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After a radiograph revealed a sialolith (stone) in a patient's right submandibular duct, the surgeon exposed the duct an intraoral approach. In this approach, what tissues or structures must be cut through?: (A) Mucous membrane only, (B) Mucous membrane and genioglossus muscle, (C) Mucous membrane and mylohyoid muscle,... | Answer is A. The submandibular duct is found deep to the mucous membrane of the mouth, but superficial to the muscles of the tongue and the muscles on the floor of the mouth. So, genioglossus, mylohyoid, and hyoglossus are deep to the submandibular duct. | |
Most common location of Splenculi?: (A) Behind the tail of pancreas, (B) Splenic ligaments, (C) Splenic hilum, (D) Mesocolon | Answer is C. Ans. C. Splenic hilum. (Ref. LB 26th pg. 1089)"Splenunculi are single or multiple accessory spleen that are found approximately in 10-30% of the population. They are located near the hilum of the spleen in 50% of the cases and are related to the splenic vessels or behind the tail of pancreas in 30%. The re... | |
Which of the following drug does not cause hypokalemia -: (A) Gentamicin, (B) Diuretics, (C) Amphotericin B, (D) Amiodarone | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Amiodarone Drugs causing hypokalemia agonist o Licorice o Penicillin derivatives o Amphotericin B o Theophylline o Steroids alpha Blockers o Toluene abuse o Gentamicin o Insulin o Vitamin B12 o Diuretics Carbenoxalone | |
Which of the following tests is most sensitive for detecting early diabetic nephropathy -: (A) Serum Creatinine, (B) Creatinine clearance, (C) Microalbuminuria, (D) Ultra sonography | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following condition is associated with Cutis anserina?: (A) Drowning, (B) Suffocation, (C) Lust murder, (D) Electrocution | Answer is A. Cutis anserina is a postmoem skin finding in drowning. In this the skin appears like an orange peel. This is due to the rigor mois of the erector pilorum muscles of hair follicles in the skin and subcutaneous tissues. Another postmoem skin finding of drowning is postmoem lividity, which is seen on the depe... | |
In a patient predisposed to glaucoma, the drug contraindicated is:: (A) Pilocarpine, (B) Ecothiopate, (C) Timolol, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. Ans. None of the above | |
A 41year old married female presented with a headache for the last 6 months. She had several consultations. All her investigations were found to be within normal limits. She still insists that there is something wrong in her head and seeks another consultation. The most likely diagnosis is -: (A) Phobia, (B) Psychogeni... | Answer is C. Information in this questions
Preoccupation with fear of illness (something wrong in the head).
Preoccupation is due to misinterpretation (headache as something wrong in the head)
Normal investigations
Multiple consultations
Diagnosis is hypochondriasis | |
For diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, Fasting blood glucose level should be more than -: (A) 126 mg/dl, (B) 140 mg/dt, (C) 100 mg/dl, (D) 200 mg/dl | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 126 mg/di DIAGNOSTIC CRITERIA FOR DIABETES1) Symptoms of diabeticsplusrandom blood glucose concentration >200 mg/dl.(Random is defined as without regard to time since last meal)or2) Fasting plasma glucoseQ > (126 mg/dl)or3)Two hour plasma glucoseQ > (200mg/dl) during an oral GTTor4) A1C >... | |
The risk of carbamazepine induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome is increased in the presence of which of the following genes?: (A) HLA-B* 5801, (B) HLA-B* 1502, (C) HLA-B* 5701, (D) HLA-B 27 | Answer is B. HLA DRUG DISEASE B1502 CARBAMAZEPINE STEVEN JOHNSON SYNDROME B5801 ALLOPURINOL SKIN REACTION B5701 ABACAVIR MI B53 MALARIA PROTECTION B27 ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS | |
Characteristic features of rabies include all except-: (A) Can manifest as ascending paralysis, (B) Hemotogenous spread to brain, (C) Can be transmitted by bites other than dogs also, (D) In invariably fatal | Answer is B. None | |
'Which of the following represents a non deliberate cultural practice leading to anti-mosquito effect -: (A) Use of alkaline detergent, (B) Use of larvicidal agents, (C) Use of bed nets, (D) Use of repellents | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Use of alkaline detergent As the name suggests, nondeliberate antimosquito effect means mosquito control measure which is not intentional or deliberate. Mosquitoes do not grow in water with alkali. Since most soaps and detergents are alkali based, use of soaps and detergents has a nondeli... | |
Most common infections after splenectomy are:: (A) Uncapsulated bacteria, (B) Capsulated bacteria, (C) Gram-positive sepsis, (D) Gram-negative bacteria | Answer is B. Overwhelming post splenectomy infection MC late(after 2-5 years) fatal complication of splenectomy After splenectomy, ability to filter and phagocytose bacteria, paicularly encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumonia, Hemophilus influenza, Neisseria meningitides) and parasitized blood cells is lost. MC ... | |
In a chronic smoker with mild haemoptysis. He also gave a history of hypertension and obesity. Lab data showed raised ACTH levels, which were not suppressed by dexamethasone. The cause for the Cushing's syndrome in the patient is -: (A) MEN I, (B) Pituitary adenoma, (C) Adrenal cortical adenoma, (D) Ectopic ACTH secret... | Answer is D. Remember this
In normal person → Low dose dexamethasone suppresses cortisol secretion.
