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HRCT is investigation of choice for diagnosing all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:: (A) Sarcoidosis, (B) Miliary tuberculosis, (C) Interstitial fibrosis, (D) Pulmonary aery aneurysm | Answer is D. CT/MRI aeriography is used for investigation of pulmonary aery aneurysms. HRCT findings in Sarcoidosis: Common findings are: Small nodules in a perilymphatic distribution (i.e. along subpleural surface and fissures, along interlobular septa and the peribronchovascular bundle). Upper and middle zone predomi... | |
Most important quality that a partial denture should possess:: (A) Stability, (B) Support, (C) Retention, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. The most important quality that a partial denture should possess is stability. | |
SARS causative agent: (A) Corona-virus, (B) Picorna-virus, (C) Myxovirus, (D) Retrovirus | Answer is A. Ans. a. Corona-virus SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV) caused epidemics of pneumonia from November 2002 to July 2003. Corona Virus SARS virus is corona virus. Corona virus infections in human beings usually remain limited to upper respiratory tract. In contrast, the outbreak of SARS in 2003 was charac... | |
The most likely diagnosis is a case of the intractable convulsions mental defect and facial nevus is-: (A) Sturge Weber syndrome, (B) Tuberous sclerosis, (C) Von-Hippen -Lindau disease, (D) Von- Reckling-Hausens disease | Answer is A. Sturge Weber syndrome and Von-Reckling-Hausen disease (NF-1) have been explained earlier about other options.
Tuberous sclerosis ( Bourneville's disease)
Tuberous sclerosis is characterized by : -
Cutaneous lesions → Adenoma sebaceum, ash-leaf shaped hypopigmented macules, shagreen patches, depigmente... | |
All are features of Pompe's disease except: (A) Hyperglycemia, (B) Cardiomyopathy, (C) Skeletal myopathy, (D) Hepatomegaly | Answer is A. Type II(Pompe) disease results from lysosomal storage of glycogen in skeletal muscles,cardiac muscles, and central nervous system.
There is progressive cardiomyopathy.ECG shows left axis deviation,short PR interval & large QRS.Heart failure with dyspnoea and cyanosis may occur.Skeletal muscles show hypoton... | |
Which of the following would most likely be observed in the lung during an autopsy of 2week old infant who died of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome: (A) Alveolar filledwith neutrophils, (B) Dense fibrosis of the alveolar walls, (C) Enlarged air space, (D) Hyaline membrane and collapsed alveoli | Answer is D. Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome is a disease of immaturity. The immature lung is not able to produce sufficient surfactant to prevent collapse of many alveloku. Severe diffuse damage to alveoli causes precipitation of protein adjacent to many alveolar walls Abundant neutrophils are seen in pneumonia... | |
A patient of 18 years of age presents with sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nausea
and gives a history of vomiting. On physical examination, the testis seems high. The cremasteric reflex is lost. What is the most
possible cause?: (A) Epididymo-orchitis, (B) Mumps orchitis, (C)... | Answer is D. Testicular torsion is most common between 10 and 25 years of age, although a few cases occur in infancy.
Typically, there is sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nauseated and may vomit.
Torsion of a fully descended testis is usually easily recognized. The testis seem... | |
A 52 years male present with pain in the lower limbs, on performing Doppler it shows sapheno femoral junction incompetence and dilatation of great saphenous vein, deep veins appear normal, which of the following statement regarding the management of this patient is false?: (A) Stab avulsion, (B) Sclerotherapy, (C) Endo... | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Sclerotherapy.Image indicates varicose veins which is further confirmed by doppler. Sclerotherapy is used for telangiectatic vessel and varicose veins less than 3 mm in diameter, involvement of great saphenous vein along with saphenofemoral junction indicates varicosity over 3 mm where sclerothera... | |
Rosen's incision is used for: (A) Septoplasty, (B) SMR, (C) Stapedectomy, (D) Tonsillectomy | Answer is C. Rosen's incision is the most commonly used for stapedectomy. It requires the meatus and canal to be wide enough to work. It consists of two pas: A small veical incision at 12 o'clock position near the annulus and A curvilinear incision staing at 6 o'clock position to meet the first incision in the posteros... | |
Blood agar is: (A) Enrichment media, (B) Enriched media, (C) Selective media, (D) Transport media | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Enriched media | |
