with chest pain which last 6 hours and is diagnosed as acute myocardial infarction. Angiography showed involvement of anterior descending branch of left coronary artery The most probable site of infarct is-: (A) Anterolateral wall, (B) Posterior wall, (C) Inferior wall, (D) Septal | Answer is A. None | |
Patients with porphyria are highly sensitive to which wavelength :: (A) 290-320 nm, (B) 400-420 nm, (C) 320-400 nm, (D) 250-290 nm | Answer is B. Porphyrin are excited by visible light with a wavelength between 400 and 410 nm and emit an intense red fluorescence. The released energy reacts with oxygen to produce free radicals and singlet oxygen that damages tissues Mc porphyria - porphyria cutaneatarda (if- Red urine - D/D - myoglobinuria ) | |
Killian's dehisence is seen in:: (A) Oropharynx, (B) Nasophrynx, (C) Cricopharynx, (D) Vocal cords | Answer is C. Ans. C Cricopharynx Ref. Scott Brown's lth/ed Vol 2 Chapter 155 p 2045; Dhingra 5th/ed p 253, 6th/ed p 238 Killian's Dehiscence (Fig. 8.6) it is an area of weakness between the two pas of inferior constrictor muscle-sub thyropharyngeus and cricopha-ryngeus A pulsion diveiculum of pharyngeal mucosa can emer... | |
Chromosome-associated with bipolar disease -: (A) Chromosome 16, (B) Chromosome 13, (C) Chromosome 18, (D) Chromosome 11 | Answer is C. Chromosomes involved in bipolar disorder are chromosome 18, 21, and 22. | |
Feature that differentiates true from aificial bruise: (A) Round shape, irregular margins, (B) Irregular shape with regular margins, (C) Swelling of surrounding area, (D) Erythema of surrounding areas | Answer is B. contusion: not well defined, diffuse, and irregular margins Aificial bruise: well defined with regular margins. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY DR PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 120 | |
Which one of the following elements is NOT added in small amount to be used as grain refiners?: (A) Iridium, (B) Ruthinium, (C) Indium, (D) Platinum | Answer is D. None | |
The prototype of type-H hypersensitivity reaction is?: (A) Ahus reaction, (B) SLE, (C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, (D) Contact dermatitis | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Autoimmune hemolytic anemia | |
True statement about ductus Arteriosus is –: (A) It undergoes anatomic closure within 24 hours of birth, (B) Forms the ligamentum venosum in later life, (C) It is induced to close by high levels ofprostaglandins, (D) May cause a machinary murmur by its patency. | Answer is D. This question deals with the changes in blood circulation that occur at birth :
Closure of Ductus arteriosus
The closure occurs almost immediately after birth by contraction of its muscular wall, mediated by bradykinin. i.e.
Physiological closure.
Anatomic closure occurs by proliferation of intima, and... | |
A five year old child presents with ballooning of prepuce after micturation. Examination of penis reveals prepucial adhesions which the following the best treatment: (A) Adhesiolysis & dilatation, (B) Circumcision, (C) Dorsal slit, (D) Conservative management | Answer is B. The child is having congenital phimosis(inability to retract the prepuce over the glans) in which case the child has pinhole meatus and ballooning of prepuce on voiding. The best treatment is circumcision. Patients with phimosis are more prone for recurrent infection, smegma collection and carcinoma penis.... | |
Torus aorticus involves:: (A) Left atrium, (B) Arch of aorta, (C) Ascending aorta, (D) Right atrium | Answer is D. Ans. d (Right atrium). (Ref. Grey, Anatomy, 36th ed., 644)Torus aorticusAnterosuperior part of septal wall of right atrium bulges to some degree into the atrial cavity as torus aorticus. It is caused by proximity of right posterior aortic sinus and cusp.Torus auditoryThe postero-inferior wall of external m... | |
Cavett test is used for detection of: (A) Opiates, (B) Alcohol, (C) Barbiturates, (D) Cocaine | Answer is B. Test for alcohol :
Cavett test
Kozelka and thine test
Alcohol dehydrogenase test
Gas chromatography (Most specific) | |
