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Dangerous area of the eye is: (A) Retina, (B) Sclera, (C) Ciliary body, (D) Optic nerve | Answer is C. Any trauma to the ciliary body can cause sympathetic ophthalmitis ; hence it is considered the dengerous area of the eye | |
Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons found in:: (A) Gray matter of brain, (B) White matter of brain, (C) Gray matter of the spinal cord, (D) White matter of spinal cord | Answer is C. Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons found in the gray matter of the spinal cord. They receive axonal collaterals from nearby motor neurons; it inhibits the activity of the same or related adjacent motor neurons. This recurrent inhibition by the Renshaw cell facilitates and sharpens the activity of th... | |
Coronary ligaments of the knee joint connect ?: (A) Menisci to tibia, (B) Menisci to femur, (C) Lateral meniscus to capsule, (D) Anterior horns of both menisci | Answer is A. CORONARY LIGAMENT * Fibrous Capsule is attached to periphery of Menisci. * Connects the periphery of the menisci to the tibia * They are the poion of the capsule that is stressed in rotary movements of the knee ref : maheswari 9th ed | |
A 55-year-old obese woman complains of declining visual acuity. Funduscopic examination shows peripheral retinal microaneurysms. Urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria and 3+ glucosuria. Serum albumin is 3 g/dL, and serum cholesterol is 350 mg/dL. These clinicopathologic findings are best explained by which of the following... | Answer is A. - Given clinical features point towards nephropathy & retinopathy resulted as complication of type-2 DM - Type-2 diabetes mellitus results from complex interplay b/w Underlying insulin resistance in its metabolic target tissues (liver, skeletal muscle & adipose tissue) & Reduction in glucose-stimulated ins... | |
Thalidomide is useful in: March 2007: (A) Treatment of leprosy, (B) Treatment of type II lepra reaction, (C) Treatment of type I lepra reaction, (D) Treatment of neuritic leprosy | Answer is B. Ans. B: Treatment of type II lepra reaction Thalidomide is a sedative-hypnotic, and multiple myeloma medication. The drug is a potent teratogen. Thalidomide was chiefly sold during the late 1950s and early 1960s to pregnant women, as an antiemetic to combat morning sickness. Children were born with severe ... | |
Transitional cell carcinoma bladder caused by: (A) Schistosomiasis, (B) Ascariasis, (C) Malaria, (D) None | Answer is A. Risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder -
1. Smoking → Major etiological factor.
2. Occupational exposure to chemicals → Nephthylamine benzidine, aniline dyes, acrolein.
3. Schistosoma haematobium (Bilharziasis) → It is a risk factor for both TCC & SCC.
4. Drugs → Phenacetin
5. C... | |
Krogmans table system is used for ?: (A) Age determination, (B) Sex determination, (C) Dental examination, (D) Calculating estimated height | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sex determination Krogman's table is used to determine the percentage of accuracy in sex determination from isolated skeletal pas.According to Krogman, the degree of accuracy in sexing adult skeletal remains is :-Entire skeleton - 100 %Pelvis alone 95 % | |
When gold fused with porcelain is fired at very high temperature, greenish discoloration of cervical margin is due to:: (A) High firing temperature, (B) Disintegration of opaque layer, (C) Presence of silver, (D) Formation of excess oxides | Answer is C. Discoloration of the porcelain near the cervical region of the metal-ceramic prosthesis has been reported to occur when a silver-containing alloy is used as the substrate. Color changes included green, yellow-green, yellow-orange, orange and brown hues. This discoloration phenomenon has generally been cal... | |
Which glaucoma is associated with cataract: (A) Phacomorphic glaucoma, (B) Neovascular glaucoma, (C) Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma, (D) Buphthalmos | Answer is A. Answer- A. Phacomorphic glaucomaPhocomorphic glaucoma :- It occurs in intumescent stage of cataract. The swollen lens leads to relative pupillary block (pupillary block glaucoma), iris bombe and angle closure. It is a type of angle closure glaucoma and anterior chamber is very shallow. | |
Sideroblastic anemia is caused by all except ?: (A) Collegen vascular disease, (B) Iron deficit, (C) Lead poisoning, (D) Cutaneous porphyria | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iron deficit Causes of sideroblastic anemia Hereditary o X-linked recessive sideroblastic anemia. Acquired Hematological Drugs & chemicals Others Myelofibrosis INH RA Myelodysplasia Penicillamine Myxedema Acute leukemia Lead SLE Lymphoma Alcohol Iron overload Myeloma Pyridoxin dificiency ... | |
Treatment of diabetic retinopathy neovascularisation is/are -: (A) Retinal laser photocoagulation, (B) Pars plana vitrectomy, (C) Phacoemulsion, (D) LASIK | Answer is A. Retinal laser photocoagulation is the ideal treatment for treating diabetic Retinopathy neovascularization. Ref AK khurana 6/e p 282 | |
Noninfective cause of genital ulcer is -: (A) Behcets disease, (B) Hansen's disease, (C) Ramsons's disease, (D) Syphilis | Answer is A. Bechet's disease is characterized by a triad of recurrent oral ulcers (aphthous ulcers), recurrent genital ulcers and uveitis.
