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A patient died and relatives complain that it is due to the negligence of the doctor. According to a recent Supreme court judgment, the doctor can be charged for Medical Negligence under section 304-A, only: (A) If he is from corporate hospital, (B) If negligence is from inadvertent error, (C) Gross negligence, (D) Res... | Answer is C. According to a recent supreme court judgment, the doctor can be charged for medical negligence
Under section 304-A IPC (i.e. criminal negligence), only if he shows gross lack of competence/skill, gross inattention, or inaction or recklessness or wanton (gross) indifference to the patient's safety or, gross... | |
Arsenic poisoning presents with symptoms mimicking -: (A) Cholera, (B) Dhatura poisoning, (C) Barbiturates poisoning, (D) Morphine poisoning | Answer is A. Arsenic poisoning present with symptoms mimicking cholera. The differences are - | |
The length of a muscle at which tension is maximum is called:: (A) Active length, (B) Resting length, (C) Optimal length, (D) Maximal length | Answer is C. When a muscle at rest is stretched, its sarcomere length is changed. When this muscle is made to contract from the various lengths at rest, contractile force developed varies according to the actin-myosin interaction possible within the sarcomere. Resting length of sarcomere = 2 m. This is Li or length ini... | |
All of the following are the diseases occurring due to disturbance in lipid metabolism except:: (A) Gaucher’s Disease, (B) Niemann-Pick Disease ., (C) Hurler syndrome., (D) Letterer-Siwe Disease. | Answer is C. Hurler syndrome is due to the disturbance in mucopolysaccharide metabolism. | |
in bogorad syndrome damage to the parasympathetic fibres of fascial nerve takes place ?: (A) at parotid gland, (B) before entering in to stylomastoid foramen, (C) just before geniculate ganglion, (D) before entering into internal auditory meatus | Answer is B. BOGORAD SYNDROME OR CROCADILE TEAR SYNDROME : damage to Para sympathetic fibres occurs before the geniculate ganglion APPLIED ASPECTS Crocodile tears syndrome/ Bogorad&;s syndrome" uncommon consequence of nerve regeneration subsequent to Bell&;s palsy or other damage to the facial nerve in which efferent f... | |
In cotrimoxazole, sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim are in ratio of:: (A) 2:01, (B) 1:01, (C) 5:01, (D) 4:05 | Answer is C. 5:01 | |
What is Ranula -: (A) Retention cyst of sublingual gland, (B) Retention cyst of submandibular gland, (C) Extravasation cyst of sublingual glands, (D) Extravasation cyst of submandibular glands | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Retention cyst of sublingual gland | |
What is the significance of mutation of CCR5 protein?: (A) High resistance to HIV infection, (B) High susceptibility to HIV infection, (C) Causes resistance to anti retroviral therapy, (D) Causes increased virulence of the virus | Answer is A. The answer to this question is definitely 'A'.Let me explain why. HIV infects T cells that carry CD4 antigen on their surface i.e CD4 T cells.In addition HIV can also affect macrophages that bear CD4 on their surface. The first step in the HIV infection is the binding of envelope glycoprotein of HIV to the... | |
Neonatal polycythemia with hyperviscosity is associated with all except: (A) Twin - Twin transfusion syndrome, (B) Fetal microsomia in gestational diabetes, (C) Fetal and placental growth restriction, (D) Transfusion at delivery | Answer is B. Fetal macrosomia in gestational diabetes is associated with neonatal polycythemia. | |
What is the diagnosis in this patient with abdominal pain?: (A) Amyloidosis, (B) Familial Mediterranean fever, (C) Lead poisoning, (D) Leukemia | Answer is C. Answer C. Lead poisoningThe blue lines evident on the gums are Burton's lines, which can be present in patients with lead poisoning. The diagnosis of occupational lead poisoning was confirmed by an elevated serum lead level. The patient recovered following chelation therapy. | |
Selective grinding for equilibrating complete dentures is best accomplished after processing when the dentures are:: (A) Rearticulated using original jaw relation record, (B) Rearticulated with a new series of jaw relation, (C) Equilibrated in the patients mouth, (D) Spot ground in the patients mouth | Answer is B. None | |
A hypeensive patient Sattu already receiving a drug 'X' to control his BP was prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant. This resulted in the abolition of the antihypeensive action of 'X'. Which of the following drug can be 'X'?: (A) Enalapril, (B) Clonidine, (C) Atenolol, (D) Diltiazem | Answer is B. (Ref: KDT 6/e p444) TCAs abolish the antihypeensive effect of guanethidine and Clonidine by inhibiting their transpo into the adrenergic neurons. | |
Methylene blue test is used to detect: (A) Microorganisms, (B) Sucrose, (C) Fats, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Methylene blue test is used to detect Microorganisms. | |
Post coital test detects all of the following. Except:: (A) Fallopian tube block, (B) Cervical factor abnormality, (C) Sperm count, (D) Sperm abnormality | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' fallopian tube block. (Shaws, 13/e, p 202, 210 (12/e, p. 158, 164))Postcoital test can be used to study the properties of cervical mucus i.e.,. its capability to allow sperm penetration and presence of antisperm antibodies and also about ovulation.Study of cervical mucus has nothing to do with ... | |