All are features of Meniere's disease except:: (A) Hearing loss that fluctuates, (B) Giddiness is provoked in certain head positions, (C) Sense of pressure or fullness in the ear, (D) Roaring tinnitus | Answer is B. Giddiness occurring in certain head positions such as bending forward to pick up an article or reaching for an article in the overhead shelf or turning one's position in the bed is a feature of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). The condition is due to free-floating particles (otoconia) in the en... | |
The most common complication of immunosuppression is:: (A) Malignancy, (B) Graft rejection, (C) Infection, (D) Thrombocytopenia | Answer is C. Ans. (c) InfectionRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 1416* Bacterial infection is most common in 1st month and is most common in those who are critically ill before and after transplant.* Viral infection is most common in 6 months--Most common is CMV > HSV* BK virus is universal in childhood causes urinary inf... | |
'Time out' is useful in the treatment of:: (A) Temper Tantrums, (B) Pica, (C) Anorexia nervosa, (D) Nocturnal enuresis | Answer is A. Time-out- behavioral modification that involves temporarily separating child from an environment where an unacceptable behavior has occurred. The goal is to remove that child from an enriched, enjoyable environment- lead to extinction of the offending behavior. Distraction and 'time-out' strategies are use... | |
The extended sickness benefit is given for:: (A) 309 days, (B) 409 days, (C) 365 days, (D) 490 days | Answer is A. 309 days | |
Which among the following is a killed vaccine: (A) Japanese encephalitis, (B) Measles, (C) Influenza vaccine, (D) Yellow fever | Answer is A. Japanese encephalitis vaccine is a killed vaccine Killed vaccines are produced by growing virus or bacteria in a culture media and then inactivating them with heat or chemicals They are usually safe but less efficacious than live attenuated vaccines. Measles, yellow fever and influenza vaccines are live at... | |
Undiagnosed or undetected ectopic pregnancy is a common cause of maternal death during the first trimester. Most valuable diagnostic test in a case of suspected ectopic pregnancy is:: (A) Serial (3-hCG levels), (B) Transvaginal USG, (C) Progesterone measurement, (D) Culdocentesis | Answer is B. Transvaginal ultrasonography (TVUS) has the advantage of earlier and better localization of the pregnancy, with less pelvic discomfo because the bladder is not painfully distended. The double-ring sign and the yolk sac must be identified to ensure that the pregnancy is intrauterine. When an intrauterine pr... | |
A 6 - year - old boy with lymphoreticular malignancy has come for a cycle of chemotherapy. Which of the following investigatins need to be done for next 4 hours to diagnose tumour lysis syndrome?: (A) Urea, creatinine, chloride, Ca2+ and K+, (B) Urea, creatinine, phosphate, Ca2+ and K+, (C) Urea, creatinine, magnesium,... | Answer is B. Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) - -Uric acid, phosphate and potassium are released in large quantities from death of tumour cells. -Hyperuricemia can lead to impairment of renal function, which fuher exacerbates the metabolic abnormalities. -Hypocalcaemia is a consequence of acute hyperphosphatemia with subseq... | |
All true about CisATRACURIUM except-: (A) It is pure Cis isomer of atracurium, (B) It is more potent than atracurium, (C) It is also causes histamine release like atracurium, (D) Metabolism similar to atracurium | Answer is C. Cisatracurium is pure sis isomer of atracurium. It is more potent and has longer onset time than atracurium. Metabolism is similar to atracurium. It releases less histamine than atracurium. Cisatracurium does not cause histamine release unlike atracurium. Cisatracurium produces laudanosine but is about fiv... | |
Pre-renal azotemia is associated with one of the following characteristic feature -: (A) Urinary Na+ < 10 mmol/L, (B) Renal failure index > 1, (C) Osmolality < 500, (D) Urinary creatinine/P. creatinine ratio < 20 | Answer is A. None | |
