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Which of the following type of malignancy is associated with Marjolin's ulcer?: (A) Basal cell carcinoma, (B) Squamous cell carcinoma, (C) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma, (D) Neurotrophic malignant melanoma | Answer is B. Marjolin's ulcer is an aggressive transformation of a chronic wound in to a malignant lesion. They are usually present in chronic wounds resulting from burns, chronic inflammation or trauma. The most common malignancy found in Marjolin's ulcer is squamous cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinomas can occur occ... | |
Clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin in order to: (A) Reduce the risk of allergic reactions, (B) Prolong amoxicillin's half-life, (C) Reduce the severity of diarrhea, (D) Extend amoxicillin's antibacterial spectrum | Answer is D. None | |
A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperprigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed uicarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is: (A) Fixed drug eruption, (B) Lichen planes, (C) Uicaria pigmentosa, (D) Uicarial vasculitis | Answer is C. Darriers sign : uicarial wheal produced in a lesion after it is firmly rubbed with a finger or rounded end of a pen, the wheal is strictly confined to the borders of the lesion. Seen in uicarial pigmentosa, and rarely with cutaneous lymphoma or histiocytosiS FITZPATRICK TEXTBOOK OF DERMATOLOGY , PAGE 12. | |
Proteins whose levels are decreased during inflammation are all except:: (A) Albumin, (B) Transferrin, (C) Antithrombin, (D) Mannose binding protein | Answer is D. Negative Acute phase reactants - Albumin, transferrin, antithrombin. | |
Stretch laceration is seen in: (A) Blunt tangential impact, (B) Blunt perpendicular impact, (C) Horizontal crushing, (D) Impact by sharp objects with heavy base | Answer is A. Stretch laceration These lacerations occur from over stretching of the skin and soft tissues due to heavy forceful impact exercising a localised pressure. Stretching of tissues can occur in run over by a motor vehicle. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 121 | |
A 45-year-old woman with Crohn disease and a small intestinal fistula develops tetany during the second week of parenteral nutrition. The laboratory findings include Na: 135 mEq/L K: 3.2 mEq/L Cl: 103 mEq/L HCO3 : 25 mEq/L Ca: 8.2 mEq/L Mg: 1.2 mEq/L PO4 : 2.4 mEq/L Albumin: 2.4 An aerial blood gas sample reveals a pH ... | Answer is C. Magnesium deficiency is common in malnourished patients and patients with large gastrointestinal fluid losses. The neuromuscular effects resemble those of calcium deficiency--namely, paresthesia, hyperreflexia, muscle spasm, and, ultimately, tetany. The cardiac effects are more like those of hypercalcemia.... | |
All are indicators for air pollution, except -: (A) CO, (B) SO2, (C) Soiling Index, (D) Smoke index | Answer is A. Indicators of air pollution: Smoke (soiling) index Sulphur dioxide Grit and dust measurement Coefficient of Haze Air pollution index CO is not an index! Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No.796 | |
Social Deviance among the following is: (A) Suicide, (B) Illiteracy, (C) Migration, (D) Child abandoning | Answer is A. None | |
Fructose 2-6 bisphosphate (F26BP) regulates glycolysis at the level of ?: (A) Glucose -6- phosphate, (B) Fructose -6- phosphate, (C) Glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate, (D) Phosphoenol pyruvate | Answer is B. Regulation of glycolysis Glycolysis is regulated at 3 steps which are irreversible. These reactions are catalyzed by following key enzymes : (1) Hexokinase and glucokinase, (2) Phosphofructokinase I, and (3) Pyruvate kinase.Hexokinase and glucokinaseThese enzymes catalyze the first step of glycolysis, i.e.... | |
All of the following structures are removed in right hemicolectomy except: (A) Caecum, (B) Ascending Colon, (C) Transverse colon, (D) Hepatic Flexure | Answer is C. Answer- C. Transverse colonStructures removed in right hemicolectomy:Caecum with appendixAscending colonHepatic flexureProximal transverse colonPa of terminal ileumFat and lymphnodes | |
Causative factor for acne are all except.: (A) Androgen, (B) Only food, (C) Bacterial contamination, (D) Hypercornification of duct | Answer is B. B i.e. Only food | |
In which case homologus artificial insemination is used in females:: (A) Hormonal disturbance, (B) Tubal block, (C) Cervical factor, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. None | |
