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Most frequent cause of neonatal thrombocytopenic purura is -: (A) Infection, (B) Drug idiosyncrasy, (C) Large haemangiomas, (D) Erythroblastosis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Infection o Amongst the given options, only infection causes neonatal thrombocytopenia. | |
Which of the following disease is caused by inflammatory reaction involved by neutrophils?: (A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome, (B) Septic shock, (C) Asthma, (D) Ahritis | Answer is A. Diseases Caused by Inflammatory ReactionsDisordersCells and Molecules involved in injuryAcute Acute respiratorydistress syndromeNeutrophilsAsthmaEosinophils; IgE antibodiesGlomerulonephritisAntibodies and complement; neutrophils, monocytesSeptic shockCytokinesChronicAhritisLymphocytes, macrophages; antibod... | |
Best way to dispose e-waste is?: (A) Burning, (B) Incineration, (C) In a landfill, (D) Recycling | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) RecyclingREF: With textElectronic waste, popularly known as 'e-waste* can be defined as electronic equipments/ products connects with power plug, batteries which have become obsolete due to: advancement in technology, changes in fashion, style and status, nearing the end of their useful life. (... | |
Which of the following structure develop in ventral pa of ventral mesentery of stomach?: (A) Falciform ligament, (B) Hepatogastric ligament, (C) Lesser omentum, (D) Splenogastric ligament | Answer is A. - Falciform ligament develops in the ventral pa of the ventral mesentery - Lesser omentum (hepatogastric ligament) in the dorsal pa of ventral mesentery. | |
ATP yield in Beta oxidation of palmitic acid ?: (A) 106 ATP, (B) 102 ATP, (C) 120 ATP, (D) 110 ATP | Answer is A. Energetics of Beta Oxidation (ATP Yield) - Palmitic acid (16 C) needs 7 cycles of beta oxidation. So, it gives rise to 8 molecules of acetyl CoA. Every molecule of acetyl CoA when oxidised in the TCA cycle gives 10 molecules of ATP. Each molecule of FADH2 produces 1.5 molecules of ATP and each NADH generat... | |
Immunoprophylaxis of leprosy includes -: (A) BCG, (B) MMR, (C) ICRC bacillus, (D) Anthrax vaccine | Answer is A. For immunoprophylaxis , trials in different population groups with BCG vaccine either alone or in combination with other vaccine have shown protective efficacy ranging between 28% and 60%. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 344 | |
A baby can follow an object till 180o, can hold neck, can sit with suppo but cannot sit without suppo. The age of the baby is:: (A) 1 month, (B) 2 months, (C) 4 months, (D) 6 months | Answer is D. Following an object up to 180deg comes at 2 months, Neck holding comes at 3 months, Sitting with suppo is attained at 6 months; So, the age of this baby is 6 months | |
Misoprostol has been found to be effective in all of the following except: (A) Missed aboion, (B) Induction of labour, (C) Menorrhagia, (D) Prevention of postpaum hemorrhage (PPH) | Answer is C. Misoprostol is not used. Treatment modalities include eostrogrn therapy ,progesterone initial dose of 10-30 mg a day,should arrest bleeding in 24-48 hrs,after which 5 mg given daily for 20 days,ethamsylate,NSAID,antifibrinolytic agents like tranexamic acid,Gnrh is employed if the above fail,SERM like ormel... | |
All of the following are usual features of left atrial Myxoma, except -: (A) Raised ESR, (B) Pyrexia, (C) Markedly enlarged left atrium, (D) Systemic Embolism | Answer is C. None | |
True about choledochal cyst is -: (A) Always extrahepatic T/t, (B) T/t is cystojejunostomy, (C) Excision is ideal t/t, (D) Drainage is t/t of choice | Answer is C. None | |
Bland cholestasis is caused by all of the following drugs, except: (A) Androgen, (B) OCP, (C) Cyclosporine, (D) Chlorpromazine | Answer is D. Answer is D (Chlorpromazine) Chlorpromazine is associated with inflammatory cholestasis and not with Bland (non inflammatory) cholestasis. | |
Cerebral Cysticercosis: (A) Commonly manifests with localizing signs, (B) May present with dementia, (C) Rarely occurs in children, (D) Usually presents with generalized seizures | Answer is A. (A) Commonly manifests with localizing signs # "These is wide variety of presentation of Neurocysticercosis depending on the intensity of the infestation, the localization of cystecerci and the degree of inflammatory reaction.> Epilepsy (seizure activity) is the most common manifestation occuring in upto 5... | |
In a patient if administration of exogeneus vasopressin does not increase the osmolality of urine the likely cause is: (A) SIADH, (B) Psychogenic polydipsia, (C) Renal Hyposensitivity to ADH, (D) ADH Deficiency | Answer is C. Answer is C (Renal Hyposensitivity to ADH): Failure of urine osmolality to rise even after administration of exogenous ADH/vasopressin suggests a diagnosis of Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus due resistance to action of vasopressin on the Renal tubule (Renal Hyposensitivity to ADH). | |
A child presents with recurrent bouts of severe cough followed by an audible whoop. Which of the following is considered the best type of specimen to isolate the organism and confirm the diagnosis.: (A) Nasopharyngeal swab, (B) Cough plate, (C) Throat Swabs, (D) Anterior Nasal Swab | Answer is A. Presence of recurrent bouts of severe cough followed by an audible whoop suggests a diagnosis of pertusis (Whooping cough).
