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Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to all except ?: (A) Cell contraction, (B) Endothelial injury, (C) Lytic enzymes, (D) Cytokines | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lytic enzymes | |
Shoest incubation period is seen with: (A) Influenza, (B) Hepatitis B, (C) Hepatitis A, (D) Rubella | Answer is A. Influenza has an incubation period of 18 to 72 hours Incubation period of :- Hepatitis A : 10 to 50 days Hepatitis B : 30 to 180 days Rubella : 2 to 3 weeks Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition | |
Pulsus paradoxus is seen in-: (A) Shock, (B) Elderly, (C) Emphysema/Asthma, (D) High output state | Answer is C. * Pulsus paradoxus describes an exaggeration of the normal variation in systolic aerial blood pressure seen with respiration (normally falls by <10 mm on inspiration). * It is seen in the presence of- Airway obstruction. - Pericardial tamponade. - Massive pulmonary embolism. * Some conditions associated wi... | |
Which of the following is not a structural gene of HIV -: (A) Gag, (B) Polio, (C) ENV, (D) Tat | Answer is D. tat is a nonstructural and regulatory gene of HIV REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.572 | |
PAH is used to measure-: (A) Extracellular fluid, (B) Glomerular filtration rate, (C) Renal plasma flow, (D) Plasma value | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Renal plasma flow * Imagine a substance that not only passes freely across the glomerular membrane but is also secreted by the tubules to such an extent that the plasma leaving the kidney does not contain that substance any more. In that case the entire plasma flowing through the kidney w... | |
Presence of which of the following in the urine is diagnostic of glomerular injury-: (A) Bright red cells, (B) 20% dysmorphic RBC's, (C) 100RBC per high power field, (D) Beta 2 micro globulin | Answer is B. Glomerular injury is characterised by the presence of RBC casts & dysmorphic erythrocytes in urine microscopy. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 292 | |
Thrombocytopenia, macerated skin lesions, rash and periostitis in a new born are seen in: (A) Erythroblastosis fetalis, (B) Cytomegalovirils infection, (C) Syphilis, (D) HIV infection | Answer is C. In Syphilis, thrombocytopenia is often associated with platelet trapping in an enlarged spleen. Characteristic osteochondritis and periostitis and a mucocutaneous rash manifesting with erythematous maculopapular or vesiculobullous lesions followed by desquamation involving hands and feet are common. Refere... | |
In a high copper amalgam, the phase which is eliminated is:: (A) Gamma 1, (B) Gamma 2, (C) Gamma 1 and 2, (D) No phase is eliminated | Answer is B. A reaction between Cu3 Sn (ε phase) and γ2 occurs and yields Cu6Sn5 (η phase). Because of the low copper content, a majority of γ2 remains. The addition of more than 6% of copper by weight can reduce or eliminate the γ2 phase by the formation of Cu-Sn phase.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIAL... | |
Analysis of visual detail occurs in which secondary visual area?: (A) Brodmann's area 18, (B) Inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital and temporal coex, (C) Frontal lobe, (D) Occipitoparietal coex | Answer is B. Visual information from the primary visual coex (Brodmann's area 17) is relayed to Brodmann's area 18 and then into other areas of the cerebral coex for fuher processing. Analysis of three-dimensional position, gross form, and motion of objects occurs in the posterior midtemporal area and occipitoparietal ... | |
Dominant cell type in grey hepatization stage of community acquired pneumonia is: (A) Eosinophils, (B) Neutrophils, (C) Macrophages, (D) Monocytes | Answer is B. In the third phase grey hepatisation, no new erythrocytes are extravasating, and those already present have been lysed and degraded.