A patient on Phenytoin therapy develops depression, for which he was prescribed tricyclic anti-Depressants. He now complains of lassitude and his Hb reading is 8gm/dl, the next step in the management of this patient is:: (A) Chest X ray, (B) MCV should be estimated, (C) GGT should be estimated, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. phenytoin can induce folate deficient megaloblastic anemia that can be diagnozed by measuring MCV. REF: KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED. | |
Nodules seen near the collarette are called -: (A) Busacca nodules, (B) Koeppe's nodules, (C) Lisch nodules, (D) Dalen Fuch's nodules | Answer is A. The pathological reaction in granulomatous uveitis is characterised by infiltration with lymphocytes, plasma cells, with mobilization and proliferation of large mononuclear cells which eventually become epithelioid and giant cells and aggregate into nodules. Iris nodules are usually formed near pupillary b... | |
Among patients who require nutritional resuscitation in an intensive care unit, the best evidence that nutritional suppo is adequate is: (A) Urinary nitrogen excretion levels, (B) Total serum protein level, (C) Serum albumin level, (D) Serum transferrin levels | Answer is C. .Because of its relationship to inflammation, serum albumin is no longer considered a good indicator of malnutrition or protein repletion. .However, a decreased serum albumin is considered an indicator of morbidity and moality and persons with low albumin levels are sometimes at nutritional risk for other ... | |
Antidepressant causing Tardive dyskinesia is ?: (A) MAO inhibitors, (B) Mianserin, (C) Imipramine, (D) Amoxapine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Amoxapine Amoxapine is the only antidepressant which blocks D2 receptors along with inhibition of NA reuptake - has mixed antidepressant + neurolepic propey. Due to blockade of D, receptors it causes extrapyramidal side effects -4 Parkinsonism, Tardive dyskinesia, Akathesia, neuropeptic m... | |
All are true about glomus jugulare tumors except:: (A) Common in female, (B) Causes sensory neural deafness, (C) It is a disease of infancy, (D) It invades labyrinth, petrous pyramid and mastoid | Answer is C. Ans. C It is a disease of infancyLet us see each option separatelyOption a - Common in femalesIt is correct as females are affected five times more than males.Option b - Causes sensorineural deafnessThis is paially correct as glomus tumor leads to mainly conductive type hearing loss. Sensorineural hearing ... | |
Which of the following anaesthetic agent lacks analgesic effect – a) N2Ob) Thiopentonec) Methohexitoned) Ketaminee) Fentanyl: (A) a, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) bc | Answer is D. Barbiturates (methexitone, thiopentone) do not have analgesic action. Rather they can cause hyperalgesia. | |
To increase awareness of rural population towards small family norm, the best method is –: (A) Film show, (B) Charts Exhibitions etc, (C) Role playing, (D) Setting on example | Answer is D. The health educator should set a good example in the things he is teaching.
If he is explaining the hazards of smoking, he will not be very successful if he himself smokes.
If he is talking about the "small family norm" he will not get very far if his own family size is big. | |
Bronchial artery supplies all except:: (A) Bronchus, (B) Bronchioles, (C) Alveolar duct, (D) Alveolar sac | Answer is D. Ans: d (Alveolar sac)Ref: Essentials of Human Anatomy By AK Dutta-Thorax & Abdomen, 3rd edi., Observations on the normal anatomy of the bronchial arteries by L. Cudkowicz* And J. B. Armstrong, Chaurasia, 4th edi., Pg. 227.Arterial supply of the lungs: The bronchial arteries supply nutrition to the bronchia... | |
In splenic injury conservative management is done in: (A) Hemodynamically unstable, (B) Young patients, (C) Shattered spleen, (D) Extreme pallor and hypotension b | Answer is B. Most serious complications after splenectomy are OPSI (Oppounistic Post Splenectomy Infections) it is most common in young children and immunocompromised adults. "Therefore it is essential to save the spleen in children." Now spleen salvage methods are the management of choice even in adults. Splenectomy i... | |
True about mycetoma -: (A) Commonly occurs in hands, (B) Commonly erodes bone, (C) Drains through lymphatics, (D) Antibiotics has no role | Answer is B. Mycetoma
Commonly occurs in the foot.
The infection runs as a relentless course over many years, with the destruction of contiguous bone and fascia.
Spread to distant sites does not take place (does not drain through lymphatics).
