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The following enzyme is required for the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway:: (A) Glucose-6-phosphatase, (B) Phosphorylase, (C) Aldolase, (D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase | Answer is D. Glucose-6-phosphate is oxidized by NADP+ dependent Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (GPD). 6-phospho glucono lactone is formed.
One molecule of NADPH is formed in the reaction. This is the rate-limiting step. Regulation is effected by this enzyme
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 130 | |
Chronic Laxative abuse can result in the formation of which type of stone:: (A) Xanthine, (B) Cysteine, (C) Ammonium urate, (D) Struvite | Answer is C. Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 784
Urinary stones due to chronic laxative abuse is due to gastrointestinal loss of fluid and electrolytes leads to chronic depletion of urinary volume ,relative super saturation and many other pathophysiologic derangements .
These calculi are generally radiolucent with... | |
Following are side effects of Nimodipine except ?: (A) Hypotension, (B) Flushing, (C) Headache, (D) Marked changes m GIT motility | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Marked changes in GI motility Hypotension, headache, drowsiness, nausea, ankle edema, palpitation and flushing are common side effects of DHPs (including nimodipine). o Change in GI motility (constipation) is more common with verapamil. | |
Fetal exsanguination can occur if -: (A) Vasa previa, (B) Placentaprevia, (C) Polyhydramnios, (D) Oligohydramnios | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vasa previa Vasa previao In it a leash of blood vessels happens to traverse through the membranes overlying the internal os, in front of presenting part. Rupture of membranes involving the overlying vessels leads to vaginal bleeding. As it is entirely fetal blood, this may result in fetal... | |
First to be developed is -: (A) Neural pit, (B) Neural groove, (C) Neural fold, (D) Primitive streak | Answer is D. None | |
A G2P1 female at 35 weeks experiences uterine contractions. No fetal distress is seen and membranes are not ruptured. Which of the following is to be done?: (A) 12 mg betamethasone injection, (B) Vaginal swab culture, (C) Tocolytic therapy, (D) Cervical cerclage | Answer is B. 12 mg beta methasone injection is is indicated in all pregnancies at risk of preterm labour between 28 and 35 weeks to attain LUNG MATURITY. Since there is no indication of fetal distress it is not given. Tocolytics are used to inhibit contractions and keep the uterus quiescent in case of preterm labour.Bu... | |
Corneal thickness is measured using -: (A) Pachymetry, (B) Keratometer, (C) CT scan, (D) Aesthisiometry | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pachymetry o Corneal Pachymetry: It is the method to measure the corneal thicknesso The following are the other methods of measuring corneal thickness:a) Ultrasoundb) Ultrasound biomicroscopy and very high frequency ultrasoundc) Optical slit lamp pachymetryd) Specular microscopy basede) S... | |
A hypeensive patient who is a chroic smoker presented with recurrent hemoptysis. On examination he had cushingoid features. Investigations revealed raised ACTH levels not suppressed by dexamethasone. The single diagnosis which can account for all his symptoms is: (A) Multiple endocrine neoplasia I, (B) Pituitary adenom... | Answer is D. Harmonies produced by small cell carcinoma ACTH,ADH,CALCITONIN,GONADOTROPIN. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 601 | |
The following neurotransmitter is synthesized from choline and acetyl-CoA:: (A) Acetylcholine, (B) Glutamine, (C) Aspaate, (D) NO | Answer is A. Acetylcholine is seen in synaptic vesicles in high concentration in the terminals of cholinergic neurons. It is synthesized in the nerve terminal from choline and acetyl-CoA by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). Choline used in the synthesis of acetylcholine is transpoed from the extracellular sp... | |
True about Trichotillomania is: (A) Irresistible desire to set fire, (B) Irresistible desire to steal things, (C) Associated with patchy hair loss, (D) Pathological gambling | Answer is C. (C) Associated with patchy hair loss # TRICHOTILLOMANIA (compulsive hair-pulling)> It is characterized by noticeable hair loss caused by person's persistent and recurrent failure to resists impulses to pull out hair.> There is an intense urge to pull out hair with mounting tension before the act and a sens... | |
A female patient with signs of meningitis and CSF showing gram positive cocobacilli, which is showing characteristic tumbling motility. Diagnosis is: (A) Listeria, (B) Meningococcus, (C) H. influenzae, (D) Pneumococcus | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Listeria Information in this question are :- Gram positive Cocobacilli Tumbling motility Listeria is gram positive coccobacilli and shows characteristic tumbiling motility when grown at 25degC. Other options can easily be excludes as no one has tumbling motility (charactristic of Listeria... | |
Sterilization is commonly performed at which site of fallopian tube:: (A) Ampulla, (B) Infundibulum, (C) Isthmus, (D) Cornua | Answer is C. I have given these 2 questions simultaneously so that you understand how the answer changes as the options of the question change. Sterilization is done at the junction of proximal and middle third—the loop formed consists mainly of isthmus and part of the ampullary region of the tube.
