instruction stringlengths 29 1.82k | input stringclasses 1
value | output stringlengths 14 22.5k |
|---|---|---|
The ratio of the median lethal dose of the median effective dose is the: (A) Morbidity index, (B) Moratality index, (C) Anesthetic ratio, (D) Therapeutic index | Answer is D. None | |
Higher auditory centre determines:: (A) Sound frequency, (B) Loudness, (C) Speech discrimination, (D) Sound localization | Answer is D. Sound localization Sound localization in horizontal plane depends on 2 things: 1. the time lag between the entry of sound into one ear and its entry into the opposite ear, and 2.difference in intensities between the sound in the two ears The detectable time difference is said to be the most impoant factor ... | |
1st Permanent teeth to appear ______________: (A) Molor, (B) Premolor, (C) Incisor, (D) Cannine | Answer is A. Permanent teeth begin to come in around the age of 6. In some children, the first permanentmolars are the first to emerge; in others, the incisors are the first to emerge. By the age of 13, most of the 28 permanent teeth will be in place. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | |
An infant present with hypotonia and hyporeflexia with significant prenatal history of polyhydraminos and decreased fetal movements. What do you suspect?: (A) Spinal muscular atrophy, (B) Classical myotonic dystrophy, (C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy, (D) Emery-Dreifuss syndrome | Answer is A. Among the given options, only spinal muscular atrophy presents in infancy and the rest in late childhood. Spinal Muscular atrophy (SMA) It is a degenerative disease of motor neurons, caused by the mutation of SMN gene with autosomal-recessive inheritance. Clinical features: Usually stas in infancy with hyp... | |
Pharmacokinetics is-: (A) Study of drug movement in the body, (B) Study of drug effects, (C) Study of drug responses, governed by heredity', (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Study of drug movement in the body Pharmakokineticso Pharmakokinetics is the quantitative study of drug movement, in through and out of the body,o That means, it is the study of the effect of body on the drug.o So, it is also known as ADME study as it deals with Absorption, Distribution, ... | |
Korner's septum is seen in -: (A) Petrosquamous suture, (B) Temporosquamous suture, (C) Petromastoid suture, (D) Frontozygomatic suture | Answer is A. The petrosquamous suture may persist as a bony plate - the Korners septum. | |
What is the inheritance pattern of Alport syndrome: (A) Autosomal dominant, (B) Autosomal recessive, (C) X linked dominant, (D) X linked recessive | Answer is C. All of the above inheritance pattern is seen, but if we have to choose one, it is X linked dominant pattern. Because it is the most common inheritance pattern. | |
A 3 year old child comes with complaint of limp diagnosis is: (A) Septic Arhritis, (B) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, (C) Pehe's disease, (D) DDH | Answer is A. .Septic ahritis, also known as jointinfection or infectious ahritis, is the invasion of a joint by an infectious agent resulting in joint inflammation. Symptoms typically include redness, heat and pain in a single jointassociated with a decreased ability to move the joint. | |
Which of the following is not a labile cell: (A) Bone marrow, (B) Epidermal cells, (C) Small intestine mucosa, (D) Hepatocytes | Answer is D. Ref Robbins 8/e p81-84; 9/e p101 Liable cells Rapid rate of replication Skin GIT,oral cavity Permanent cells Cannot divide in postnatal life Neurones , skeleton muscles | |
Pudendal nerve block involves?: (A) LI L2 L3, (B) L3 L4 L5, (C) SI S2 S3, (D) S2 S3 S4 | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) S2 S3 S4REF: Morgan 3rd ed p. 331. Essentials of Pain Management - Nalini Vadivelu, Richard D. Urman, Roberta L. Hines Page 428, Grant's atlas of anatomy - Page 270"Pudendal nerve block involves S2 S3 S4"The pudendal nerve innervates the lower vagina, perineum, and vulva. Block of this nerve ca... | |
Hemianopia cortical blindness, amnesia and thalamic pain are associated with the occlusion of -: (A) Anterior cerebral artery, (B) Middle cerebral artery, (C) Posterior cerebral artery, (D) Basilar artery | Answer is C. None | |
Maximum velocity of conduction is seen in?: (A) SA node, (B) AV node, (C) Bundle of HIS, (D) Purkinje fibers | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) Purkinje fibersREF: Guyton's physiology 22nd edition page 105Velocity of Signal Conduction in Cardiac Muscle:The velocity of conduction of the excitatory action potential signal along both atrial and ventricular muscle fibers is about 0.3 to 0.5 m/sec, or about 1/250 the velocity in very large ... | |
Deep inguinal ring is a defect in aponeurosis of:: (A) External oblique muscle of abdomen, (B) Internal oblique muscle of abdomen, (C) Transverse abdominis muscle, (D) Transversalis fascia | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Transversalis fasciaRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 955* Deep inguinal ring is the opening in the transversalis fascia through which the ductus deferens and gonadal vessels (or round ligament in the female) enter the inguinal canal.* Located midway between anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tub... | |