Actinomycetoma may respond to prolonged combination chemotherapy eg. stre... | |
In all of the following conditions, prostanoid may be used, except: (A) Glaucoma, (B) Platelet coagulation disorders, (C) Gastric ulcer, (D) Closure of PDA | Answer is D. (Refer: Rang and Dale's Clinical Pharmacology, 7th edition, pg no: 214-215) | |
Scorpion venom resembles venom of -: (A) Cobra, (B) Viper, (C) Krait, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. scorpion venom is clear toxalbumin and can be classified as hemlolytic or neurotoxic small quantity is injected REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 324 | |
Dialysis can not be done for: (A) Amphetamine, (B) Digoxin, (C) Propanalol, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Dialysis can not be done for these drugs because of large volume of distribution (Vd). | |
Highest chance of success in renal transplant is seen when the donor is the -: (A) Identical twin, (B) Father, (C) Mother, (D) Sister | Answer is A. None | |
Use of Thiopentone: (A) Seizure, (B) Truth spell, (C) Reduction of ICP, (D) All | Answer is D. D i.e. All | |
True about legionella-: (A) Most common mode of transmission is aerosal inhalation, (B) There is no man to man transmission, (C) Prolonged carrier are common, (D) All are true | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., There is no man to man transmission o The nature habitats for L. pneumophila are aquatic bodies, including lakes and streamso The legionellae survive and multiply inside freeliving amebae and other protozoao Mode of transmissions :1) Aerosolization : Inhalation of aerosols produced by coo... | |
Marquis test is done for: BHU 08: (A) Mercury poisoning, (B) Arsenic poisoning, (C) Morphine poisoning, (D) Cyanide poisoning | Answer is C. Ans. Morphine poisoning | |
What is the MOST common radiographic manifestation of acute papillary muscle rupture?: (A) Pulmonary edema, (B) Left atrial enlargement, (C) Left ventricular enlargement, (D) Pericardial effusion | Answer is A. The papillary muscles are connected to the mitral valve leaflets by the chordae tendinae. When there is rupture of the chordae tendinae or the papillary muscle itself, the mitral valve is unable to function properly, resulting in mitral regurgitation. Because this is an acute process, accommodation does no... | |
Full-term, Small for Date babies are at high risk of –: (A) Hypoglycemia, (B) Intraventricular haemorrhage, (C) Bronchopulomonary dysplasia, (D) Hyperthermia | Answer is A. Small for date babies are prone to hypoglycemia.
Intraventricular hemorrhage occurs in preterm infants (not in full term, small for date babies). | |
In Glycinuria, glycine is excreted as: (A) Urea, (B) Glutathione, (C) Formate, (D) Oxalate | Answer is D. (D) Oxalate # Diseases associated with glycine metabolism: are 1. Glycinuria and 2. Primary hyperoxaluria> In Glycinuria there is excessive urinary excretion of glycine with a tendency to form oxalate renal stones. This disease is inborn and very rare.> Primary hyperoxaluria is a metabolic disease characte... | |
Virchow method of organ removal is: (A) Organs removed en masse, (B) Organs removed one by one, (C) In-situ dissection, (D) En-block removal of viscera | Answer is B. In Virchows method organs are removed one by one. Cranial cavity is exposed first then thoraxic, cervical and abdominal organs. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 57. | |
Vaginal wall is derived from ?: (A) Endoderm, (B) Mesoderm, (C) Endoderm and mesoderm, (D) Ectoderm and mesoderm | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Endoderm and mesoderm Vagina is derived from two sources :? Upper 2/3" : It is derived from Utero-Vaginal Canal, i.e. the fused pa of paramesonephric duct. Therefore, this pa is mesodermal in origin. Lower 1/3" : It is derived from sinovaginal bulb which inturn is derived from urogenital ... | |
Blood is stored at what temperature in blood bank?: (A) -2 to -4 degrees Celsius, (B) -2 to 0 degrees Celsius, (C) 1 to 6 degrees Celsius, (D) 6 to 12 degrees Celsius | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1 to 6 degrees Celsius | |
Multiple Hypoaestetic, hypopigmented macules on right lateral forearm without acid fast bacilli is indicative of -: (A) Tuberculoid leprosy, (B) Lepromatous leprosy, (C) Indeterminate leprosy, (D) Borderline leprosy | Answer is C. indeterminate leprosy seen in children with immature immunological response. Common in 1-5 years of age 1-3 ill defined hypopigmented macules ranging in size from 1-5cm most common sites: outer side of extremities, buttocks,face and trunk sensations may be impaired. Nerve thickening may be present skin sme... | |
Burking includes: (A) Choking, (B) Ligature, (C) Overlaying, (D) Traumatic asphysia | Answer is D. Burking is a method of homicidal smothering & traumatic asphyxia. Named after Burke & Hare who killed 16 persons. They give the victim alcohol. Then Burke used to kneel or sit on the chest and close the nose & mouth with his hands then Hare used to pull him around the room by the feet. Ref: The synopsis of... | |
Most common site of gall stone impactation is -: (A) Duedenojejunal junction, (B) Proximal to iliocaecal junction, (C) Distal to iliocaecal junction, (D) Colon | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' i.e., Proximal to Ileocaecal junction | |
Muscle of expiration is/are -a) Diaphragmb) Internal intercostalc) External intercostald) Rectus Abdominis: (A) ac, (B) bd, (C) cd, (D) ab | Answer is B. Muscles of expiration
- Quite breathing- Elastic recoil of lung and chest wall.