In Cushing's syndromes → Low dose dexamethasone is unable to suppress cortisol secretion.
When Cushing's syndrome is caused due to ectopic... | |
True about non competitive in hibition are all except-: (A) Potency reduced, (B) Km unchanged, (C) V max reduced, (D) Binds to another site of receptor | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Potency reduced Competitive antagonistNon comoetitive antagonist1. Antagonist bind to the same receptors as agonist2. Antagonist resembles chemically with the agonist3. The same maximal response can be obtained4. Potency is reduced (Right shift of DRC)5. Km is increased but Vmax is unchan... | |
In pemphigus circulating antibodies attack:: (A) Desmoglein 1&2., (B) Desmoglein1&3., (C) Desmoglein1&4., (D) Desmoglein2&4. | Answer is B. Pemphigus
Is a skin and mucous membrane disease with autoimmune etiology.
Characterized histologically by intradermal blisters circulating IgG (IgG1 and IgG4) antibody against keratinocyte cell surface (attack Desmoglein 1 and 3). | |
Brown type gallstones are formed due to:: (A) Hypercholesterolemia, (B) Long standing hemolysis, (C) Chronic biliary infection, (D) Drugs | Answer is C. Pigment stones are composed of calcium bilirubinate and are classified into "black" and "brown" types, the latter forming secondary to chronic biliary infection. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 2616-17 | |
Pathognomic lesion in HIV is: September 2011: (A) Gingivitis, (B) Oral leukoplakia, (C) Herpes simplex, (D) Aphthous ulcers | Answer is B. Ans. B : Oral leukoplakia Oral hairy leukoplakia is viually pathognomic of HIV disease in the context of HIV risk factors. AIDS and HIV Infection with HIV-1 is associated with a progressive decrease of the CD4+ T cell count and an increase in viral load, the level of HIV in the blood. The stage of infectio... | |
Which is not visualized on posterior rhinoscopy:: (A) Eustachian tube, (B) Inferior meatus, (C) Middle meatus, (D) Superior concha | Answer is B. Posterior rhinoscopy: It is method of examination of the posterior aspect of nose and pharynx. Structures seen on posterior rhinoscopy: - Both choanae - Posterior end of nasal septum - Opening of Eustachian - Posterior end of superior/tube middle and inferior turbinates - Fossa of Rosenmuller - Torus Tubar... | |
Perimetry is a test to assess the –: (A) Visual acuity, (B) Intraocular pressure, (C) Visual field, (D) Depth of the anterior chamber | Answer is C. The tests used to measure the field of vision are confrontation test and Perimetry. | |
Which of the following amino acids can be phosphorylated?: (A) Cysteine, (B) Leucine, (C) Methionine, (D) Serine | Answer is D. The OH groups of serine, tyrosine, and threonine frequently serve as the points of covalent attachment for phosphoryl groups that regulate protein function Protein kinase enzymes catalyse the phosphorylation while protein phosphatase enzymes catalyse the dephosphorylation. Ceain protein kinases are specifi... | |
The veebral aery traverses all of the following except: (A) Foramen magnum, (B) Subarachnoid space, (C) Interveebral foramen, (D) Foramen transversarium | Answer is C. Veebral aery is the first and largest branch of the first pa of the subclan aery, destined chiefly to supply the brain PAS OF VEEBRAL AERY: FIRST PA-The first pa extends from the origin of the aery to the transverse process of sixth cervical veebrae SECOND PA-The second pa runs through foramina transversar... | |
All are antiplatelet drugs Except :: (A) Aspirin, (B) Clopidogrel, (C) Dipyridamole, (D) Warfarin | Answer is D. None | |
Which among the following is not seen in inflammatory ahritis?: (A) Raised ESR, (B) Morning stiffness, (C) Periaicular osteoporosis, (D) New bone formation | Answer is D. New bone formation i.e osteophyte formation is seen in non inflammatory conditions like osteoahritis. Raised ESR, morning stiffness in and around the joints lasting for more than 30 minutes, periaicular osteoporosis are features of inflammatory ahritis. The joint space narrowing, and marginal erosions are ... | |
Various agents are used for local anaesthesia. The first local anaesthetic used in clinical anaesthesia was:: (A) Bupivacaine, (B) Cocaine, (C) Lidocaine, (D) Procaine | Answer is B. The first local anesthetic, cocaine, was serendipitously discovered to have anesthetic propeies in the late 19th century. Cocaine occurs in abundance in the leaves of the coca shrub (Erythroxylon coca). Cocaine was first isolated in 1860 by Albe Niemann. Ref: Catterall W.A., Mackie K. (2011). Chapter 20. L... | |
Systemic effects of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) include all of the following except: (A) Hypertension, (B) Cor pulmonale, (C) Aortic aneurysm, (D) Cardiac arrhythmia | Answer is C. Systemic sequelae of OSAS include hypertension, Cor Pulmonale, and cardiac arrhythmia. | |