All of the following are TRUE about ASO titre, EXCEPT:: (A) ASO can be increased in school children, (B) May be negative in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis, (C) ASO titre included in major criteria in jones criteria, (D) May not be elevated in 20% cases of carditis | Answer is C. The antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer is the most commonly used streptococcal antibody test to establish a recent streptococcal infection. It is not a major criteria but, suppoing evidence of antecedent group A streptococcal infection. An ASO titer of 240 Todd units or higher in adults or 320 Todd units or hi... | |
Korner's septum is seen in:: (A) Petrosquamous suture, (B) Temporosquamous suture, (C) Petromastoid suture, (D) Frontozygomatic suture | Answer is A. Petrosquamous suture | |
True statement about Coarctation of the Aorta includes: (A) Lower limb pulses are barely palpable or absent, (B) Blood pressure is elevated distal to the lesion and reduced proximal to it, (C) The condition is twice as common in females as males, (D) Hypertrophy of the lower ribs may be seen in older children | Answer is A. (A) Lower limb pulses are barely palpable or absent> Coarctation of the aorta, or aortic coarctation, is a congenital condition whereby the aorta narrows in the area where the ductus arteriosus (ligamentum arteriosum after regression) inserts.> Coarctation is about twice as common in boys as it is in girls... | |
Outdated drugs and cytotoxic wastes are disposed by:: (A) Dumping, (B) Destruction and disposal, (C) Store for month and burial, (D) Incineration | Answer is B. Destruction and disposal | |
10 year old boy complaints of pain in right arm near the shoulder, x-ray shows expansile lytic lesion in upper third of humerus, what is the likely diagnosis.: (A) Aneurysmal Bone cyst, (B) Simple bone cyst, (C) Giant cell tumor, (D) Osteosarcoma | Answer is B. None | |
Abandoning a child is punishable under which section of IPC ?: (A) 320, (B) 317, (C) 323, (D) 84 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 317 317 IPC: Abandoning a child (7 years imprisonment +- fine)Offences related to abortion and child birth* 312,313, 314 and 315IPC: For causing voluntary miscarriage (criminal abortion).# 312 IPC: Causing miscarriage with consent (3 years of imprisonment +- fine).# 313 IPC : Causing misc... | |
All the following decrease skeletal muscle tone by CNS effects except:: (A) D-tubocurarin, (B) Diazepam, (C) Beclofen, (D) Mephensin | Answer is A. None | |
Only mycobacteria which produces exotoxin -: (A) M. tuberculosis, (B) M. Ajarinum, (C) M. Ulcerans, (D) M.Bavis | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., M. Ulcerans * Buruli ulcer is caused by M. ulcerans.* It is the only mycobacteria producing a toxin. | |
Arrange following pas of Anesthesia machine according increasing pressure system wise i) Vaporize mounting devices ii) Hanger yoke assembly iii) Flow indicators iv) Pipe line indicator: (A) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii), (B) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii), (C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) | Answer is A. Anesthesia machine according increasing pressure system iii) Flow indicators i) Vaporize mounting devices iv) Pipe line indicator ii) Hanger yoke assembly | |
Most common cause of Genital Herpes: (A) HSV-1, (B) HSV-2, (C) HSV-3 (VZV), (D) HSV-4 (EBV) | Answer is B. Both HSV-1 and 2 can cause genital and oral - facial infection but reaction at oral - facial site is more common with HSV-1 and at the genital site with HSV-2 | |
Forced diuresis with acidification or alkalinization of urine is a common method for elimination of certain poisons/drugs from the body. The elimination of which of the following drugs is commonly enhanced by alkaline diuresis -: (A) Amphetamines, (B) Phenobarbitone, (C) Phencyclidine, (D) Theophylline | Answer is B. Amongst the give options, alkaline diuresis is used in barbiturate (phenobarbitone) poisoning. | |
Fluent Aphasia with preserved comprehension and impaired repetition is:: (A) Broca's, (B) Wernicke's, (C) Anomie, (D) Conduction | Answer is D. Answer is D (conduction): Conduction Aphasia is a 'Fluent' Aphasia with preserved comprehension and impaired Repetition. Clinical Syndrome Non-Fluent Aphasias Fluent Aphas'as Features Transcoical Motor Wernicke's Transcoical Sensory Fluent No No No No Yes Yes Yes Yes Comprehension No No Yes Yes Yes Yes No ... | |
Dosage of Vitamin-A for children between 1-3 years: (A) 5,00,000 IU, (B) 2,00,000 IU, (C) 1,00,000 IU, (D) 3,00,000 IU | Answer is B. In settings where vitamin A deficiency is a public health problem** (prevalence of night blindness is 1% or higher in children 24-59 months of age or where the prevalence of vitamin A deficiency (serum retinol 0.70 umol/l or lower) is 20% or higher in infants and children 6-59 months of age), high-dose vit... | |
'Ring sign' is seen in: September 2003: (A) Scurvy, (B) Congenital syphilis, (C) Gaucher's disease, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Scurvy | |
The line joining ant. sup iliac spine to ischial tuberosity and passes a greater trochanter -: (A) Nelaton's line, (B) Showmakers line, (C) Chiene's, (D) Perkins line | Answer is A. Nelaton's line :
With the hip in 90 degree of flexion, a line joining the ASIS and ischial tuberosity passes through the tip of the greater trochanter on that side.