Therefore, if in opt... | |
Pisiform bone articulates with?: (A) Triquetral, (B) Lunate, (C) Scaphoid, (D) Trapezoid | Answer is A. Ans. (a) TriquetralRef: Snell's 8th ed / 402 | |
Features of intestinal obstruction : clinically/investigation by :a) Abdominal distensionb) Vomitingc) Fluid level in X-ray > 4d) Localized tendernesse) Diarrhea: (A) ac, (B) a, (C) ad, (D) ab | Answer is D. About option 'c'
> 5 air-fluid levels in x-ray abdomen suggest intestinal obstruction
Grainger's Diagnostic radiology writes - "3 to 5 fluid levels less than 2.5 cm in length may be seen, particularly in the right lower quadrant, without any evidence of intestinal obstruction or paralytic ileus." | |
Main drawback of calcium hydroxide apexification compared with MTA:: (A) More treatment time, (B) Incomplete apical barrier, (C) Incomplete coronal barrier, (D) Reduced physical strength of dentin | Answer is D. Apexification with calcium hydroxide is almost similar when compared with MTA about given options, except achieved physical strength of dentin, which is comparatively less in Ca(OH)2. | |
Face bow measures relationship of maxilla to: (A) Opening & closing axis, (B) Mandible, (C) Zygomatic bone, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
All of the following statements about inhaled
tooth fragment are true EXCEPT: (A) It usually enters the right bronchus, (B) It may cause Lung abscess, (C) It may cause bronchiectasis, (D) It will be coughed out spontaneously no treatment is necessary | Answer is D. None | |
An asymptomatic old patient presents with bruit in the carotid artery. Which of the following is the investigation of choice?: (A) Doppler ultrasonography, (B) Internal carotid angiography, (C) Aortic arch angiography, (D) Spiral CT angiography | Answer is A. Bruit over carotid artery suggests carotid artery stenosis.
Duplex scanning (B-mode scan and doppler ultrasonic velocimetry) is the method of choice for assessing the degree of carotid stenosis. | |
Computer controlled injection system is called:: (A) CCD, (B) WAND, (C) CCI, (D) JET | Answer is B. WAND:
It is computer controlled injection system Dosage is controlled by computer. | |
Which of the following disease is seen only in females?: (A) Autism, (B) Asperger's syndrome, (C) Retts disease, (D) Colard'd disease | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Rett's diseaseREF: Kaplan 9th ed p. 1215RETT SYNDROMEIt is a neurodevelopmental disorder of the grey matter of the brain that almost exclusively affects females.Normal prenatal and post natal growth, normal psychomotor development through first 5 months of life.The clinical features include sma... | |
Drug distribution in tissue true is all except ?: (A) Chloroquine - eye, (B) Ephedrine - bone, (C) Digoxin - skeletal muscle, (D) Minocycline - adipose tissue | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ephedrine - bone | |
A 25-year-old man presents 1 week after discovering that his left testicle is twice the normal size. Physical examination reveals a nontender, testicular mass that cannot be transilluminated. Serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein and human chorionic gonadotropin are normal. A hemiorchiectomy is performed, and histologic ex... | Answer is D. The given histological examination is indicative of embryonal carcinoma. The tumor cells are large and have basophilic cytoplasm, indistinct cell borders, large nuclei, and prominent nucleoli.The neoplastic cells may be arrayed in undifferentiated, solid sheets or may form primitive glandular pattern. Soma... | |
Tirofiban is a :: (A) Monoclonal antibody, (B) Antiplatelet drug, (C) Anti-inflammatory drug, (D) Antianginal drug | Answer is B. None | |
Aortic sinus of Valsalva contributes to left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) function by: (A) Increasing aortic radius during ejection phase, (B) Decreasing aortic regurgitation (normally), (C) Promoting non-turbulent flow in coronary arteries, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D (All of the above) (Ref. Gray's anatomy 39th ed., 1009, 1016)The right and left coronary arteries to originate from the right and left aortic sinuses (the sinuses of Valsalva), which are bulges at the origin of the ascending aorta immediately beyond, or distal to, the aortic valve.The left ventricul... | |
Uterine sarcomas constitute about.................................... % of all malignant growth of uterus :: (A) 5, (B) 10, (C) 15, (D) 20 | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. 5% Uterine sarcomas are rare tumors comprising 4.5 % of all malignant growths of uterus. The tumour arises most frequently in female between 40 - 50 years, rare before 30 years. Types of Sarcomas : Intramuraldeg - tumour arises in the myometrium (most common) - Consistency is soft and friabl... | |