Ram has a 4 ml lignocaine vial of 2% solution. How much lignocaine is present in 1 ml ?: (A) 2 mg, (B) 8 mg, (C) 20 mg, (D) 200 mg | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following occur as a result of persistant vomiting?: (A) Hyperkalemia, (B) Hypochloraemia, (C) Hyperventilation, (D) Acidic urine excretion | Answer is B. Hypochloremia usually manifests when its levels are If the urinary Cl- levels are higher (>40 mEq/L), then hypochloremia may be secondary to volume overload or dilution. Increased urinary Cl- can also result from increased mineralocoicoid activity, which leads to the retention of HCO3- and Na+ at the expen... | |
Sexual gratification obtained by wearing dresses of opposite sides in: (A) Necrophilia, (B) Fetichism, (C) Frotteurism, (D) Transvestism | Answer is D. TRANSVESTISM In this type of sexual perversion, sexual satisfaction is obtained by wearing clothes of the opposite sex. His whole personality is dominated to be identified as a member of the opposite sex. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 312 | |
Marjolin's ulcer (after burn) predisposes to:: (A) Basal cell carcinoma, (B) Squamous cell carcinoma, (C) Adenocarcinoma, (D) Round cell carcinoma | Answer is B. Ans: B i.e. Squamous cell carcinoma Skin malignancy The strongest predisposing factor for basal cell carcinoma is ultraviolet radiation When a squamous cell carcinoma appears in a scar, it is known as Marjolin's ulcer | |
What is true about ischiorectal fossa:: (A) Apex is formed by obturater internus, (B) Levater ani forms the roof, (C) Lateral wall is formed by inferior pubic ramus, (D) Communicates with the other side Posteriorly | Answer is D. D. i.e. Communicates with other side posteriorly | |
A man had Egg omelet 1-4 hours back and developed diarrhea, vomiting and abdominal cramps. Most likely cause of poisoning is: (A) Staphylocoocus, (B) Salmonella, (C) Bacillus cereus, (D) Clostridium | Answer is A. Bacterium Typical food Disease Staphylococcus Custard-filled pastries; Potato, egg, tuna or fish salads Food poisoning especially vomiting Bacillus cereus Reheated rice Diarrhea Clostridium perfringens Cooked meat, stew and gravy Diarrhea E.coli Various food and water Diarrhea E.coli Undercooked meat Hemor... | |
Treatment of lymphoma of appendix?: (A) Right hemicolectomy, (B) Extended right hemicolectomy, (C) Left hemicolectomy, (D) Extended left hemicolectomy | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Right hemicolectomyRef Internet SourcesAppendix lymphoma:* Most common presentation is like acute appendicitis* Most common in men >55 years age* CT scan will show aneurysmal dilatation of lumen* Most are NHL type lymphomas* Treatment involves right hemicolectomy including nodes followed by CHOP t... | |
Patient pays a stipulated amount of money towards the treatment is termed: (A) Deductible, (B) Coinsurance, (C) Fee for service, (D) Third party payment | Answer is A. None | |
All of the following are features of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, except:: (A) Myoclonus on awakening, (B) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures, (C) Automatism, (D) Absence seizures | Answer is C. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is a generalized seizure disorder of unknown cause.Occurs in early adolescence & characterized by bilateral myoclonic jerks that may be single or repetitive, more common after awakening and can be provoked by sleep deprivation.Also experience generalized tonic-clonic seizures, a... | |
Which of the following types of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal mortality is the highest?: (A) Hepatitis A, (B) Hepatitis B, (C) Hepatitis C, (D) Hepatitis E | Answer is D. Ans. is d, i.e. Hepatitis ERef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 292; Robbin's 6/e, p 862Maximum risk of maternal mortality is with hepatitis E.Maximum risk of hepatic encephalopathy is with hepatitis E.Maximum risk of perinatal transmission is with hepatitis B.All pregnant females should be screened for HBV infection in... | |
The inferior border of the rectus sheath posteriorly is called the:: (A) Falx inguinalis, (B) Inguinal ligament, (C) Internal inguinal ring, (D) Arcuate line | Answer is D. The rectus sheath is a tough, tendinous sheath over the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface of the rectus abdominis. However, on the posterior side of the muscle, the sheath is incomplete. It ends inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is cov... | |
Procedure to be performed in case of arrest of after coming head due to contracted pelvis in breech:: (A) Craniotomy, (B) Decapitation, (C) Zavanelli maneuver, (D) Cleidotomy | Answer is C. Entrapment of aftercoming head This complication is usually seen with preterm delivery as the incompletely dilated cervix constricts aruond the neck .Duhurssen&;s incisions can be placed over the cervix avoiding the 3 and 9 o&;clock positions .other alternatives are intravenous nitroglycerin for cervical d... | |