The neutrophil is the predominant cell, fibrin deposition is abundant, and bacteria have disappeared. This phase corresponds with successful containment of the infection and... | |
A patient with diarrhea has a fecal smear that is negative for leukocytes. The patient&;s diarrhea is most likely caused by: (A) Campylobacter enteritis, (B) Shigellosis, (C) Typhoid fever, (D) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli | Answer is D. The enterotoxigenic strain of Escherichia coli secretes a heat-labile toxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase, producing a cholera-like syndrome that is responsible for the majority of cases of traveler's diarrhea. Because the bowel mucosa is not invaded and there is no toxin-induced damage, the fecal smea... | |
Death of Poliomyelitis is due to -: (A) Infection, (B) Neurogenic shock, (C) Cardiac failur, (D) Respiratory paralysis | Answer is D. Moality rate in 5-10% & is due to respiratory failure<\p> REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.487 | |
The following condition of GB is precancerous: (A) Cholesterosis, (B) Porcelain gall bladder, (C) Biliary atresia, (D) Choledochal cyst | Answer is B. Porcelain gallbladder is the pattern when the gallbladder wall is calcified and cracks like an egg-shell. Porcelain gallbladdder is paicularly likely to become cancerous. Risk factors for ca gallbladder includes: 1. Gallstones 2. Genetic factors. 3.carcinogen in bile acids 4.calcificatiin of gall bladder (... | |
A patient with acute viral hepatitis should undergo the following tests except?: (A) IgM- anti HAV, (B) IgM- anti- HBcAg, (C) Anti-HCV antibody, (D) Anti- HDV antibody | Answer is D. For Acute Viral hepatitis patient should evaluable for Hep A Hep B Hep C IgM anti HAV lgM anti HBcAg Anti-HCV antibody *If Hep A, B, C is negative then it is Hep D Impoant Diagnostic Test in Common Liver Disease DISEASE DIAGNOSTIC TEST Hepatitis A Anti-HAV IgM Hepatitis B Acute Chronic HBsAg and anti-HBc I... | |
All symptoms are included in diagnostic criteria of major depression, except-: (A) Indecisiveness, (B) Insomnia, (C) Poor concentration, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. Ans- D | |
Anti-A, anti-B, antibody appear in child -: (A) Just after birth, (B) 1 week after, (C) 6 week after, (D) After 6 months | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e.. After 6 months o litre of anti-A and anti-B antibodies is almost zero immedietly after birth.o Infants start producing anti-A and anti-B antibodies at age of 2-8 month when corresponding antigen is not present in cell.o Maximum titre rech at 8 to 10 years of age after that it started decl... | |
Drug of choice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome is -: (A) Neostigmine, (B) Physostigmine, (C) Tacrine, (D) 4-amino pyridine | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Physostigmine Physostigmine penetrates blood-brain barrier and antagonizes both central and peripheral actions of anticholinergics in acute anticholinergic poisoning (belladonna poisoning). About other options o Neostigmine does not cross blood brain barrier. Thus it is ineffective for ce... | |
Apparent volume of distribution of a drug exceeds total body fluid volume, if a drug is -: (A) Sequestrated in body tissues, (B) Slowly eliminated from body, (C) Poorly soluble in plasma, (D) Poorly bound to plasma protein | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sequestrated in body tissues o Drug may have volume of distribution for in excess of total body water if it is sequestered in other tissues because most of the drug is present in tissues and plasma concentration is low. | |
Abnormal a-fetoprotein is seen in: (A) Trisomy 18, (B) Twin pregnancy, (C) Neural tube defect, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Answer is D (All of the above) All conditions mentioned in options are associated with abnormal Alpha fetoprotein levels. Open Neural tube defects and multiple gestations (twin pregnancy) are associated with elevated alpha protein levels Chromosomal trisomies (trisomy 18) show decreased alphaprotein levels... | |
The true statement regarding supracondylar fracture of the humerus in children?: (A) Admission to hospital is essential following reduction, (B) It is due to fall on the point of the elbow, (C) It require open reduction, (D) It is usually compound | Answer is A. There are two potential problem with close reduction and cast management of fracture supracondylar humerus. The first is loss of reduction and 2nd is increased swelling and potential development of compament syndrome, secondary to immobilization with the elbow in flexion. That's why admission to hospital i... | |
Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :: (A) Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :, (B) Posterior rami of S2-S3 S4, (C) Anterior rami of L5 SI S2, (D) Anterior rami of S2 Si S4 | Answer is D. D. i.e. Ventral/ Anterior rami of Sz, S3, S4Parasympathetic supply of gastrointestinal tract from pharynx upto midgut (or proximal 2/3 transverse colon) is supplied by vagus nerve and parasympathetic supply of hindgut (i.e. distal 1/3 transverse colon onwards) is by pelvic splanchnic nerve.Vermiform append... | |