Glucose is reabsorbed in which pa?: (A) Early PCT, (B) Henle loop, (C) Collecting duct, (D) Distal convoluted tubule | Answer is A. Pa Reabsorption Secretion PCT Glucose 100% Amino acid 100% Na along with glucose by SGLT 2 Chloride (manly in late pa of PCT ) Bicarbonate Bile salts Hydrogen ion Creatinine Uric acid Drugs LOOP OF HENLE Descending limb - water Ascending limb - Na , k , Cl by 1NA 2Cl 1k cotranspoer , Slight reabsorption of... | |
Sterility is caused by -: (A) Vinca alkaloids, (B) Alkylating agents, (C) Antimetabolites, (D) Actinomycin D | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alkylatings agents Alkylating agents may contribute to sterility by the following effects : Azoospermia in males Amenorrhea and ovarian atrophy in females Specific toxicity of impoant alkylating agents. o Cyclophosphamide ---> Cystitis, alopecia, SIADH o Ifosfamide ---> Cystitis, SIADH, n... | |
Which of the following immunoglobulins shows homocytotropism -: (A) IgG, (B) IgA, (C) IgE, (D) IgD | Answer is C. IgE is an 8 S molecule. - resemble IgG structurally. - heat liable - an affinity for the surface of tissue cells paicularly mast cells of the same species. This feature is called homocytotropism. - the normal serum contains only traces of IgE ( a few nanograms per ml ) - greatly elevated levels in atopic c... | |
1st product of tryptophan Catabolism: (A) Kynurenine, (B) Xantheurenic acid, (C) Bradykinin, (D) Melatonin | Answer is A. Kynurenine is formed from tryptophan in presence of enzyme tryptophan pyrrolaseRef: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 239, fig 18.8 | |
Radiation induced cataract is: (A) Shield cataract, (B) Antrior polar cataract, (C) Posterior Subcapsular cataract, (D) Alpo syndrome | Answer is C. Radiation can cause Posterior subcapsular cataract Lens is the most sensitive pa of eye for radiation induced damage Miscellaneous Cataract impoant for PGMEE * Sunflower cataract: Wilson disease, chalcosis. * Polychromatic Lusture- Complicated cataract * Coicosteroid: Posterior subcapsular cataract. (Topic... | |
Which of the following is a characteristic of physiological jaundice of newborn?: (A) Appears within 1st 24 hours of life, (B) Involves palms and soles also, (C) Clinical jaundice usually disappears after 1 month age, (D) It is always unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia | Answer is D. Physiological jaundice- always unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia | |
A mother brought her 18 month boy to the pediatrician, with the complaint that her son did not have any teeth till now. All of the following can be the underlying causes EXCEPT:: (A) Pierre Robin sequence, (B) Cleidocranial dysostosis, (C) Rickets, (D) Hypothyroidism | Answer is A. Delayed Dentition QDef: When no Teeth Erupts By 13 Months of Age Impoant Causes Mnemonic - "FRIED Chop" - Familial - Rickets - Idiopathic - Endocrine (3 "hypos") 1. Hypo-pituitarism 2. Hypo-thyroidism 3. Hypo-parathyroidism - Down Syndrome - Cleido-cranial dysotosis (clavicles absent, large anterior fontan... | |
The drug of choice for the treatment of chlamydial infection is -: (A) Ampicillin, (B) Third generation cephalosporins, (C) Metronidazole, (D) Doxycycline | Answer is D. None | |
Galactorrheamy be associated with the use of all the following drugs except -: (A) Methyldopa, (B) Tricyclic antidepressants, (C) Pyridoxine, (D) Phenothiazine | Answer is C. Lactation in the absence of breast feeding is known as galactorrhea. Drugs causing galactorrhea are dopamine antagonists like antipsychotics (phenothiazines,butyrophenones),antidepressants, antiemetics and dopamine depleting drugs like reserpine , methyldopa .These dopamine antagonists elevate prolactin co... | |
Ketamine is safe in: (A) Raised ICT, (B) Open eye injury, (C) Ischemic hea disease, (D) Severe shock | Answer is D. D i.e. Severe Shock | |
Commonest cause for hyperparathyroidism is: (A) Single adenoma, (B) Multiple adenomas, (C) Single gland hyperplasia, (D) Multiple gland Hyperplasia | Answer is A. A parathyroid adenoma causes the affected gland to release more PTH than it should. This disrupts your calcium and phosphorus balance. This condition is called hyperparathyroidism. Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e | |
Which of the following is a Cluster B personality disorder?: (A) Schiziod personality disorder, (B) Narcissistic personality disorder, (C) Dependant personality disorder, (D) Anantastic personality disorder | Answer is B. Narcissistic personality disorder is a cluster B personality disorder.