Reye's Syndrome is cause by all except-: (A) Adeno virus, (B) RSV, (C) Herpes, (D) Influenza | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., RSV Reye's syndrome Reye's syndrome is a metabolic mitochondria! disorder characterized by - i) Fatty infiltration of liver ii) Encephalopathy iii) Sometimes fatty infiltration of kidney o So, it so also known as Encephalopathy with fatty degeneration of viscera. Etiology o It is an acute... | |
Recptors for vibration sense-: (A) Merkel's disc, (B) Ruffini's end organ, (C) Paccinian corpuscle, (D) Meissner's corpuscle | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Paccinian corpuscle Tactile (touch) receptors* For touch (superfical touch) :- Meissner's corpuscle (detect texture of surface, i.e. rough or smooth), Merkel's disc (detect two point discrimination).* For pressure (deep touch) :- Ruffini's end organ (slowly adapting).* Vibrations :- Detec... | |
Small cell Ca lung, DNA of the necrotic cells get deposited on vessels?: (A) Psammoma body, (B) Azzopardy effect, (C) Button collar lesion, (D) Necrotic diathesis | Answer is B. Ref: Internet SourcesExplanation:Azzopardi phenomenon:In necrotic areas of tumor, dark blue DNAliberated from dead cells sometimes coats vessel walls.The tumor cells surrounding the vessels show coagulative necrosis. The pink area at the lower right shows karyolysis of tumor nuclei. | |
Mediator of acute inflammation not derived from cell is:: (A) Histamine, (B) Leukotrienes, (C) Kinins, (D) Cytokines | Answer is C. (Refer: Robbins & Cotran’s – Pathologic Basis of Disease, SAE, 1st edition, Vol I–pg no: 82-85)
Chemical mediators of inflammation
Cellular mediators | |
Which of the following is/are not intermediate acting non depolarizing NMB -: (A) Pancuronium, (B) Vecuronium, (C) Rocuronium, (D) Atracurium | Answer is A. Non depolarizing muscle relaxants are classified according to their structure and duration of action as: Stucture Clinical duration Long acting (>50 min) Intermediate (20-50 min) Sho (15-20 min) Ultra-sho (<10-12 min) Steroidal Pancuronium Pipecuronium Vecuronium Rocuronium Benzyliso- quinolinium d-Tubocur... | |
The amino acid cannot be used for glycogen synthesis -: (A) Alanine, (B) Threonine, (C) Leucine, (D) Methionine | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leucine o Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors is called gluconeogenesis.o When the end product is glycogen instead of glucose, the process is called glyconeogenesis, i.e., synthesis of glycogen from noncarbohydrate precursors.o Terms gluconeogenesis and glyconeogenesis a... | |
Diplopia is characteristic feature of: (A) Concomitant squint, (B) Non-paralytic squint, (C) Paralytic squint, (D) Latent squint | Answer is C. Signs of paralytic squint:
1. Primary deviation.
2. Secondary deviation.
3. Restriction of ocular movements.
4. Compensatory head posture.
5. False protection. | |
Normal PCWP with pulmonary edema is seen in?: (A) Left atrial myxoma, (B) High altitude, (C) Mitral stenosis, (D) LV systolic dysfunction | Answer is B. In Lv dysfunction and MS there will increase in pcwp with pulmonary edema . Normal pcwp withpulmonary edema is seen in Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema like ARDS,HIGH ALTITIDE ,Rapid evacuation of pneumothorax /hemothorax. | |
All are indications for postoperative radiotherapy in a case of Carcinoma Endometrium Except: (A) Myometrial invasion >1/2 thickness, (B) Positive lymph nodes, (C) Endocervical involvement, (D) Tumor positive for estrogen receptors | Answer is D. Pelvic postoperative radiotherapy (external) in a dose of 6000 cGy over a 6-week period is recommended in high-risk cases such as an undifferentiated tumor, myometrial infiltration, pelvic node involvement, and in serous, clear cell and adenosquamous carcinoma. The postoperative radiotherapy is required in... | |
Allergic bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis is commonly a complication of:: (A) TB, (B) Bronchogenic carcinoma, (C) Cystic fibrosis, (D) Wegener's granulomatosis | Answer is C. ABPA represents a hypersensitivity to Aspergillus fumigatus. It is common in asthma and teenagers with cystic fibrosis. | |
Inferior mesenteric vein drains into:: (A) Portal vein, (B) Splenic vein, (C) Superior mesenteric vein, (D) Renal vein | Answer is B. Ans. B. Splenic veininferior mesenteric vein (IMV) is a blood vessel that drains blood from the large intestine. It usually terminates when reaching the splenic vein, which goes on to form the portal vein with the superior mesenteric vein.Tributaries of the inferior mesenteric vein drain the large intestin... | |
A lady has carcinoma in upper and outer quadrant of the breast. It usually metastasises to all of the following lymph nodes, EXCEPT?: (A) Anterior axillary, (B) Central, (C) Lateral, (D) Parasternal | Answer is D. Lymphatics from most of the breast drains into axillary lymph nodes. The medial most poion of the breast drain through the chest wall into the internal mammary lymph nodes. So carcinoma in this patient which is in the upper outer quadrant spreads to the anterior, central and lateral group of axillary nodes... | |