Important non-infective causes of genital ulcer are Trauma, Bechet's disease, Stevens-Johnson syndrome and carcinoma. | |
45-year-old female has history of slip in bathroom complaints of pain right hip, tenderness in scarpas triangle and normal X-ray. Next investigation is:: (A) USG guided aspiration, (B) CT, (C) MRI, (D) Bone scan | Answer is C. (c)This case refers to post-traumatic pain in proximal femur, scarpas triangle refers to area of femoral neck and for stress or occult fracture of neck femur where traumatic marrow edema is seen - MRI is investigation of choice. | |
A 9 years old child presented to OPD with complaints of high grade fever, vomiting, one episode of seizure. CSF examination was done and Gram staining of the culture showed the following finding. What is the probable causative agent: (A) Haemophilus influenzae, (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae, (C) Neisseria meningitidis, ... | Answer is B. * Gram staining clearly shows Gram positive cocci (violet/purple coloured) in pairs - classical image of Streptococcus pneumoniae or pneumococci. Infections caused by Pneumococcus: - * Pneumonia * Meningitis * Otitis media * Bacteremia * Septic ahritis * It is the most impoant cause of infections in splene... | |
CVEK pulpotomy is not known by the name:: (A) Partial pulpotomy., (B) Cervical pulpotomy., (C) Pulp curettage., (D) None | Answer is D. None | |
Most common site of glioblastoma multiforme is-: (A) CP angle, (B) Frontal lobe, (C) Brainstem, (D) Occipital lobe | Answer is B. Ans. 'b' i.e., Frontal lobe A glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is a type of brain tumour called an astrocytoma. Astrocytomas are some of the most common brain tumours. They develop from the highly vascular and quickly reproducing astrocyte cells in our brain and are often malignant. | |
Pataus syndrome due to -: (A) Trisomy 21, (B) Trisomy 18, (C) 18 P, (D) Trisomy 13 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Trisomy 13 Trisomv 13 (Patau's syndrome)Head & FaceChestExtremitieso Scalp defects (cutis aplasia )o Congenital heart diseaseo Overlapping of finger &o Microphthalmia, comeal(VSD, PDA, ASD in 80%)toes (Clinodactyly, polydactyly)abnormalitieso Thin posterior ribs (missingo Hypoplastic & hy... | |
"Opioids" differ from "opiates" in that they are:: (A) More powerful in action, (B) More long acting, (C) Synthetic derivatives, (D) Derived directly from opium | Answer is C. Opiods are synthetics while opiates are semi synthetic. Opiods include pethidine,fentanyl,methadone,dextropropoxyphene,tramadol. Semisynthetic opiates include heroin ,pholcodine,ethylmorphine . Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | |
Beta HCG is secreted by: (A) Ovary, (B) Pituitary, (C) Corpus luteum, (D) Placenta | Answer is D. In molecular biology, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the syncytiotrophoblast, a component of the feilized egg, after conception. Following implantation, the syncytiotrophoblast gives rise to the placenta.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-414 | |
An eight year old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is -: (A) Ewing's sarcoma, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Histiocytosis, (D) Metast... | Answer is C. Solitary collapsed vertebra (vertebra plana) with preserved disc spaces in a child suggests the diagnosis of Eosinophilic granuloma (a type of Histiocytosis). | |
Persistent marrow aplasia is caused by which hepatitis virus: September 2006: (A) HAV, (B) HBV, (C) HCV, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D: None of the abovePersistent marrow aplasia appear after a variety of viral infections, most commonly viral hepatitis of the non-A, non-B, non-C, non-G type, which is associated with 5% to 10% of cases. | |
True regarding secular trends-: (A) Changes in disease pattern in terms of months, (B) Changes in disease pattern seasonally, (C) Changes in disease pattern over a sho period of timer, (D) Changes in disease pattern over a long period of time | Answer is D. .long term or secular trends implies changes in the occurrence of disease over a long period of time.generally several years or decades.a secular trend implies a consistent tendency to change in a paicular direction or a definitive movement in one direction. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 63 | |
Alagille syndrome is: (A) Bile duct paucity, (B) IHBR dilation, (C) PBC, (D) PSC | Answer is A. Alagille syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder affecting liver,hea,kidney,etc.Liver biopsy in Alagille syndrome shows too few bile ducts(bile duct paucity) or in some cases,the complete absence of bile ducts(biliary atresia).Bile duct paucity results in reduced absorption of fat & vitamins(A,D... | |
Griesofulvin is not useful in one of the following: (A) Tinea capitis, (B) Tinea Cruris, (C) Tinea versicolor, (D) Tinea pedis | Answer is C. Refer CMDT 2010/110 *griesofulvin is used for dermatophytoses including Tinea capitis, Tinea cruris, Tinea pedis, Tinea ungunum and Tinea corporis *Tinea versicolor is caused by yeast Malassezia furfur .it is treated by selenium sulfide AMD ketaconazole shampoo | |