In cases of supratrochanteric shortening the trochanter will be proximal to this line.
Shoemaker's line :
With the patient lying supine, th... | |
Ulceration of the vulva is commonly seen in all except :: (A) Bacterial vaginosis, (B) Syphilis, (C) Chancroid, (D) Behcet's disease | Answer is A. ULCERS OF THE VULVA STD related idiopathic tuberculosis malignancy systemic syphilis herpes genitalis chancroid granulomainguinale lymphogranuloma venerum Bechet&;s disease aphthous ulcers lipschutz ulcers tubercular SCC Malignant melanoma basal cell carcinoma leukemia choriocarcinoma SLE Chron&;s disease ... | |
Which of the following is included as "proximate principles" of nutrition?: (A) Iron, (B) Vitamin A, (C) Carbohydrate, (D) Calcium | Answer is C. Macronutrients are also known as proximal principles of nutrition as they form the major bulk of food consumed by us. Macronutrients include carbohydrates, proteins and fats. Ref: Park's, 21st Edition, Page 562. | |
A 40 year old patient has undergone an open cholecystectomy. The procedure was repoed as uneventful by the operating surgeon. She has 100 ml of bile output from the drain kept in the gallbladder bed on the first post operative day. On examination she is afebrile and anicteric. The abdomen is soft and bowel sounds are n... | Answer is D. Ans. is (d) i.e. Clinical observation 100 ml. of Bile output from the patient on the 1st postop. day without any other abnormality is of no clinical significance, so does not warrant any action from the surgeon. But remember if passing of 100 ml of bile continues for 5-6 days then it is considered abnormal... | |
All is true about foreign body impaction in ear except-: (A) Objects located medial to isthmus of canal is difficult to remove, (B) Syringing is used for removal of vegetative foreign body, (C) Syringing uses room temperature water, (D) Blunt hook is used to remove rounded foreign body | Answer is B. Answer- B. Syringing is used for removal of vegetative foreign bodyMethods of removing a foreign body include: forceps removal, syringing suction, microscopic removal with special instruments and postaural approach.Foreign bodies of vegetable origin such as nuts, peas and beans, are hygroscopic and should ... | |
A 17 year old female presents with a pruritic rash localized to the wrist. Papules and vesicles are noted in a bandlike pattern, with slight oozing from some lesions. The most likely cause of the rash is NOT RELATED -DERMATOLOGY: (A) Herpes simplex, (B) Shingles, (C) Contact dermatitis, (D) Seborrheic dermatitis | Answer is C. Contact dermatitis causes pruritic plaques or vesicles localized to an area of contact. In this case, a bracelet or wristband would be the inciting agent. The dermatitis may have vesicles with weeping lesions. The process is related to direct irritation of the skin from a chemical or physical irritant. It ... | |
True statement regarding this diagnosis is:: (A) Recurrence is a common complication, (B) Common in children and rare in adults, (C) May be overlooked as clinically occult, (D) Is not associated with other bony/cartilagionus injury | Answer is A. Ans. A Recurrence is a common complicationThere is incongruency between Glenoid (red arrow) and Humeral head (yellow arrow) which is lying inferior to Coracoid process (blue) - suggests Sub-coracoid/Anterior shoulder dislocation. Anterior shoulder dislocation is very common, often seen in adults and is rec... | |
Dye for myelography is injected in which space :: (A) Subdural, (B) Epidural, (C) Subarachnoid, (D) Extradural | Answer is C. Myelography is the radiographic investigation of the spinal canal for the diagnosis of space occupying an obstructive lesion. It requires the contrast agent to be injected into subarachnoid space.