Schiziod personality disorder is a cluster A personality disorder.
Dependant & Anankastic personality disorders are cluster C personality disorder. | |
A young man is with known heroin addiction is brought in the emergency in unconscious state. On examination, the patient has decreased bowel sounds, depressed respiration and pin point pupil. The treatment of choice for this patient is:: (A) Oral natrexone, (B) IV naloxone, (C) Oral diazepam, (D) Oral Buprenorphine | Answer is B. Ref: Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry 9th/1375-76,1384 The decreased bowel sounds, respiratory depression,pin point pupil and history of heroin addiction strongly points toward the diagnosis of acute opioid poisoning. The drug of choice for acute poisoning is intravenous naloxone. | |
Maximum sterilizing action is shown by which anti TB drug: (A) Rifamipicin, (B) INH, (C) Pyrazinamide, (D) Streptomycin | Answer is C. Refer Katzung 13th/819 Pyrizanimde is most effective against slow growing bacteria inside macrophages Thus it possesses strong sterilizing activity | |
Main source of energy in 1 min is -: (A) Glycogen, (B) FFA, (C) Phosphates, (D) Glucose | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycogen Source of energy for muscular activityo The immediate source of energy for all muscle contraction is ATP, followed immediately by creatine phosphate.o In stemous exercise ATP store is sufficient only for 1-2 seconds and creatine phosphate for another 5-7 seconds.o Thus, energy ri... | |
Definition of sleep apnoea: (A) >10 apnoeas during 7 hours of sleep, (B) >30 apnoeas during 7 hours of sleep, (C) >10 apnoeas during 2 hours of sleep, (D) >30 apnoeas during 2 hours of sleep | Answer is B. None | |
A 26 year old lady has been on Olanzapine for the treatment of Schizophrenia. All of the following are the ATP III (Adult Treatment Panel) criteria for metabolic syndrome, except:: (A) Abdominal obesity, (B) Triglyceride > 150 mg/dl, (C) Blood pressure > 130/85, (D) LDL > 150 mg/dl | Answer is D. LDL is not included in metabolic syndrome criteria. All others are indicated. The new generation anti-psychotics like Olanzapine and Risperidone increases the risk of metabolic syndrome and increase the risks of cardiovascular disease. ATP III (Adult Treatment Panel) Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome is as f... | |
APGAR scale in infant measures: (A) Respiratory, Neurological, and Circulatory system, (B) Respiratory, Neurologic, renal system, (C) Neurological, renal, digestive system, (D) Respiratory, Neurological and digestive system | Answer is A. None | |
Cervical warts are seen with which HPV -: (A) 11,13, (B) 17,18, (C) 5, 8, (D) 6, 11 | Answer is D. Genital warts (anogenital warts or condyloma acuminata) is most commonly caused by low risk HPV that is HPV-6,11. High risk HPV that is HPV-16,18, 31, 33, 45 can lead to cervical carcinoma. | |
Breast milk at room temperature stored for?: (A) 4 hrs, (B) 8 hrs, (C) 12 hrs, (D) 24 hrs | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 8 hrs | |
A women is exposed to multiple sex paners has 5 times increased risk for - Ca. Cx the attributable risk is -: (A) 20%, (B) 50%, (C) 80%, (D) 100% | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 80% | |
Not included in cerebellar nuclei: (A) Dentate nuclei, (B) Emboliform nuclei, (C) Fastigial nuclei, (D) Caudate nuclei | Answer is D. There are 4 deep nuclei in cerebellum: dentate, globose, emboliform, & fastigial nuclei. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:255 | |
In reproductive and child health programme,districts are divided on the basis of –: (A) Crude birth rate & infant mortality rate, (B) Crude birth rate & female literacy rate, (C) Crude death rate & crude birth rate, (D) Couple protection rate & infant mortality rate | Answer is B. None | |
Which is not a NNRTI -: (A) Ritonavir, (B) Nevirapine, (C) Efavirenz, (D) Delavirdine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ritonavir Antiretroviral drugsa) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) - Zidovudin, Didanosine, Zalcitabine, Stavudine, Lamivudine, Abacavir.b) Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor - Tenofovirc) Nonucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIS) - Nevirapine, Efavi... | |