All are ECG changes in hypokalemia, except: (A) U wave, (B) ST segment sagging, (C) T-wave flattening or inversion, (D) QT interval prolongation | Answer is D. None | |
320 IPC is for –: (A) Defines hurt, (B) Defines murder, (C) Attempt to murder, (D) Defines grievous hurt | Answer is D. According to sec. 320 IPC any of following injuries are grievous. Emasculation Permanent privation of sight of either eye Permanent privation of hearing of either ear Privation of any member or joint Destruction or permanent impairing of power of any member or joint Permanent disfiguration of head or face ... | |
A patient with alkaline urine which is cloudy with plenty of pus cells is suffering from infection with ?: (A) E. coli, (B) Proteus, (C) T.B., (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proteus | |
Which of the following is a mydriatic drug with longest duration of action: (A) Cyclopentolate, (B) Tropicamide, (C) Homatropine, (D) Atropine | Answer is D. Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed: Pg no:152 Tropicamide is the shoest acting, so very commonly used for fundoscopy atropine is the longest acting - acts for 1 week not commonly used for adults, used only for children for fundoscopy - 1% atropine ointment | |
Granuloma is pathological feature of all of the following types of vasculitis, EXCEPT:: (A) Giant cell aeritis, (B) Microscopic polyangiitis, (C) Wegener's granulomatosis, (D) Churg strauss disease | Answer is B. In microscopic polyangiitis, granulomas does not appear. Histologically it is characterized by the presence of segmental fibrinoid necrosis initially associated with neutrophilic infiltration and followed by monocyte, macrophage and lymphocyte. Giant cell aeritis is a focal, chronic, granulomatous inflamma... | |
Which nerve pierces the thyroid gland?: (A) Superior laryngeal nerve, (B) Inferior laryngeal nerve, (C) Recurrent laryngeal nerve, (D) Posterior laryngeal nerve | Answer is C. Ans. C Recurrent laryngeal nerveRef: BDC, Vol: 3 pg. 171, 172,173, 176.* It is recurrent laryngeal nerve that pierces the thyroid gland.Must know about Thyroid* The gland consists of 2 lobes that are joined to each other by the isthmus* The gland extends against vertebrae C5, C6, C7 and T1* It weighs about... | |
Which of the following is false regarding brain abscess: (A) Most common source of infection is by direct spread from a contiguous cranial site of infection, such as paranasal sinusitis, otitis media, mastoiditis, or dental infection, (B) Hematogenous abscesses are often multiple, and multiple abscesses often (50%) hav... | Answer is D. Approximately one-third of brain abscesses are associated with otitis media and mastoiditis, often with an associated cholesteatoma. Otogenic abscesses occur predominantly in the temporal lobe (55-75%) and cerebellum (20-30%). In some series, up to 90% of cerebellar abscesses are otogenic. Abscesses that d... | |
Retention of mature neutrophils in bone marrow is known as:: (A) Myelokathesis., (B) Myelocytosis, (C) Leukocytosis, (D) Leukemia | Answer is A. None | |
Feces are disinfected best by ?: (A) 1% formaldehyde, (B) 5% cresol, (C) 5% phenol, (D) Isopropyl alcohol | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5% cresol "The most effective disinfectant for general use is a coal-tar disinfectant with a Rideal-Walker (RW) coefficient of 10 or more such as cresol". | |
Which of the following is true about splenic aery ?: (A) Smaller than left gastric aery, (B) Gives sho gastric aeries along the fundus, (C) Curves around the fundus, (D) Arises from abdominal aoa | Answer is B. Splenic aery branches from the celiac aery and follows a course superior to pancreas. Splenic aery gives off branches to the stomach and pancreas before reaching the spleen. Sho gastric aery is through the upper pa of greater curvature of stomach and fundus of the stomach. Some other branches are: Branch t... | |
Closure of neural tube begins at which of the following levels:: (A) Cervical region, (B) Thoracic region, (C) Cephalic end, (D) Caudal end | Answer is A. Closure of neural groove into neural tube begins in cervical region(5th somite) and proceeds cranially and caudally in a bidirectional manner. But according to latest concept it has been postulated that closure begins at multiple sites and proceeds simultaneously. | |
Which of the following type of necrosis is most commonly associated with ischemic injury:: (A) Coagulative necrosis, (B) Casseous necrosis, (C) Liquifactive necrosis, (D) Fat necrosis | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Coagulative necrosisRef. Robbiti's pathology 9th ed. /41-43, 50COAGULATIVE NECROSIS* This pattern of necrosis is typically seen in hypoxic environments, such as infarction.* Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in tissues such as the kidney, heart and adrenal glands.* Severe ischemia most commonl... | |