Human is dead end host for?: (A) Malaria, (B) Typhoid, (C) Bubonic plague, (D) Filaria | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bubonic plague A dead end host is an infected person from which infectious agents are not transmitted to other susceptible host or from which a parasite cannot escape to continue its life cycle. The diseases in which human acts as dead end host, i.e., dead and disease : ? Japanies encepha... | |
Mucin secreting Goblet cells are present in all of the following structures, EXCEPT:: (A) Small intestine, (B) Large intestine, (C) Esophagus, (D) Stomach | Answer is D. The classic example of a unicellular, exocrine gland is the goblet cell, found scattered among epithelial cells lining the trachea, small intestine, and colon. The cell has a narrow base and an expanded apex filled with secretory granules. These cells secrete mucin. Goblet cells are not found in the normal... | |
Which of the following is the causative agent of a variety of cutaneous warts (plantar, common, and flat) and is associated with cervical neoplasia?: (A) Human papillomavirus, (B) West Nile virus, (C) Tick-borne encephalitis virus, (D) Polyomavirus | Answer is A. Human papillomaviruses (HPV) are the causative agents of cutaneous warts as well as proliferative squamous lesions of mucosal surfaces. Although most infections by human papillomavirus are benign, some undergo malignant transformation into in situ and invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Both HPV and polyomav... | |
Most commonly injured tarsal bone-: (A) Talus, (B) Navicular, (C) Cunieform, (D) Calcaneum | Answer is D. *Calcaneum is the most commonly fractured tarsal bone. ref : maheswari 9th ed | |
Who is the Father of Public Health?: (A) Cholera, (B) John snow, (C) Edward Jenner, (D) Louis Pasteur | Answer is A. Father of Modern medicine - Hippocrates Father of Indian medicine - Charaka Father of Modern surgery - Ambroise pare Father of Indian surgery - Sushruta Father of Epidemiology/ Modern Epidemiology - John Snow Father of Bacteriology - Louis Pasteur Father of Genetics - Mendel Father of Public Health - Chole... | |
Which of the following HLA types is associated with IDDM?: (A) HLA DR3, DR4, (B) HLA B27, (C) HLA B47, (D) HLA DR2 | Answer is A. Major susceptibility gene for Type 1 DM is located in the HLA region on chromosome 6. 95% of patients with IDDM express HLA DR3 or DR4. Concordance rate of Type 1 DM in identical twins ranges between 40- 60%. Type 2 DM has a strong genetic component. The concordance of type 2 DM in identical twins is betwe... | |
Nernst potential of Na+ is: (A) 94, (B) 61, (C) -64, (D) -94 | Answer is B. Equilibrium potential of ions is calculated by NERNST EQUATION. For Na, it is +60 mV to +55mV approximately (REF: GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY -23rd EDITION. Page No-7) | |
Nelson syndrome is associated with:: (A) BRCA2 mutation, (B) Prophylactic craniospinal irradiation, (C) Subarachnoid hemorrhage, (D) Bilateral adrenalectomy | Answer is D. Nelson syndrome refers to development of ACTH secreting pituitary macroadenoma after therapeutic bilateral adrenalectomy. | |
Which of the following group of enzymes act by mediating transfer of one molecule to another?: (A) Lyases, (B) Oxidases, (C) Peptidases, (D) Transferases | Answer is D. Transferases catalyze the transfer of groups such as methyl or glycosyl groups from a donor molecule to an acceptor molecule e.g., hexokinase. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th Edition, Pages 49-50; Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Page 31 | |
The three germ cell layers in embryo separate by the process of?: (A) Ovulation, (B) Neurilation, (C) Gastrulation, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Ans. C. Gastrulation.(Ref: Langman's Medical Embryology 9th/pg. 65).Longman's Medical Embryology 9th/pg. 65.........."The most characteristic event occurring during the third week of gestation is gastrulation, the process that establishes all three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm) in the embr... | |
Id, ego, superego are terms coined by ?: (A) Sigmand Freud, (B) Bleuler, (C) Moral, (D) Kraepelin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid freud IMPOANT CONTRIBUTORS IN PSYCHIATRY Term Demence precoce Coined by Dementia precox Catatonia, cyclotymia Hebephrenia Schizophrenia Ambivalence Free association Psychoanalysis, Psychodynamics Id, ego, Superego Psychiatry Moral Emil Kraepelin Kahlbaum Hecker Eugen Bleuler Eugen... | |
According to Kim's classification of microsurgical cases, which class represents a tooth with an apical lesion and complete denudation of the buccal plate but no mobility:: (A) Class C, (B) Class D, (C) Class E, (D) Class F | Answer is D. Kim's classification of microsurgical cases
Class A: Represents a tooth with no periradicular lesion, no mobility, and normal pocket depth. The clinical symptoms have not resolved, though non-surgical options have been exhausted. Clinical symptoms are the only reason for the surgery.