Amrinone acts by-: (A) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase, (B) ATPase inhibitor, (C) Calcium channel blocker, (D) IC/ channel opener | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inhibiting phosphodiesterase o Amrinone inhibits phosphodiesterase III | |
"Annular herald patch" is found in: (A) Pityriasis alba, (B) Pityriasis rosea, (C) Tinea capitis, (D) Psoriasis | Answer is B. Pityriasis roses is characterised by herald patch/ mother patch it is the first manifestation of disease in 50% of patients it is a well defined erythematous oval or round lesion 2-10 cm diameter with typical colarette of scale at the margin Most common sites - chest back,abdomen extremities. widespread ra... | |
Which of the following signs is classic for CT scanning in Graves ophthalmopathy:: (A) Nodular muscle enlargement, (B) Solitary muscle enlargement, (C) Fusiform muscle enlargement with sparing of tendoms, (D) Kinking of extraocular muscles. | Answer is C. Ans. Fusiform muscle enlargement with sparing of tendoms | |
Neutropenia is seen in all except:: (A) Scurvy, (B) Aplastic anemia, (C) Typhoid fever, (D) Chloramphenicol | Answer is A. Ans: A (Scurvy) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18 ed.Explanation:Severity of neutropenia based on the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) measured in cells per microliter of blood:Mild neutropenia (1000 < ANC < 1500) minimal risk of infectionModerate neutropenia (500 < ANC < 1000) -- moderate... | |
Which of the following vessel is injured in Hemothorax patient?: (A) Pulmonary aery, (B) Pulmonary vein, (C) Bronchial aery, (D) Intercostal aeries | Answer is D. "The most common cause of massive Hemothorax in blunt injury is continuing bleeding from torn intercostal vessels or occasionally from the internal mammary aery secondary to the fracture of ribs" | |
Responsible for epidemic dropsy is-: (A) Sanguinarine, (B) Ergot alkaloids, (C) Pyrazolidine alkaloids, (D) A flat ox in | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sanguinarine DiseaseToxinAdulterantLathyrismBOAAKhesari Dal (Lathyrus sativus)Epidemic DropsySanguinarineArgemone mexicana (oil)Endemic AscitesPyrrolizidine alkaloidsCrotolaria seeds (Jhunjhunia)AflatoxicosisAflatoxinA spergillus fiavus/parasiticusErgotismClavine alkaloidsClaviceps Jusifo... | |
Early strict toilet training can result in –: (A) Nocturnal enuresis, (B) Encopresis, (C) Night terror, (D) Temper tantrums | Answer is B. None | |
One of the following will always present with Bilious vomiting -: (A) Pyloric stenosis, (B) Esophageal atresia, (C) Atresia of the 3rd part of the duodenum, (D) Malrotation of the gut | Answer is C. The CBD opens into the 2nd part of duodenum. So obstructions which are proximal to it like pyloric stenosis & esophageal atresia would not have bile in their associated vomits.
Bilious vomiting would only occur if the obstruction is distal to CBD opening.
Atresia of the 3rd part of duodenum would always pr... | |
A 7 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is -: (A) Post viral syndrome, (B) Bronchiolitis o... | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bronchiolitis obliterance | |
Human immunoglobulin is given in all except: (A) Measles, (B) Hepatitis B, (C) Rabies, (D) chickenpox | Answer is A. None | |
Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell?: (A) Golgi cells, (B) Basket cells, (C) Purkinje cells, (D) Oligodendrocytes | Answer is C. Ans. C Purkinje cellsRef Gray's, 41sted. pg. 335-336* The axons of purkinje cells are the only output through cerebellar cortex.* However, it should be kept in mind that the output from the cerebellum is through deep nuclei, and purkinje cells axons generally pass to deep nuclei. | |
Immediate sustained permeability in cells is increased by:: (A) Direct injury and necrosis, (B) Endothelial gaps by histamine, (C) Endothelial gaps by serotonin, (D) Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury | Answer is A. Direct endothelial injury, resulting in endothelial cell necrosis and detachment:
This effect is usually encountered in necrotizing injury, and is due to direct damage to the endothelium by the injurious stimulus e.g. In severe burns or lytic lesions.