Von Gierkes disease is due to deficiency of?: (A) Branching enzyme, (B) Debranching enzyme, (C) Phosphorylase, (D) Glucose 6 phosphatase | Answer is D. None | |
Acetyl CoA is produced from various reactions in the body. Acetyl coA can be directly conveed to all, EXCEPT:: (A) Glucose, (B) Fatty acids, (C) Cholesterol, (D) Ketone bodies | Answer is A. Acetyl CoA is formed from glucose. Following are the fate of Acetyl CoA after its formation: Oxidation in TCA cycle to form CO2 AND H2O Cholesterol biosynthesis Ketogenesis Fatty acid synthesis Acetylation reactions (Detoxication) Formation of acetyl choline Melatonin synthesis Ref: Textbook of Medical Bio... | |
True about adenocarcinoma of lung-: (A) More common in female, (B) Smoking is not associated with, (C) Central cavitations, (D) Upper lobe involvement is most common | Answer is A. Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.500 Adenocarcinoma: Adenocarcinoma, also called peripheral carcinoma due to its location and scar carcinoma due to its association with areas of chronic scarring,is the most common bronchogenic carcinoma in women and isslow-growing. Recent estimat... | |
Potassium-sparing diuretics are all except:: (A) Spironolactone, (B) Triamterene, (C) Amiloride, (D) Ethacrynic acid | Answer is D. classification: High efficacy diuretics - Furosemide, Bumetanide, Torasemide Medium efficacy( inhibit Na-Cl sympo ) - Thiazides ( Hydrochlorothiazide, Benzthiazide, Hydroflumethiazide, Clopamide ), Thiazide-like (Indapamide, Xipamide, Metolazone) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - Acetazolamide Potassium-spar... | |
Metastatic calcification is most commonly seen in: (A) Cornea, (B) Extensor tendons, (C) Brain, (D) Renal tubules | Answer is D. Metastatic calcification may occur in normal tissues whenever there is hypercalcemia. Metastatic calcification may occur widely throughout the body but principally affects the interstitial tissues of the gastric mucosa, kidneys, lungs, systemic aeries, and pulmonary veinsReference: Robbins and Cotran Patho... | |
All are therapeutic role of recording base, except?: (A) Establishment of VDR, (B) Establishment of VDO, (C) For chewcking under/overextended borders of final impression, (D) Determination & recording of CR | Answer is C. None | |
A 29-year-old female diagnosed with AIDS has been suffering from a progressive blurring of vision in her right eye. On fundoscopic examination, a small white opaque lesion is noted on the retina of her right eye. Most appropriate therapy for this patient?: (A) Acyclovir, (B) Amantadine, (C) Flucytosine, (D) Ganciclovir | Answer is D. This is the history of retinitis caused by CMV. CMV belongs to herpes group of viruses. It is also called as HSV5. The site of latent infection is the kidney and the salivary glands. This virus is the most common cause of oppounistic infection after solid-organ transplant and is also the most common cause ... | |
A diabetic with HbA1c of 11% will requires all of management except?: (A) Off loading, (B) Debridement, (C) Antiseptic agent dressings, (D) Antibiotics | Answer is C. Consensus statement from the ADA identifies six intervention with demonstrated efficacy in diabetic foot wounds : off-loading debridement, wound dressings, appropriate use of antibiotics, revascularization, and limited amputation. Off-loading is the complete avoidance of weight bearing on the ulcer, which ... | |
Puerperium is the period:: (A) 6 wks. following delivery, (B) 3 wks. following delivery, (C) 1 wk. following delivery, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans. A. 6wks following deliveryPuerperium begins as soon as the placenta is expelled and lasts for approximately 6wks when the uterus becomes regressed almost to the nonpregnant size. | |
Erythema multiforme Is most often related to: (A) Herpes zoster infection, (B) Herpes simplex infection, (C) Molluscurn contagiosum infection, (D) Human papillorna virus infection | Answer is B. Erythema multiforme is associated with infections like herpes simplex virus mostly. And less commonly Mycoplasma pneumonia. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 186 | |
Not a tributary of Azygos Vein among the following is: (A) Lumbar Ascending vein, (B) Subcostal Vein, (C) Intercostolumbar azygos vein, (D) Right Bronchial Vein | Answer is C. 1. Formative tributaries of Azygos Vein are Lumbar Ascending vein, Subcostal Vein and lumbar azygos vein.
2. Right Bronchial Vein is the last tributary of Azygos Vein | |
A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of –: (A) 1000, (B) 2000, (C) 3000, (D) 5000 | Answer is C. Remember the following facts
A sub centre caters a population of - 5000 in general, 3000 in hilly, tribal & backward areas
A PHC caters a population of* - 30,000 in general, 20,000 in hilly, tribal & backward area.
A Community health centre caters a population of - 80,000 to 1.2 lakh.