MRI has replaced myelography, these days. | |
Scottish terrier sign is seen in:: (A) AP view, (B) PA view, (C) Lateral view, (D) Oblique view | Answer is D. Ans. Oblique view | |
A 17-year-old soccer player suffered a fracture to the left tibia. After his lower leg has been in a cast for 8 weeks, he found that the left gastrocnemius muscle is significantly smaller in circumference than it was before the fracture. What is the most likely explanation?: (A) Decrease in the number of individual mus... | Answer is C. Skeletal muscle continuously remodels in response to its level of use. When a muscle is inactive for an extended period, the rate of synthesis of the contractile proteins in individual muscle fibers decreases, resulting in an overall reduction in muscle mass. This reversible reduction in muscle mass is cal... | |
All are transmitted by fecal-oral route except ?: (A) Polio, (B) Typhoid, (C) Ascaris, (D) Dracunculiasis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Dracunculiasis | |
KOH wet mount is prepared for: (A) Bacteria, (B) Virus, (C) Fungus, (D) Parasite | Answer is C. KOH preparation: Specimen is placed in a drop of 10%KOH on a slide and covered with a cover slip. It is heated gently and examined under a microscope. Yeast cells and hyphae may be observed. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition . | |
All of the following 'Reforms' have been proposed by the world health repo (2008), EXCEPT:: (A) Service Reforms, (B) Leadership Reforms, (C) Policy Reforms, (D) Economic Reforms | Answer is D. The World Health Repo 2008 lists four sets of PHC (Primary Health Care) Reforms which are necessary to refocus health systems towards health for all. These are universal coverage reforms, service delivery reforms, public policy reforms and leadership reforms. Economic reforms are not included in this repo.... | |
Fluoride is used in: (A) Blood glucose estimation samples, (B) Urine glucose estimation samples, (C) Both 1 & 2, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. The high energy compound phosphoenol pyruvate is generated from 2-phosphoglycerate by the enzyme enolase. This enzyme requires Mg2+ or Mn2+ and is inhibited by fluoride. For blood glucose estimation in the laboratory, fluoride is added to the blood to prevent glycolysis by the cells, so that blood glucose... | |
Among the following, which of the following 5-PDE inhibitor has the longest duration of action?: (A) Sildenafil, (B) Vardenafil, (C) Tadalafil, (D) Udenafil | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tadalafil o Tadalafil is the longest acting phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction. Its half life is 17.5 hours. | |
What is the naturally occurring form of vitamin D in the human skin?: (A) Calciferol, (B) 7 hydroeholesterol, (C) 25 hydroxy cholecalciferol, (D) 1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol | Answer is A. Calciferol is a fat-soluble, crystalline unsaturated alcohol produced by ultraviolet irradiation of ergosterol in plants. It is used as a dietary supplement in the prophylaxis and treatment of rickets, osteomalacia, and other hypocalcemic disorders. Also called ergocalciferol, ole vitamin D2, vitamin D2. S... | |
All of the following diuretics acts from luminal side of renal tubules except:: (A) Loop diuretics, (B) ENAC blockers, (C) Aldosterone antagonists, (D) Mannitol | Answer is C. Aldosterone receptor antagonists acts from interstitial side. | |
The following is not an atypical antipsychotic: (A) Thioridazine, (B) Clozapine, (C) Olanzapine, (D) Resperidone | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Thioridazine The most important distinction in modem day classification of antipsychotic drug is between the classical agents (typical) agents such as chlorpromazine, haloperidol and Zuclopenthixol and the atypical antipsychotics which include clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine and quetiap... | |
First to come in female pubey:: (A) Thelarche, (B) Menses, (C) Adrenarche, (D) Growth spu | Answer is D. This question may cause a problem in the exam. If growth spu is in the choices then we must mark that s the first option since this is indeed the first event of pubey Pubey specific event which comes in first is Thelarche & then Pubarche, linear growth spu and Menarche In girls, pubeal development typicall... | |
The disposal of night soil and refuse is by?: (A) Chemical sterilization, (B) Burning, (C) Composting, (D) Any of the above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Composting | |
Components of 60 S subunit of ribosome are: (A) 5.8 S, (B) 23 S, (C) 16 S, (D) 18 S | Answer is A. The mammalian ribosome has a sedimentation consisting of 80s unitIt has larger 60s subunit and another smaller 40s subunit The larger ribosomal subunit has 28s, 5.8S, and 5S rRNA And small subunit has only 18SrRNA | |
A 28-year-old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years) and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation?: (A) Serum electrolytes, (B) Plasma coisol, (C) Plasma testosterone and ultrasound, (D... | Answer is B. Weight gain + Oligomenorrhea --->Cushing syndrome. Coisol inhibits gonadotropin release that explains the amenorrhea. Hypeension in these patients is secondary to increased coisol that has some mineralocoicoid activity also. Excess glucocoicoids also interfere with central regulatory systems, leading to su... | |
Some mRNA has self-splicing activity. The removal of introns is/are done by: (A) Occur in intron that from Ribozyme, (B) Self-splicing introns, (C) Lariats intermediates are formed, (D) All of these | Answer is D. In molecular biology and genetics, splicing is a modification of an RNA after transcription, in which introns are removed and exons are joined. This is needed for the typical eukaryotic messenger RNA before it can be used to produce a correct protein through translation. For many eukaryotic introns, splici... | |