Centchroman is :: (A) New drug for fibroids, (B) New drug for endometriosis, (C) Injectable contraception, (D) Nonsteroidal oral contraception | Answer is D. Centchroman/ Ormeloxifene Nonsteroidal estrogen antagonist : SERM (Selective estrogen receptor modulator) Developed at CDRI, Lucknow. Tablets of 30 mg to be taken twice a week for 3 months and then once a week for contraception . Has a weak Estrogenic and potent antiestrogenic effect--acting mostly on the ... | |
Chyme is -: (A) Food in stomach, (B) Biliary secretion, (C) Pancreatic secretion, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Food in stomach o After food in the stomach has become throughly mixed with stomach secretions, the resulting mixture that passes down the gut is called chyme.o Chyme is usually semifluid mass. However, degree of fluidity of chyme depends on the relative amounts of food, water and stomach... | |
The gold alloys used for casting contain at
least ________ percent of precious metal according
to ADA specification number 5:: (A) 55, (B) 65, (C) 75, (D) 85 | Answer is C. None | |
The most effective treatment of pruritus in uremia is :: (A) Ultraviolet light, (B) Cholestyramine, (C) Eskazine, (D) Topical benzocaine | Answer is A. A. i.e. Ultraviolet light | |
Large vessel vasculitis is/are:a) Takayasu diseaseb) Temporal arteritisc) PANd) Giant cell arteritise) Wegner granulomatosis: (A) acd, (B) abd, (C) abc, (D) ab | Answer is B. Large vessel vasculitis are Giant cell arteritis, Takayasu arteritis and Cogan syndrome. | |
Insulin increases the activities of all of the following enzymes, EXCEPT: (A) Glucokinase, (B) Pyruvate carboxylase, (C) Glycogen synthase, (D) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase | Answer is B. Insulin suppresses gluconeogenesis by suppressing the enzymes glucose 6 phosphatase, PEP, carboxykinase and pyruvate carboxylase. Biological effects of insulin: Metabolism Key enzyme Action of insulin on the enzyme Carbohydrate Translocase Glucokinase PFK Pyruvate kinase Pyruvate carboxylase PEPCK Fructose... | |
Infantile myocarditis and pericarditis is due to: (A) Coxsackie A, (B) Coxsackie B, (C) Mumps, (D) Pox virus | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coxsackie B o The commonest cause of myocarditis is coxsackie B infection, which occurs any where from the age of a few hours to 7 weeks, with a peak around two weeks. | |
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is characterised by which of the following hypersensitivity reactions?: (A) Type II: Hypersensitivity, (B) Type IV: Cell-Mediated Hypersensitivity, (C) Tuberculin-Type Hypersensitivity, (D) Type III: Immune Complex Hypersensitivity | Answer is D. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is a well-known immune complex disease. Its onset occurs several weeks after a group A alpha hemolytic streptococcal infection, paicularly of the skin, and often occurs with infection due to nephritogenic types of streptococci. The complement level is typically lo... | |
A female in the emergency depament is found to have CSF rhinorrhea following a motor vehicle accident. What is the first line of treatment for CSF rhinorrhoea in this patient?: (A) Immediate plugging of nose with petroleum gauze, (B) Forceful blowing of nose, (C) Craniotomy, (D) Observation for 7 - 10 days with antibio... | Answer is D. Early cases of post-traumatic CSF rhinorrhea are managed conservatively by placing the patient in semi-sitting position, avoiding blowing of nose, sneezing and straining. Prophylactic antibiotics are also administered to prevent meningitis. Persistent cases of CSF rhinorrhoea are treated surgically through... | |
Postnatally when is the growth velocity maximum?: (A) In the first year of life, (B) In the second year of life, (C) In the seventh year of life, (D) In adolescence | Answer is A. Postnatally there are 2 periods of accelerated growth: first year of life and growth spu during pubey. | |
Which ion channel is affected in hypokalemic periodic paralysis?: (A) K+, (B) Na+, (C) Cl-, (D) Ca2+ | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Ca2+Ref : Harrison's Internal medicine 18/e, chapter 387, table 387-10 | |
At the end of C6 which is not true:: (A) Trachea bifurcates, (B) Pharynx ends, (C) Esophagus begins, (D) Larynx ends | Answer is A. Ans. A Trachea bifurcatesRef: BDC, 6ted. Vol II pg. 280-81* Trachea begins at lower border of cricoid cartilage opposite to the lower border of C6 vertebra.* Trachea extends up to upper border of T5* Tracheal bifurcation (carina) is at T4-T5 level.* Length of trachea is 10-12 cm* Thyroid cartilage is over ... | |
Most vascular structure of eyeball is: (A) Iris, (B) Ciliary body, (C) Choroid, (D) Sclera | Answer is C. None | |