Nasopharyngeal Swab is the single best specimen to isolate the organism from the options provided. | |
The vitamin deficiency implicated in metaplasia of respiratory epithelium is:: (A) Vitamin-A, (B) Vitamin-C, (C) Vitamin-B, (D) Vitamin-E | Answer is A. Factors that incriminated in the pathogenesis of lung cancer: Chromosome deletions (paicularly 11p, 13q, 17p, and 3p) Tumor suppressor gene mutations (p53, Hap-1, ErbAb, etc) High-level expression of both growth factor genes (insulinlike and transferrinlike growth factors) Epidermal growth factor receptors... | |
A 40 year old female patient complains of excessive bleeding. Patient gives a history of road traffic accident 5 hours ago and had a lacerated wound on lower back region. Blood grouping test reveals presence of antigen A and antigen H. Anti Rh D antibody and anti B antibody are also present. This patient can receive tr... | Answer is D. → Apart from A< B and O, RBC of type O contains large amount of another antigen called H substance.
→ H substance is genetically different from ABO, but is a precursor of A and B antigens.
→ An O group individual who inherits A or B genes, but fails to inherit H gene from either parent is called Oh phenoty... | |
HTLV-1 is also known as:: (A) HIV, (B) ATLV, (C) RSV, (D) ALV | Answer is B. Ans. b. ATLV | |
Following are gastrointestinal hormones except :: (A) CCK- PZ, (B) GIP, (C) Chymotrypsin, (D) Motilin | Answer is C. C i.e. ChymotrypsinActivatorProenzyme/ EnzymeTrypsin (activates- Cliymotrypsinogens /chyinotrypsinQonly pancreatic- Pro carboxypeptidase A/enzymes)carboxypeptidase A - Procarboxypeptidase B/ carboxypeptidase B - Pro-colipase/colipase - Pro-elastase/elastase - Pro-phospholipase A2/phospholipase A2Enteroepti... | |
\r\nAll of the following are true about Aedes mosquito, except:: (A) It transmits dengue fever, (B) It breed in stagnant water, (C) They are recurrent day time biters, (D) Its eggs cannot survive more than one week without water | Answer is D. Aedes Aegypti are recurrent day time biters and breed in stagnant water. It transmits dengue fever. Aedes Aegypti eggs can remain ble for long periods under without water. Hence it is carried to many pas of the world as dry eggs in suitable containers. Ref: Physician's Guide to Ahropods of Medical Impoance... | |
Percentage of renal stones which are radio opaque ?: (A) 10%, (B) 25%, (C) 37%, (D) 90% | Answer is D. Ans. is `d' i.e. 90% | |
During pregnancy, fibroid may have all of the following complications except: March 2009: (A) Metastasis, (B) Pain, (C) Post paum hemorrhage, (D) Preterm labour | Answer is A. Ans. A: Metastasis Pregnant women with fibroids are at increased risk for: Pain Breech presentation Malposition Higher incidence of cesarean delivery Preterm bih Premature rupture of the membranes Postpaum hemorrhage Placental abruption Submucosal, fibroids located beneath the placenta, and fibroids 7 to 8... | |
Which one of the following muscle protein plays an important role in contraction of both smooth and striated muscle?: (A) Calmodulin, (B) Troponin, (C) Tropomyosin, (D) Actin | Answer is D. Ans. D. Actina. In both smooth and striated muscle, contraction is produced by the cross- bridge cycle in which the cross-bridge on the thick filament binds to the actin molecule on the thin filament.b. In excitation-contraction coupling in striated muscle, calcium initiates contraction by binding to tropo... | |
After birth, care of eye of newborn is by: (A) AgNO3 eye drop, (B) Antibiotics, (C) Normal saline, (D) Crede’s method | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is not a feature of rheumatoid ahritis?: (A) Heberden nodes, (B) Swan neck deformity, (C) Ulnar detion of fingers at metacarpopalyngeal joint, (D) Symmetric reduction of joint space | Answer is A. Heberden does is a feature of osteoahritis and not rheumatoid ahritisImpoant hand deformities of hand in RABoutonniere deformity: flexion contracture of PIP joint and extension DIP jointSwan neck deformity: hyperextension of PIP joint and flexion at DIP joint(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2n... | |