Ejection fraction is about: (A) 25%, (B) 45%, (C) 55%, (D) 65% | Answer is D. The ejection fraction, the percent of the end-diastolic ventricular volume that is ejected with each stroke, is about 65%. The ejection fraction is a valuable index of ventricular function. | |
Opaque white areas covering more than 25% but less than 50% of the tooth surface is given the Dean's score of:: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, (D) 4 | Answer is B. None | |
In a man lifting up a suitcase, posterior dislocation of glenohumeral joint is prevented by:: (A) Deltoid, (B) Latissimus dorsi, (C) Coracobrachialis, (D) Supra spinatous | Answer is C. Ans. (c) CoracobrachialisRef : Gray's 41st ed./819-821* The coracobrachialis is an elongated muscle in the superomedial part of the arm. The coracobrachialis helps flex and adduct the arm and stabilize the glenohumeral joint.* With the deltoid and long head of the triceps, it serves as a shunt muscle, resi... | |
Xerosis is seen in: September 2006: (A) Vitamin A deficiency, (B) Vitamin B deficiency, (C) Vitamin C deficiency, (D) Vitamin D deficiency | Answer is A. Ans. A: Vitamin A deficiency | |
What is the treatment of choice in duodenal ulcer without any complication of hemorrhage?: (A) Highly selective vagotomy, (B) Trunkal vagotomy, (C) Proton pump inhibitors, (D) None | Answer is C. Proton pump inhibitors like Omeprazole can produce relief in patients with duodenal ulcer. Perforation complicates duodenal ulcer about half as often as bleeding and most perforated ulcers are on the anterior surface of the duodenum. The patient population tends to be elderly (mean age 60-70), chronically,... | |
The maintenance dose of digoxin: (A) 0.25 mg/day, (B) 2.5 mg/day, (C) 25 mg/day, (D) 250 mg/day | Answer is A. Slow digitalization: Here maintenance dose of Digoxin (average 0.25 mg/day) is given from the beginning. Full response takes 5-7 days to develop, but the procedure is much safer. In case an adequate response is not seen after I week, increase the dose to 0.375 and then to 0.5 mg after another week.Rapid or... | |
Pentosuria is due to defect in which pathway?: (A) Glycolysis, (B) Polyol pathway, (C) Uronic acid pathway, (D) Kreb's cycel | Answer is C. Essential Pentosuria i. It is one of the members of the Garrod&;s tetrad. The incidence is 1 in 2,500 bihs. ii.It is an inborn error of metabolism, due to defect in glucuronic acid pathway of glucose. In the pathway, L-xylulose is conveed to D-xylulose by two enzymes, xylitol dehydrogenase and xylulose red... | |
Which of the following milestone is achieved at 36 months -: (A) Drawing a rectangle, (B) Building a tower of 20 cubes, (C) Riding a tricycle, (D) Skipping | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Riding a tricycle Milestones seen at 36 monthso Rides tricycleo Stands momentarily on one footo Draws a circle.o Can dress or undress himself completely and succesfully buckles his shoeso Builds tower of 10 cubeso Knows his gender and ageo Repeats a sentence of 6 syllableso Has a vocabula... | |
Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?: (A) Serous cystadenoma, (B) Mucinous cystadenoma, (C) Dermoid cyst, (D) Theca lutein cyst | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Dermoid cystRef. Novak 14/e, p 510; Dutta Obs. 6/e, p 310"Incidence of dermoid cyst increases two times in pregnancy and it becomes the most commonly diagnosed ovarian tumour during pregnancy." --Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 310"A benign cystic teratoma is the most common neoplasm to undergo torsion."... | |
Thermo-stability in DNA is contributed mostly by:: (A) A=T, (B) GEC, (C) Molecular base, (D) Parallel arrangement | Answer is B. B i.e. G CThermostability in DNA is constributed mostly by C GQ because there are 3 Hydrogen bonds between C & GQ. G C bonds are much more resistant to denaturation or melting than A= T rich region (2 Hydrogen bonds) | |
Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for: (A) X-rays, (B) Neutrons and alpha paicles, (C) Electrons, (D) Gamma rays | Answer is B. Ionizing radiation acts by two methods: Direct and IndirectDirect action is radiation directly causing DNA damage; example: neutrons and alpha paiclesIndirect action is radiation causing free radical production which acts on DNA; example: photons and gamma raysReference: Khan Physics of Radiation therapy; ... | |
Chesser Moir technique is used in :: (A) VVF, (B) Stress incontinence, (C) Urethrocoete, (D) Enterocoele | Answer is A. VVF Chassar Moir technique is used for repair of vesico vaginal fistula. Few named surgical procedures In Few named surgical procedures In Procedure Indication Marshall -- Marchetti Krant surgery Marshall and Bonneys test Boari operation Manchester operation Fothergill operation Strassmam Metroplasty Jones... | |
The storage triacylglycerol are hydrolysed by:: (A) Pancreatic lipase, (B) Lipoprotein lipase, (C) Lysosomal lipase, (D) Hormone sensitive lipase | Answer is D. Ans. D. Hormone sensitive lipase(Ref: Harper 31/e page 244)Pancreatic lipase to hydrolyse dietary TGsLipoprotein lipase to hydrolyse TGs in lipoprotein in the bloodLysosomal hydrolase to act on TGs in lysosomes | |
Shelf life of platelets in blood bank is?: (A) 5 days, (B) 8 days, (C) 10 days, (D) 21 days | Answer is A. Platelets are stored in plasma or in additive solution up to 5-7 days at 20-24degC and under permanent motion. | |
All the following pathogenic bacteria fulfill Koch's postulates, except -: (A) Treponema pallidum, (B) Yersinia pestis, (C) Bacillus anthracis, (D) Helicobacter pylori | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Treponema pallidum | |
Which is the most common location of carcinoid tumor ?: (A) Bronchus, (B) Ileum, (C) Rectum, (D) Colon | Answer is A. Location of carcinoid tumors: Bronchus 27.9% , Ileum 14.9%, Rectum 13.6 %, colon 8.6 %. So Ileum comes next to bronchus and first in GI tract. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3058, Table 350-3 | |
Limits of confidence of a hypothesis determined by?: (A) Power factor, (B) Level of significance, (C) 1-power factor, (D) 1 -lev el of significance | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1-Level of significance First read about these different terms : ? Confidence interval It is the interval within which a parameter value is expected to lie with ceain confidence levels, as could be revealed by repeated samples. o It is the interval (range) around the mean of population in... | |
A patient suffering from Zollinger- Ellison syndrome would be expected to have:: (A) Excessive acid reflux into the esophagus, resulting in esophagitis, (B) Excessive secretion of CCK, causing continuous contraction of the gallbladder, (C) A gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas, causing excessive stomach acid secret... | Answer is C. Ans. C. A gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas, causing excessive stomach acid secretion and peptic ulcersExcessive production of gastrin results in acid hypersecretion and peptic ulcer disease. Patients with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome do not suffer from excessive acid reflux, excessive secretion of CCK... | |
Most common ALL subtype:: (A) Pre B cell, (B) Pre T cell, (C) T cell, (D) B cell | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Pre B cellRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /590-93* Most common subtype of ALL is LI according to older classification and Pre B cell variety by the latest WHO classification.* The recent WHO International panel on ALL recommends that the FAB classification be abandoned, since the morphological cla... | |
Crude birth rate – Not true is: (A) It is actually a ratio not a rate, (B) It is a measure of fertility, (C) It is independent of age of population, (D) Numerator does not include still births | Answer is A. Crude birth rate (CBR) : is the natality or childbirths per 1,000 people per year.
CBR (World) : 19.9 per 1000 population (Max 15 Niger ; Min 7 Monaco) .
CBR (india) : 21.8 per 1000 population .
Is a measure of fertility.