Which insulin is never mixed with other insulins?: (A) Utile, (B) Aspa, (C) Lispro, (D) Glargine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Glargine o All insulin preparations are supplied at neutral pH (7.2-7.4) except glargine (supplied at pH 4.0); therefore, glargine cannot be mixed with any insulin. | |
Which is a not an essential criteria according to WHO for normal semen analysis :: (A) Sperm count > 20 million / ml, (B) Volume > 1 ml, (C) Sperm with normal morphology (strict criteria) > 15%, (D) Motility > 25% with rapidly progressive motilityTubal pathology | Answer is B. Volume > 1 ml | |
Which of the following would be the best morphological feature to distinguish ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease -: (A) Diffuse distributions of pseudopolyps, (B) Mucosal edema, (C) Crypt abscesses, (D) Lymphoid aggregates in the mucosa | Answer is A. Pseudopolyps (inflammatory polyps) can be seen in both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis
In ulcerative colitis, the distribution of these pseudopolyps can be diffuse but in Crohn's disease, the distribution cannot be diffuse because a classic feature of crohn's disease is the sharp demarcation of dise... | |
Y-chromosome is:: (A) Telocentric, (B) Metacentric, (C) Submetacentric, (D) Acrocentric | Answer is D. Y chromosome is Acrocentric. X chromosome is Submetacentric. IMG showing METACENTRIC CHROMOSOME. IMG showing SUBMETACENTRIC chromosome. IMG showing ACROCENTRIC chromosome. IMG showing TELOCENTRIC chromosome. Sub-Metacentric chromosome - example - 'X' chromosome Acrocentric chromosome - example - 'Y' chromo... | |
Mirena is:: (A) Used in abortions, (B) Antiprogesterone, (C) Progesterone IUCD, (D) Hormonal implant | Answer is C. None | |
Which organ that is commonly involved in a stab injury to the abdomen is which of the following?: (A) Small intestine, (B) Spleen, (C) Kidney, (D) Bladder | Answer is A. The organs most commonly injured with anterior abdominal stab wounds are the small bowel, the liver, and the colon. Abdominal stab wound exploration is indicated in a patient who presents with a stab wound to the anterior abdomen, normal vital signs, no signs of peritonitis, and no evidence of evisceration... | |
Investing layer of deep cervical fascia encloses all except: (A) Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius, (B) Two salivary glands, (C) Axillary vessels, (D) Two spaces | Answer is C. Axillary vessels are enclosed by prevertebral fascia. | |
Which zone is the hottest and efficient burning zone of the flame used for casting?: (A) Oxidizing zone, (B) Reducing zone, (C) Combustion zone, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following are branches of splenic aery, except?: (A) Hilar branches Sho Gastric Aery, (B) Sho Gastric Aery, (C) Aeria Pancreatica Magna, (D) Right Gastroepiploic Aery | Answer is D. Right Gastroepiploic aery is a branch of superior mesentric aery, a branch of hepatic aery. The left Gastroepiploic aery is a branch of splenic aery which anastomoses with the right Gastroepiploic aery. Ref: Gray&;s anatomy text book of anatomy BD chaurasia 21st Ed. | |
Which of the following is used in the treatment of thyroid malignancy.: (A) 131
I, (B) 125
I, (C) 99
Tc, (D) 32
p | Answer is A. 131I is used in treatment of thyroid cancer. | |
Post moem lividity persists till :: (A) 24 hours, (B) 18 hours, (C) 2-3 days, (D) Merges with putrefactive changes | Answer is D. D i.e. Merges with putrefactive changes - Postmoem lividity also k/a suggilation, vabices, hypostasis, staining, darkening of death is an early sign of death & commences within an hour of death.Q - Fixed in about 4 - 6 hoursQ; reaches maximum between 6-12 hoursQ and persists until putrefaction sets in.Q Li... | |
All of the following antibacterial agents act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis EXCEPT :: (A) Carbapenems, (B) Monobactams, (C) Cephalosporins, (D) Nitrofurantoin | Answer is D. None | |
The treatment of choice in fistula in ano: (A) Anal dilatation, (B) Fissurotomy, (C) Fistulectomy, (D) Fistulotomy | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Fistulotomy | |
Which of the following finding is suggestive of Bicornuate uterus: (A) Intercornual angle < 75°, (B) Diverging horns, (C) Intrafundal downward cleft < 1 cm, (D) Hysteroscopic resection is treatment | Answer is B. All other options are suggestive of septate uterus. | |
Which is not the indication of CT in head trauma: (A) Seizures, (B) Loss of consciousness, (C) GCS < 14, (D) ENT bleed | Answer is C. GCS < 13 is an indication for CT | |
In left sided massive pneumothorax, ECG shows all, except-: (A) Left axis detion, (B) Absent R wave, (C) Peaked P wave, (D) Precordial T wave inversion | Answer is A. Abnormal left axis detion in left-sided pneumothorax. Relevant QRS abnormalities (incomplete RBBB and T-wave inversion) in(10%). QRS amplitude in V2-V6 leads was significantly decreased in left-sided pneumothorax. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1546 | |