Which of the following is not used as vector in genetics?: (A) Adeno virus, (B) Proteosome, (C) Liposome, (D) Retrovirus | Answer is B. VECTORS : The gene is trasferred to acarrier ,known as a vector.Most commonly used vectors are plasmids.Plasmids are circular double -stranded DNA molecuels seen inside bacteria. Different vector systems used for gene delivery are : Retro viruses , Adenoviruses , Adeno associated viralvectors and Herpes si... | |
Murmur increasing with valsalva maneouvre aEUR': (A) Mitral stenosis, (B) HOCM, (C) VSD, (D) Aoic stenosis | Answer is B. HOCM EFFECT OF VARIOUS INTERVENTIONS ON SYSTOLIC MURMURS | |
Ring scotoma is seen in :: (A) Papilledema, (B) Macular edema, (C) CRAO, (D) Retinitis pigmentosa | Answer is D. The hallmark symptoms of retinitis pigmentosa are night blindness (nyctalopia) and gradually progressive peripheral visual field loss as a result of increasing and coalescing ring scotomas. The most characteristic fundoscopic findings are attenuated retinal aerioles, waxy pale optic disk, mottling of the r... | |
Flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is?: (A) Serratus anterior, (B) TRAM, (C) Flap from arm, (D) Delto pectoral flap | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. TRAM | |
In transvaginal ultrasound, earliest detection of gestation sac is by :: (A) 21 days after ovulation, (B) 21 days after implantation, (C) 28 days post ovulation, (D) 14 days after ovulation | Answer is D. Ans. is d i.e. 14 days after ovulation The first definitive sonographic finding to suggest early pregnancy is visualization of the gestational sac. Using transvaginal transducers with frequency of 5 MHz, the size threshold for sac detection is 2 - 3 mm, corresponding to 4 weeks + 1 day gestational age to 4... | |
Human brain is more intelligent than monkey's brain due to:: (A) Larger brain, (B) Increased convulations, (C) Increased brain area compared to body surface area, (D) More blood supply | Answer is A. A i.e. Larger brain The propoion of the various pas of the brain are similar in the brains of apes and human, but the human brain is largerQ, so the absolute size of the association area is greaterQ.* Brain size: Human >Chimpanzee > MonkeyQ.Weight of Human brain=1400 gm and Monkey brain = 100gmAssociation ... | |
The Finnish type of congenital nephrotic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations the following protein:: (A) Podocin, (B) Alpha - actinin, (C) Nephrin, (D) CD2 activated protein | Answer is C. Answer is C (Nephrin):"A mutation in the Nephrin gene causes a hereditary form of congenital Nephrotic syndrome (Finnish type) with minimal change glomerular morphology"- Nephrin is a key component of the slit diaphragmIt is a zipper like structure between podocyte foot processes that might control glomeru... | |
A new born presents with deepening cyanosis at bih, with congestive hea failure and normal first hea sound. X-ray reveals cardiomegaly diagnosis is -: (A) Tetralogy of fallot's, (B) Ebstein anomally, (C) Transposition of great vessels, (D) Tricuspid atresia | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Transposition of great vessels | |
Distal end of humerous develops from how many centres ?: (A) 2, (B) 5, (C) 3, (D) 4 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4Pa of humerus OssificationShaft One primary centerUpper end Three secondary centers ?One for head (appears in 1" year).One for greater tubercle (appears in 2ndeg year).One for lesser tubercle (appears in 5th year).This three centers fuses together during 6th year and finally with shaft d... | |
Maximum coverage to distribute forces over a wide area: (A) Snows shoe effect, (B) Bezold-Brucke effect, (C) Realeff effect, (D) Spectral curve | Answer is A. None | |
Transpo of neutral substances across the cell membrane occurs: (A) Porins, (B) Lonophore, (C) Lipopolysaccharides, (D) Diffusion | Answer is D. D i.e. DiffusionTranspo simple passive diffusion is oured by small size, lipid solubility (hydrophobicity) absence of charge (neutrality), and absence of polarity (nonpolar nature)Q. | |
Which of the following is inherited as autosomal recessive form?: (A) Sickle cell anemia, (B) Hemophilia, (C) Hereditary spherocytosis, (D) Glucose 6-P04 dehydrogenase deficiency | Answer is A. Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria Tay-Sachs disease Severe combined immunodeficiency a- and b-Thalassemias Sickle cell anemia Autosomal Dominant Inheritance Familial hypercholesterolemia Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Hereditary spherocytosis Neurofibromatosis, type 1 ... | |
Most common cause of Bronchiolitis is:: (A) RSV, (B) Adenovirus, (C) Hospitalize and treat, (D) Mycoplasma | Answer is A. a. RSV(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2044-2047, Ghai 8/e p 381-382Acute bronchiolitisIt is predominantly a viral disease and RSV is responsible for more than 50% of casesOther agents include parainfluenza, adenovirus, rhinovirus, Mycoplasma, human metapneumovirus and bocavirus. | |