A health assistant ... | |
Septal perforation is not seen in:: (A) Septal abscess, (B) Leprosy, (C) Rhinophyma, (D) Trauma | Answer is C. (c) Rhinophyma(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 1; 1150)Also known as potato nose Rhinophyma is due to hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands of the tip of nose. It does not involve the septum. | |
Which of the following cranial nerve nucleus is located deep to facial colliculus?(AIIMS May 2015, November 2014): (A) Abducent nerve, (B) Glossopharyngeal nerve, (C) Facial nerve, (D) Trigeminal nerve | Answer is A. Ans. a. Abducent nerve (Ref: Gray's anatomy 40/e p240; Netter Collection of Medical Illustrations 2013/Vol. 7/e p178) Abducent nerve nucleus is located deep to facial colliculus."Facial colliculus is situated in the pons. It overlies the abducent nucleus. The facial nerve originates from its nucleus and go... | |
The following ECG represents ?: (A) Rabbit ear pattern, (B) Delta wave, (C) P pulmonale, (D) P mitrale | Answer is D. The ECG represents P mitrale pattern which is seen in left atrial hyperophy. P- mitraleis Broad, notched/bifid ( M shaped) P wave in limb leads. Width of P wave > 2.5mmwith anotch in Lead II. ( increased duration > 0.12s) Seen in MS,MR and Systemic HTN. Rabbit ear pattern is seen in Bundle Branch Block Del... | |
Which of the following anticancer drugs acts by hypomethylation?: (A) Gemcitabine, (B) 5-FU, (C) Decitabine, (D) Homoharringotonine | Answer is C. Decitabine is used to treat myelodysplastic syndromes (diseases of the blood and bone marrow; MDS) and ceain types of anemia. This medicine is an antineoplastic (cancer medicine) . Mechanism of Action: Inhibits DNA methyltransferase, causing hypomethylation of DNA & cellular differentiation or apoptosis Ph... | |
All are true regarding cluster headache except:: (A) Most common in male, (B) Periorbital in location, (C) Bilateral, (D) Symptoms seen in early hours of the morning | Answer is C. Ans: C i.e. Bilateral Cluster headache Cluster headache shows a 5:1 predominance of males and onset is usually in the third decade The characteristic presentation of cluster headache is with periodic, severe, unilateral periorbital pain accompanied by unilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion and conjunctiv... | |
All are true about scleroderma crisis except?: (A) Accelerated hypeension, (B) Onion skinning of renal vessels, (C) Anti - centromere antibody is a positive predictor of disease, (D) ACE inhibitors reduced moality rate | Answer is C. Scleroderma crisis occurs in 12% of cases with systemic sclerosis. It is characterised by accelerated hypeension and a rapid decline in kidney function. Histopathological examination shows arcuate aery intimal narrowing and medial proliferation. This is characteristically called onion skinning. Anti-U3-RNP... | |
True about congenital adrenal hyperplasia is all except: (A) Autosomal recessive disorder., (B) 11 - β Hydroxylase deficiency is most common., (C) Commonest cause of genital ambiguity at birth., (D) Hypoglycemia is seen. | Answer is B. 21 - Hydroxylase deficiency is most common. | |
Which of the following prevents aspiration?: (A) LMA, (B) Oropharyngeal airway, (C) Nasopharyngeal airway, (D) Proseal LMA | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Proseal LMA [Ref: Understanding Paediatric Anaesthesia Td/e p. 141A type of definite airwayDefinite airway is an airway that is adequately secured in trachea and it adequately protect the airway from aspiration.ProSeal (PLMA), a modification of Classic LMA, has a gastric drainage tube pla... | |
The following statements stand true for Mantoux test -: (A) Test is read before 48 hours, (B) 6-9 mm induaion shows maximum chances of developing Tb, (C) A positive test does not indicate that the person is suffering from disease, (D) New cases are more likely occur in tuberculin negative person than those who already ... | Answer is C. Test is read after 48 - 96 hours but 72 hours is ideal. Reactions exceeding 10 mm considered positive and between 6-9 considered doubtful. 92% of new cases occur in patients who are tuberculin reactors Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 195 | |
The following drugs can be used for the management of status asthmaticus EXCEPT: September 2012: (A) Magnesium sulphate, (B) Montelukast, (C) Coicosteroid, (D) Adrenaline | Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Montelukast | |
All are true about anthropometric measurements except:: (A) Birth weight triples by 1 year, (B) Skinfold thickness is measured in sub scapular region, (C) Weight is measured to the nearest 100 gram, (D) Standing height is about 1.7 cm less than recumbent length | Answer is D. d. Standing height is about 1.7cm less than recumbent length(Ref: Training Course on Child Growth Assessment WHO Child Growth Standards, 2008)If a child <2 years old, measure recumbent length.If>2 years age & able to stand, measure standing height.Standing height is about 0.7cm less than recumbent length. | |