Class B: Represents a... | |
Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is charactersitic of -: (A) Glaucoma, (B) Optic neuritis, (C) Pituitary tumour, (D) Retinal detachment | Answer is C. Sagittal (central) lesions of the chiasma. These are characterised by bitemporal hemianopia and bitemporal hemianopic paralysis of pupillary reflexes. These usually lead to paial descending optic atrophy. Common causes of central chiasmal lesion are: suprasellar aneurysms, tumours of pituitary gland, crani... | |
'Dropped shoulder' occurs due to paralysis of -: (A) Deltoid, (B) Teres major, (C) Trapezius, (D) Serratus anterior | Answer is C. Dropped shoulder occurs due to paralysis of Trapezius. | |
Cullen's sign is seen in: (A) Acute cholecystitis, (B) Acute pancreatitis, (C) Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis, (D) Blunt injury abdomen | Answer is C. Signs indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding in severe pancreatitis Flank ecchymosis - Grey Turner sign Periumbilical ecchymosis- Cullen's sign Inguinal ecchymosis - Fox sign Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1527 | |
A young lady lost her job, loss of appetite wakes up at 3 am. What's the diagnosis: (A) Depression, (B) Schizophrenia, (C) OCD, (D) Mania | Answer is A. In this question, the details are inadequate, however among the given options the best answer is A, depression | |
Second primary malignancy of head and neck is commonly associated with which of the following: (A) Oral cavity, (B) Hypopharynx, (C) Larynx, (D) Paranasal sinuses | Answer is A. Ans. a. Oral cavity Second primary malignancy of head and neck is commonly associated with oral cavity. "The site of index cancer influences the most likely site of a second primary malignancy, as an example, in a series of 1257 patients with SCC of the head and neck, patients with an index malignancy aris... | |
Treatment of choice in a perimenopausal woman with bleeding PV due to multiple fibroids Is :: (A) TAH with BSO, (B) TAH, (C) Vaginal hystrectomy, (D) Enucleation of fibroids | Answer is B. TAH | |
Transmigration of WBC across the endothelium is called: (A) Margination, (B) Rolling, (C) Pavementing, (D) Diapedesis | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Diapedesis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 76-77)Migration of the leukocytes through the endothelium, is called transmigration or diapedesis.It is mediated by PECAM-1 | |
All can be used for systemic fungal infections except :: (A) Ketoconazole, (B) Fluconazole, (C) Amphotericin B, (D) Griseofulvin | Answer is D. None | |
In Down's syndrome -: (A) Gap (sandle gap), (B) Cliodactyly, (C) Hypotonia, (D) All | Answer is D. None | |
The EEG cabins should be completely shielded by a continuous sheet of wire mesh of copper to avoid the picking of noise from external electromagnetic distrubances. Such a shielding is called as -: (A) Maxwell cage, (B) Edison's cage, (C) Faraday cage, (D) Ohm's cage | Answer is C. None | |
A 12 year old boy has a productive cough characterized by large volumes of foul-smelling sputum. Three years ago, the patient was diagnosed with pancreatic insufficiency, as evidenced by repetitive gastrointestinal symptoms of steatorrhea. After culture of the sputum, colorless, oxidase-positive colonies with a fruity ... | Answer is B. The boy is displaying the characteristic symptoms of cystic fibrosis with bronchiectasis (accounting for the foul-smelling sputum) and pancreatic insufficiency, producing steatorrhea. However, the question directly relates to the infectious agent causing the pneumonia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, an oxidase-po... | |
Patient with a history of fall presents weeks later with headache and progressive neurological deterioration. The diagnosis is:-: (A) Acute subdural hemorrhage, (B) Extradural hemorrhage, (C) Chronic subdural hemorrhage, (D) Fracture skull | Answer is C. Chronic Subdural Hematoma Chronic SDH: collection of blood breakdown products that is at least 3 weeks old Chronic SDHs often occur in patients without a clear history of head trauma, as they may arise from minor trauma . A chronic SDH >1 cm or any symptomatic SDH should be surgical drained . | |
Vaginal bleeding in a neonate is commonly due to:: (A) Sarcoma boytroides, (B) Trauma of delivery, (C) Hormonal withdrawal, (D) Viral infection | Answer is C. Hormonal withdrawal | |
True statement about standard normal curve:: (A) Equal distribution on either side of the curve, (B) The total area under the curve is 2, (C) Its mean is 1, (D) Standard deviation is 0 | Answer is A. (Refer: K. Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24th edition, pg no:886 )
Normal distribution
Gaussian / Standard distribution
Symmetric with respect to same mean, median & mode & frequencies tapers off rapidly and symmetrically on both sides | |
You have given ViPS vaccine to a person. How often will you ask him to take booster doses?: (A) Every year, (B) Every 2 year, (C) Every 3 year, (D) Every 4 year | Answer is C. The injectable typhoid vaccine ViPS is a single dose vaccine which requires booster doses every 3 year. Ty21a vaccine is the oral typhoid vaccine. 3 doses are taken on day 1,3 and 5. It is effective for up to 7 years after last dose. It is recommended in people travelling to endemic areas and during out br... | |