Neutrophils adhere to the endothelium, and may also in... | |
Anal carcinoma is most commonly of type?: (A) Adenocarcinoma, (B) Epidermoid, (C) Mixed, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Epidermoid carcinoma of the anus includes squamous cell carcinoma, cloacogenic carcinoma, transitional carcinoma and basaloid carcinoma. The clinical behaviour and natural history of these tumors is similar. Ref: Schwaz 9/e, Page 1053; Maingot's 10/e, Page 1505. | |
Suprasellar calcification is a feature of:: (A) Craniopharyngioma, (B) Astrocytoma, (C) Oligodendroglioma, (D) Meningioma | Answer is A. Craniopharyngioma | |
A patient present with dysphagia of 4 weeks duration. Now he is able to swallow liquid food only. Which of the following is the one investigation to be done: (A) Barium studies, (B) Upper GI endoscopy, (C) CT scan, (D) Esophageal manometry | Answer is B. investigations of carcinoma oesophagus includes, Barium swallow: Shouldering sign and irregular filling defect. * Oesophagoscopy to see the lesion, extent and type. * Biopsy for histological type and confirmation. * Chest X-ray to look for aspiration pneumonia. * Bronchoscopy, to see an invasion in upper t... | |
The posterolateral lesion in the head of humerus in cases of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation is:: (A) Banka's lesion, (B) Hill-Sachs lesion, (C) Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion, (D) Greater tuberosity avulsion fracture | Answer is B. Complication of shoulder dislocation: Banka's anterior glenoid labrum: anterior tear in anterior dislocation Hill Sach's at head of Humerus: posterolateral defect in anterior dislocation Reverse Hill Sach's - anteromedial defect in posterior dislocation Light bulb signis seen on AP radiographs in theposter... | |
Dean's technique refers to a form of: (A) Radicular surgery, (B) Cyst removal, (C) Intraseptal alveoplasty, (D) Mucoperiosteal flap | Answer is C. None | |
The periphery of retina is visualized with:: (A) Indirect binocular ophthalmoscopy, (B) Direct opthalmoscopy, (C) Contact lens, (D) All | Answer is A. A i.e. Indirect opthalmoscopy Peripheral retina is visualized by indirect opthalmoscopy Q and biomicroscopy examination by Goldmann's three mirror contact lens. Q | |
A case of severe mitral stenosis is associated with all of the following features, EXCEPT:: (A) Pulsatile liver, (B) Atrial fibrillation, (C) Opening snap delayed from S2, (D) Increase in the length of murmur | Answer is C. Severe mitral stenosis occurs with a valve area of less than 1 cm2 (The normal mitral valve orifice area is approximately 4-6 cm2). As the valve progressively narrows, the resting diastolic mitral valve gradient, and hence left atrial pressure, increases. This leads to transudation of fluid into the lung i... | |
The Cardinal movements in sequence in labour are :-: (A) Engagement-flexion-descent-internal rotation-extension-ext. rotation, (B) Engagement-flexion-descent-external rotation-expulsion, (C) Engagement-descent-flexion-internal rotation-extension-external rotation, (D) Engagement-extension-internal rotation-external rot... | Answer is C. Cardinal movements in sequence in labour are - Head floating-Engagement-Descent- Flexion -->Internal rotation-Extension- External rotation- Anterior shoulder delivered- Posterior shoulder delivered | |
The spaces involved in ludwigs angina are: (A) Sublingual, (B) Submandibular, (C) Submaxillary, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. LUDWIG'S ANGINA APPLIED ANATOMY :- Submandibular space lies between mucous membrane of the floor of mouth and tongue on one side and superficial layer of deep cervical fascia extending between the hyoid bone and mandible on the other. It is divided into two compaments by the mylohyoid muscle: 1. Sublingual... | |
Drug of choice for Hairy cell leukemia: (A) Methotrexate, (B) Gemcitabine, (C) Cladribine, (D) Decitabine | Answer is C. Cladribine is a purine analogue, which is DOC for Hairy cell leukemia. | |
Drugs used for Prophylaxis of migraine include the following except?: (A) Sumitriptan, (B) Valproate, (C) Serotonergic drugs, (D) TCAs | Answer is A. None | |
To observe a recurrent caries under a class II amalgam restoration, vertical angulation of the central Xrays should be: (A) Perpendicular to the film placed, (B) Perpendicular to theocclusal surface of the tooth, (C) Parallel to the buccolingual plane of gingival surface of restoration, (D) Perpendicular to the cavosur... | Answer is C. None | |
Adult worm of Echinococcus granulosus is commonly seen in which of the given animals?: (A) Dog, (B) Cat, (C) Sheep, (D) Pig | Answer is A. (A) Dog[?]Echinococcus granulosus:oOnly found in canine host (Dog or Wolf is Definitive Host)oIntermediate host - sheep or other ruminants. Human is accidental intermediate host.-Eggs ingested-Contaminated food or water-Objects contaminatedoDog becomes infected by eating raw meat containing hydatid cyst.[?... | |
Administrative unit of ICDS project in rural area is: (A) PHC, (B) Community development block, (C) Zilla parishad, (D) Gram panchayat | Answer is B. The administrative unit of an ICDS project is the community development block in rural areas, the tribal development block in tribal areas and a group of slums in urban areas.Park 23e pg: 592 | |
Histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis is: (A) Kimura disease, (B) Kikuchi disease, (C) Hodgkin's disease, (D) Castleman's disease | Answer is B. Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease (KFD), or histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis, is a benign and self-limited disease that mainly affects young women. Patients present with localized lymphadenopathy, fever, and leukopenia in up to half of the cases. | |
What is the appropriate infusion time for the dialysate in your 38 y.o. patient with chronic renal failure?: (A) 15 minutes, (B) 30 minutes, (C) 1 hour, (D) 2 to 3 hours | Answer is A. Dialysate should be infused quickly.