- Forced expiration-
o Internal intercostal
o Intercostalis intimi
o Transversus thoracis
o Serratus posterior inferior
o Subcostalis
o Latissimus dorsi
o Abdominal muscles
§ Rectus abdominis
§ Tr... | |
Recommended interventions to reduce the incidence of Coronary aery disease include the following except-: (A) Dietary cholesterol < 100/mg/1000kcal/day, (B) Salt intake <5gm, (C) No alcohol, (D) Fat intake<10% of total energy | Answer is D. The reduction of fat intake to 20 to 30 % of total energy intake. Ref- Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 24th edition. | |
Treatment of choice in 11 years old children with hepatitis C infections ?: (A) Vaccine, (B) Interferon, (C) Gamma-globulin, (D) Coicosteroids | Answer is B. Treatment of Hepatitis C : Sustained virologic response are achieved in only 8-35%of patients given recombinant interferon monotherapy. However significantly higher sustained virologic responses are attained(30-40%)by combining interferon with Ribavarin at 15mg/kg/day Long acting pegylated interferons have... | |
Aerial supply to epistaxis area are all except: (A) Greater palatine, (B) Anterior ethmoidal, (C) Posterior ethmoidal, (D) Sphenopalatine | Answer is C. Epistaxis area is Little's areaFour aeries contribute to little's area:Anterior ethmoidal aerySeptal branch of the superior labial aery (Branch of facial Aery)Septal branch of sphenopalatine aery (Branch of maxillary Aery)Greater palatine aery (Branch of maxillary Aery)Ref: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nos... | |
Natural method of contraception is: September 2005: (A) Rhythm method, (B) Coitus interruptus, (C) Breast feeding, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D: All of the above Natural methods of contraception are: Abstinence Refraining from penetrative sex provides 100% protection from pregnancy, and offers effective prevention of transmission of sexually transmitted infections as well. Withdrawal or Coitus interruptus The withdrawal method of family pla... | |
When do you operate for prolapsed disc -: (A) Busy executive needs quick surgery, (B) Only with weakness no pain, (C) Severe pain interfering with activity and not relieved by rest and treatment of 8 weeks, (D) Patient of P1D with difficulty in ambulation | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Severe pain interfering with activity and not relieved by rest and treatment of 8 weekso Indications for surgery in cases of Prolapsed intervertebral disc areFailure of conservative treatment (even after 8 weeks of treatment).Progressive neurological deficit.Cauda - equina syndrome.Severe... | |
"a" wave in JVP indicates:: (A) Atrial systole, (B) Ventricular systole, (C) Atrial relaxation, (D) Tricuspid regurgitation | Answer is A. A wave: Arc positive waves due to distention producedby right atrial contraction Large a waves: Indicate atrium is contracting against increased resistance tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, pulmonary hypertension.
Cannon S waves
Regularly: During junctional rhythm. Irregularly: complete Heart Block. ... | |
Isthmus of thyroid gland corresponds to which of the following tracheal rings?: (A) 3-Jan, (B) 4-Feb, (C) 6-Apr, (D) 8-Jun | Answer is B. Isthmus of the thyroid gland lies in front of the second, third and fouh tracheal rings. It is covered in front by skin and fascia, and by sternothyroid and sternohyoid muscles and by the anterior juglar veins. Upper end of each lobe of thyroid lies opposite C5 veebrae. The lower end of the lobe lies at th... | |
Which of the following is used in management of diabetes?: (A) Bromocriptine, (B) Octreotide, (C) Prednisolone, (D) Pegvisomant | Answer is A. Answer- A. BromocriptineBromocriptine is recently included as antidiabetic. | |
Rice watery stool is indicative of which organism-: (A) Vibrio cholerae Ol, (B) Vibrio cholerae 0139, (C) Vibrio vulnificus, (D) Shigella | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Vibrio cholerae OlRef: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. /302-305* Though the various strains of cholera may present with rice watery diarrhea, the classic rice watery diarrhea is usually associated with strains Ol and strain 0139.* In these strains the more common strain to find ... | |
Octreotide is, except -: (A) Somatostatin analogue, (B) Used in refractory diarrhoea in AIDS, (C) Used in carcinoid, (D) An absorbent | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., An absorbent | |
Anterior choroidal aery is a branch of: (A) Anterior cerebral aery, (B) Middle cerebral aery, (C) Posterior cerebral aery, (D) Internal carotid aery | Answer is D. After piercing the dura mater forming the roof of the cavernous sinus, the internal carotid aery gives off three large branches. These are the following. (i) Ophthalmic aery (which supplies the orbit), and the (ii) Anterior and Middle cerebral aeries to the brain.It also gives off two smaller branches that... | |