Red cell aplasia caused by:: (A) Aminoglycosides, (B) Chloramphenicol, (C) Penicilline, (D) Ciprofloxacin | Answer is B. (Chloramphenicol): Ref: 675-KDT (717-KDT 6th)* Chloramphenicol is the most important cause of aplastic anameia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia or pancytopenia* PURE RED CELL APLASIA: (480-CMDT-06)Associated with -1. SLE, CLL, Lymphomas or thymoma2. Drugs - chloramphenicol, phenytoin3. Parvovirus infecti... | |
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?: (A) Levobunolol, (B) Bimatoprost, (C) Brinzolamide, (D) Brimonidine | Answer is C. Acetazolamide, Dorzolamide and Brinzolamide are sulfonamide derivatives which act by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor). Being sulphonamide derivatives they are contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides. Ref: Essentials of Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition,... | |
Adenosine deaminase in CSF is significantly higher in -: (A) Tuberculosis meningitis, (B) Bacterial meningitis, (C) Viral meningitis, (D) Syphilitic meningitis | Answer is A. None | |
Drug which produces Steven Johnson's syndrome in HIV infected individuals is:: (A) Paraaminosalicylate, (B) Cycloserine, (C) Thioacetazone, (D) Rifampicin | Answer is C. Thiacetazone (Tzn, Amithiozone) Thiacetazone was found to be the best out of many derivatives. It was tried in the west, formd to be hepatotoxic. and discarded. In India, interest in Tzn was revived in the 1960s for oral use along with INH as a substitute for PAS. Though, its impoance has declined, it cont... | |
BRCA-1 gene is located at what location of the chromosome?: (A) 13p 12, (B) 13q 12, (C) 17p 21, (D) 17q 21 | Answer is D. BRCA-1 is located at - 17q 21
BRCA-2 located at - 13q 12 | |
According to the WHO criteria, anaemia in infants of 6 months age is defined as Hb less than –: (A) 100 gm/litre, (B) 105 gin/litre, (C) 110 gm/litre, (D) 115 gm/litre | Answer is C. None | |
What is the age of routine screening mammography?: (A) 20 years, (B) 30 years, (C) 40 years, (D) 50 years | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) 40 yearsREF: Schwartz 9th ed chapter 17, Sabiston 18th ed chapter 34, NCCN guidelines version 1.2014BREAST CANCER SCREENING NCCN GUIDELINES VERSION 1.2014Risk categoryScreening guidelinesAverage risk; age 25 to 40 yearsClinical breast examination every 1-3 yearsAverage risk; age > 40 yearsClini... | |
Broca's area is present in: (A) Superior temporal gyrus, (B) Precentral gyrus, (C) Post central gyrus, (D) Inferior frontal gyrus | Answer is D. Broca&;s area 44 is in the frontal lobe immediately in front of the inferior end of motor coex which is the inferior frontal gyrus. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:297 | |
Smoking is a risk factor for all cancer except:: (A) Esophagus, (B) Urinary bladder, (C) Pancreas, (D) Gallbladder | Answer is D. Smoking is not the risk factor for carcinoma gallbladder. Smoking is the risk factor for all gastrointestinal tract malignancies and hepatobiliary pancreatic tract malignancies except carcinoma gallbladder. | |
Pelvic pain is mediated by: (A) Pudendal nerve, (B) Sciatic nerve, (C) Autonomic nerves, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. The anatomical structures that may give rise to pain in the pelvic region belong to the urinary, reproductive, and gastrointestinal systems and to their associated blood and lymphatic vessels. These structures, innervated by the somatic (T12-S5) and visceral (T10-S5) nervous system, create a complex anatom... | |
Mark the wrong statement about Orbital Rhabdomyosarcoma: (A) Arise from pluripotent stem cell, (B) Origin from skeletal muscle cell, (C) Unilateral preponderance, (D) More common in females | Answer is D. RHABDOMYOSARCOMA: Most Common orbital tumor in children with mean age of 5-7 years Pluripotent mesenchymal cell origin Most common site of origin: Eyelid Incidence Male > female Unilateral more common Well circumscribed homogenous tumor Superonasal quadrant is the most common location Rapidly developing pr... | |
Most deaths involving placenta pre result from:: (A) Infection, (B) Toxemia, (C) Hemorrhage, (D) Thrombophlebitis | Answer is C. Hemorrhage | |
Blue sclera is feature of -: (A) Osteogenesis imperfecta, (B) Osteopetrosis, (C) Cleidocranial dysostosis, (D) Achendroplasia | Answer is A. Osteogenesis imperfecta also known as Fragilitas ossium/ Vrolick&;s disease characterised by, Fragility of bones, deafness, Blue sclera, laxity of joints and tendency to improve with age. It results from defective collagen synthesis and thus affects other collagen containing soft tissues such as the skin, ... | |
Maximum IMR is seen in: (A) Tamilnadu, (B) Orissa, (C) Maharashtra, (D) Kerala | Answer is B. State (2014)IMR / 1000Tamil Nadu20Orissa/Odisha49Maharashtra22Kerala12Madhya Pradesh52(Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24th edition, pg no:604) | |
All are surface anaesthetics except -: (A) Lignocaine, (B) Bupivacaine, (C) Procaine, (D) Cinchocaine | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bupivacaine o Topical anaesthesia (surface anaesthesia) is produced by topical application of local anaesthetics to mucous membrane or abraded skin. o Surface anaesthetics are Dibucaine (Cinchocaine) Lignocaine Benoxinate Oxethazaine Prilocaine Tetracaine (Amethocaine) Cocaine Benzocaine ... | |