A pt. was treated with amitryptiline for depression developed urinary retention, constipation and blurring of vision, most likely cause is :: (A) Anticholinergic side effects, (B) Expressed symptoms of depression, (C) Superadded prostatic enlargement, (D) Any of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' Anticholinergic side effects Tricyclic Antidepressants have prominent Anticholinergic side effects. Symptoms are -Dry mouthBad TasteBlurred vision (mydriasis)ConstipationUrinary retentionEpigastric distress | |
Paraplegia involves;: (A) Both the upper limb., (B) Both the lower limb ., (C) One upper and lower limb., (D) Any of the above. | Answer is B. Paraplegia is due to impairment in motor or sensory function of the lower extremities. | |
In shigella dysentry associated Hemolytic Uremic syndrome, the false statement is: (A) Leucocytosis, (B) Neurological abnormalities, (C) Hepatic Failure, (D) Thrombatic Angiopathy | Answer is C. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is a well-described process that is known to cause severe renal dysfunction, thrombocytopenia, and anemia. HUS is typically associated with toxins (shiga-like and shigella toxin) found in strains of E. coli and Shigella spp . Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), which is compr... | |
Which of the following is not used in enterococcal infection?: (A) Vancomycin, (B) Linezolid, (C) Teichoplanin, (D) Cephalexin | Answer is D. Ans: d (Cephalexin) Ref: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 830; Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 733Enterococci are resistant to all cephalosporins; therefore this class of antibiotics should not be used for treatment of enterococcal infections. Usual treatment for enterococci is combination of penicillin or ampicillin with an am... | |
Which of these are seen on Romanowsky stain -a) Reticulocytesb) Basophilic stipplingc) Heinz bodiesd) Howell-Jolly bodiese) Cabot ring: (A) abcd, (B) bcde, (C) acde, (D) abde | Answer is D. Romanowsky dyes are used for staining blood films. They are made up of combination of acid and basic dyes. The nucleus and neutrophilic granules are basophilic and stains blue. Hemoglobin is acidophilic and stains red.
Various modifications available are Leishman’s stain, Wright’s stain, Giemsa and Jenner’... | |
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiodarone therapy ?: (A) Pulmonary Fibrosis, (B) Hypothyroidism, (C) Hyperthyroidism, (D) Systemic lupus erythematosis | Answer is D. None | |
Drug used for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to scorpion sting:: (A) Prazosin, (B) Clonidine, (C) Furosemide, (D) Mannitol | Answer is A. Ans. (A) Prazosin(Ref: Harrison 20th/e p3329)Scorpion sting is a dreadful medical emergency.Scorpion stings cause a wide range of symptoms, from severe local reactions to cardiovascular, respiratory and neurological manifestations.Alpha-receptors play vital role in the pathogenesis of cardiac failure and p... | |
A boy has developed epistaxis. What is the treatment of choice: (A) Digital pressure, (B) Nasal packing, (C) Cauterization of vessels, (D) Surgical ligation | Answer is A. Most of the time, bleeding occurs from the Little's area and can be controlled by pinching the nose with thumb and index finger for about 5 min. This will compress the vessels of the Little's area Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 199. | |
Which of the following is NOT true about amniotic fluid index (AFI)?: (A) It is calculated by adding the veical depths of the largest pocket in each of four equal uterine quadrants, (B) Fluid restriction may lower the AFI, (C) Significant hydramnios is defined by an index greater than 24 cm, (D) There is steady increas... | Answer is D. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by adding the veical depths of the largest pocket in each of four equal uterine quadrants. Significant hydramnios is defined by an index greater than 24 cm. Fluid restriction or dehydration may lower the AFI. Peak AFI is seen at approximately 32 weeks followed by a ... | |
Commonest site of oesophagus - squamous cell carcinoma is: (A) Upper 2/3, (B) Middle 1/3, (C) Lower 1/3, (D) Crico-esophageal junction | Answer is B. OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA,6 th most common carcinoma in the world, can be predisposed to dietary deficiencies, human papillomavirus infections, achalasia cardia, oesophageal webs etc.it is most commonly seen in middle third of oesophagus (50%)and also at lower third(33%) and upper third(17%).in the lower pa ad... | |
According to myogenic hypothesis of renal autoregulation, the afferent aerioles contract in response to stretch induced by: (A) NO release, (B) Noradrenaline release, (C) Opening of ca2+ channels, (D) Adenosine release | Answer is C. Most vascular beds have an intrinsic capacity to compensate for moderate changes in perfusion pressure by changes in vascular resistance, so that blood flow remains relatively constant. This capacity is well developed in the kidneys (), but it has also been observed in the mesentery, skeletal muscle, brain... | |
An ophthalmoplegic migraine means: (A) When headache is followed by complete paralysis of the III rd and VI nerve on the same side as the hemicrania., (B) When the headache is followed by paial paralysis of the IIIrd nerve on the same side as the hemicrania with out any scotoma., (C) Headache associated with IIIrd, IVt... | Answer is A. Ophthalmoplegic migraine is characterized by recurrent attacks of ophthalmoplegia, following severe migrainous headaches. The condition almost always begins in childhood, and is considered to be rare in adults. However, OM may occur for the first time in adult life. The typical clinical picture of OM inclu... | |