The risk factors of acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) are the following except:: (A) Menstruating teenagers who have multiple sex partners, (B) IUD users, (C) Women with monogamous partner who had vasectomy, (D) Previous history of acute PID | Answer is C. None | |
Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of metal used for metal ceramic restoration range from:: (A) 11.5-12.5 x 10-6/°C, (B) 10.5-11.5 x 10-6/°C, (C) 13.5-14.5 x 10-6/°C, (D) 16.5-17.5 x 10-6/°C | Answer is C. Most porcelains have coefficients of thermal expansion between 13.0 and 14.0 × 10 −6 /°C, and metals between 13.5 and 14.5 × 10 −6 /°C. The difference of 0.5 × 10 −6 /°C in thermal contraction between metal and porcelain causes the metal to contract slightly more than does the ceramic during cooling. Th... | |
Most sensitive indicator of iron deficiency anemia: (A) Packed cell volume, (B) Hemoglobin, (C) Serum ferritin, (D) Serum iron | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Serum ferritin(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 649-652)Among the options provided, most sensitive marker in iron deficiency anemia is Serum ferritin.Serum ferritin reflects the storage of Iron which is decreased even in the pre-latent stage of Iron deficiency Anemia and is the most sensitive marker. | |
Assessment of malnutrition is done by:-: (A) Mid-arm circumference (MAC), (B) Body mass index, (C) Weight for age, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Assessment of: Nutritional status in children: weight for age (growth cha) > MAC Nutritional status in adults : body mass index Best indicator for growth & development in children - weight for age. | |
Thoracic Sympathetic Chain is situated :: (A) In front of posterior mediastinum, (B) Passes superficial to medial arcuate ligament, (C) Near heads of 2nd to 10th rib, (D) In front of veebral column | Answer is C. C. i.e. Near heads of 2nd to 10th rib Thoracic sympathetic trunk is a ganglionated chain situated on each side of thoracic veebraQ and crosses the neck of 1st rib, heads of 2" to 10th ribs and bodies of 11th & 12th rib.Q The whole chain descends in front of posterior intercostal vessels & intercostal nerve... | |
A 30 year old lady c/o sudden onset breathlessness, anxiety, palpitation & feeling of impending doom. Physical examination is normal. What is the diagnosis -: (A) Panic attack, (B) PTSD, (C) Conversion disorder, (D) Acute psychosis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Panic attack DSM-IV Criteria for a Panic AttackA panic attack is a period of intense fear or discomfort, developing abruptly and peaking within 10 minutes, and requiring at least four of the followingChest pain or discomfortQChills or hot flushesDerealization (feeling of unreality) or dep... | |
The typical temperature of an autoclave (operating at 30 psi of pressure is): (A) 121degC, (B) 100degC, (C) 63degC, (D) 134degC | Answer is D. Two types of autoclave are used in laboratories and hospitals. * Moist heat at 121 degree Celsius X 15-20 minutes (Pressure-15 psi) * Moist heat at 134 degree Celsius X 3 minutes (Pressure-30 psi) | |
Diagnosis of tularemia is confirmed using agglutination testing. In the standard tube agglutination test, what should be the single antibody titre for making the test positive?: (A) 1:40, (B) 0.097222222, (C) 0.125, (D) 0.152777778 | Answer is D. A single antibody titer 1:160 is interpreted as a presumptive positive result for diagnosing tularemia. Agglutination test is used to confirm the diagnosis of tularemia. A fourfold increase in titer between paired serum samples collected 2-3 weeks apa is considered diagnostic. Late in infection, titers of ... | |
Satellite nodules are seen in: (A) Fungal corneal ulcer, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) Viral ulcer | Answer is A. o Features of fungal corneal ulcer are | |
Hamman's sign is seen in:: (A) Pulmonary thromboembolism, (B) Pulmonary atelectasis, (C) Pneumomediastinum, (D) Intralobar pulmonary sequestration | Answer is C. Hamman's sign is the Crunching sound heard with every heart beat because of heart beating against air fill. | |
Venom of sea snake is mostly -: (A) Neurotoxic, (B) Haemolytic, (C) Myotoxic, (D) Hepatotoxic | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following streptococcal antigen cross reacts with synol fluid?: (A) Carbohydrate (group A), (B) Cell wall protein, (C) Capsular hyaluronic acid, (D) Peptidoglycan | Answer is C. Antigens cross reactivity between Streptococcus antigens and the corresponding human antigen Streptococcal component Human tissue Capsular hyaluronic acid Synol fluid Cell wall protein Myocardium Group A carbohydrate Cardiac valves Cytoplasmic membrane antigen Vascular intima Peptidoglycans Skin antigens | |
Drug of choice for primary prophylaxis for acute rheumatic fever?: (A) Erythromycin-1.2 million units, (B) Erythromycin-1.2 lakh units, (C) Benzathine penicllin-1.2 lakh units, (D) Benzathine penicillin-1.2 million units | Answer is D. Prophylaxis of ARF: 1.primary-To stop streptococcal pharyngitis to procede to ARF In this,Antibiotics are given for a week. DOC-injection benzathine penicillin-1.2 million units(wt>27kgs);0.6 million units(wt<27 kgs). if patient is allergic to penicillins then macrolides are preferred. 2.secondary prophyla... | |