All are seen in morphine poisoning except:: (A) Cyanosis, (B) Pinpoint pupil, (C) Hypeension, (D) Respiratory depression | Answer is C. Hypotension is a feature and not hypeension Features of Morphine Poisoning: Euphoria - Initial euphoria followed by period of sedation (nodding off) - Lethal - respiratory depression Slow respiration, hypothermia, hypotension bradycardia, cyanosis, pin point pupil, cyanosis | |
Causes of cynosls-: (A) TOF, (B) PDA, (C) Tricuspid atresia, (D) Eisonmenger's complex | Answer is A. Tetralogy of Fallot causes low oxygen levels in the blood. This leads to cyanosis (a bluish-purple color to the skin). The classic form includes four defects of the hea and its major blood vessels: Ventricular septal defect (hole between the right and left ventricles) Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 455 | |
Severity of acute pancreatitis correlate with levels of all of the following except: (A) Glucose, (B) Amylase, (C) Transaminase, (D) Calcium | Answer is B. ASSESSMENT OF SEVERITY OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS It is impoant to define that group of patients who will develop severe pancreatitis, as they are the ones with poorer outcomes and therefore they require aggressive early management and possibly transfer to a specialist unit. A severe attack may be heralded by a... | |
The indicators of the periodontal disease status measures all of the following by using CPI index in oral health surveys EXCEPT:: (A) Bleeding, (B) Bone loss, (C) Calculus, (D) Periodontal pocket | Answer is B. None | |
Prominent corneal nerves are seen in all except -: (A) Ectodermal dysplasia, (B) Ichythyosis, (C) Refsum's syndrome, (D) Macular dystrophy | Answer is D. Macular dystrophy (Groenouw type-II)It is an autosomal recessive dystrophy characterisedby appearance of dense grey opacity in the centralcornea. The condition results due to accumulation ofmucopolysaccharides owing to a local enzymedeficiency. It occurs in childhood (5 to 10 years) andleads to marked defe... | |
Angiofibroma bleeds excessively because -: (A) It lacks a capsule, (B) Vessels lack a contractile component, (C) It has multiple sites of origin, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. The characteristic of JNA is that the vessels are just endothelial - lined spaces with no muscle coat.
As the contractile component (muscle coat) of vessels is absent, vessels have no ability to contract, i.e. vasoconstriction does not occur, and this accounts for :-
Severe and recurrent epistaxis
Bleedi... | |
Which of the following is a common feature of NSAID induced allergic interstitial nephritis?: (A) Fever, (B) Rash, (C) Eosinophilia, (D) Heavy proteinuria | Answer is D. The classic presentation of allergic interstitial nephritis (AIN), include fever, rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and oliguric renal failure. But in nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced AIN, fever, rash and eosinophilia are rare, but acute renal failure with heavy proteinuria is common. Ref: ... | |
Not included in PQLI is: (A) Income, (B) Literacy, (C) Life expectancy at age 1, (D) Infant mortality | Answer is A. Ans. (a) IncomeRef. K. Park 23rded. /17Components/lndicators of PQLI* Literacy rate* Infant mortality rate* Life expectancy at age 1 year | |
Oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to right in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:: (A) Hyperthermia, (B) Decreased pH, (C) Decreased H+, (D) Increase CO2 | Answer is C. Ans. C Decreased H+Ref: Ganottg, 25th ed. pg. 640-641OXYGEN HEMOGLOBIN DISSOCIATION CURVE* Oxygen- hemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid 'S' shaped because binding of one oxygen molecule to heme increases the affinity of second heme molecule for oxygen and so on.Factors affecting affinity of Hb for oxyg... | |
Enzyme alglucerase is used in the treatment of ?: (A) Gaucher's disease, (B) Galactosemia, (C) Niemann Pick disease, (D) Pompe's disease | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gaucher's diseaseAlglucerase (ceredase) is used in the treatment of Gaucher's disease. | |
In hyperparathyroidism, which of the following is not seen: (A) Normal alkaline phosphatase, (B) Decreased phosphate in urine, (C) Increased calcium, (D) Hypophosphatemia | Answer is B. there is increased phosphate level in urine ( Harrison 17 pg 2382) | |
Pregnant women with obesity are at higher risk of following except?: (A) Fetal macrosomia, (B) Fetal distress, (C) Gestational hypeension, (D) Infections | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e.,InfectionsIn a prospective multicenter study, pregnant females with obesity (BMI of 30-39.9) was associated with an increased risk of the following compared to non obese females:Gestational diabetes mellitusPreeclampsiaGestational hypeensionFetal macrosomia | |
A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following nursing measures should the nurse do FIRST?: (A) Institute seizure precautions, (B) Assess neurologic status, (C) Place in respiratory isolation, (D) Assess vital signs | Answer is C. The initial therapeutic management of acute bacterial meningitis includes isolation precautions, initiation of antimicrobial therapy and maintenance of optimum hydration.