Mrs. Katson 64-year-old obese woman with bilateral knee osteoahritis. She describes pain most days and limiting pain at least 2 days per week. She has tried activity modification (walking less) without success. All of the following therapies have been shown to be efficacious EXCEPT:: (A) Acetaminophen, (B) Glucocoicoid... | Answer is C. 1. Recent guidelines Does not recommend the use of glucosamine or chondroitin for OA. 2. Glucocoicoid injections are efficacious in OA, but response is variable. Glucocoicoid injections are useful to get patients over acute flares of pain and may be especially indicated if the patient has coexistent OA and... | |
Following test is known as:: (A) Finkelstein Test, (B) Tinel test, (C) Phalen's test, (D) Cozens test | Answer is A. Ans. A. Finkelstein testFinkelstein test is performed to make a diagnosis of Dequervain's disease, which is tenosynovitis of Abductor polices longus (APL) and extensor polices brevis (EPB), which make the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. | |
A patient presented with multiple vesicles over the body with fish net like IgG deposition in the epidermis. Most likely diagnosis is –: (A) Pemphigus vulgaris, (B) Pemphigus folliaceous, (C) Dermatitis herpetiformis, (D) Bullous pemphigoid | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following doesn't elevate larynx?: (A) Sternohyoid, (B) Thyrohyoid, (C) Mylohyoid, (D) None | Answer is A. The sternohyoid depresses the hyoid bone following its elevation during swallowing. The mylohyoid muscle elevates the hyoid bone, helps in depressing the mandible against resistance, and elevates floor of mouth and hence the tongue during the first stage of deglutition. The thyrohyoid depresses the hyoid d... | |
Non-visualisation of kidney in excretory urogram is seen in: (A) Duplication, (B) Renal vein thrombosis, (C) Hydronephrosis, (D) Hypoplasia | Answer is B. B i.e. Renal vein thrombosis - Nonvisualization of kidney (or absence of nephrogram) occurs in complete renal ischemia secondary to occlusion of main renal aery, (global absence) or focal renal infarction/ischemia secondary to focal aerial occlusion or renal vein thrombosisQ or space occupying lesions (seg... | |
True about vaccum extraction of fetus :
(A)Can be used in non dilated cervix
(B)Can be used in incompletely dilated cervix
(C)Used in Face presentation
(D)Applied 3cm post, to Anterior fontanel
(E)Applied 3cm ant. to posterior fontanel: (A) AB, (B) BE, (C) CA, (D) DB | Answer is B. The centre of the cup should be over the sagittal suture and about 3 cm in front of the posterior fontanel toward the face.
Anterior placement on the fetal cranium-near the anterior fontanel rather than over the occiput-will result in cervical spine extension unless the fetus is small'-
William's Obstetri... | |
Vidian neurectomy done in:: (A) Allergic rhinitis, (B) Vasomotor rhinitis, (C) Atrophic rhinitis, (D) Drug-induced rhinitis | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) Vasomotor rhinitisREF: P L Dhingra 4th edition page 160, 1810%2806%2900013-3/abstractVidian neurectomy was first described for the treatment of intractable vasomotor rhinitisin the 1960s but fell into disrepute because of the recurrence of symptoms and significant complications. With subsequent... | |
Capnography is useful for –: (A) Determining Vaporizer malfunction or contamination, (B) Determining circuit hypoxia, (C) Determining the appropriate placement of endotracheal tube, (D) Detecting concentration of oxygen in the anesthetic circuit. | Answer is C. Uses of Capnography
It is the surest confirmatory sign of correct intubation in the trachea. Incorrect position of the tube in oesophagus instead of the trachea (oesophagal intubation) will yield ETCO2 = 0.
Intraoperative displacement of endotracheal tube → ETCO2 will become zero.
Obstruction or disconnec... | |
All are true statements about plant irritants except:: (A) Abrus ingestion resembles cobra snake bite., (B) Nux vomica contain strychnine., (C) Sui-picking involves abrus precatorius, (D) Cholera like action is produced by ricinus communis | Answer is A. Abrus injection (sui needle) resembles viper snake bite. Ricinius communis produces diarrhea (cholera like action). Nux vomica contains strychnine, brucine and loganin. | |
Caspases are involved in -: (A) Apoptosis, (B) Pinocytosis, (C) Cell signaling, (D) Cell injury | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Apoptosis o Caspases and endonuclease cause chromatin fragmentation in apoptosis,o They are inactive, so first they should be activated,o Cytochrome 'c' binds with Apaf-1 and this complex activates caspases.o Caspases cause fragmentation of chromatin and also activate endonuclease.About o... | |
NOT true about LENS among the following is: (A) Pre - equatorial are of lens capsule is the thickest part measuring 22-23 μm, (B) Anterior epithelium is made up of single layer of Cuboidal Cells, (C) Posterior epithelium in postnatal life is made up of Cuboidal epithelium, (D) Relative dehydration in Cortex is due to a... | Answer is C. Lens has no posterior epithelium in postnatal life. | |
The sarcoma which has equal propensity for maxilla and mandible is:: (A) Fibrosarcoma, (B) Osteosarcoma, (C) Ewing’s sarcoma, (D) Chondrosarcoma | Answer is D. Chondrosarcomas are unusual in the facial bones, accounting for about 10% of all cases. They occur in the mandible and maxilla with equal frequency. Maxillary lesions typically occur in the anterior region in areas where cartilaginous tissues may be present in the maxilla. Mandibular lesions occur in the c... | |