You are shown the screening mammogram right CC and MLO of a 55-year-old woman. Which one of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?: (A) Fibroadenoma, (B) Hamaoma, (C) Hematoma, (D) Galactocele | Answer is B. Fibroadenomas are typicially homogeneous well defined masses and do not contain internal lucency. Hamaomas are typically well defined mass with interspersed internal lucency, as seen in this patient. Hematomas do not contain central lucency. Acutely, these appear as ill-defined masses at the site of trauma... | |
True about deep palmar arch ?: (A) Main contribution is by ulnar aery, (B) Lie superficial to lumbricals, (C) Gives three perforating branches, (D) Gives four palmar metacarpal aeries | Answer is C. Deep palmar archIt lies across the base of metacarpal bones. It is formed mainly by radial aery and completed by deep branch of ulnar aery. Its branches are :-Three palmar metacarpal aeries on the II, III and IV palmar interossei muscles to join the digital branches of superficial palmar arch.Three perfora... | |
Palatine tonsil develops from: (A) Dorsal part of II pharyngeal pouches, (B) Ventral part of II pharyngeal pouches, (C) Dorsal part of III pharyngeal pouches, (D) Ventral part of I pharyngeal pouches | Answer is B. None | |
In klumpke's paralysis nerve roots involved are: (A) C6 -C7, (B) C7- C8, (C) C8-T1, (D) T1-T2 | Answer is C. In klumpke's paralysis lower trunk of brachial plexus is involved that is mainly T1 and paly C8. C6 is mainly involved in Erb's paralysis along with C5. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 59 | |
Coprolalia is seen in: (A) Delirium, (B) Alcoholic intoxication, (C) Mania, (D) Tourette syndrome | Answer is D. coprolalia-involuntary use of vulgar or obscene language. Observed in some cases of schizophrenia and in Tourette's syndrome. coprophagia- Eating of filth or feces. The echolalia-psychopathological repeating of words or phrases of one person by another; tends to be repetitive and persistent. Seen in catato... | |
Injectable tetanus toxoid (TT ) is an example of:: (A) Active immunity, (B) Passive Immunity, (C) Native Immunity, (D) Reaction Immunity | Answer is A. The toxins produced by organisms such as Diptheria & Tetanus are detoxicated and used in preparation of Vaccines (Toxoids). This detoxified toxins when administered in the body can elicit immune response resulting in antibody production & memory. The Antibodies produced neutralize the toxic moeity produced... | |
Cystic fibrosis is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. A normal couple has one daughter affected with the disease. They are now planning to have another child. What is the chance of her sibling being affected by the disease -: (A) 0, (B) 2-Jan, (C) 4-Jan, (D) 4-Mar | Answer is C. Ans. is. 'c' i.e., 1/4 o The fact that one child of a normal couple is affected by an autosomal recessive condition (cystic fibrosis) indicates that both parents are carriers of this condition. o The recurrence risk of autosomal recessive disorders in siblings is 25% (') for each bih. Both the parents are ... | |
The regional anaesthesia technique that would not be expected to provide appropriate analgesic benefit during the first stage of labor is: (A) Lumbar epidural, (B) Pudendal nerve block, (C) Lumbar sympathetic block, (D) Paracervical block | Answer is B. Pudendal nerve block during delivery mitigates somatic pain during second stage of labor. | |
Recommendation for exclusive feeding is up to:: (A) 3 months, (B) 4 months, (C) 5 months, (D) 6 months | Answer is D. Ans. (d) 6 monthsRef : OP Ghai 8th ed./150* Exclusive breast feeding is up to 6 months and should be continued uptil 2 years.* Prelacteal feeds like water, honey, and so called health tonics are contraindicated in children less than 6 months of age. | |
Half-life of digoxin is?: (A) 24 hours, (B) 40 hours, (C) 48 hours, (D) 60 hours | Answer is B. Digoxin half-life is long -40 hrs It gets trapped in muscles and vd -volume of distribution is more elimination is difficult in cases of poisoning Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | |
Spouse jealousy is a feature of -: (A) Othello syndrome, (B) Chronic alcoholism, (C) Stockholm syndrome, (D) Clerambault's syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Othello syndrome o Othello Syndrome :- When the content of delusions is predominantly jealousy (infedility) involving the spouse, person feels an unreasonable fear that a partner has been unfaithful, is presently unfaithful, or plans to be unfaithful, it is called as Othello Symdrome or c... | |
Niemann-Pick disease is due to deficiency of: (A) Hexosaminidase, (B) Sphingomyelinase, (C) Galactokinase, (D) Glucosidase | Answer is B. It is a lipid storage disease, due to deficiency of sphingomyelinase. Leads to the accumulation of sphingomyelin.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 193 | |