The most common oppounistic infection observed in patients with AIDS is -: (A) Atypical mycobacteria, (B) Haemophilus influenzae, (C) Pseudomonas aerugiosa, (D) Pneumocystis carinii | Answer is D. The symptoms of PCP include Fever Cough Difficulty breathing Chest pain Chills Fatigue (tiredness) In people with HIV/AIDS, PCP symptoms usually develop over several weeks and include a mild fever. In people who have weakened immune systems for reasons other than HIV/AIDS, PCP symptoms usually develop over... | |
A 28-year-old taxi driver is chronically consumed by fears of having accidentally run over a pedestrian. Although he tries to convince himself that his worries are silly, his anxiety continues to mount until he drives back to the scene of the "accident" and proves to himself that nobody lies hu in the street. This beha... | Answer is A. . | |
All the following are characteristic of classic tetrad of TOF except: (A) Large VSD, (B) Aoa that overrides the VSD, (C) Severe right ventricle outflow obstruction, (D) Left ventricular hyperophy | Answer is D. Anatomically TOF is characterized by the classic tetrad: Severe right ventricle outflow obstruction, Large VSD, Aoa that overrides the VSD and Right ventricular hyperophy Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 420 | |
The maxillary nerve arises from the trigeminal ganglion in the middle cranial fossa. It passes forward in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus and leaves the skull through which of the following foramen to enter the pterygopalatine fossa: (A) Foramen ovale, (B) Foramen spinosum, (C) Foramen rotundum, (D) Formen lace... | Answer is C. (Foramen rotundum) (236 - BDC - 3)STRUCTURE PASSING THROUGH.Foramen spinosumForamen ovaleForamen lacerum1. Middle meningeal artery2. Meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve or nervus spinosus3. Posterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein1. Mandibular nerve 2. Acessory meningeal artery 3. Lesser petrosal ... | |
Which of the following are NOT associated with complex tongue thrusting activity?: (A) Naso-respiratory distress, (B) Contraction of the teniporalis muscle, (C) Contraction of the mentalis and lower lip during swallow, (D) Absence of contact of teeth during swallow | Answer is B. None | |
The sputum examination under TP is done when the patient present with -a) Cough of 1-2 weeks durationb) Persistent cough of 1-2 weeks durationc) Hemoptysisd) Chest paine) Intermittent fever: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) bd, (D) cd | Answer is D. None | |
Drug which is used to control status epilepticus is: (A) Diazepam, (B) Sodium nitroprusside, (C) Glyceryl trinitrite, (D) Pheno barbital | Answer is A. None | |
Multifactorial inheritance is most likely to play a role in?: (A) Cleft lip, (B) Marfan's syndrom, (C) Erythroblastis fetalis, (D) Down's syndrome | Answer is A. A quantitative trait locus (QTL) is a section of DNA (the locus) that correlates with variation in a phenotype (the quantitative trait). Usually the QTL is linked to, or contains, the genes that control that phenotype. QTLs are mapped by identifying which molecular markers (such as SNPs or AFLPs) correlate... | |
Intestional absorption of Calcium is decreased by: (A) Proteins, (B) Lactose, (C) Phytic Acid, (D) Acidity | Answer is C. None | |
Drugs commonly used in Non-Hodgkin lymphoma except: (A) Doxorubicin, (B) Cyclophosphamide, (C) Vincristine, (D) Cisplatin | Answer is D. Combination chemotherapy is the treatment standard for patients with diffuse non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. The anthracycline-containing regimen CHOP (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone) has been considered the best treatment in terms of initial therapyHodgkin's lymphoma - MOPP (mechloreth... | |
A person with 'Inappropriate speech' evaluated by the 'Glasgow Coma Scale' will have a verbal score of:: (A) 4, (B) 3, (C) 2, (D) 1 | Answer is B. Answer is B (3): Use of Inappropriate words (Inappropriate speech) carries a score of '3' under the 'Verbal Response' according to the Glasgow Coma scale. | |
True about wound healing: (A) Infected wound heal by primary intention, (B) Deep dermal wound heal by scar formation, (C) Wound contraction is found in healing by secondary intention, (D) More intense inflammatory response in primary intention | Answer is B. • Epidermal appendages do not regenerate
• There remains a connective tissue scar in place of the mechanically efficient meshwork of collagen in the unwounded dermis.
• Very superficial wounds: Little scar formation.