True regarding excitation contraction coupling in smooth muscles is :: (A) Presence of troponin is essential, (B) Sustained contraction occurs with high calcium concentration, (C) Phosphorylation of actin is required for contraction, (D) Presence of cellular calcium is essential to cause muscle | Answer is D. D i.e. Presence of cellular calcium essential to cause muscle contraction | |
Most common symptom of symptom of alcohol withdrawal is: (A) Bodyache, (B) Tremor, (C) Diarrhoea, (D) Rhinorrhea | Answer is B. The most common withdrawal syndrome is a hangover on the next morning. Mild tremors, nausea, vomiting, weakness, irritability, insomnia and anxiety are the other common withdrawal symptoms. Sometimes the withdrawal syndrome may be more severe, characterised by one of the following three disturbances: delir... | |
Study of multiplication of proteins in disease process is called: (A) Proteomics, (B) Genomics, (C) Glycomics, (D) Nucleomics | Answer is A. Genomics is the branch of molecular biology concerned with the structure, function, evolution, and mapping of genomes.Glycomics is the comprehensive study of glycomes (the entire complement of sugars, whether free or present in more complex molecules of an organism), including genetic, physiologic, patholo... | |
Skin grafting is absolutely C/I in which skin infection?: (A) Staphylococus, (B) Pseudomonas, (C) Streptococus, (D) Proteus | Answer is C. Ans is 'c' i.e. Streptococcus "The skin graft generally survives when placed over the wounds containing less than 105 organisms per gram of tissue unless the organisms are streptococci, which can rapidly dissolve transplanted skin." - S. Das 3/e, p 142 | |
Most sensitive investigation for cystic fibrosis is?: (A) CT scan, (B) Ultrasound, (C) Sweat electrolytes, (D) Tomogram | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Sweat electrolytesRef: Harrison's Medicine 18th ed p 2149-50 | |
An Infant brought to the clinic with non-biliousf projectile vomiting. The investigation of choice includes\: (A) Barium meal, (B) Abdominal ultrasonograpy, (C) Flexible Endoscopy, (D) Sigmoidoscopy | Answer is A. (A) Barium meal # Clinical features of Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:> Characteristically it is a first-born male child that is most commonly affected. The condition is most commonly seen at 4 weeks after birth ranging from the third week to, on rare occasions, the seventh.> Inexplicably, it is the time fo... | |
Extended spectrum beta lactamases (ESBLs) are characterized by activity against all except:: (A) Penicillinases, (B) Cephalosporinases, (C) Oxyimino-cephalosporinases, (D) Carbapenems | Answer is D. CARBAPENEMS: lmipenem :It is an extremely potent and broad-spectrum Beta-lactam antibiotic whose range of activity includes grampositive cocci, Enterobacteriaceae, Ps. aeruginosa, Listeri. | |
Increased LH:FSH ratio is found in :: (A) Premature menopause, (B) Sheehan syndrome, (C) Polycystic ovary syndrome, (D) Turner's syndrome | Answer is C. Polycystic ovary syndrome | |
Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation ?: (A) Allograft, (B) Autograft, (C) Xenograft, (D) Isograft | Answer is D. Ans is 'd' i.e., Isograft Although the best graft is autograft, a renal graft can obviously not be an autograft. So the best renal graft is an isograft. | |
The ability of a test to detect true negatives is:: (A) Sensitivity, (B) Specificity, (C) PPV, (D) NPV | Answer is B. Ref: 21st edition Park. Pg 128Explanation:SensitivityAbility of the test to identify true positivesSpecificityAbility of the test to identify true negativesPositive predictive valueProbability that a patient with positive test result truly has the diseaseNegative predictive valueProbability that a patient ... | |
Which laser is used in the management of after cataracts -: (A) Argon, (B) Krypton, (C) YAG, (D) Excimer | Answer is C. After cataract, if thin, can be cleared centrally by a YAG laser capsulotomy. | |