The monsaccharide glucose is best described by which one of the following statements?: (A) It usually exists in the furanose form, (B) It is a ketose, (C) It possesses an anomeric C-2 carbon atom, (D) It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose | Answer is D. Two monosaccharide units are linked by a glycosidic bond or yield 2 monosaccharide units on hydrolysis. Depending on their reducing property, they are divided into:
Nonreducing disaccharides: The functional groups are involved in the glycosidic bond formation, hence free functional groups are not availabl... | |
During ocular surgery, when eye surgeon touches the medial rectus, he asked to assistant to measure heart rate because of: (A) Occulocardiac reflex, (B) Occulocephalic reflex, (C) Occulovagal reflex, (D) None | Answer is A. None | |
A female at 37 wks of gestation has mild labour pain for 10 hours and cervix is persistently 1CM dilated but non effaced. What will be the next appropriate management?: (A) Sedation and wait, (B) Augmentation with syntocin, (C) Cesarean section, (D) Amniotomy | Answer is A. This is a nulliparous patient and is in latent phase of labor. Latent phase duration normally in a nulliparous female is less than 20hrs and in a multiparous female its is 14 hours. The optimal treatment for this patient is administer sedation and observe the patient. Prolonged latent phase occur when the ... | |
Contraceptive LNG-IUD (levonorgesterol intra-uterine device) has the cumulative pregnancy rate at 5 yrs of:: (A) 0.5, (B) 1, (C) 1.5, (D) 2 | Answer is A. This is the closest choice in reference to the claimed rate by the manufacturer after phase three trials where the five-year cumulative pregnancy rate is 0.7 percent.LNG-IUD releases approximately 20 mcg levonorgestrel per day initially then 10 mcg /day. LNG does not increase the risk of PID. Lesser ectopi... | |
A 40 year old man has megaloblastic anemia and early signs of neurological abnormality. The drug most probably required is:: (A) Folic acid, (B) Iron sulphate, (C) Erythropoietin, (D) Vitamin B12 | Answer is D. Deficiency of vitamin B12 results in megaloblastic anemia and demyelination. It can cause subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord and peripheral neuritis. | |
Study the following carefully -(AI 05)Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is -: (A) Autosomal recessive type, (B) Autosomal dominant type, (C) X-Linked dominant type, (D) X-linked recessive type | Answer is D. X-linked recessive type | |
False about Gastric lymphoma is:: (A) Stomach is the most common site, (B) Asosciate with H. pylori infection, (C) Total gastrectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice, (D) 5 yr survival rate after treatment is 60%. | Answer is C. Total gastrectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice [Ref: Sabiston 20th Ed. ; Schwaz 11th Ed. Stomach is the most common extranodal site of lymphoma. It is of two types - Primary & Secondary Primary gastric lymphoma - is lymphoma of the stomach which exhibits no evidence of liver, splee... | |
Wimberger ring sign is present in:: (A) Rickets, (B) Scurvy, (C) Secondary syphilis, (D) Tuberculosis | Answer is B. Wimberger ring sign - seen in scurvy | |
Renal tuberculosis is characterised by -: (A) Loin pain, (B) Painful hematuria, (C) Sterile pyuria, (D) Constitutional symptoms | Answer is C. None | |
Mycophenolate mofetil is used in: (A) Prevention of organ transplantation rejection, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Leprosy, (D) Methanol posisoning | Answer is A. Mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressant used to prevent rejection of allogeneic cardiac, hepatic, and renal transplants. It is administered orally or intravenously. indications It is used to prevent rejection of organ transplants and for prophylaxis of organ rejection in allogeneic cardiac transplant... | |
Liver cirrhosis is associated with which type of emphysema in Pizz phenotype mutation?: (A) Centriacinar, (B) Panacinar, (C) Paraseptal, (D) Multifocal | Answer is B. In individuals with the Pizz phenotype, alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, its blood levels are less than 15% of normal, and patients are likely to develop panacinar emphysema at a young age; 50% of these patients will develop liver cirrhosis, because the A1AT is not secreted properly and instead accumulates ... | |
An addict presents with increased sweating, lacrimation, diarrhea, yawning and rhinorrhea. These symptoms may occur due to withdrawal of?: (A) Heroin, (B) Cocaine, (C) Cannabis, (D) Alcohol | Answer is A. Heroin is a semi synthetic derivative of opium. Withdrawal symptoms are lacrimation, sweating, yawning,anxiety,restlessness, rhinorrhoea and tremors seen 8-12 hours after last dose. All the other drugs donot have the above set of side effects. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | |
Chemotherapy for dysgerminoma is:: (A) Cisplatin, etoposide, bleomycin, (B) Cyclophophamide, vincristine, prednisolone, (C) Adriamycin, cyclophophamide, cisplatin, (D) Methotrexate, oncovin, cyclophosphamide | Answer is A. Management of Dysgerminoma:
• The treatment of early dysgerminoma.