Nurses should take necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from possible infection. | |
Most common cause of intrauterine infection:: (A) Rubella, (B) Toxoplasma, (C) Hepatitis, (D) Cytomegalovirus | Answer is D. Ans. is d, i.e. CytomegalovirusRef. Williams Obs. 23/e, p 1216, 1217; Harrison 17/e, p 48Most common cause of intrauterine infection is cytomegalovirus. | |
A 1.5 year-old girl is admitted to Pediatric ward with cough, fever, and mild hypoxia. At the time of her admission, on CXR left upper lobe consolidation is seen. Staphylococcus aureus is seen on blood culture within 24 hours. Suddenly the child's condition acutely worsened over the past few minutes, with markedly incr... | Answer is B. Above clinical scenario suggestive of the diagnosis of Tension Pneumothorax In Tension pneumothorax, continuing leak causes increasing positive pressure in the pleural space, leading to compression of the lung, shift of mediastinal structures toward the contralateral side like kinking of Superior vena cava... | |
What is stereopsis is -: (A) Perception of different colours, (B) Perception of depth of vision, (C) Perception of Peripheral visual fields, (D) Perception of size of an object | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. Perception of the depth of vision o Stereopsis is a term that is most often used to refer to the perception of depth and 3-dimensional structure obtained on the basis of the visual information deriving from two eyes by individuals with normally developed binocular visiono There are two dis... | |
Turner syndrome is: (A) 45 XO, (B) 47 XXY, (C) Trisomy 13, (D) Trisomy 18 | Answer is A. Ans. (a) 45 XORef: Shaws 15th ed. H10-111; Harrison 19/e 635; William's Gynecology Ch 16 | |
Clinical audit means -: (A) Measuring hospitai records, (B) Measuring current patients care against explicit criteria, (C) Measuring input-output analysis, (D) Measuring shortest time needed to complete task | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Measuring current patients care against explicit criteriao Clinical audit is a quality improving process, in which patients care is improved.o In this, current patients outcome and outcomes are measured against explicit audit criteria (against reference standards). | |
Drug which arrests mitosis in metaphase ?: (A) Busulfan, (B) 5-fu, (C) Vinca Alkaloids, (D) Methotrexate | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vinca alkaloids M-phase inhibitors (Mitosis inhibitors) are vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, docetaxel ixabepilone and extramustine. | |
Gall bladder adenocarcinoma is only involving lamina propria. What is the preferred treatment: (A) Simple cholecystectomy, (B) Radical cholecystectomy, (C) Chemotherapy alone, (D) Radiotherapy | Answer is A. Only invading lamina propria is T1a stage -simple cholecystectomy. | |
Carpal tunnel contains all except: (A) Median nerve, (B) Flexor digitorum superficialis tendon, (C) Flexor pollicus longus tendon, (D) Flexor carpi ulnaris tendon | Answer is D. FLEXOR RETINACULUMCarpal tunnel.Transverse carpal ligament.Strong fibrous band which bridges anterior concavity of carpus and conves it into osseofibrous tunnel called carpal tunnel for the passage of flexor tendons of the digits.Rectangular.Formed due to thickening of deep fascia in front of carpal bones.... | |
Following are recognized F/O Myositis ossificans EXCEPT:: (A) It is a post traumatic ossification, (B) It follows either a posterior dislocation or a spuracondylar fracture of elbow joint, (C) The complication is less likely in children, (D) Diagnosis is made with ceainty by skiagraphy | Answer is C. C i.e. The complication is less likely in children | |
SAFE strategy is recommended for-: (A) Glaucoma, (B) Cataract, (C) Trachoma, (D) Diabetic retinopathy | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Trachoma o SAFE strategy developed by the WHO is the key to the treatment of trachoma. This consists of Surgery (S) on the lids. Antibiotics to treat the community pool of infection (A), Facial cleanliness (F) ; and Environmental changes (E). Blindness From Trachoma Can Be Stopped At Four... | |
Which of these is true regarding CML –: (A) Size of splenomegaly indicates prognosis, (B) Phagocytic activity of WBC is reduced, (C) Sudan black stain is specific for myeloblast, (D) Myeloblast, granuloblast and lymphoblast become PH chromosome +ve, –ve following remission | Answer is A. None | |
cat acts as reservoir in the following ?: (A) toxoplasma gondii, (B) rabies, (C) streptocerca infection, (D) plague | Answer is A. Toxoplasma gondii * Worldwide * Zoonotic parasite; Toxoplasma is an oppounistic pathogen. * Infects animals, cattle, birds, rodents, pigs, and sheep. * and humans. * Causes the disease Toxoplasmosis. * Toxoplasmosis is leading cause of aboion in sheep and goats. * Intracellular parasite. * Final host (Feli... | |
A fetomaternal transfusion of more than 30 ml has been found in what percentage of women at delivery:: (A) Less than 1%, (B) 5%, (C) 10%, (D) 15% | Answer is C. 10% | |
Least failure in sterilization occurs with:: (A) Falope ring, (B) Bipolar cautery, (C) Unipolar cauterisation, (D) Hulka clip | Answer is C. Female tubal sterilization methods-10 year cumulative failure rates:
Unipolar cauterisation – 0.75%