A 48 year old woman has developed chronic renal failure, and a renal scan showed bilaterally enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. She had a sudden onset severe headache. A cerebral angiogram demonstrated marked narrowing of cerebral aery branches near the base of the brain, consistent with vasospasm, but no intraparen... | Answer is D. The blood irritates the aeries. This effect is often delayed by several days following the initial hemorrhagic event. Berry aneurysms are located in the circle of Willis at the base of the brain, and rupture leads to extravasation of blood into the subarachnoid space. Her renal scan suggests a diagnosis of... | |
Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is:: (A) Seizures, (B) Focal neurological deficits, (C) Dementia, (D) Radiculopathy | Answer is A. Answer is A (Seizures): "These is wide variety of presentation of Neurocysticercosis depending on the intensity of the infestation, the localization of cystecerci and the degree of inflammatory reaction. Epilepsy (seizure activity) is the most common manifestation occurring in upto 50% cases - API text boo... | |
Dermatophyte affecting the hair, nail, and skin is: (A) Trichophyton, (B) Epidermophyton, (C) Microsporum, (D) Malassezia | Answer is A. The three genera of medically impoant dermatophytes (literally, skin-plants) are Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton.--Trichophyton: infects skin, hair, and nails-- Microsporum: infects hair and skin-- Epidermophyton: infects nails and skinRef: Sherris Medical Microbiology; 6th edition; Chapter 5... | |
All are TRUE about protease activated receptors, EXCEPT:: (A) Family of three seven transmembrane protein, (B) Activated by thrombin, (C) Releases PGE2, (D) Protects epithelial cells | Answer is A. Protease activated receptors (PARs), a family of four seven-transmembrane G protein-coupled receptors (PAR1, PAR2, PAR3, PAR4), act as targets for signalling by various proteolytic enzymes (thrombin, trypsin). PARs are characterized by a unique activation mechanism involving the proteolytic unmasking of a ... | |
A 10-year-old boy developed hoarseness of voice following an attack of diphtheria. On examination his right vocal was paralysed. The treatment of choice for paralysed vocal cord will be:: (A) Gel foam injection of right vocal cord, (B) Fat injection of right vocal cord, (C) Thyroplasty type-I, (D) Wait for spontaneous ... | Answer is D. Diphtheria is known to cause cranial nerve palsies and peripheral neuritis. It may cause paralysis of palate, pharynx, larynx and face. Recovery may also occur in a few weeks or months. Thus patient has a chance to recover vocal cord paralysis and the wait and watch policy would be the right option. Also c... | |
Floor of body of lateral ventricle is formed by: (A) Septum pellucidum, (B) Rostrum of corpus callosum, (C) Thalamostriate vein, (D) Genu of corpus callosum | Answer is C. Floor of body of lateral ventricle is formed by
Caudate nucleus
Thalamostriate vein
Thalamus upper surface
Body of fornix upper surface
Rostrum of corpus callosum forms floor, septum pellucidum forms medial wall, and genu of corpus callosum forms anterior wall of anterior horn of lateral ventricle. | |
Sensations which are appreciated in thalamus: (A) Propioception, (B) Pain and temperature, (C) Tactile sensations, (D) All | Answer is D. Thalamus acts as the sensory relay station for all sensors Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:691,692,693 | |
A 70-year-old man is evaluated in emergency department for symptoms of dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic kidney disease, and hypothyroidism. Medications are furosemide, enalapril, atorvastatin, metformin, and insulin.... | Answer is B. The cardiac rhythm is atrial flutter with 2:1 AV conduction. QRS complexes occur with perfect regularity at a rate of about 150/min. Their normal contour and duration indicate that ventricular activation occurs normally via the AV junction-His-Purkinje system. Flutter waves, regular ventricular rate at 150... | |
A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquid than solids. The first investigation you will do is:: (A) Barium Swallow, (B) Esophagoscopy, (C) Ultrasound of the chest, (D) C.T. Scan of the chest | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Barium swallow H/O of dysphagia with more to liquids than solids suggests achalasia cardia. In all other obstructive causes of esophagus, dysphagia for solids is seen firstDiagnosis of Esophageal diseaseAny esophageal disease is first diagnosed by radiographic evaluation.Schwartz says that... | |
A patient is suspected to have vestibular schwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is: (A) Gadolinum enhanced MRI, (B) Contrast enhanced CT, (C) SPECT, (D) PET scan | Answer is A. None | |
True about spinal cord:: (A) In adults spinal cord ends at lower border of L1 veebra, (B) In newborn may extend up to L3, (C) Cauda equine extends from lumbar veebra to coccyx, (D) All | Answer is D. A, B, C i.e. In adults spinal cord ends at lower border of Li veebra, In newborn may extend up to L3, Cauda equine extends from lumbar veebra to coccyx | |
Kerley B lines are seen in: (A) Pulmonary edema, (B) Congenital hea disease, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Kerley A lines are 1-2mm non- branching lines radiating from the hilum, 2-6 cm long. They represent thickened deep interlobular septa. Kerley B lines are transverse non- branching 1-2 mm lines at the lung bases perpendicular to the pleura 1-3cm long. They represent thickened interlobular septa. | |
All are causes of Antepartum hemorrhage (APH) except:: (A) Placenta previa, (B) Abruptio placenta, (C) Circumvallate placenta, (D) Battledore placenta | Answer is D. Causes of Antepartum Hemorrhage
Placenta previa
Abruptio placenta
Vasa previa
Circumvallate placenta
Local causes like:
Polyp
Carcinoma cervix
Varicose veins
Trauma
Unclassified or indeterminate
Circumvallate placenta
It is an uncommon cause of antepartum hemorrhage.