• In marked contrast with wound healing in adults, fetal cutaneous wounds heal without sca... | |
Gastrectomy produces deficiency of which vitamin -: (A) VitaminB6, (B) Vitamin B12, (C) Vitamin B2, (D) Vitamin B1 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Vitamin B12 o The intestinal absorption of vitamin Bu requires intrinsic factor (IF), secreted by parietal cells of the stomach.o In stomach vitamin Bt2 binds to IF to form vitamin Bn-IF complex which intum is absorbed by sepecific receptors on mucosal cells of the ileum.o Vitamin Buis al... | |
Which of the following is true about diazoxide except: (A) K+ channel opener, (B) >Can be used as antihypeensive agent, (C) >Causes severe hypoglycemia, (D) >Used in insulinoma | Answer is C. Causes severe hypoglycemia Diazoxide Diazoxide is a direct acting aeriolar dilator. Diazoxide causes aeriolar dilatation with little effect on veins. Diazoxide prevents smooth muscle contraction and relaxes the aerioles Diazoxide is a potassium channel activator which causes local relaxation in smooth musc... | |
Duration of treatment is multibacillary leprosy according to WHO is -: (A) 6 months, (B) 1 year, (C) 2 years, (D) 5 years | Answer is B. For multibacillary cases, adequate treatment implies that the patient has recieved 12 monthly doses of combined therapy within 18 months. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 340 | |
Megaloblasticanemia occur due to deficiency of: (A) Iron deficiency, (B) Folate deficiency, (C) Protein deficiency, (D) Vitamin C deficiency | Answer is B. None | |
Triple helix is found in ?: (A) Cystine, (B) Collagen, (C) Pectin, (D) DNA | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' i.e., Collagen Collagen Collegen is the most common protein in the animal world. It is a component of ECM. The collegens are composed of a triple helix of three polypeptide a-chains. It provides tensile strength to tissues. Collegen type IV with laminin is the main component of basement membrane... | |
Hypoxia due to slowing of circulation is seen in which type of hypoxia?: (A) Anemic hypoxia, (B) Histotoxic, (C) Hea disease, (D) Stagnant | Answer is D. Ischemic hypoxia or stagnant hypoxia is due to slow circulation and is a problem in organs such as kidneys and hea during shock.Hypoxia due to anemia is not severe at rest unless Hb deficiency is marked. Anemic patients may have considerable difficulty during exercise because of limited ability to increase... | |
Which process establishes the three definitive germ layers?: (A) Neurulation, (B) Gastrulation, (C) Craniocaudal folding, (D) Lateral folding | Answer is B. Gastrulation - three primary germ layers from epiblast during week 3 of development i.e dorsal ectoderm, middle mesoderm, ventral endoderm. Neurulation is the process by which neuroectoderm forms the neural plate, which eventually folds to form the neural tube. | |
What is the mode of action of local anesthetics?: (A) Prevents Na+ channel activation and the Na+ influx associated with membrane depolarization., (B) Change the voltage gated Na+ channel from conducting to non conducting, (C) Destroys the Na+ channel, (D) Close the Na+ channel | Answer is A. Sodium channels are membrane bound proteins that are composed of one large and subunit through which Na ions pass, and one or two smaller b subunits. Voltage - gated Na channels exist in three stages - resting, open and inactivated local anesthetics bind a specific region of the & subunit and inhibit volta... | |
Which of the following is most acceptable theory explaining development of endometriosis: (A) Coelomic metaplasia, (B) Retrograde menstruation, (C) Lymphatic spread, (D) Mullerian remnants outside uterus | Answer is B. Sampson's Theory of Retrograde menstruation is the most favoured theory explaining endometriosis. | |
Laproscopic cholecystectomy is largely preferred for all of the following reasons to conventional laparotmy EXCEPT -: (A) Decrease pain, (B) Decresed incidence of bile duct injuries, (C) Smaller scar, (D) Decreased stay in hospital | Answer is B. None | |
60 yrs old male with poor stream of urine, post void residual urine is 400m1, bA hydronephrosis and prostate weighing 70 g. His urea is 120 and creat 3.5. Ideal "next immediate" step :: (A) Catheterize with Foley catheter, (B) bA PC Nephrostomies, (C) CT to rule out ca, (D) MRI pelvis | Answer is A. Catheterize with Foley catheter [Ref: Bailey and Love 25/e p1316, 1349; CSDT I 3/e p922/ "Catheterization is mandatory for acute urinary retention. Spontaneous voiding may return, but a catheter should be left indwelling.for 3 days while detruson tone returns."- CSDT I 3/e This is a case of bladder outlet ... | |
Optimal timing of administration of prophylactic antibiotic for surgical patients is:: (A) At the induction of anesthesia, (B) Any time during the surgical procedure, (C) One hour after induction, (D) One hour prior to induction of anesthesia | Answer is A. IV administration at induction of anesthesia is optimal. If induction is not mentioned in the option go for 30 minutes to 1 hours before surgery. | |
An infant should be exclusively breastfed till: (A) 4 months, (B) 6 months, (C) 12 months, (D) 24 months | Answer is B. An infant should be exclusively breastfed till six months of age Cardinal principles of breastfeeding practice Initiation of breastfeeding within an hour after bih Exclusive breastfeeding up to 6 months of age Continuation of breastfeeding along with complementary feeding for up to 2 yr of age Reference: P... | |
Trauma and Injury Severity Score (TRISS) includes:: (A) GCS + BP + RR, (B) S + ISS + Age, (C) S + ISS + GCS, (D) S + GCS + Age | Answer is B. TRISS (Trauma and Injury Severity Score) : Injury Severity Score Revised Trauma Score Age Mechanism of Injury (blunt/penetrating) Ref : Bailey and love surgery text book 27th Ed. | |
All the following are feature of polycystic disease of kidneys except:-: (A) Hematuria, (B) Hypeension, (C) Renal failure, (D) Erythrocytosis | Answer is D. PKD is autosomal dominant; 2 chromosomes involved - 16 & 4; abnormal protein involved is Polycystin. Bilateral kidneys are replaced with multiple cyst. | |
Syndrome characterized by proteinuria, hematuria and hypeension: March 2007: (A) Nephrotic syndrome, (B) Acute nephritis, (C) Renal cell carcinoma, (D) Nephroclacinosis | Answer is B. Ans. B: Acute nephritis Nephritic syndrome is characterized by; Proteinuria Hematuria Hypeension Variable renal insufficiency, with; -- Azotemia (elevated blood nitrogen) Oliguria (low urine output The main features are hypeension and RBC casts. Nephritic syndrome causes are usually grouped into 'focal pro... | |
A latent, measles-like viral infection and, presumably, a defect in cellular immunity is associated with which of the following diseases?: (A) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), (B) Multiple sclerosis (MS), (C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, (D) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) | Answer is D. Measles-like virus has been isolated from the brain cells of patients with subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). The role of the host immune response in the causation of SSPE has been supported by several findings including the following: (1) progression of disease despite high levels of humoral anti... | |
The main goal of treating septic shock is: (A) Preserving the myocardium, (B) Restoring adequate fluid status, (C) Identification and elimination of the cause of infection, (D) Identification and elimination of the cause of allergy | Answer is C. Prevention through identifying and eliminating the cause of infection could prevent the development of sepsis that could fall into septic shock.