Surgical – including resection of the primary lesion (unilateral oophorectomy) and proper surgical dissection.
• Metastatic Disease – Chemotherapy or Radiation therapy.
Chemotherapy:
The most frequently used chemotherapy regimens for germ c... | |
Which of the following is a Longer acting Erythropoietin derivative?: (A) Sargramostim, (B) Darbepoetin alfa, (C) Dornase alfa, (D) Oprelvekin | Answer is B. Darbopoietin is a Long acting EPO derivative drug. It has a T1/2 24-36 hrs. So it is given once a week. Epoietin has a half life of 6-10 hrs. Uses - Anemia of chronic renal failure(CRF) Anaemia in AIDS patients treated with Zidovudine. Cancer chemotherapy induced anaemia. Preoperative increased blood produ... | |
Methods of fusing two cells in genetic recombination technique include all of the following techniques, except: (A) Fusion mediated by Ethylene Glycol, (B) Fusion mediated by by Electric current, (C) Fusion mediated by viral transformation, (D) Fusion Mediated by altering membrane viscocity | Answer is D. Ref: <a href=" | |
Best way to plot the changes of incidence of disease over time is:: (A) Histogram, (B) Line chart, (C) Scatter diagram., (D) Ogive. | Answer is B. None | |
Sensitivity is -: (A) True positive/true positive + false negative, (B) True positive/false positive + true negative, (C) True negative/true negative + false positive, (D) True negative/false negative + true positive | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., True positive/true positive + false negative Sensitivity =Number of true positive--------------------------------------------Number of true positives + Number of false negative | |
Topical Mitomycin C is used for _________: (A) Endoscopic treatment of angiofibroma, (B) Treatment of skull base osteomyelitis, (C) Sturge Weber syndrome, (D) Treatment for laryngeal stenosis | Answer is D. Topical application of Mitomycin C after endoscopic dilatation of laryngotracheal stenosis prevents restenosis. Mitomycin-C (MMC) inhibits fibroblast proliferation and synthesis of extracellular matrix proteins, and thereby modulates wound healing and scarring. Mitomycin C is an antibiotic isolated from St... | |
Refsum's syndrome is associated with -: (A) Retinitis pigmentosa, (B) Xerophthalmia, (C) Chalcosis, (D) Diabetes retinopathy | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a1 i.e., Retinitis pigmentosa Associations of retinitis pigmentosa1. Ocular associations : These include myopia, primary open angle glaucoma, microphthalmos, conical cornea and posterior subcapsular cataract.2. Systemic associations : These are in the form of following syndromesLaurence-Moon-Biedl... | |
Most common presentation of chronic pancreatitis: (A) Nausea, (B) Steatorrhea, (C) Pain, (D) Brittle Type 3 diabetes | Answer is C. Ans. (c) PainRef: Bailey and Love 27th ed; pg. 1230* MC symptom of Chronic pancreatitis - Pain* Site of pain depends on the foci of disease:# Head: Epigastric and Right Subcostal Pain# Left Side pancreas: Back pain# Diffuse pain is also seen sometimes.# Radiation to shoulder also can be seen | |
The chief cause of perinatal moality in term frank breech presentation is :: (A) Intracranial hemorrhage, (B) Prolapse of umbilical cord, (C) Delay in delivery of head, (D) Abnormalities | Answer is A. Intracranial hemorrhage | |
Treatment of a cause of Endometriosis at a younger age group :: (A) Progestin, (B) Danazol, (C) GnRH analogues, (D) Hysterectomy with oophorectorny | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. Progestin Adolescent Endometriosis : The incidental finding of minimal to mild endometriosis in a young woman without immediate interest in pregnancy is a common clinical problem. 70% of girls with chronic pelvic pain unresponsive to OCP's or NSAID's are affected by endometriosis. Mild disea... | |
When can one diagnose acute respiratory distress in a child?: (A) Within 7 days of known insult, (B) Respiratory failure not fully explained by cardiac failure, (C) No left ventricular dysfunction, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Diagnostic criteria of ARDS in children: BERLIN DEFINITION CRITERIA Timing Within 1 wk of a known clinical insult or new or worsening respiratory symptoms Chest X-rays or tomography scan Bilateral opacities not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse, or nodules Origin of edema Respiratory failur... | |
Not true regarding influenza virus is -: (A) All types exhibit antigenic shift, (B) Onlybtype A shows antigenic drift, (C) Drift is accumulation of point mutations, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Antigenic drift the gradual sequential change in antigenic structure occurring regularly at frequent intervals. Antigenic drift is due to mutation and selection. It accounts for the periodic epidemics of influenza. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-499 | |
Anterior cerebral artery supplies which part of brain?: (A) Anterior, (B) Lateral, (C) Medial, (D) Posterior | Answer is C. Most of the medial surface is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery. It also supplies the medial part of the orbital surface of the frontal lobe