A 40yrs old man has chronic cough with fever for several months . The radiography reveals a diffuse reticulonodular Patten's.microscopically on transbronchial biopsy there are focal areas of inflammation conraining epithioid cell granuloma , Langerhans cells, lymphocytes, these findings are typically for which of the f... | Answer is D. Ref Robbins 9/e p 210 T Cell-Mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity Several autoimmune disorders, as well as pathologic reactions to environmental chemicals and persistent microbes, are now known to be caused by T cells (Table 4-5). The occurrence and significance of T lymphocyte-mediated tissue injury have b... | |
Retina is pa of ?: (A) CNS, (B) PNA, (C) ANS, (D) None | Answer is A. Retina is a pa of CNS and develops from Neuroectoderm. | |
Sign suggestive of malignant change in parotid gland tumor-: (A) Skin ulceration, (B) Increasing pain, (C) Facial palsy, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above'Red flag' features suggesting the possibility of malignancy include:o Facial nerve weaknesso Rapid increase in the size of the lump.o Ulceration or induration (or both) of the mucosa or skin overlying fixed skino Paraesthesia or anaesthesia of neighbouring sensory nerveso... | |
Ewings sarcoma clinically mimics ?: (A) Osteomyelitis, (B) Osteochondroses, (C) Osteosclerosis, (D) Heterotopic ossification | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Osteomyelitis Ewing sarcoma is one of the differential diagnosis for subacute osteomyelitis. (see following table) | |
Which of the following is a non-essentialmetal/mineral?: (A) Sodium, (B) Manganese, (C) Iron, (D) Lead | Answer is D. Lead Lead is not at all an essential mineral; rather it is toxic to the body. (Harrison I7/e Chapter e34. Heavy Metal Poisoning ) Harper gives a list of essential minerals along with their functions in the body. Essential minerals and their function Function Mineral Structural function Calcium, magnesium, ... | |
Feature of slow filter (w.r.t. fast filter) is/are : a) Occupies less spaceb) Highly skilled operationc) Poor bacterial qualityd) Takes more time for purificatione) Size of sand is smaller: (A) de, (B) bc, (C) cd, (D) bd | Answer is A. Slow sand filter occupies large area (more space).
Slow and filter requires less skilled operation.
Slow sand filter removes more bacteria and has better bacterial control (99.9-99.99%)
Slow sand filter requires longer duration for purification.
Size of sand is smaller (0.2-0.3 mm). | |
Rampal 45 yr old man present with history of recurrent haemoptysis and purulent sputum.his chest X-RAY is normal, which of the following will be the next best investigation for him.?: (A) HRCT, (B) CT guided angiography, (C) Angiography, (D) Spiral CT | Answer is A. Presence of purulent sputum with recurrent haemoptysis suggests a diagnosis of bronchiectasis. HRCT .is now the diagnostic procedure of choice having repalced bronchiography Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1710 | |
Anti androgen used in hea failure ?: (A) Carvedilol, (B) Sampatrilat, (C) Spironolactone, (D) Abiraterone | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Spironolactone o Spironolactone and eplerenone are the aldosterone antagonists. They are used as potassium sparing diuretics. Their diurectic effect is quite feeble, but in CHF these drugs reduce the moality (at doses lower than diuretic doses) by antagonizing the effect of aldosterone (r... | |
Who is ASHA?: (A) Worker of a Non-Governmental Organization, (B) Community level voluntary worker for health, (C) Government health worker, (D) Helper of anganwadi | Answer is B. Ans: B (Community level voluntary worker for heath) Ref: Park 22nd editionExplanation: ASHA (Accredited social health activist) are involved in health care of community under the National Rural Health Mission. Accredited social health activists (ASHAs) are community health workers instituted by the Governm... | |
The absolute contraindication for Electro-Convulsive Therapy (ECT) is -: (A) Raised Intra-Cranial Tension, (B) Vascular Dementia, (C) Diabetic Retinopathy, (D) Peripheral Neuropathy | Answer is A. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is raised ICT. | |
In acute congestive glaucoma, pupil is –: (A) Oval and horizontal, (B) Oval and vertical, (C) Circular, (D) Slit like | Answer is B. In acute congestive glaucoma, pupil is semidilated (mild dilated), vertically oval and fixed. | |
Abnormalities of copper metabolism are implicated in the pathogenesis of all the following except –: (A) Wilson's disease, (B) Monke's Kinky–hair syndrome, (C) Indian childhood cirrhosis, (D) Keshan disease | Answer is D. Keshan disease is a disorder of selenium metabolism.