CRUDE means it includes all causes and all ages - It is independent of age of popula... | |
A 28-year-old previously healthy woman arrives in the emergency room complaining of 24 h of anorexia and nausea and lower abdominal pain that is more intense in the right lower quadrant than elsewhere. On examination she has peritoneal signs of the right lower quadrant and a rectal temperature of 38.38degC (101.8degF).... | Answer is D. Cecal diverticula must be differentiated from the more common variety of diverticula that are usually found in the left colon. Cecal diverticula are thought to be a congenital entity. The cecal diverticulum is often solitary and involves all layers of the bowel wall; therefore, cecal diverticula are true d... | |
A 30 years old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is –: (A) Pityriasis, (B) Seborrhoeic dermatitis, (C) Psoriasis, (D) Secondary syphilis | Answer is C. Morphology of papules/plaques in various papulosquamotas disorders
Psoriasis - Erythematous papules and plaques on extensors (elbow & knee
Lichen planus - Violaceous papules with Wickham's striae an flexural surface
Pityriasis rosea - Annular plaques on Trunk
Seborrheic dermatitis - Yellowish, follicular ... | |
Fluroide ions act by inhibiting -: (A) Enolase, (B) Hexokinase, (C) Cytochrome oxidase, (D) Carbonic anydrase | Answer is A. A i.e. Enolase | |
Following trauma, which hormone is not released-: (A) Thyroxine, (B) Glucagon, (C) ADH, (D) GH | Answer is A. None | |
Not an experimental study: (A) RCT, (B) Ecological study, (C) Pre - post clinical study, (D) Meta - Analysis | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following agents is useful for the oral treatment ofboth pituitary as well as renal diabetes insipidus?: (A) Vasopressin, (B) Hydrochlohiazide, (C) Chlorpropamide, (D) Carbamazepine | Answer is B. (Ref: KDT 6/e p577, 578) Thiazides are useful in the treatment of central as well as nephrogenic DI. Vasopressin, chlorpropamide and carbamazepine are useful only in central DI. | |
Which of the following protein binds to free heme?: (A) Ceruloplasmin, (B) Haptoglobin, (C) Hemopexin, (D) Hemosiderin | Answer is C. Ans: c) Hemopexin Option analysis: Binding protein Ceruloplasmin is a copper containing protein Haptoglobin Free Haemoglobin Hemosiderin Denatured ferritin Hemopexin is a b1-globulin that binds free heme | |
Pregnant patient comes at 34 weeks gestation with leaking. which investigation can be done for diagnosing the leak?: (A) Speculum examination, (B) USG, (C) Non stress test, (D) 3 swab test | Answer is A. Speculum Examination- Done taking aseptic precautions to inspect the liquor escaping out through the cervix. During sterile speculum examination,ruptured membranes are diagnosed if Amniotic fluid pools in the posterior fornix or clear fluid flows from cervical canal | |
mood stabilizer used in the tretament of rapid cycling: (A) vaproate, (B) lithium, (C) carbamezepine, (D) lamotrigine | Answer is A. Lamotrigine is a mood stabilizer which works best in BIPOLAR DEPRESSION Lithium is a mood stabilizer which works best in BIPOLAR MANIA valproate is a mood stabilizer which works best in RAPID CYCLING ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 thedition, pg no.935 | |
The protective value of vaccine is 95%. It means: (A) All those vaccinated are protected, (B) 5 among 100 have the probability of getting infected after vaccination, (C) Among those vaccinated, 95% persons are not susceptible to the injections, (D) 95% of persons do not get the disease, where as 5% get the disease | Answer is B. Vaccine is an immuno-biological substance designed to produce specific protection against a given disease
It stimulates the production of protective antibody and other immune mechanisms
Vaccines can be prepared from live modified organisms, inactivated or killed organisms, extracted cellular fractions, tox... | |
Commonest complication following haemorrhoidectomy is -: (A) Hemorrhage, (B) Infection, (C) Facal impaction, (D) Urinary Retention | Answer is D. None | |
Quellung's reaction is seen in all except:: (A) Strep pneumoniae, (B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae, (C) Hemophilus influenza, (D) Neisseria meningitides | Answer is D. Ans. D. Neisseria meningitidesQuellung reaction is capsular swelling seen in capsulated bacteria. N. gonorrhoeae is not capsulated. | |
False statement about TX A2 is: (A) It is formed in platelets, (B) It is formed from PGG2/h2, (C) It is having platelet anti aggregatory reactivity, (D) Asprin can inhibit its production | Answer is C. TX A2 is produced inside the platelets with the help of TX A2 synthetase It is formed from cyclic Endo peroxidase(PGG2/H2) with the help of an enzyme, cyclooxygenase Aspirin inhibit its production by reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzyme TX A2 causes aggregation of platelets, therefore is prothrom... | |