Cholinomimetics are useful in all of the following conditions except:: (A) Glaucoma, (B) Myasthenia gravis, (C) Post operative atony of bladder, (D) Partial heart block | Answer is D. Ans. (D) Partial heart block(Ref: KDT 8th/e p119/122)Cholinergic drugs decrease the conduction from atrium to ventricle, thus should be avoided in partial heart blockCholinergic drugs like pilocarpine and physostigmine are used in angle closure glaucomaNeostigmine (acetylcholineesterase inhibitor, a cholin... | |
A patient has prosthetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible is -: (A) Staph. aureus, (B) Strept. viridans, (C) Staph. epidermidis, (D) HACEK | Answer is C. Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis upto 12 months is coagulase-negative staphylococci (staph. epidermidis). | |
A community in sub-African area has a weekly repo of 50-60 malarial cases, all in children. No adult case has been repoed. This week count of cases is 55. What kind of disease it would be classified as?: (A) Epidemic, (B) HoloEndemic, (C) Hyperendemic, (D) Outbreak | Answer is B. The above given case is an example of endemic disease as the no. of cases are still between the usually expected cases in an area and as only children are affected it is a holoendemic disease. Hyperendemic disease Refers to endemic disease affecting all age groups. It would have been labelled as epidemic i... | |
A 67-year-old male is found on rectal examination to have a single, hard, irregular nodule within his prostate. A biopsy of this lesion reveals the presence of small glands lined by a single layer of cells with enlarged, prominent nucleoli. From what poion of the prostate did this lesion most likely originate?: (A) Ant... | Answer is C. Knowledge of the anatomic division of the prostate is impoant in understanding the locations of the major pathologic diseases of the prostate. Most adenocarcinomas of the prostate originate in the peripheral zone, while hyperplastic nodules originate in the transition zone. This anatomic differentiation is... | |
Enzymes concerned with the citric acid cycle are found in the:: (A) Nucleus, (B) Ribosomes, (C) Mitochondria, (D) Nonparticulate cytoplasm | Answer is C. None | |
What is true regarding congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis: (A) More common in girls, (B) Hypochloremic alkalosis, (C) Hellers myotomy is the procedure of choice, (D) Most often manifests at bih | Answer is B. Congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis is more common in first born males.Symptoms usually sta after 3 weeks of age.Non-bilious vomiting is the initial symptom. After vomiting, the infant becomes hungry and wants to feed again.The metabolic disturbance is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.Clinical diagnosi... | |
Most common symptom seen in pulmonary tuberculosis is: (A) Chest pain, (B) Breathlessness, (C) High temperature, (D) Chronic Cough | Answer is D. (D) Chronic Cough # Constitutional symptoms associated with Pulmonary tuberculsosi include Chronic productive cough for atleast 2 or 3 weeks Low grade evening raise of temperature Loss of apetite Significant weight loss Night cries in bone and joint tuberculosis | |
The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is:: (A) Trauma, (B) Trauma, (C) Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis., (D) Interstitial nephritis | Answer is C. Answer is C (Vesicouretrial reflux induced pyelonephritis): Renal scarring is most commonly a result of chronic pyogenic infection of the kidney or chronic pyelonephritis. Chronic pyelonephritis occurs only in patients with major anatomic abnormalities, such as obstructive uropathy, struvite calculi, or, m... | |
Glucose is reabsorbed in which pa ?: (A) Early PCT, (B) Henle loop, (C) Collecting duct, (D) Distal convoluted tubule | Answer is A. option a - 100% Glucose is reabsorbed from PCT by secondary active transpo, with the help of SGLT (Sodium Dependent Glucose Transpoer). | |
Wide-split second hea sound is seen in -: (A) ASD, (B) LBBB, (C) PDA, (D) MR | Answer is A. The second hea sound is widelysplit and is relatively fixed in relation to respiration. A mid-diastolicrumbling murmur, loudest at the fouh intercostal space and alongthe left sternal border, reflects increased flow across the tricuspidvalve. In ostium primum ASD, an apical holosystolic murmur indicatesass... | |
Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all of the following except: September 2007: (A) Lecithin:sphingomyelinn ratio, (B) Foam stability index, (C) Maternal alpha feto-protein level, (D) Amniotic fluid phosphatidylcholine level | Answer is C. Ans. C: Maternal alpha feto-protein level The two earliest tests that were introduced in the 1970's to assess fetal lung maturity were: The lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio Detection of phosphatidylyglycerol Originally, both of these tests were performed by thin-layer chromatography (TLC), a technique th... | |
Health promotion is which level of prevention: (A) Primordial, (B) Primary, (C) Secondary, (D) Tertiary | Answer is B. Primary Level - Health Promotion and Specific Protection.