Following diseases are related to copper metabolism :-
Wilson's disease
Menkes kinky hair syndrome
Indian childhood cirrhosis (increased hepatic, urinary and serum copper concentration are characteristic of ICC). | |
Ammonia is detoxified in brain by formation of: (A) Glutamate, (B) Uric acid, (C) Glutamine, (D) Urea | Answer is C. The transpo form of Ammonia in blood and from Brain is Glutamine. From muscles, it is Alanine. The answer is not glutamate because free ammonia is trapped by glutamine Glutamate is formed transamination of amino acids, not from free ammonia. | |
Hand cutting instruments are composed of: (A) Handle and blade, (B) Handle, shank and blade, (C) Shank and blade, (D) Handle, shank and head | Answer is B. None | |
The following diagram depicts blood smear of which species?: (A) P. vivax, (B) P. falciparum, (C) P. ovale, (D) P. malariae | Answer is B. Ans. (b) P. falciparum This is a thin smear representing ring forms of P. falciparum. For details of blood picture see image platelets. | |
HBV is associated with all of the following except -: (A) Hepatic cancer, (B) Chronic hepatitis, (C) Hepatic adenoma, (D) Cirrhosis | Answer is C. None | |
Cruelty of Mrs. X for dowry by her husband Mr. Y and in Laws is Punishable under: (A) 304 A IPC, (B) 304 B IPC, (C) 498 A IPC, (D) 320 IPC | Answer is C. Sec 498 A IPC- Subjecting a married woman to cruelty by husband or in laws. Sec 320 IPC- Grievous Hu - Definition Sec 304 A IPC- Death caused by rash and negligent act - 2 yrs. Sec 304 B IPC- Dowry death: death of a female within 7 yrs of marriage. | |
The most radiosensitive tissue is -: (A) Brain, (B) Bone marrow, (C) Thyroid, (D) Liver | Answer is B. Radiosensitivity of important organs in decreasing order.
Bone marrow > Testes > Ovary > Kidney > Liver > Lung > Heart > GIT (Stomach > Intestine) > Thyroid > Brain & spinal cord (CNS) > Skin + Cartilage > Adult bone > Vagina > Uterus. | |
Persons with mild cognitive impairments who smoke may experience a worsening of symptoms if they stop smoking. This worsening of symptoms is because nicotine acts as an agonist for receptors of a paicular neurotransmitter. That neurotransmitter is: (A) Acetylcholine, (B) Dopamine, (C) Neuropeptide Y, (D) Nitric oxide | Answer is A. . | |
While discharging a patient of meningitis due to H. influenzae the essential step you will do:: (A) EEG, (B) Assess developmental milestones, (C) Bilateral evoked auditory response, (D) Refer for physiotherapy | Answer is C. H. influenzae is one of the three M/C/C of childhood otitis media (the other two being Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis). A diagnosis of otitis media is based on the detection by pneumatic otoscopy of fluid in the middle ear and bilateral evoked auditory response. | |
Antithyroid drug of choice in pregnancy is :: (A) Propyithiouracil, (B) Carbimazole, (C) Propranolol, (D) Lugol's iodine | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. Propylthiouracil Management of Hypehyroidism during Pregnancy : Medical management is the management of choice.deg Antithyroid drug of choice is propylthiouracildeg because it : -- Inhibits conversion of T, to -13deg -- Crosses placenta less rapidly than rnethimazoledeg -- It is not associat... | |
Following condition is most likely seen in which of the following condition:: (A) Hypothyroid, (B) Acromegaly, (C) Cushing syndrome, (D) Grave Disease | Answer is A. Ans. A. HypothyroidThe image showing loss of lateral l/3rd eyebrows or lateral madarosis. This is seen in many conditions:a. Leprosyb. Syphilisc. Hypothyroidismd. Blepharitise. Dermatitisf. Fungal Infectionsg. Drug Therapiesh. Autoimmune diseases | |
Painless loss of vision is seen in following except:: (A) Vitreous hemorrhage, (B) Optic atrophy, (C) Developmental cataract, (D) Acute Angle closure glaucoma. | Answer is D. Ans. d Acute Angle closure glaucoma. (Ref Basak, Ophthalmology, 2nd ed., 215)# Vitreous hemorrhage is associated with sudden painless loss of vision & on attempted ophthalmoscopy the fundamental glow is characteristically absent as the fundus is hidden by a dark red haze of blood. It can occur due to retin... | |
Cyclophosphamide is used in all except -: (A) Burkitt's lymphoma, (B) Hodgkin's, (C) Choriocarcinoma, (D) Ovarian Ca | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Choriocarcinoma Cyclophosphamide is used in o Acute leukemias o Wilm's tumour o CLL & CML o Prostate carcinoma o Multiple myeloma o Breast carcinoma o Ewing's sarcoma o Ovarian carcinoma o Small cell lung cancer o Carcinoma cervix o Hodgkin's disease | |
Wax pattern for casting is made up of: (A) Inlay wax, (B) Sticky wax, (C) Modelling wax, (D) Carnuba wax. | Answer is A. None | |
An antipsychotic drug with prolonged action -: (A) Trifluperazine, (B) Thioridazine, (C) Penfluridol, (D) Fluphenazine | Answer is D. Long acting antipsychotics are Fluphenazine (2 - 4 weeks) and Penfluridol (1 week). | |