The dialysate should be infused over 15 minutes or less when performing peritoneal dialysis.
The fluid exchange takes place over a period ranging from 30 minutes to several hours. | |
During assessment of an analog X-ray film, the lights of a well lit operatory should :: (A) Be made brighter, (B) Not be changed, (C) Be dimmed, (D) Be put off | Answer is C. Optimal viewing conditions should allow one to collimate the light, so the light area is restricted to the size of the film. The viewer’s eyes should be blocked to surrounding light to ameliorate perception of details. Also, the ambient light in the room should be dimmed so that more details in the radiogr... | |
Comment on the diagnosis from the ECG shown below:: (A) RCA occlusion by thrombus, (B) LAD occlusion by thrombus, (C) LCX occlusion by thrombus, (D) Aefact | Answer is A. ECG shows a hea rate of 100/min with ST elevation in lead II, III , aVF and V4R. Indicates inferior wall MI and occlusion of Right coronary aery. | |
All of the following cells are present in cerebellum, EXCEPT:: (A) Purkinje cells, (B) Stellate cells, (C) Pyramidal cells, (D) Basket cells | Answer is C. The pyramidal cells are seen in cerebral coex. The coex of the cerebellum consists of only three layers. They are, (1) an outer, molecular layer, (2) a middle, Purkinje layer, and (3) an inner, granular layer. The molecular layer has the least cellular density and consists of two types of neurons, stellate... | |
A 48-year-old male complains of abdominal pain that began about 6 months previously which is constant in nature, especially after meals and is located in the upper mid abdomen superior to the umbilicus. He also repos some heaburn that occurred during the previous year. He has been under significant stress and has been ... | Answer is C. A- Stomach B- Gallbladder C- Distal Ileum and caecum This patient has a history typical for peptic ulcer disease, that is, constant mid epigastric pain after meals. The patient also has symptoms consistent with gastro-esophageal reflux disease. The dark and tarry stools reflect blood in the stools; that is... | |
In which of these patients can a medial episiotomy be considered superior to a medio lateral episiotomy during delivery of fetus?: (A) Nulligravida with thick perineum, (B) Second stage arrest, (C) Second gravida with moderate anemia, (D) Before application of forceps | Answer is C. A midline episiotomy is associated with higher risk of third and fouh degree lacerations and following factors are associated with an increased risk.: Nulliparity Second-stage arrest of labor Persistent occiput-posterior position, Midorlowforceps Use of local anesthetics Asian race. A medio lateral episiot... | |
When do you intubate a burns patient?: (A) Deep facial burns with singed nasal hair, (B) Superficial facial burns, (C) Pulse rate >100/min, (D) Crepitations on auscultation | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Deep facial burns with singed nasal hairRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 388Indication of intubation in burns* Change in voice* Stridor* Deep burns around the mouth and in the neck | |
Midostaurin is a new drug used for the treatment of:: (A) CML, (B) ALL, (C) AML, (D) CLL | Answer is C. Midostaurin : Multitargeted protein kinase inhibitor indicated along with standard cytarabine and daunorubicin for adult with newly diagnosed Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) who are FLT3 mutation positive. | |
Plasma levels of hCG during pregnancy doubles every: September 2010: (A) Daily, (B) 2 days, (C) 4 days, (D) 6 days | Answer is B. Ans. B: 2 days Pregnancy tests may be used to determine the bility of a pregnancy. Serial quantitative blood tests may be done, usually 2-3 days apa. Below an hCG level of 1,200 mIU/ ml the hCG usually doubles every 48-72 hours, though a rise of 50-60% is still considered normal. Failure to increase normal... | |
A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low-grade fever and mild leukocytosis at 28 week. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Preterm labor, (B) Torsion of fibroid, (C) Red degeneration of fibroid, (D) Infection in fibroid | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Red degeneration of fibroidRef: Shaw 15th/ed p355; Dutta Ohs 6th/ed p314; High Risk Pregnancy 2nd/ed p77The answer is quite obvious but let's see how other options can be ruled out.Option "a" Preterm laborPoints in favorPoints against* Patient is pregnant* Pain in abdomen at 28 weeks (prete... | |
Socially attained behavior is:-: (A) Culture, (B) Acculturation, (C) Socialization, (D) Society | Answer is A. Culture: Is the learned behavior which is socially acquired. Acculturation: is 'cultural contact' or mixing of two cultures. Society: Is an organization of member agents characterized by 'system' - a system of social relationship between individuals. Socialization: is the process of inheriting norms, custo... | |