Secondary Level - Early Diagnosis and Treatment.
Tertiary Level - Disability Limitation and Rehabilitation. | |
Miller's acidogenic theory of caries is also known as:: (A) Proteolytic theory., (B) Chemioparasitic theory., (C) Proteolytic chelation theory., (D) None of the above. | Answer is B. None | |
Sensory nerve supply of larynx below the level of vocal cord is: (A) External branch of superior laryngeal nerve, (B) Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve, (C) Recurrent laryngeal nerve, (D) Inferior pharyngeal nerve | Answer is C. NERVE SUPPLY OF LARYNX Motor:- All the muscles which move the vocal cord (abductors, adductors or tensors) are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except the cricothyroid muscle. The latter receives its innervation from the external laryngeal nerve-- a branch of superior laryngeal nerve. Sensory:- Ab... | |
Narrowing of periodontal ligament in labially placed mandibular canine with age is due to:: (A) Due to deposition of cementum and bone, (B) Down growths of gingival epithelium, (C) Gingival cysts formed from cell rests, (D) Reversal of function of horizontal and oblique fibres | Answer is A. None | |
The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: (A) Quinidine, (B) Lignocaine, (C) Disopyramide, (D) Procainamide | Answer is C. Disopyramide It is a quinidine like Class IA drug that has prominent cardiac depressant and anticholinergic actions, but no a adrenergic blocking propey. Disopyramide usually has no effect on sinus rate because of opposing direct depressant and antivagal actions. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-530 | |
Most potent mineralocoicoid is: (A) Aldosterone, (B) DOCA, (C) Fludrocoeisone, (D) Triamcinolone | Answer is A. Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocoicoid. Not used clinically because of the low oral bioavailability. most potent synthetic or man made is- fludrocoisone- having more mineralocoicoid activity (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 282) | |
Which of the following is the most abundant diet of animal origin?: (A) Phospholipids, (B) Cholesterol esters, (C) Cholesterol, (D) Triglycerides | Answer is D. The triacylglycerols are esters of the trihydric alcohol glycerol and fatty acids and are available abundantly in animal diet Ref: Harper's Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 21; Lipids of Physiologic Significance | |
ulimia nervosa is assosiated with: (A) impulsive behaviour, (B) obesity, (C) metabolic syndrome, (D) amnorrhera | Answer is A. Bulimia nervosa * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Binge eating at least once a week for 3 months * Uses laxatives, diuretics, self-induced vomiting * Association= * Impulsive behaviors * increased i... | |
Ram Devi presented with generalized edema sweatingand flushing tachycardia and fever after bee sting. Thisis:: (A) T cell mediated cytotoxicity, (B) IgE mediated reaction, (C) IgG mediated reaction, (D) IgA mediated hypersensitivity reaction | Answer is B. . IgE mediated reaction | |
A 3-year-old child reports with fever. He has reddish
yellow ulcers of the facial mucosa and tongue. He is most
probably suffering from:: (A) Erosive lichen planus, (B) Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis, (C) ANUG, (D) Leukemia | Answer is B. None | |
Patient present with severe energy deficiency. Which of the following vitamin might be deficient in this patient?: (A) Pyridoxine, (B) Riboflavin, (C) Thiamin, (D) Folic acid | Answer is C. The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate, which plays a key role in energy metabolism of most cells, is paicularly impoant in tissues of the nervous system. In thiamine deficiency, the activity of these two dehydrogenase-catalyzed reactions is decreased, resulting in a decreased produc... | |
Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in: (A) SLE, (B) Rheumatic fever, (C) Hypeension, (D) Diabetes mellitus | Answer is A. Raynaud phenomenon results from exaggerated vasoconstrictionof aeries and aerioles in the extremities, paicularlythe fingers and toes, but also sometimes the nose,earlobes, or lips. The restricted blood flow induces paroxysmalpallor or cyanosis; involved digits characteristicallyshow "red-white-and-blue" c... | |
Which of the following is a ground substance of pulp: (A) Glycosaminoglycans, (B) Chondroitin sulfate, (C) Proteoglycans, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
Primary impact injury to brain: DNB 10: (A) Concussion, (B) Cerebral edema, (C) Hypoxic injury, (D) Intracerebral hematoma | Answer is A. Ans. Concussion | |
A 55-year old woman was found to have Ca cervix, FIGO stage 2-3, locally advanced. What would be the management: (A) Surgery plus chemotherapy, (B) Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy, (C) Chemotherapy, (D) Radiotherapy plus HPV vaccine | Answer is B. Ans. b. Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy Radiotherapy was cornerstone of advanced stage CA cervix management. Current evidence indicates that "concurrent chemotherapy" significantly improves overall and disease free survival of women with advanced cervical cancer. Thus most patients with Stage JIB to IVA are... | |
An appendicular fistula is least likely to heal if ?: (A) The stump was sutured with vicryl, (B) There is stenosis/narrowing of the sigmoid colon, (C) Superadded infection, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., There is stenosis/narrowing of the sigmoid colon | |