In this condition, the chorionic... | |
An 11-year-old boy presents with pain in his right leg. A radiograph shows a "sunburst" appearance with bone destruction, soft tissue mass, new bone formation, and sclerosis limited to the metaphysis of the lower femur. select the type of bone lesion with which it is most likely to be associated (SELECT 1 LESION): (A) ... | Answer is D. Osteosarcoma, or osteogenic sarcoma, usually is seen in patients between the ages of 10 and 25 years. The distal femur is the site most frequently involved. The radiograph has a blastic, or sunburst, appearance. The tumor is not sensitive to radiation but does respond well to combination chemotherapy follo... | |
The alveolar aerial gradient is highest in which of the following?: (A) ILD, (B) Pulmonary Embolism, (C) Acute severe asthma, (D) Foreign body leading to upper airway obstruction | Answer is B. The alveolar aerial PO2 difference is obtained by subtracting the aerial PO2 from the alveolar PO2. The normal alveolar-arial PO2 gradient is between 5-15 mm Hg.The alveolar aerial gradient is useful measure of ventilation perfusion mismatch. ILD- Due to pulmonary fibrosis, diffusion defect will lead to si... | |
Most common cause of Fulminant hepatic failure?: (A) HAV, (B) HBV, (C) HCV, (D) HDV | Answer is D. Hepatitis D virus Hepatitis D accounts for maximum number of fulminant cases of viral hepatitis, a sizable propoion of which are associated with HBV infection. Superinfection with HDV in patients of chronic hepatitis B infection leads to fulminant hepatic failure | |
White infracts are seen in which of the following: (A) Kidney, (B) Spleen, (C) Hea, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Ref Robbins 8/e p128; 7/e p138 see explanations of earlier question White infarcts occur with aerial occlusions in solid organs with end-aerial circulations (e.g., hea, spleen, and kidney), and where tissue density limits the seepage of blood from adjoining patent vascular beds (Fig. 3-17, B). Infarcts ten... | |
Which of the following is not a self-retaining urinary catheter: March 2011: (A) Foley, (B) Malecot, (C) Gibbon, (D) Red rubber | Answer is D. Ans. D: Red rubber | |
Complete unilateral congenital cataract should preferably be operated:: (A) Within a few weeks of bih, (B) At the age of 6 months, (C) At the age of 2 years, (D) At the age of 5 years | Answer is A. Ans. Within a few weeks of bih | |
all the following are non-competitive inhibitors except ?: (A) arsenate, (B) fluoroacetate, (C) arsenate, (D) disulfuram | Answer is A. Enzyme Inhibitors * Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of an enzyme, competing with the substrate ex: arsenate ,oxamate,malonate, sulfonamide,methotrexate,ethanol,dicumurol * Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to another pa of an enzyme, causing the enzyme to change shape and making the active site... | |
Which of the following is the LEAST common immunologic manifestation of HIV infection?: (A) Cutaneous reactions to drugs, (B) Anaphylactic reactions to drugs, (C) Anticardiolipin antibodies, (D) Oligoaicular ahritis | Answer is B. Anaphylactic reactions to drugs In contrast to the profound immunodeficiency that characterizes most manifestations of AIDS, a host of immunologic and rheumatologic disorders are common in patients with HIV infection. Ceainly the most common such reaction is cutaneous manifested sensitivity to the antibiot... | |
Efferent from cerebellum is through: (A) Granule cells, (B) Golgi cells, (C) Purkinje cells, (D) Basket cells | Answer is C. The outgoing Purkinje axons constitute the sole output from the cerebellar coex and exe an inhibitory influence on intracerebellar nuclei.granule cells are the only intrinsic neurons. of cerebellum which is excitatory.(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 116) | |
Which one given below is a DNA virus?: (A) Polio virus, (B) Adenovirus, (C) Parvovirus, (D) Hepatitis A virus | Answer is B. Adenovirus are grp of medium sized non envolped double stranded DNA REF:ANANTHA NARAYAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.480 | |
Inquest for custodial death is held by: September 2005: (A) Doctor, (B) Magistrate, (C) Sub-inspector, (D) District attorney | Answer is B. Ans. B: Magistrate Simply stated, the death if a person in custody whether of the police or judicial will amount to Custodial Death. The Magistrate inquest is mandatory for any death of a person in custody to ensure examination of the circumstances leading to death. | |
A 32 years old male has got clean wound without laceration. He had booster dose of TT 6 years back. What is next line of management?: (A) Wound care with single dose of tetanus toxoid, (B) Wound care with Human Tet Ig with tetanus toxoid single dose, (C) Wound care with complete course of tetanus toxoid, (D) Wound care... | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Wound care with single dose of tetanus toxoidThe given patients belongs to category B (Booster dose between 5-10 years back). Thus, the requires wound care and single dose of TT. | |