Non - sampling errors may occur due to all the following except-: (A) Inadequately calibrated instruments, (B) Repeated sampling, (C) Observer variation, (D) Conceptual errors | Answer is B. Errors may occur not only due to error in sample survey but also due to inadequately calibrated instruments, observer variation, incomplete coverage, and conceptual errors. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 913 | |
True about tuberculin test are all except -: (A) Recent conversion in adult is an indication for ATT, (B) INH prophylaxis is started if the test is positive, (C) No risk in negative, (D) May be false negative in immunocompromised patients | Answer is C. None | |
Fomepizole is a selective antidote for poisoning with:: (A) MAO inhibitors, (B) Ethyl alcohol, (C) Methyl alcohol, (D) Tricyclic antidepressants | Answer is C. None | |
True about Rocuronium bromide is all except: (A) One of the most commonly used non depolarizing agent, (B) Non depolarizing agent of choice for RSI, (C) Sugammadex is the specific reversal agent, (D) Most preferred in hepatic and renal failure | Answer is D. It is metabolized by liver and kidney so to be avoided in preexisting hepatic and renal disorder. Hepatic and Renal failure , the neuromuscular blocker of choice is Atracurium and Cisatracurium Cis-atracurium undergoes Hofmann elimination - which is spontaneous non-enzymatic degradation. So renal failure d... | |
Which of the following is not a diahrosis ?: (A) Elbow joint, (B) Interphalangeal joint, (C) Skull sutures, (D) Hip joint | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Skull sutures Functional classification of joints (movement) Joints can also be classified functionally according to the type and degree of movement they allow: Synahrosis - Permits little or no mobility. Most synahrosis joints are fibrous joints (e.g., skull sutures). Amphiahrosis - Perm... | |
True about obsessive compulsive disorder is/are :: (A) Irresistible desire to do a thing repeatedly, (B) Patient is conscious about the disorder, (C) Denial is the defense mechanism against O.C.D, (D) All | Answer is D. A i.e. Irresistible desire to do a thing repeatedly; C i.e. Denial is the defence mechanism against OCP; B i.e. Patient is conscious about the disorder An idea intrudes into Conscious awareness repeatedly. 4' - Recognized as one's own idea but is Ego-alien (Foreign to one's personality) Q. - Recognized as ... | |
Steeple sign is seen in -: (A) Acute epiglottis, (B) Laryngotracheobronchitis (croup), (C) In both cases, (D) None of above | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) Croupo Me cause of acute upper airway obstruction,o Mild upper RTI for 1-3 days followed by upper airway obstruction,o Barking cough, hoarsness, Inspiratory stridor,o X-ray shows subglottic narrowing or steeple sign.Acute epiglottitiso Acute potential fata... | |
Right coronary artery arises from which sinus:: (A) Right aortic, (B) Left aortic, (C) Coronary sinus, (D) Anterior aortic sinus | Answer is D. Right coronary artery
origin: Left posterior aortic sinus of aorta
Supplies :
a) Right atrium
b) right ventricle except area adjoining anterior inter ventricular groove.
c) small part of left atrium
Left Coronary Artery
Origin: left posterior aortic sinus of ascending aorta.
Supplies:
a) ... | |
Aaron's sign is seen in:: (A) Chronic appendicitis, (B) Hiatus hernia, (C) Mediastinum emphysema, (D) Acute appendicitis | Answer is D. Abdominal Examination Signs Sign Description Diagnosis Aaron Sign Pain or pressure in epigastrium or anterior chest with persistent firm pressure applied to McBurney's point. Acute appendicitis Bassler Sign Sharp pain created by compressing appendix between abdominal wall and iliacus Chronic appendicitis B... | |
After application of one stimulus, the time period in which the second stronger stimuli can from an impulse is called: (A) Absolute refractory period, (B) Relative refraction period, (C) Latent refractory period, (D) Local response | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Relative refraction period(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.90)Absolute refractory period - No stimulus, no matter how strong, will not excite the nerve during absolute refractory periodRelative refractory period - Stronger than normal stimulus (suprathreshold stimulus) produces action potential in relative... | |
Under which level of prevention should sentinel surveillance be categorised: (A) Primordial prevention, (B) Primary prevention, (C) Secondary prevention, (D) Teiary prevention | Answer is C. Sentinel surveillance is a method for identifying the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified cases. it estimates disease prevalence in the total population. Repoing biases are minimised. It detects missing cases; so it comes under secondary prevention. Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and... |
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