Superficial second degree burns heal by: (A) 1 week, (B) 2 weeks, (C) 3 weeks, (D) 4 weeks | Answer is B. Superficial second degree burns usually heal with minimum scarring in 10-14 days unless they become infected. Second degree burns are divided into superficial and deep burns. Superficial dermal burns: Erythematous and painful, blanch to touch and often blister. They heal in 10-14 days. Deep dermal burns : ... | |
Syndrome characterized by an elaborate delusion that the patient is passionately loved by another person is also known as:: (A) Ekbom's syndrome, (B) De Clerambault's syndrome, (C) Querulous paranoia, (D) Othello syndrome | Answer is B. Erotomania (de Clerambault's syndrome): Condition in which a person holds a delusional belief that another person, usually of a higher social status, is in love with him/her. Erotomanic tries to get close to the person through telephone calls, e-mails, letters, gifts and visits. MC in women than in men. Ek... | |
Adrenaline in LA causes:: (A) Increase the dose of LA, (B) Less systemic absorption, (C) More time of action, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans: d (All of the above) Ref: KDT, 6th ed, p. 356; Bailey and Love, 24thed, p. 49* Addition of adrenaline (commonly 1:200000 to 1: 125000 concentration) to the local anaesthetic solution hastens the onset and prolongs the duration of action and permits a higher dose of drug to be used as it is more slowly... | |
A drug used for Buerger's disease?: (A) Propranolol, (B) Xanthinol nicotinate, (C) GTN, (D) All the above | Answer is B. A drug used in Buerger's disease is Xanthinol nicotinate. Complamina retard (xanthine nicotinate) tablet was used daily once earlier. Now, graded injection of xanthine nicotinate 3000 mg from day 1 to 9000 mg on day 5 is used to promote ulcer healing.
It also helps to increase claudication distance as a te... | |
Methotrexate is an example for which of the following class of drugs?: (A) Antibiotic, (B) Alkylating agent, (C) Biologic response modifier, (D) Folic acid analogue | Answer is D. Ans: D (Folic acid analogue) Ref: The Pharmacological basis of therapeutics bv Goodman & Gilman - 12th edition, page no. 1669 -767/Explanation:"Methotrexate is an anti-metabolite which is a folic acid analogue." Ref: G&GClassification of Anti-Cancer DrugsAnti-metabolitesPemetrexed5 FUCapecitabineCytarabine... | |
A 45-years-old man who works in textile company visited hospital for routine health check-up. He prepares dyes in company from last 18 years. Which of the following investigation would you recommend for this patient?: (A) Pulmonary function tests, (B) Liver function tests, (C) Urine examination, (D) Complete blood coun... | Answer is C. Dye stuffs & dyeing industries, rubber, gas & electric cable industries are associated with carcinoma of bladder (transitional cell carcinoma). Bladder cancer is caused by aromatic amines, which are metabolized in the body & excreted in the urine. Possible bladder carcinogens are: Beta-naphthylamines, benz... | |
Which of the following joints findings Is most suggestive of an inflammatory, rather than an osteroahritis cause of joints pain?: (A) Painful range of motion, (B) Crepitus, (C) Bony aicular enlargement, (D) Swelling and warmth | Answer is D. The five classical signs of inflammation are heat, pain, redness, swelling, and loss of function (Latin calor, dolor, rubor, tumor, and functio laesa). Ref - Internet | |
Nerves are not involved in ?: (A) Tuberculoid leprosy, (B) Lepromatous leprosy, (C) Indeterminate leprosy, (D) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Indeterminate leprosy | |
Secretin is produced by which of the following duodenal cells?: (A) I cells, (B) T cells, (C) M cells, (D) S cells | Answer is D. Ans. D. S cells. (Ref. Guyton's Medical Physiology 11th/pg. 801; Ganong 23rd/ Chapter 36).GI secretory products1. Nitrous oxide: Causes smooth muscle relaxation (e.g., elower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxtion).2. Gastrin: Secreted in response to gastric distention, vagal stimulation, and amino acid ent... | |
First symptom in vulval cancer is-: (A) Pain, (B) Pruritus, (C) Ulceration, (D) Bloody discharge | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pruritus o Women with VIN and vulvar cancer commonly present with pruritus and a visible lesion.# However, pain, bleeding, and ulceration may also be initial complaints. | |