Most commonly abused opioid is: (A) Morphine, (B) Diacetyl morphine, (C) Codeine, (D) Fentanyl | Answer is B. Heroine-brown sugar /diacetylmorphine is the most commonly abused opioid opiods works on mu, kappa and delta receptor. there is a new recpetor that is introduced that is called as orphanin receptor opiod withdrawl is a distressing experience for the patient that makes the patient to take the sunstance agai... | |
Which stage of LGV infection is associated with bubos?: (A) First stage, (B) Second stage, (C) Third stage, (D) Throughout all stages | Answer is B. LGV infection:Primary stage:Small, painless, papulovesicular (Ext.genitalia)Usually unnoticedI/P: 3 days to 5 weeksSecondary stage:About 2 weeks later- lymphatic spread to draining lymph nodesMen -Inguinal L.N women -Intrapelvic & Para rectal nodesBubo(enlarge, suppurate, adherent to the skin)- break down-... | |
The true statement about the epidemiology of H.pylori is :: (A) In developed world 80 % of population is affected before the age of 20, (B) The prevalence is increasing in developed world, (C) Most of the infected are children in developed countries, (D) Poor socioeconomic status and less education predisposes to highe... | Answer is D. PREVALENCE OF H.PYLORI: The prevalence of H. pylori varies throughout the world In developing world, 80% of the population are infected by the age of 20. In the United States this organism is rare in childhood. The overall prevalence of H. pylori in the United States is 30% The rate of infection with H. py... | |
Aspergilloma has -: (A) Septate hyphae, (B) Pseudohyphae, (C) Metachromatic hyphae, (D) No hyphae | Answer is A. None | |
Air embolism is best diagnosed by?: (A) | End tidal CO2, (B) | End tidal N2, (C) Doppler study, (D) Ultrasound | Answer is C. Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE):- has the highest sensitivity for detecting the presence of air in the right ventricular outflow tract or major pulmonary veins. - It can detect as little as 0.02 mL/kg of air administered by bolus injection. It also has the added advantage of identifying Paradoxical ... | |
All of the following nutritional assessment methods indicate inadequate nutrition, except:: (A) Hb < 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy, (B) Increased 1-4 year moality rate, (C) Bih weight < 2500 gm, (D) Decreased weight for height | Answer is A. Hemoglobin Ref: CURRENT Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2008, Page 677; Essential Pediatrics By O P Ghai, 6th Edition, Page 101; Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, 18th Edition, Page 228; Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th Edition, Pages 515-518 | |
Most common type of vaginal carcinoma is :: (A) Squamous cell carcinoma, (B) Adenocarcinoma, (C) Transitional cell carcinoma, (D) Columnar cell Ca | Answer is A. Squamous cell carcinoma | |
PSA > 2Ong/mL is seen in:: (A) Prostate cancer, (B) BPH, (C) Prostatitis, (D) Meatastatic carcinoma | Answer is A. Ans is a (Prostate cancer) Though increased levels of PSA is seen in Prostate cancer, BPH and Prostatitis; levels above 20 ng/mL would be seen almost only in Prostate cancer. BPH and prostatitis would not cause such a rise in PSA. | |
First external sign of decomposition in a dead body: NEET 13: (A) Decomposition of liver and intestine, (B) Greenish discoloration over right iliac fossa, (C) Greenish discoloration over dependent pas, (D) Bloodstained froth from mouth | Answer is B. Ans. Greenish discoloration over right iliac fossa | |
A 60-year-old man is in a car crash in which he is the driver. He did not have a seat belt or an airbag. He is found to have multiple rib fractures over his right chest. His pulse is weaker during inspiration. What are the most likely diagnoses?: (A) Flail chest, (B) Empyema, (C) Diaphragm rupture, (D) Cervical rib | Answer is A. Flail chest should be suspected in multiple rib fractures where the individual rib is divided in two places. Paradoxical movement results in lung compression as the flail segment moves inward during inspiration. | |
Which of the following structure is not supplied by uterine aeries ?: (A) vagina, (B) ovary, (C) urater, (D) lateral one third of uterine tube | Answer is D. The uterus is supplied : (1) Chiefly by the two uterine aeries which are markedly enlarged during pregnancy; and (2) paly by the ovarian aeries. The uterine aery is a branch of the anterior division of the internal iliac aery. Apa from the uterus, the uterine also gives branches to: (1) The vagina; (2) the... |
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