Postpartum tubal excision – 0.75%
Silastic ring/fallope ring – 1.77
Interval tubal exclusion – 2.01
Bipolar coagulation – 2.48
Hulka - clemens clips – 3.65
Note: Although unipolar cauterization has least fai... | |
Central nervous system manifestion in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following except -: (A) Hyperosmolarity, (B) Hyperparathyroidisn, (C) Acidosis, (D) Hyponatremia | Answer is A. Chronic renal failure results in- Sodium and water retention leading to hyponatremia(not common and responds to water restriction). Decreased ca absorption -Hypocalcemia-increase in PTH -Hyperphosphatemia,increased bone resorption resulting in hypercalcemia-deposition of calcium in extraosseous sites such ... | |
A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhoea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. The best investigation to rule out HIV is-(: (A) P24 antigen assay, (B) ELISA, (C) Western blot, (D) Lymph node biopsy | Answer is A. The standard blood screening test for HIV infection is the ELISA, also referred to as an enzyme immunoassay (EIA). This solid-phase assay is an extremely good screening test with a sensitivity of >99.5%. The fouhgeneration EIA tests combine detection of antibodies to HIV with detection of the p24 antigen o... | |
In spinal anaesthesia the drug is deposited between :: (A) Dura and arachnoid, (B) Pia and arachnoid, (C) Dura and vertebra, (D) Into the cord substance | Answer is B. None | |
CD marker of histiocytosis is-: (A) CD IA, (B) CD 1B, (C) CD1C, (D) CD1D | Answer is A. Tumour cells in histiocytosis typically express HLA -DR,S-100,and CD1a. Reference : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 622 | |
Methotrexate is used in all except aEUR': (A) > Sickle cell anemia, (B) >Psoriasis, (C) > Rheumatoid ahritis, (D) >Ankylosing spondylitis | Answer is A. Sickle cell anemia Methotrexate in Rheumatoid ahritis Methotrexate is now considered the first line DMARD agent for most patients with Rheumatoid ahritis. - Methotrexate is effective in reducing the signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid ahritis as well as slowing or halting radiographic damage. - It has relativ... | |
An elderly patient with hypeension with diabetes, proteinuria without renal failure, antihypeensive of choice is-: (A) Furosemide, (B) Methyldopa, (C) Enalapril, (D) Propranolol | Answer is C. Among the currently popular antihypeensive agents, angiotensin-conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as captopril and enalapril, have been blamed, albeit rarely, for hepatotoxicity (primarily cholestasis and cholestatic hepatitis, but also hepatocellular injury) .Malignant hypeension (whenIV therapy is in... | |
All the following are true about Rheumatoid ahritis except:: (A) Positive for Anti-IgG antibody, (B) Juxta-aicular osteoporosis, (C) Morning stiffness, (D) C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis | Answer is D. Answer is D (C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis) Persons who present with high titers of Rheumatoid factor, C Reactive protein and Haptoglobin have a worse prognosis than the individuals who present with Subcutaneous nodules or Radiographic evidence of erosions | |
Only laryngeal muscle that is innervated bidirectionally is: (A) Vocalis, (B) Posterior cricoarytenoid, (C) Lateral cricoarytenoid, (D) Interarytenoid | Answer is D. - Interarytenoid muscle is an unpaired muscle in the centre between the 2 arytenoid cailages and is innervated bidirectionally. | |
Which of the following structures pass through aoic hiatus?: (A) Thoracic duct and azygos vein, (B) Thoracic duct and gastric aery, (C) Vagus nerve with oesophagus, (D) Aorla with oesophagus | Answer is A. The aoic hiatus situated at the level of T12 veebra. Structures passing through aoic hiatus along with aoa are:Thoracic ductAzygos veinHemiazygos vein | |
Fracture of teeth and some bruises around mouth is: AIIMS 12: (A) Simple injury, (B) Grievous injury, (C) Dangerous injury, (D) Assault | Answer is B. Ans. Grievous injury | |
All of the following muscles of pollex are supplied by median nerve, EXCEPT:: (A) Adductor pollicis, (B) Opponens pollicis, (C) Abductor pollicis brevis, (D) Flexor pollicis brevis | Answer is A. Pollex means Thumb, which means strong in latin. There are four sho muscles of thumb (pollex), they are abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis and adductor pollicis. The first three of these muscles form the thenar eminence. All these muscles are supplied by median nerve except... | |
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor should not be given in : a) Sulfonamide hypersensitivity b) Glaucoma c) High altitude sickness d) Metabolic acidosis e) COPD: (A) ace, (B) ade, (C) abcd, (D) a | Answer is B. None | |
A 50 year old male patient presents to the clinic for routine checkup. He is hypertensive and a type 2 diabetic. Lab investigations reveal plasma cholesterol levels 5.8 mmol/L and RBS 180 mg/dl. Which of the following agents can be used in this patient?: (A) Statins, (B) Fibrates, (C) Nicotinic acid, (D) All of the abo... | Answer is D. When diet changes fail, hypolipidemic drugs can reduce serum cholesterol & triacylglycerol. A family of drugs known as statins have proved highly efficacious in lowering plasma cholesterol and preventing heart disease.