Waste in yellow plastic bags are treated by: (A) Incineration, (B) Autoclaving, (C) Microwaving, (D) Shredding | Answer is A. Waste such as anatomical waste , solid waste,soiled waste , chemical waste is collected in yellow coloured bag and treated and disposed by incineration | |
Treatment of metastatic prostate carcinoma is:: (A) Radiotherapy, (B) Estrogen therapy, (C) GnRH analogs, (D) Radiotherapy with chemotherapy | Answer is C. Ref: The Washington Manual of Surgery, 6th editionExplanation:"Hormonal therapy with either bilateral orchiectomy or luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonists usually is reserved for men with locally advanced or metastatic disease"Management of Prostate cancerIncidentally diagnosed Tla and T1b disease... | |
Examination of arrested person by medical practitioner at the request of the arrested person. Is defined under which section of the Code Of Criminal Procedure: (A) Section 53, (B) Section 54, (C) Section 56, (D) Section 57 | Answer is B. Section 54 in The Code Of Criminal Procedure, 1973 54. Examination of arrested person by medical practitioner at the request of the arrested person. When a person who is arrested, whether on a charge or otherwise alleges, at the time when he is produced before a Magistrate or at any time during the period ... | |
All are true about achalasia except:: (A) It predisposes to malignancy, (B) Body peristalsis is normal, (C) LES pressure is increased, (D) Dilatation of proximal segment | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Body peristalsis is normalRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Pages 1015-1018Salient Points in Achalasia:* Achalasia - Meaning failure to relax* Men = women affected equally* Dysphagia, regurgitation and weight loss are the triad of symptomsPathogenesis:* Progressive inflammation and selective loss of Inh... | |
Which of the following vaccine is routinely given in pregnancy?: (A) Influenza, (B) Oral polio, (C) Tetanus, (D) Rabies | Answer is C. Td vaccine should be given to pregnant women in the second or third trimester if they had not been vaccinated in the past 10 years. If a pregnant women received Td in the past 10 years Tdap should be given postpaum. American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommend that influenza vaccine should... | |
D1C is common in which AML-: (A) Monocytic (M5), (B) Promyelocytic (M3), (C) Erythrocytic (M6), (D) Megakaryocytic (M7) | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Promyelocytic (M3)(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 612; 8th/pg 622)Acute Promyelocytic Leukemic (APML, M3) cells can induce Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) | |
Which of the following cannot be done by a 3 year old child?: (A) Draw a circle, (B) Draw a rectangle, (C) Telling a story, (D) Riding tricycle | Answer is B. A child can draw a rectangle by the age of 4 years. All other options can be performed by a 3 year old child. Ref: O P Ghai, 7th Edition, Pages 26-29, 6th Edition, Page 44; Nelson, 18th Edition, Page 44. | |
Which of the following is not a pyrogenic cytokine: (A) Il_1, (B) TNF, (C) IFN _alpha, (D) IL -18 | Answer is D. Ref Harrison 18/e p 144;9/e p99 Interleukin-18 is a protein which in humans is encoded by the IL18 gene. The protein encoded by this gene is a proinflammatory cytokine. This cytokine is produced by many immune cells and can modulate both innate and adaptive immunity and dysregulation can cause autoimmune o... | |
Basilar migraine differs from classic migraine in the: (A) Sex of persons affected, (B) Duration of aura, (C) Severity of symptoms, (D) Sequence of neurologic deficits | Answer is C. In both classic migraine and basilar migraine ,women are more susceptible. aura and visual disturbances are seen in both. But it is more severe in basilar migraine that it may lead to complete blindness, frank psychosis, quadriplegia and coma. | |
Most common physiologic cause of hypoxemia is-: (A) Hypoventilation, (B) Incomplete alveolar oxygen diffusion, (C) Ventilation-perfusion inequality, (D) Pulmonary shunt flow | Answer is C. Ans- C Ventilation-perfusion inequality a. Although hypoventilation, incomplete oxygen diffusion, and pulmonary shunts all are causes of hypoxemia, the most common cause is ventilation-perfusion inequality. b. The mismatch of ventilation and blood flow occurs to some degree in the normal upright lung but m... | |
Which of the following is not a cause for neonatal jaundice manifesting for the first time in the second week: September 2008: (A) Rhesus incompatibility, (B) Hypothyroidism, (C) Jaundice due to breast milk, (D) Galactosemia | Answer is A. Ans. A: Rhesus Incompatibility Jaundice appearing after 72 hours: Sepsis neonatorum' Neonatal hepatitis Extra hepatic biliary atresia Breast milk jaundice Metabolic disorders | |
Disease rate is -: (A) Risk of susceptibility, (B) Usually expressed a percentage, (C) Time period in a calendar year, (D) Disease occurrence in a specified time period | Answer is D. Disease rate is a measure of incidence or occurrence of disease in a population.