Incised looking lacerated wound site is?: (A) Forehead, (B) Hand, (C) Thorax, (D) Abdomen | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., forehead LACERATIONS (Tear or Rupture)o Lacerations are tears or splits of skin, mucous membrane and underlying tissue (e.g., muscle or internal organs). Lacerations are produced by application of blunt force to broad area of the body, which crush or stretch tissues beyond the limits of t... | |
False about nerve entrapment syndromes: (A) Guyon's canal syndrome - ulnar nerve, (B) Cubital tunnel syndrome - ulnar nerve, (C) Cheiralgia paresthetica - femoral nerve, (D) Tarsal tunnel syndrome - posterior tibial nerve | Answer is C. Nerve entrapment syndromes
Carpal tunnel syndrome - Median nerve
Cubital tunnel syndrome - Ulnar nerve
Guyon's canal syndrome - Ulnar nerve
Pyriformis syndrome - Sciatic nerve
Meralgia Paresthetica - Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Cheiralgia Paresthetic - Superficial Radial nerve
Tarsal tunnel synd... | |
Keshan's disease is due to deficiency of:: (A) Selenium, (B) Zinc, (C) Copper, (D) Iron | Answer is A. Keshan's Disease Deficiency of Selenium (Se) Affects: Children Women of child bearing age CLINICAL FEATURES: Cardiomyopathy Muscle weakness Hypothyroidism Eczema Increased risk of stroke Hypeension Cancer Selenium Sources- seafood and meat, nuts Deficiency - Keshan's disease Toxicity - Selenium toxicity le... | |
Bones ossified at bih:: (A) Lower end of femur, (B) Calcaneum, (C) Upper end tibia, (D) All | Answer is D. A i.e., Lower end femur B i.e., Calcaneum C i.e., Upper end tibia | |
The largest component of amalgam alloy is:: (A) Silver, (B) Tin, (C) Zinc, (D) Copper | Answer is A. None | |
Localized myogenic infection is caused by which bacteria?: (A) Staphylococcus, (B) Clostridium, (C) Cornybacterium, (D) Streptococcal | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) StaphylococcusREF: Harrisons 18th ed chapter 125Important causes of muscle infections:Most common cause of pyomyositis : staphylococcus aureusGas gangrene : CL PerferingensSevere muscle pain : pleurodynia due to coxsackie B, trichinosisRhabdomyolysis : clostridium , streptococcal | |
A56 years old patient presents after three days of cataract surgery with a history of increasing pain and decrease of vision after an initial improvement the most likely cause would be: (A) Endophthalmitis, (B) After cataract, (C) Central retinal vein occlusion, (D) Retinal detachment | Answer is A. Pain which is increasing along with decrease in vision paicularly after only three days of cataract surgery strongly suggest endophthalmitis | |
Oedipus complex has been described by -: (A) Plato, (B) Socartes, (C) Freud, (D) Huxley | Answer is C. Oedipus complex is described by Freud in psychosexual stages of development. | |
On microscopic examination, eggs are seen, but on saturation with a salt solution, no eggs are seen. The eggs are likely to be of -: (A) Trichuris trichiura, (B) Taenia solium, (C) Ascaris lumbricoides, (D) Ancylostoma duodenale | Answer is B. None | |
Most frequent site of tubal ectopic pregnancy is: (A) Interstitial, (B) Isthmic, (C) Ampulla, (D) Infundibulum | Answer is C. Nearly 95 percent of ectopic pregnancies are implanted in the various segments of the fallopian tube. The ampulla (70 percent) is the most frequent site, followed by isthmic (12 percent), fimbrial (11 percent), and interstitial tubal pregnancies (2 percent).The remaining 5 percent of non-tubal ectopic preg... | |
A one year old child having leucocoria was detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve:: (A) Enucleation, (B) Chemotherapy followed by local dyes, (C) Direct Laser ablation using photo dynamic cryotherapy, (D) Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemothera... | Answer is A. A i.e. Enucleation | |
After removal of granulation tissue from periodontal
pocket the hard structure seen is: (A) Periosteum, (B) Transseptal fibres, (C) Sharpey's fibres, (D) Organized granulation tissue | Answer is B. None | |