All of the following are causes of acalculous cholecystitis except:: (A) Bile duct stricture, (B) Schistosoma, (C) Prolonged TPN, (D) Major operations | Answer is B. Causes of Acalculous Cholecystitis Elderly and critically ill patients after trauma Burns Longterm TPN Major operation (abdominal aneurysm repair and cardiopulmonary bypassQ) Diabetes mellitus | |
Fibroid causes all the following Except: (A) Infeility, (B) Amenorrhea, (C) Pelvic mass, (D) Menorrhagia | Answer is B. Symptoms of fibroid are:Menorrhagia, polymenorrhea and metrorrhagia Infeility, recurrent aboionsPainAbdominal lumpPressure symptomsVaginal dischargeAround 50% women are asymptomatic.Ref: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynaecology; Chapter 29; Benign diseases of the uterus | |
Which of the following is not a diarthrosis -: (A) Elbow joint, (B) Interphalangeal joint, (C) Skull sutures, (D) Hip joint | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Skull sutures Functional classification of joints (movement)o Joints can also be classified functionally according to the type and degree of movement they allow:Synarthrosis - Permits little or no mobility. Most synarthrosis joints are fibrous joints (e.g., skull sutures).Amphiarthrosis -... | |
Cryptomenorrhea occurs due to :: (A) Imperforate hymen, (B) Asherman's syndrome, (C) Mullerian agenesis, (D) All | Answer is A. Imperforate hymen | |
A 53-year-old man develops weakness, malaise, cough with bloody sputum and night sweats. A chest X-ray reveals numerous apical densities bilaterally, some of which are cavitary. Exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis was documented 20 years ago, and M. tuberculosis is identified in his sputum. Which of the following de... | Answer is C. Secondary (reactivation) tuberculosis occurs due to: Reactivation Fresh infection Secondary TB: characterized by the formation of granulomas and extensive tissue destruction (caseous necrosis). Mycobacteria typically spread to the apices of the lungs and produce large cavities, which are associated with he... | |
An infant presented with failure to thrive, stridor, otitis media and esophagitis. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Tracheoesophageal fistula, (B) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, (C) Duodenal atresia, (D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease | Answer is D. GERD
In infants presents with esophagitis, failure to thrive, obstructive apnea, stridor, otitis media, sinustis. | |
Anatomical snuff box contains:: (A) Axillary nerve, (B) Radial artery, (C) Brachial artery, (D) Ulnar artery | Answer is B. Ans. B Radial arteryRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. I pg. 22, 5th ed. pg. 102* The anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of extensor polloicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus.* It has the radial artery running in the floor of the snuffbox, and the radial nerve passing to the dorsum of the han... | |
Enterotoxigenic E. Coli causes:: (A) Haemolytic uremic syndrome, (B) Ischemic jejunitis, (C) Toxic shock syndrome, (D) Travellers diarrhea | Answer is D. Option 1 HUS By EHEC or Shigella dysenteriae type 1. Dissemination of toxin- Verocytotoxin or Shiga toxin to glomerular capillaries. Option 2 Ischemic jejunitis: Not caused by any pathogen. Due to local or systemic pathlogy Option 3 Toxic shock syndrome By Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. D... | |
All the following statements about purification of water are true except: (A) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water, (B) Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination, (C) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine, (D) Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube ... | Answer is B. None | |
CSF is partly absorbed by lymphatics around cranial nerves -: (A) I, II, VII, VIII, (B) I, II, VI, VII, (C) I, III, VII, VIII, (D) I, II, VI, VIII | Answer is A. CSF is absorbed through 3 ways:
Arachnoid villi and granulations (main)
Perineural lymphatics around 1st, 2nd, and 8th cranial nerves and
Veins related to spinal nerves. | |
Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is characterized by which of the following statements?: (A) It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old, (B) It is caused by a rhabdovirus, (C) The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus, (D) Affected persons respond to treatment with... | Answer is C. All of Koch's postulates have been verified for the relationship between infectious mononucleosis and Epstein-Barr virus, a herpesvirus. However, the relationship between this virus and Burkitt's lymphoma, sarcoid, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is less clear. Infectious mononucleosis is most commo... | |
Level of prolactin, above which is said to be hyperprolactinemia: (A) 50, (B) 100, (C) 150, (D) 200 | Answer is D. Ref. The Short Textbook of Pediatrics. Pg 754
A fact based question. Answer 200 | |
Section 174 Cr.P.C. deals with: (A) Inquest, (B) Inquiry, (C) Murder, (D) Medical negligence | Answer is A. Ans. a (Inquest). (Ref. Parikh, Textbook of FMT, 5th/5)INQUEST (legal or judicial inquiry to ascertain matter of fact). : Section 174 Cr.P.C. -# When a person dies it is necessary to determine the cause of death either natural or unnatural to meet with the requirement of law.# In forensic, an inquest gener... |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.