In other words, it is synonymous for incidence rate. | |
Which of the following antitubercular drug is not hepatotoxic :: (A) Isoniazid, (B) Rifampicin, (C) Ethionamide, (D) Streptomycin | Answer is D. Streptomycin and ethambutol are not hepatotoxic. Read carefully, option (c) is ethionamide, not ethambutol. | |
Which of the following organs obtained from cadaver is not used for transplant? AI 11: (A) Blood vessels, (B) Lung, (C) Liver, (D) Urinary bladder | Answer is D. Ans. Urinary bladder | |
Fracture of the 5th metatarsal is called as -: (A) Malgaigne's fracture, (B) Jones fracture, (C) Cotton's fracture, (D) Pott's fracture | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Jones fracture [Ref: Maheshwari 4th/e p. 2, 3EponymFractures of lower limbBumper fractureComminuted, depressed fracture of the lateral tibial condylePott's fractureBimalleolar ankle fractureCotton's fractureTrimalleolar ankle fracturePilon fractureComminuted intra-articular fracture of di... | |
All are true about epistaxis except:: (A) Keisselbach's plexus is source in 90% cases, (B) If anterior packing is left in nose for more than 48hrs antibiotic coverage is given, (C) Anterior nasal pack is easy to inse and less traumatic than balloon temponade, (D) Trotter method is first aid method | Answer is C. Answer- C. Anterior nasal pack is easy to inse and less traumatic than balloon temponadeKeisselbach's plexus: This plexus is the commonest site of bleeding (90% of cases)Anterior nasal packing- Prophylactic antibodies should be used it pack is in a place for more than 24 hours.A balloon tamponade may be us... | |
Antimalarial agent safe for use in pregnancy is :: (A) Atovaquone, (B) Pyrimethamine, (C) Primaquine, (D) Proguanil | Answer is D. None | |
All are true about Rt kidney except :: (A) Rt renal vein is shoer then left, (B) Related to duodenum, (C) Rt kidney is preferred over left for transplantation, (D) Rt kidney is placed at the lower level than left. | Answer is C. C. i.e. Rt kidney is preferred over left kidney for transplantation- Left kidney is usually choosen for transplantation because it has longer renal vein which simplifies transplant operation.Q- Transplanted kidney is placed in iliac fossa, in the retroperitoneal position leaving native kidney in situ.- Ren... | |
Defect in collagen formation is seen in:: (A) Scurvy, (B) Hunter's syndrome, (C) Marfan's syndrome, (D) All | Answer is A. A i.e. Scurvy Collagen show triple helixQ and is never present free inside the cytoplasmQ. Scurvy, osteogenesis imperfectaQ, Ehler - Danlos syndrome & Alpo syndrome occurs d/t its deficient synthesis. | |
Preterm babies:: (A) Bom before 37 weeks of gestations, (B) Bom before 38 weeks of gestations, (C) Bom before 39 weeks of gestations, (D) Bom before 40 weeks of gestations | Answer is A. (Born before 37 weeks of gestations): Ref: (460-Park 20th)1. Preterm babies - babies bom too early before 37 weeks of gestations (259 days)2. Small for date (SFD) babies - bom at term or preterm. They weight less than the 10th percentile for the gestational age.3. Term: babies bom from 37 completed weeks t... | |
42 yrs male with frequent attacks of joint pain, underwent an X-ray showing soft tissue swelling. The likely diagnosis is:: (A) Gout, (B) Parathyroid adenoma, (C) Psoriasis, (D) RA | Answer is A. Tophi appear as characteristic punched out cysts or deep erosions with over hanging bony edges -Mael's or G' sign. GOUT:- Sometimes only feature is acute pain and tenderness. hyperuricemia is not diagnostic and is often seen in normal middle aged men. During acute attack X-rays show only soft tissue swelli... | |
The drug of choice in Chorio ' Carcinoma is:: (A) Methotrexate, (B) Actinomycin-D, (C) Vincristine, (D) 6-thioguanine | Answer is A. Methotrexate | |
Antimalarial month is –: (A) April, (B) May, (C) September, (D) June | Answer is D. Antimalarial month is observed every year in month of June throughout the country, prior to the onset of mansoon and transmission season, to enhance the level of awareness and encourage community participation. | |
In which of the following immunodeficiencies, this chest X-ray finding is usually seen?: (A) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, (B) Di George syndrome, (C) Hyper IgE syndrome, (D) Chediak Higashi syndrome | Answer is C. Chest X-ray: pneumonia with multiple pneumatoceles, suggestive of Staphylococcal pneumonia. Recurrent abscesses and staphylococcal infection is a feature of Hyper IgE syndrome. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome- eczema, thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections Di George syndrome- cardiac anomaly, abnormal face, thymi... | |
Special visceral efferent DOES NOT involve: (A) Nucleus ambiguus, (B) Motor nucleus of V cranial nerve, (C) Motor nucleus of VII cranial nerve, (D) Dorsal nucleus of X cranial nerve | Answer is D. (D) Dorsal nucleus of X cranial nerveNUCLEI BELONGING TO COLUMNSGSEOculomotor, Trochlear, Abducent, Hypoglossal nucleiSVEMotor nucleus of V nerve Motor nucleus of VII nerve Nucleus AmbiguusGVEEW nucleus, Lacrimatory nucleus, Superior & Inferior salivatory nuclei, Dorsal vagal nucleusGVA/SVANucleus of Tract... | |