Option A: Preservation of the myocardium is the main goal of cardiogenic shock management.
Option B: Restoration of fluid status is the goal in the treatment of ... | |
The first step in the management of hirsutism due to stein leventhal syndrome is :: (A) OCP, (B) HMG, (C) Spironolactone, (D) Bromocriptine | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. OCP Friends, all the options given in the question are used for treatment of PCOS but only OCP and spironolactone are used for managing hirsutism. The first step done in general practise in OPD's when a patient of PCOS comes is : Advise : Weight reduction. 'Weight reduction in obese patients... | |
The stapes is embryologically derived from the following pharyngeal arch?: (A) 1st arch, (B) 2nd arch, (C) 3rd arch, (D) 4th arch | Answer is B. The second pharyngeal arch gives rise to,Reiche cailage, which eventually forms the manubrium of the malleusLong process of the incusStapes suprastructureTympanic poion of the stapes footplate (ossicle poions below upper limit tympanic membrane)The stapes requires the longest period of development and is t... | |
When a patient is admitted with severe upper abdominal pain, the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis should not be accepted until each of the following conditions has been ruled out except:: (A) Acute cholecystitis, (B) Acute renal colic, (C) Adhesive small bowel obstruction, (D) Mesenteric embolization | Answer is C. Acute pancreatitis is a diagnosis of exclusion. Its symptoms and signs are not readily distinguishable from other severe upper abdominal problems. Adhesive small bowel obstruction does not present marked peritoneal signs unless bowel gangrene is also present. | |
Duodenal blow out following Billroth gastrectomy most commonly occurs on which day -: (A) 2nd day, (B) 4th day, (C) 6thday, (D) 12th day | Answer is B. Duodenal blow out is massive leakage from duodenal stump following Bilroth II gastrectomy. Clinical features: - It usually occurs on 2nd to 7th postoperative days. (In Bailey 22nd/e on page 689. it is specifically written that it occurs on 4th day). It usually presents as: - Sudden intense thoracoabdominal... | |
What happens in hyperophy ?: (A) Increase no. of cells, (B) Increase size of cells, (C) Increase protein in cells, (D) Decrease in cell number | Answer is B. Ans. is `b' i.e., Increase in size of cells | |
Frequency of renal involvement in HSP?: (A) <10%, (B) >80%, (C) >6O%, (D) 1O% - 50% | Answer is D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura, also referred to as anaphylactoid purpura, is a small-vessel vasculitis characterized by palpable purpura (most commonly distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities), ahralgias, gastrointestinal signs and symptoms, and glo merulonephritis. Gastrointestinal involvement, whi... | |
Anti-depressant drug which is used for smoking cessation is?: (A) Venlafaxine, (B) Topiramate, (C) Bupropion, (D) Amitriptyline | Answer is C. Bupropion is antismoking drug Buspirone is a drug which is used for anxiety | |
A 3 month old child has moderate fever and non productive cough and mild dyspnea. After course of mild antibiotic the condition of the child improved transiently but he again develops high fever, productive cough and increased respiratory distress. Chest X ray shows hyperluscency and PFT shows obstructive pattern. Most... | Answer is D. Bronchiolitis obliterans Repeat from Nov 08 Q no.130 | |
Patients suffering from which of the following disease as per ICD/DSM criteria are eligible for disability benefit as per the National Trust Act?: (A) Schizophrenia, (B) Bipolar disorder, (C) Dementia, (D) Mental retardation | Answer is D. National Trust Act (1999) is an act to provide for the constitution of a body at the national level for the welfare of persons with Autism, Cerebral palsy, Mental retardation, and Multiple disabilities and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. | |
A 50 year old diabetic patient with asymptomatic gallstone (>3 cm) will be best treated by: (A) Early surgery, (B) Bile salt treatment, (C) ESWL, (D) Waiting till it becomes symptomatic | Answer is A. Prophylactic cholecystectomy should be conducted in this patient even though it is a silent gallstone with no symptoms as he is a diabetic & stone size is more than 3 cm.Such patients are at increased risk of complications from gallstones. Reference:Bailey & Love's sho practise of surgery,25 th edition,pag... | |