Drug of choice for strongyloides stercoralis?: (A) Mebendazole, (B) Albendazole, (C) Ivermectin, (D) Levamisole | Answer is C. Ans. C. IvermectinRef: K.D,T, Thle p, 850i Katzung 13th/e p. 909; Satoskar Pharma 24'e p. 816; Rang and Dale |th/e p. 573Strongyloid - IvermectinAnaerobes - MetronidazoleAtypical Pneumonia (mycoplasma) - ErythromycinCholera - DoxycyclineStaphylococci - PenicillinVRSA - LinezolidP. Carinii (jiroveci) - Cotr... | |
PHYSICAL QUALITY OF LIFE INDEX (PQLI) includes:: (A) Infant mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy, (B) Maternal mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy., (C) Disability rate, Pregnancy rate and GNP, (D) Longevity, Knowledge and Income | Answer is A. Ans. a (Infant mortality, Life expectancy and Literacy). (Ref Park PSM 22nd/ pg. 16)INDEXPHYSICAL QUALITY OF LIFE INDEX (PQLI)Consist of# Infant mortality,# Life expectancy at age one, and# Literacy.National and international comparison can be done.Kerala has highest PQLI.KUPUSWAMY INDEXKupuswamy index of ... | |
A 26 years old primigravida at 30 weeks of gestation on clinical examination, has blood pressure values of 142/100 mm Hg. 150/94 mmHg and 150/100 at 6 hours intervals. The next line of management is:: (A) Add captopril, (B) Add atenolol, (C) Add methyldopa, (D) No medical management is necessary at present | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Add methyldopaIn this case although patient has mild elevated BP but her BP is continuously increasing which means she needs antihypertensive. The antihypertensive which can be used in pregnancy is Methyldopa. | |
Which of the following can be used as tumor marker in pancreatic carcinoma?: (A) CA-125, (B) CA 27-29, (C) CA 19-9, (D) CA 15-3 | Answer is C. CA 19-9 is a tumor marker for pancreatic as well as colon cancers. | |
Incubation period for diptheria and salmonella is: (A) 1-2 days and 20-40 days, (B) 2-6 days and 7-21 days, (C) 2-6 days and 10-14 days, (D) 1-2 days and 10-14 days | Answer is C. Diphtheria Causative agent : Corynebacterium diphtheriae, a gran positive non-motile organism Diphtheria is an endemic disease in India Source of Infection Carriers are more impoant as source of infection: 95% of total disease transmission Nasal carriers are more dangerous than throat carriers Incidence of... | |
What would you advise a mother who has an allergy to protein but still wants to breastfeed?: (A) Assure her that breastfeeding would not pass on the allergy to the infant, (B) Advise her to consult her primary health care provider regarding this issue, (C) Advise her to use formula milk instead to avoid allergies., (D)... | Answer is A. A: Breast milk does not contain protein unlike cow’s milk, so it is safe to let the mother breastfeed the infant.
B: The nurse should inform the mother of the benefits of breastfeeding and should not simply hand over the responsibility to the physician.
C: Formula milk contains cow’s milk protein which cou... | |
Fluoroacetate blocks the Krebs cycle by inhibiting the following enzyme: (A) Citrate synthase, (B) Aconitase, (C) a-KG dehydrogenase, (D) Succinate dehydrogenase | Answer is B. The poison fluoroacetate is found in some of the plants, and their consumption can be fatal to grazing animals. Some fluorinated compounds used as anticancer agents and industrial chemicals (including pesticides) are metabolized to fluoroacetate. It is toxic because fluoroacetyl-CoA condenses with oxaloace... | |
An organism not invading intact cornea-: (A) Gonococci, (B) C. diphtheriae, (C) Meningococci, (D) Pseudomonas | Answer is D. Following three pathogens can invade the intact corneal epithelium and produce ulceration:
Neisseria gonorrhoea,
corynebacterium diphtheriae and
Neisseria meningitidis. | |
True of case control studies: (A) It proceeds from cause to effect, (B) Odds ratio can be calculated, (C) Incidence can be calculated, (D) Needs many patients | Answer is B. <p>case control studies usually known as retrospective studies.are those which proceeds from efect to cause .it mainly involves two study populations cases and controls.they are basically comparison studies from which the"odds ratio" can be calculated.focus is on a health problem that has already occurred.... | |
Which of the following adaptations will be apt to increase the work capacity at high altitude?: (A) Increasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise, (B) Increasing workload, increasing duration of exercise, (C) Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise, (D) Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of ex... | Answer is C. Exercise increases oxygen requirements, which must now be met in the face of this decreased oxygen. Increase workload, will increase sever O2 demand, which cannot be met at high altitude due to low paial pressure of oxygen, fuhermore it can precipitate pulmonary edema. But decrease workload and increase du... | |