A 65 year old man was seen as an outpatient complaining of central chest pain on exeion. His son tells you that 5 years ago he had been admitted for MI in the CCU of the same hospital. His vitals are stable and chest is clear. No added hea sounds are heard. What is the next best step?: (A) Perform Stress tests, (B) Per... | Answer is A. The ECG shows a hea of 60/min with normal sinus rhythm. Prominent Q waves are noted in lead III, AVF indicating a previous inferior wall MI. Markedly Peaked T waves are noted in V2 and V3. Known case of ASCVD and currently is having chronic stable angina. He needs stress tests to decide the need for revasc... | |
Swine flu is caused most commonly by -: (A) H1N1, (B) H5N1, (C) H3N2, (D) B virus | Answer is A. <p> SWINE FLU:- Pandemic influenza A (H1N1). This differs from seasonal influenza in two ways. 1. Majority of population has little/no pre existing immunity to virus,the impact of the infection thus leading to wider range. 2. The virus infect the lower respiratory tract and can cause progressive pneumonia.... | |
Uterine blood flow at term is?: (A) 800-1200 ml/min, (B) 50-70 ml/min, (C) 175-200 ml/min, (D) 500-750 ml/min | Answer is D. The massively increased uterine blood flow necessary to maintain pregnancy is made possible by significant hyperophy and remodeling of all pelvic vessels. After delivery, their caliber diminishes to approximately the size of the pre pregnant state. Uterine blood flow is increased from 50 ml/min in non preg... | |
Area of brain involved in OCD: March 2004: (A) Basal ganglia, (B) Temporal lobe, (C) Cerebellum, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Basal ganglia | |
All are true about congenital lymphedema except?: (A) It is bilateral, (B) Involve lower limb, (C) Almost always manifests before pubey, (D) None | Answer is D. Ans. is 'None' Primary lymphedema has been classified on the basis of the age at onset and presence of familial clustering. a) Congenital lymphedema - has onset before the 1st year of life (according to Schwaz and Bailey onset is - congenital lymphedema can involve a single lower extremity, multiple limbs,... | |
Type of collagen in brain: (A) Type IV, (B) Type VII, (C) Type XXV, (D) Type XXVI | Answer is C. Type XXV is present in the brain Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 628 Table no: 50-1 | |
Which Congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?: (A) Anencephaly, (B) Iniencephaly, (C) Microcephaly, (D) Holoprosencephaly | Answer is A. Ans. A. AnencephalyUltrasound can be used to detect anencephaly as early as 10 weeks' gestation. With an abnormal head/trunk ratio and abnormally large orbits, the absence of the superior vault is associated.The length of crown-rump is normal in most anencephalic fetuses. | |
Umbilical vesicle attains full development in -: (A) 2 week, (B) 4 week, (C) 6 week, (D) 7 week | Answer is B. None | |
A 44-year-old woman comes to her physician and complains of headache and backache. On examination, she is found to have fluid accumulated in the spinal epidural space because of damage to blood vessels or meninges. Which of the following structures is most likely ruptured?: (A) Veebral aery, (B) Veebral vein, (C) Exter... | Answer is D. The Internal Veebral Venous Plexus is located in the spinal epidural space. The veebral aery and vein occupy the transverse foramina of the upper six cervical veebrae. The external veebral venous plexus consists of the anterior pa, which lies in front of the veebral column, and the posterior pa, which lies... | |
The resting membrane potential depends mainly on gradient of: (A) Sodium, (B) Potassium, (C) Chloride, (D) Calcium | Answer is B. Ans. b (Potassium). (Ref. Ganong Physiology, 21st ed., 55, 56)Myocardial action potentialPhase 0Rapid upstrokeVoltage-gated Na-channels open.Phase 1Initial repolarizationInactivation of voltage-gated Na+ balances K+ effiux.Phase 2PlateauCa2+ influx through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels balances K+ efflux.Ca2... | |
Which hypolipidemic drug acts primarily by decreasing VLDL -: (A) Fibrates, (B) Nicotinic acid, (C) Statins, (D) Cholestyramine | Answer is A. Ans. is'a'i.e., FibratesRef: KDT 6h/e p. 614; Harrison 18th/e ch. 356Fibrates (e.g. clofibrate) activate lipoprotein lipase, therefore, enhance lipolysis of triglycerides in VLDL.Statins and nicotinic acid also decrease VLDL but it is not their main mechanism of action. | |
Chromic catgut suture has added advantage that is:: (A) Delayed resorption., (B) No resorption., (C) Early resorption., (D) Greater adherence. | Answer is A. The chromic catgut contains the chromic salt solution to delay absorption. | |
A homosexual person feels that "he is a woman trapped in a man's body" and has persistent discomfo with his sex. Most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Trans - sexualism, (B) Transvestism, (C) Voyeurism, (D) Paraphilias | Answer is A. As mentioned in the question, the person is uncomfoable with his sex and feels that he is imposed by a female body (i.e., he is of another sex). Both are characteristics of gender identity disorder. TRANSEXUALISM: It is the severest form of gender identity disorders There is a sense of discomfo with anatom... | |
Targeted intervention programmes for HIV are done among the following group of people, EXCEPT:: (A) Commercial sex worker, (B) Migrant laborers, (C) Street children, (D) Industrial worker | Answer is D. The basic purpose of the targeted interventions for HIV is to reduce the rate of transmission of HIV among the most vulnerable population such as, Sex workers Intravenous drug users Homosexual men Truckers Migrant laborers Street children The main activities under these intervention projects are behaviour ... | |