Middle cerebral artery supplies most of the superolateral surface of brain. It also supplies the temporal lobe and the lateral part of the orbital surface of t... | |
Secretomotor fibers in the superior salivatory nucleus pass through the following nerves to reach the Submandibular ganglion:: (A) Facial nerve., (B) Chorda tympani., (C) Lingual nerve., (D) All of the above. | Answer is D. None | |
Call Exner Bodies are seen in :: (A) Dyserminomas, (B) Hilus cell tumours, (C) Brenner's, (D) Granulosa cell tumours | Answer is D. Granulosa cell tumours | |
Diabetes is associated with all of the following in the elderly EXCEPT: (A) Cerebrovascular accident, (B) Cognitive decline, (C) Fall risk, (D) Myocardial infarction | Answer is C. None | |
Glomerular basement membrane showing "tram-track" appearance is seen in: (A) Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis type 1, (B) Membranous nephropathy, (C) Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis, (D) Minimal-Change Disease | Answer is A. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1:MPGN is best considered a pattern of immune-mediated injury rather than a specific disease. The glomeruli are large and hypercellular. The glomeruli have an accentuated "lobular" appearance due to the proliferating mesangial cells and increased mesangi... | |
Destruction of ovaries prior to 7th week following fertilization results in:: (A) Pseudohermaphroditism, (B) Uterine agenesis, (C) Masculinisation, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. In females: If ovaries are destructed prior to 7 weeks then it will lead to decrease in estrogen so secondary sexual characteristics in female will not develop, and she will complain of amenorrhea. Uterus develops from mullerian duct, hence uterus will be present (i.e. option b incorrect) but underdevelope... | |
A 70-year-old male patient with intentional tremor, drunken gait, and past pointing is having a lesion in which of the following structures: (A) Basal ganglia, (B) Pyramidal tract, (C) Cerebellum, (D) Thalamus | Answer is C. "Most abnormalities associated with damage to the cerebellum are apparent during movement Ataxia is manifest not only in the wide-based, unsteady, "drunken" gait of patients but also in defects of the skilled movements involved in the production of speech, so that slurred, scanning speech results. Voluntar... | |
Eltrombopag is a: (A) Erythropoietin analogue, (B) Erythropoietin receptor agonist, (C) Thrombopoietin analogue, (D) GMCSF analogue | Answer is C. Eltrombopag is a thrombopoietin analogue used in ITP, but carries the risk of hepatotoxicity.
Lustrombopag & Avatrombopag are other thrombopoietin analogues used to prevent bleeding in patients of liver disease. | |
Which of the following is method of treating venous ulcer: (A) Hilton's method, (B) Trivex method, (C) Bisgaard method, (D) Tessari method | Answer is C. Bisgaard method is method for treating venous ulcer. | |
Which of the following is false about gestational hypeension?: (A) There is a sustained rise of BP > 140/90 mmHg, (B) Blood pressure returns to normal within 6 weeks of delivery, (C) It is associated with lower incidence of essential hypeension in the later life as compared to pre eclampsia, (D) Perinatal moality remai... | Answer is C. Ans. is 'C i.e., It is associated with lower incidence of essential hypeension in the later life as compared to pre eclampsia Gestational hypeensionA sustained rise of blood pressure to 140/90 mm Hg or more on atleast 2 occasions 4 or more hours apa beyond the 20thweeks of pregnancyor during the first 24 h... | |
Which of the following is Initial Tooth Preparation stage?: (A) External wall finishing, (B) Pulp protection, (C) Convenience form, (D) Debridement and inspection | Answer is C. Initial Tooth Preparation Stage
Step 1: Initial depth and outline form.
Step 2: Primary resistance form.
Step 3: Primary retention form.
Step 4: Convenience form.
Final Tooth Preparation Stage
Step 5: Removal of defective restorative material and/or soft dentin.
Step 6: Pulp protection.
Step 7: Secondar... | |
All of the following are features of ischemia in anterior choroidal aery territory except?: (A) Hemiparesis, (B) Hemisensory loss, (C) Homonymous hemianopia, (D) Predominant involvement of the anterior limb of internal capsule | Answer is D. Anterior choroidal aery Arises from the internal carotid aery. Supplies the posterior limb and genu of the internal capsule Occlusion- Contralateral hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, hypesthesia, and homonymous hemianopia. Internal capsule Blood supply ANTERIOR LIMB A.C.A. (medial striate A) + M.C.A (lateral str... | |
Lens antigen are?: (A) Neoantigen, (B) Sequestrated antigen, (C) Altered antigen, (D) Cross reacting antigen | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) Sequestrated antigenREF: Ananthanarayan & Paniker 7th ed page 171, Textbook Of Medical Physiology ByKhurana 2009 ed page 207Hidden antigen or sequestrated antigen:Certain self antigens are present in the close system and never exposed to the immune system during fetal life. These are known as h... |
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