All of the following are true about Helicobacter pylori except:: (A) About 50% of world population affected, (B) 85% of population is affected, in some developing countries, (C) All children in developing countries have immunity by five years of age, (D) Infection is common in low socio-economic status | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., All children in developing countries have immunity by five years of age(Ref: Harrison, 16th/e, p. 886,19th/e, p. 1038; Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 400)* Duodenal ulcer (80%) and Gastric ulcer (60%) are associated with H. pylori.* Gastric adenocarcinoma, gastric MALT lymphoma, Autoimmune gas... | |
Laryngeal prominence is formed by-: (A) Cricoid cartilage, (B) Hyoid bone, (C) Anterior margin of thyroid, (D) Angle of the thyroid cartilage | Answer is D. The lower part of anterior borders of right and left laminae of thyroid fuse and form a median projection called laryngeal prominence. | |
A 35 year old man who recently traveled to a third world country develops chronic, severe dysentery. Colonoscopy demonstrates ulceration of the cecum, and a cecal biopsy reveals 15-to-40 micron amoebae with ingested erythrocytes and small nuclei with distinctive tiny central karyosomes. Which of the following organisms... | Answer is C. Entamoeba histolytica is the usual cause of intestinal amebiasis, and has the microscopic features described in the question stem. A paicularly helpful (but not always present) feature of this organism is the presence of ingested red blood cells within the amoebae. These amoebae cause flask-shaped ulcerati... | |
Strongest oxygen radical amongst the following is: (A) O2-, (B) OH-, (C) H2O2, (D) HCIO | Answer is B. Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) radicals like the hydroxyl radical . It is the most reactive of them all; note how it differs from the hydroxyl ion . the superoxide anion which is both ion and radical | |
Which of the following causes minimal Poo hepatic compromise: (A) Non selective shunts, (B) TIPSS, (C) Distal splenorenal shunt, (D) Sclerotherapy | Answer is D. Sclerotherapy is used in esophageal varices Endoscopic sclerotherapy controls active hemorrhage in 80% to 90% of patients. The combination of sclerotherapy with somatostatin, octreotide, and vapreotide has been repoed to be superior to sclerotherapy alone in terms of control of bleeding and reduction of tr... | |
Eye of tiger sign on MRI is seen in: (A) Hallervorden spatz syndrome, (B) Progressive supra nuclear palsy, (C) Early onset levodopa - responsive Parkinsonism, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. The eye of tiger sign refers to abnormal low T2 signal on MRI in the globus pallidus with a logitudinal stripe of high signal (due to gliosis and spongiosis). | |
Minimal Ascites can be best detected by:: (A) USG, (B) Plain X-ray abdomen, (C) MRI, (D) CT scan | Answer is A. A i.e. USG Earliest detection Investigation Ascites USGQ Pericardial effusion EchocardiographyQ Bronchiectasis CT-ScanQ Fetal life DopplerQ Pleural effusion IA lateral decubitus viewQ Pneumoperitonum Erect chest X-ray or left lateral decubitus abdominal X-rayQ | |
Benzodiazepine without anticonvulsant propey is?: (A) Nitrazepam, (B) Diazepam, (C) Clonazepam, (D) Temazepam | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Temazepam BZDs with significant anticonvulsant propey are diazepam, clonazepam, nitrazepam, lorazepam and flurazepam. | |
A tumor has the following characteristics. Retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive proptosis, easily resectable, occurs most commonly in the 2nd to 4th decade. Most likely diagnosis is -: (A) Capillary hemangioma, (B) Cavernous hemangioma, (C) Lymhangioma, (D)... | Answer is B. Cavernous hemangioma is the most common benign, intraconal tumor in adults.
Hemangiopericytoma is also retrobulbar intraconal lesion found in adults but is a rare tumor Moreover owing to its tendency to invade the adjacent tissues, its margins are less distinct than cavernous hemangioma.
Rest 2 options i.e... | |
MgCl2 is added to polio vaccine because of the following -: (A) Potentiates the vaccine, (B) Vaccine can be kept at higher temperatures, (C) Preservative, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. molar MgCl2 is used to dtabilise the vaccine against heat inactivation REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.488 |
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