ASO titire Is diagnostic in ?: (A) SABE, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Infective endocarditis, (D) Acute rheumatic fever | Answer is D. Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:146-147 Essential Criteria Evidence for recent streptococcal infection as evidenced by: 1. Increase in ASO titre a. > 333 Todd units (in children) b. > 250 Todd units (in adults). 2. Positive throat culture for streptococcal infection. 3. Re... | |
Grynfeltt triangle not bounded by: (A) 12th rib, (B) Paraspinal muscles, (C) Internal oblique muscle, (D) External oblique muscle | Answer is D. Lumbar hernias- Hernias through the superior lumbar triangle (Grynfeltt triangle) are more common and bounded by the 12th rib, paraspinal muscles, and internal oblique muscle. Inferior Lumbar / Petit triangle- bounded by the iliac crest, latissimus dorsi muscle, and external oblique muscle. | |
Agar is prepared from:: (A) Bullock heart, (B) Chemicals, (C) Seaweed, (D) Chick cells | Answer is C. Agar, a polysaccharide extracted from certain types of seaweed, is the main active ingredient in the material, while water is the major constituent in the agar impression material.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 170 | |
Which is the first study on water fluoridation?: (A) Grand rapids (Michigan) & Muskegon, (B) Newberg & Kingston, (C) Brantferd & Sarnia, (D) Evanston & Park | Answer is A. None | |
All of the following features are seen in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, except:: (A) Fever, (B) Haemolysis, (C) Hypeension, (D) Low platelets count | Answer is C. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura is characterized by the pentad of hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurologic symptoms, fever, and renal failure. It is not associated with hypeension. Ref: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 967, 969, Chapter 286 | |
Radioactive emissions used in radiotherapy are: (A) Gamma rays, (B) Alpha particles, (C) Beta particles, (D) X-ray | Answer is B. None | |
Insulin secretion is inhibited by: (A) Secretin, (B) Epinephrine, (C) Growth hormone, (D) Gastrin | Answer is B. Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenaline) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. Epinephrine has many functions in the body, regulating hea rate, blood vessel and air passage diameters, and metabolic shifts; epinephrine release is a crucial component of the fight-or-flight response of the sympathe... | |
Most difficult site to remove cholesteatoma in sinus tympani is related with -: (A) Anterior facial ridge, (B) Posterior facial ridge, (C) Epitympanum, (D) Hypotymparum | Answer is B. The sinus tympani (Posterior facial ridge) is the posterior extension of the mesotympanum and lies deep to both the promontory and facial nerve.
The medial wall of sinus tympani becomes continuous with the posterior portion of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity. This is the worst region for access beca... | |
All the following branches of the Vth nerve supply the dura mater except -: (A) Anterior ethmoidal, (B) Posterior ethmoidal, (C) Auriculotemporal, (D) Mandibular | Answer is C. The anterior cranial fossa is supplied by
Anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerves (major supply);
Nervus meninges medius (a branch of maxillary nerve); and nervus spinosus (a branch of mandibular nerve). | |
A four-fold increase in the titre obtained in Weil Felix reaction is diagnostic of -: (A) Rickettsial infection, (B) Fungal infection, (C) Spirochetal infection, (D) Viral infection | Answer is A. None | |
Commonest posterior mediastinal tumour is:: (A) Lung cyst, (B) Neurofibroma, (C) Dermoid, (D) Thyroid | Answer is B. Ans: b (Neurofibroma)Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th ed, p. 862, Fig (56.20) & 23rd ed p. 791, Schwartz, 7th ed p. 772 | |
All of the following are affected in Erb's palsy EXCEPT: (A) Upper trunk of brachial plexus, (B) Lower trunk of brachial plexus, (C) Dorsal scapular nerve, (D) Suprascapular nerve | Answer is B. (B) Lower trunk of brachial plexus # Erb's palsy: Most common type when the 5th and 6th cervical nerve roots are involved as in the upper trunk of brachial plexus.> Resulting paralysis causes the arm to lie on the side with extension of the elbow, pronation of the forearm and flexion of the wrist (waiter's... | |
String sign in angiography is suggestive of:: (A) Aerial dissection, (B) Aoa aneurysm, (C) Stroke, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Traditional angiography remains the basis of diagnosis and characterization of aerial dissection. Angiographic abnormalities include stenosis of the true lumen, or "string-sign," visible intimal flaps, and the appearance of contrast in the false lumen. Four-vessel cerebral angiography should be performed w... |
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