Hypophosphatemia is seen in -: (A) Pseudohypoparathyropdism, (B) CRF, (C) Rickets, (D) Hyperparathyroidism | Answer is C. <p>Vitamin D-dependent rickets type I Rickets can be due to resistance to the action of vitamin D as well as to vitamin D deficiency. Vitamin D-dependent rickets type I, previously termed pseudovitamin D-resistant rickets , differs from true vitamin D-resistant rickets (vitamin D-dependent rickets type II,... | |
X in the graph represents: (A) Therapeutic index, (B) Therapeutic dose, (C) Therapeutic window, (D) Therapeutic efficacy | Answer is C. Therapeutic index : LD50/ED50 Therapeutic window Range of steady-state concentrations of drug that provides therapeutic efficacy with minimal toxicity Therapeutic efficacy: Ability of a drug to activate a receptor and generate a clinical response is Therapeutic efficacy Therapeutic dose: Dose of a drug req... | |
True about valves in portal venous system -: (A) Present at the junction of superior mesenteric artery with the splenic artery, (B) Within the portal vein only, (C) The whole system is valveless, (D) In the intrahepatic portion of portal vein | Answer is C. Although demonstrable during fetal and early neonatal period, there are no valves in a portal vein and its tributaries in the postnatal period. | |
All of the following are true regarding fluid resuscitation in burn patients except:: (A) Consider intravenous resuscitation 1 children with burns greater than 15% TBSA, (B) Oral fluids must contain salts, (C) Most preferred fluid is Ringer's lactate, (D) Half of the calculated volume of fluid should be given in first ... | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Consider intravenous resuscitation in children with burns greater than 15% TBSA* More than 10% burns in children need fluid resuscitation. | |
APC gene exes its effect in combination with which of the following: (A) Beta catenin, (B) E cadherin, (C) Alpha catenin, (D) BCX | Answer is A. Regulation of beta-catenin preventsgenes that stimulate cell division from being turned on too often and prevents cell overgrowth. The humanAPC gene is located on the long (q) arm of chromosome 5 in band q22.2 (5q22.2). The APC gene has been shown to contain an internal ribosome entry site. Refer robbins | |
Case notification under international health regulations is done for which of the following: September 2009: (A) Hepatitis B, (B) HIV, (C) Yellow fever, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Ans. C: Yellow fever | |
Delusion of grandeur, persecution and reference is seen in: PGI 09; UP 11: (A) Catatonic schizophrenia, (B) Paranoid schizophrenia, (C) Simple schizophrenia, (D) Disorganized schizophrenia | Answer is B. Ans. Paranoid schizophrenia | |
Your patient with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should you include in this patient’s teaching plan?: (A) Rub the skin vigorously with a towel, (B) Take frequent baths, (C) Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin, (D) Keep fingernails short and clean | Answer is D. Calcium-phosphate deposits in the skin may cause pruritus.
Scratching leads to excoriation and breaks in the skin that increase the patient’s risk of infection.
Keeping fingernails short and clean helps reduce the risk of infection. | |
During progression of normal pregnancy, S/D ratio in umblical aery ?: (A) Decreases, (B) Increases, (C) Plateau, (D) Not significant | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., DecreasesThe commonly used parameters in the umbilical aery doppler are:SD ratio: systolic velocity/diastolic velocityPulsatility index (PI) (Gosling index): (PSV - EDV)/ TAVResistive index (RI) (Pourcelot index): (PSV - EDV) / PSVNormally the parameters mentioned above should decrease pr... | |
Most common site for carcinoma pharynx in females suffering from plummer vinson syndrome is: (A) Post cricoid region, (B) Posterior wall, (C) Lateral wall, (D) Pyriformis fossa | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Post cricoid Plummer-Vinson syndrome Plummer-Vinson syndrome, also known as Brown-Kelly-Paterson syndrome or sederopenic dysphagia, seen in middle aged edentulous women. The plummer Vinsion Paterson Brown Kelly Syndrome is characterized by : - Dysphagia Chronic iron deficiency anemia Atro... | |
All of the following are the movements taking place during abduction of shoulder joint, EXCEPT?: (A) Medial rotation of scapula, (B) Axial rotation of humerus at acromioclavicular joint, (C) Elevation of humerus, (D) Movements at clavicular end of sternoclavicular joint | Answer is A. Abduction of the shoulder joint is a complex movement in which the arm is carried forwards and laterally in the plane of scapula and then raised until it is directed veically above the shoulder thereby completing a movement of 180 degree. The movement involves not only the shoulder joint but requires the l... | |
A 25 year old woman complaints of bilateral hearing loss since 4 years which worsened during pregnancy. Type of tympanogram will be: (A) Ad, (B) As, (C) C, (D) B | Answer is B. answer: b) As (DHINGRA 6TH ED, P-24* Type A- normal tympanogram* Type As- (Low compliance) otosclerosis, malleus fixation* Type AD- (High compliance) ossicular discontinuity or thin and lax tympanic membrane* Type B- (No Change in compliance with pressure changes) middle ear fluid, thick tympanic membrane.... | |