Statins act by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase and up-regulating LDL receptor activity. E... | |
In which of the mentioned segments of a nephron, Na+ reabsorption primarily occurs by the Na+-H+ exchange?: (A) PCT, (B) loop of Henle, (C) DCT, (D) Collecting duct | Answer is A. In the PCT, the apical membrane has Na+/H+-antipoer, which couples H+ secretion with the Na+ movement across the apical membrane. In the TAL of loop of Henle:- The sympoer NKCC moves 1 Na+, 1 K+, 2 Cl- through the apical membrane into the cell. In DCT:- The sympoer is NCC. In the late distal tubule and col... | |
Antidepressant which is a Presynaptic a-2 receptor blocker which enhance secretion of both norepinephrine and serotonine ?: (A) Trazodone, (B) Miazapine, (C) Mianserine, (D) Bupropion | Answer is B. Ans. is'b'i.e., Miazapine MiazapineIt blocks alpha-2 auto-receptors (on NA neurons) and heteroreceptors ( on 5HT-neurons) | |
Perifollicular and petechial hemorrhages are characteristic of-: (A) Acrodermatitis enteropathica, (B) Pellagra, (C) Scurvy, (D) Phrynoderma | Answer is C. <img src=" /> Image ref Harrison 20th edition pg 67 | |
During delivery A gives bih to a stillborn .A conceals the bih by secret disposal of dead .Which of the following statement is false regarding this situation: (A) A can be imprisoned for a maximum of 2 yrs, (B) The punishment for the act done by A is defined under section 318 of IPC, (C) A is guilty of offence, (D) The... | Answer is D. The act done by A the of the stillborn by secretly disposing of the dead and punishment for the same is defined under section ***IPC section 317-Exposure and abandonment of child 12 years by parents Punishment -up to 7 years of imprisonment or fine or both ***318 IPC -Concealment of bih by secret disposal ... | |
Imaging modality employed in PI-RAD repoing scheme for prostate glands is all except:-: (A) MR spectroscopy, (B) Dynamic contrast enhancement, (C) Diffusion weighted MRI, (D) T2W imaging | Answer is A. PI-RADS is for prostate lesions based on multi-parametric MRI. It includes:- T2 weighted imaging for transitional zone of prostate - Diffusion weighted imaging/ADC score for peripheral zone of prostate- Dynamic contrast enhancement PI-RADS PI-RADS 1 = Very low (clinically significant cancer highly unlikely... | |
37-year-old female patient has a fracture of clavicle. The junction of inner and middle third of the bone exhibits overriding of medial and lateral fragments. The arm is rotated medially, but it is not rotated laterally. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur secondary to the fractured clavicle?: (A)... | Answer is B. The fractured clavicle may damage the subclan vein, resulting in a pulmonary embolism; cause thrombosis of the subclan aery, resulting in embolism of the brachial aery; or damage the lower trunk of brachial plexus. | |
Characteristic of mixed connective-tissue disease are all of the following except: March 2005: (A) Hypogammaglobulinemia, (B) Membranous glomerulonephritis, (C) Polyahritis, (D) CNS involvement | Answer is A. Ans. A: Hypogammaglobulinemia Manifestations of mixed connective-tissue disease (MCTD) can be variable. Most patients experience Raynaud phenomenon, ahralgia/ahritis, swollen hands, sclerodactyly or acrosclerosis, and mild myositis. The following may be revealed by history or physical examination: Raynaud ... | |
All of the following statements are true about Frey's Syndrome except: (A) Gustatory sweating, (B) Aberrant misdirection of parasympathetic fibers of auriculotemporal nerve, (C) Botulinum toxin is one of the treatment suggested, (D) Less chances with enucleation than parotidectomy | Answer is D. FREY 'S SYNDROME (GUSTATORY SWEATING) - Frey's syndrome arises as a complication of parotid surgery usually manifesting several months after the operation.it is characterized by sweating and flushing of the preauricular skin during mastication causing nuisance to the person or social embarrassment. Treatme... | |
Histopathology of chronic hepatitis shows -: (A) Ballooning of hepatocytes, (B) Councilman bodies, (C) Bridging fibrosis, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Bridging fibrosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 837)Hallmark of progressive chronic liver damage is deposition of fibrous tissue (scarring) Q bridgin fibrosis | |
Which of the following structure is not related to cavernous sinus:: (A) Abducent nerve, (B) Optic nerve, (C) Ophthalmic nerve, (D) Trochlear nerve | Answer is B. Five structures in lateral wall of cavernous sinus
1. Oculomotor nerve
2. Trochlear nerve
3. Ophthalmic nerve
4. Maxillary nerve
5. Trigeminal ganglion
Note: Internal carotid artery wrapped in its venous and sympathetic plexus along with abducent nerve passes through the center of cavernous sinus. | |
Sharp instruments may be sterilized with ?: (A) Radiation, (B) Lysol, (C) Hot air, (D) Any of the above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hot air |
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