Following are features of ischemia in Anterior choroidal artery territory except -: (A) Hemiparesis, (B) Hemisensory loss, (C) Homonymous hemianopia, (D) Predominant involvement of the anterior limb of internal capsule | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following is not a framingham major criteria for the diagnosis of hea failure ?: (A) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, (B) Cardiomegaly, (C) S3 gallop, (D) Hepatomegaly | Answer is C. Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:164 Framingham Criteria for Diagnosis of CCF Major Criteria: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea Neck vein distension Crackles - lung fields Cardiomegaly Acute pulmonary oedema Third hea sound - gallop Increased venous pressure (>16 cm H2O) Positi... | |
Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs can decrease the slope of Phase 0 and prolong the action potential duration?: (A) Lignocaine, (B) Propanolol, (C) Quinidine, (D) Adenosine | Answer is C. Na+ channel blockers reduce the slope of phase 0 whereas K+ channel blockers prolong the APD. Both of these propeies are present in class Ia antiarrhythmics like quinidine and procainamide. | |
Which bacteria show this kind of growth pattern in Ghee broth: (A) Yersinia Pestis, (B) Acinetobacter, (C) Aeromonas, (D) Nocardia | Answer is A. In ghee broth , Yersinia pestis shows a characteristic growth which hangs down into broth from the surface , resembling stalactites ( stalactite growth ) | |
Podophyllin is treatment of choice in: (A) Plantar was, (B) Condyloma lata, (C) Condyloma accuminata, (D) Plain was | Answer is C. Podophyllin Mech of action:- Antimitotic, arrest cells in metaphase by binding tubulin. Uses:- Used for condyloma acuminata . Contraindication:- Contraindicated in pregnancy . Ref:- Sima Jain; pg num:-332 | |
Specific protection is a type of: (A) Primary prevention, (B) Early secondary prevention, (C) Late secondary prevention, (D) Tertiary prevention | Answer is A. (A) Primary prevention LEVELS OF PREVENTION* Primordial preventionPrevention of emergence of risk factor, through education* Primary preventionElimination or modification of risk factors throughPopulation (Mass) strategyHigh risk strategy* Secondary preventionActions which halts the progress of the disease... | |
Cross cylinders is: (A) One plus cylinder and one minus cylinder of equal strength, (B) One plus cylinder and one minus cylinder of unequal strength, (C) Two plus cylinders, (D) Both minus cylinders | Answer is A. A i.e. One plus cylinder and one minus cylinder of equal strength Cross cylinder is a combination of two cylinders of equal strength but with opposite sign placed with their axis at right angles to each otherQ and mounted in a handle. Jackson's cross cylinder test is used to verify the strength & axis of t... | |
Which of the follow ing lesion is characteristic of diabetic nephropathy?: (A) Hyaline arteriosclerosis, (B) Nodular glomerulosclerosis, (C) Renal Amyloid deposits, (D) Fibrinoid necrosis | Answer is B. Ans: B (Nodular glomerulosclerosis) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th editionExplanation:Diabetic NephropathyThe term diabetic nephropathy is applied to the conglomerate of lesions that occur in the diabetic kidney.Most common lesions involve the glomeruli and are associated clinically with thr... | |
Declaration of oslo deals with -: (A) Organ donation, (B) Right to death, (C) Therapeutic abortion, (D) Human experiments | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Therapeutic abortion Declaration of GenevaScope of medical practiseDeclaration of Helisinki (Revised in 1975)Clinical research and human experimentationDeclaration of Tokyo (1975)Doctors approach to torture and other inhuman cruel degrading treatment or punishment in relation to detention... | |
A young male presents with painful ulcers on the mouth and glans penis with blurred vision and history of recurrent epididymitis. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Behcet syndrome, (B) Oculocutaneous aphthous ulcer syndrome, (C) Fabry's disease, (D) Epidermolysis bullosa | Answer is A. Ans. a. Behcet's syndromeHistory of painful oral and penile ulcers with ocular involvement in form of blurring of vision points towards Behcet's disease but confusion arises out of history of recurrent epididymitis, which is solved by Harrison's which states; "Epididymitis is seen in 5% of patients of Behc... |
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