Peripoal fatty infiltration of liver is seen with: (A) Alcoholism, (B) Viral hepatitis, (C) Malnutrition, (D) Tetracycline | Answer is B. MORPHOLOGIC FEATURES. The pathologic features are common to both HBV and HCV infection and include the following lesions 1.Piecemeal necrosis. Piecemeal necrosis is defined as peripoal destruction of hepatocytes at the limiting plate (piecemeal = piece by piece). Its features in chronic hepatitis are as un... | |
Which among the following is the smallest diameter of true pelvis?: (A) Interspinous diameter, (B) Diagonal conjugate, (C) True conjugate, (D) Inteuberous diameter | Answer is A. Interspinous or bispinous diameter is the distance between the tip of the two ischial spines. It measures 10.5 cm. Diagonal conjugate is the distance between the lower border of symphysis pubis to the midpoint on the sacral promontory. It measures 12 cm. True conjugate or anatomical conjugate or conjugate ... | |
A 25-yr man C/O recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections & severe abdominal cramps & diarrhea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from:: (A) Seborrheic dermatitis, (B) Atopic dermatitis, (C) Airborne contact dermatitis, (D) Nummular dermatitis | Answer is B. Ans. B. Atopic dermatitisAtopic dermatitis is a very common, extremely itchy disorder of unknown cause which characteristically, but not always, affects the face and flexures of infants, children, adolescents and young adults. Foods, inhaled allergens, bacterial infection, reduced humidity; excessive sweat... | |
The following is used for testing absorption in intestine-: (A) Xylose, (B) Sucrose, (C) Fructose, (D) Maltose | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Xylose D-xylose test : Xylose absorption test is the most commonly employed test for carbohydrateQ absorption.D - Xylose TestAim :o Assessment ofproximal small intestinal mucosal function6.Principle :o D - Xylose is a carbohydrate absorbed almost exclusively in the small intestineQ.o It d... | |
Arrange the following statements in order: Regarding slit skin smear steps: 1. Clean the site with methyl alcohol and pinch the skin tightly using thumb and index finger. 2. Fix the smear by moving the slide briefly over flame. 3. Make a cut on the skin fold using a scalpel and scrape out the fragments of tissue and fl... | Answer is A. Steps of slit skin smear: 1. Mark the slide with patient's identification number. 2. Clean the site with methyl alcohol and pinch the skin tightly using thumb and index finger. 3. Make a cut on the skin fold using a scalpel and scrape out the fragments of tissue and fluid. 4. Spread the material obtained o... | |
Which of the following is seen in APGAR score?: (A) Colour, (B) Bilirubin, (C) Blood group, (D) Respiratory rate | Answer is A. Ans: a (Colour) Ref: Nelson, 18th ed, p. 879; OPGhai, 6th ed, p. 144Parameters used in APGAR score* Respiratory effort* Heart rate / min* Colour of the body* Muscle tone* Reflex stimulationAPGAR score is a semi objective measure of assessing the infants respiratory, circulatory and neurological status at b... | |
Retinal detachment occurs in which layer?: (A) Sensory retina, (B) Pigmentary retina, (C) Inner nuclear layer, (D) Outer plexiform layer | Answer is A. Sensory retina REP: Khurana 4th ed p. 275 "Retinal detachment is defined as separation of neurosensory retina from pigmentary retina" | |
Culture media used for O157 : H7 Entero- hemorrhagic E coli -: (A) Sorbitol containing agar, (B) Mannitol containing agar, (C) Sucrose containing agar, (D) Dextrose containing agar | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Sorbitol containing agar Culture of 0157: H7 E.colio E.coli 0157:H7 is not identified on routine stool cultures.o E.coli 0157:H7 can be specifically detected by the use of modified Mac Conkey media which containssorbitol in place of lactose (SMAC).o Sorbitol Mac Conkey media is specifical... | |
Mechanism of action of Acyclov ir is: (A) Inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase, (B) Inhibitor of viral thymidine kinase, (C) Inhibitor of viral reverse transcriptase, (D) Inhibitor of HSV polymerase | Answer is D. (D) Inhibitor of HSV polymerase # Mechanism of action:> Acyclovir differs from previous nucleoside analogues in containing only a partial nucleoside structure: the sugar ring is replaced with an open-chain structure. It is selectively converted into acyclo-guanosine monophosphate (acyclo-GMP) by viral thym... | |
If the tooth has not erupted to the line of occlusion it is called:: (A) Supraversion, (B) Torsiversion, (C) Rotated, (D) Infraversion | Answer is D. None | |
42 years old female presents diagnosed as iron deficiency anemia was staed on oral iron therapy and her Hb condition during review was 8 g%. The cause for failure of treatment is: (A) Acquired sideroblastic anemia, (B) Inadequate iron dosage, (C) Poor compliance to oral iron, (D) Folate deficiency | Answer is C. . Poor compliance to oral iron | |
The structure marked with arrow is:: (A) Coronary artery, (B) Pulmonary artery, (C) Arch of aorta, (D) Pulmonary vein | Answer is A. None |
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