All are true regarding folliculogensis and ovulation except: (A) Follicular development and differentiation takes about 85 days, (B) AMH suppos follicular development and oocyte maturation, (C) First phase of follicular growth is gonadotrophin insensitive, (D) Elevated and static levels of estradiol is essential for ov... | Answer is D. Peak level of LH is required for ovulation Peak level is 75ng/ml It lasts for 24 hours Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 40. | |
A 16-year-old boy arrives to your office soon after beginning basketball season. He states that he has had progressive pain in his knees. A physical examination reveals, in addition to tenderness, a swollen and prominent tibial tubercle. Radiographs of the area are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likel... | Answer is A. This history is typical of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Microfractures in the area of the insertion of the patellar tendon into the tibial tubercle are common in athletic adolescents. Swelling, tenderness, and an increase in size of the tibial tuberosity are found. Radiographs can be used to rule out other co... | |
All of the following statements about Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) are true, Except :: (A) Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia, (B) Thrombocytopenia, (C) Normal complement levels, (D) Grossly abnormal coagulation tests | Answer is D. Answer is D i.e. (Grossly abnormal coagulation tests) Tests of coagulation are essentially normal in Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP). Clinical Pentad + Normal Tests for coagulation : TTP Clinical Pentad of TTP | |
Simple anchorage refers to: (A) Closure by tipping, (B) Closure by bodily movement, (C) Closure by rotation, (D) Closure by intrusion | Answer is A. None | |
Prothombin Time (PT) of a patient is 26, Control PT is 13 seconds and Sensitivity index is 1.41. What will be the INR of this patient?: (A) 26/13, (B) (26/13) x 1.41, (C) (26/13)+1.41, (D) (26/13)1.41 | Answer is D. The INR calculation has become a standard method for monitoring the PT values. It is calculated as = (patient prothrombin time/mean prothrombin time)ISI. Patient prothrombin time = 26 Mean prothrombin time = 13 ISI (International Sensitivity Index) = 1.41 INR = (26/13)1.41 Ref: Laboratory Hematology Practi... | |
Which event will NOT occur during depolarization phase?: (A) Na+ channels open, (B) Ca+ channels open, (C) K+ channels open, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Na+ channels open, increasing the permeability of the cell membrane to Na+. Sodiumions then diffuse into the cell, causing depolarization. This causes K+ channels to close quickly, decreasing the permeability of the cell membrane to K+. The decreased diffusion of K+out of the cell also causes depolarizatio... | |
All the following are features of Endotoxins Except: (A) Lipopolysaccharides, (B) Proteins, (C) Heat stable, (D) No enzymic action | Answer is B. Distinguishing features of exotoxins and endotoxinsExotoxinsEndotoxinsProteinsLipopolysaccharidesHeat-labileHeat StableActively secreted by cells; diffuse into surrounding mediumForm pa of the cell wall; do not diffuse into surrounding mediumReadily separable from cultures by physical means such as filtrat... | |
The systolic blood pressure of 10 individuals was measured. The mean and median values were calculated to be 130 mmHg and 140 mmHg respectively. What is the shape of the frequency distribution curve?: (A) Symmetrical distribution, (B) Bimodal distribution, (C) Positively skewed distribution, (D) Negatively skewed distr... | Answer is D. A negatively skewed distribution is where most of the values are on the higher side and the tail is pointing left. The mean of a distribution is more affected by extreme values than is the median. Therefore, in a negatively skewed distribution with few values on the lower end of the distribution, the mean ... | |
Insal-Salvati index is used for: (A) Olecranon, (B) Patella, (C) Talus, (D) Scaphoid | Answer is B. a-length of patellar ligament b-length of patella INSAL-SALVATI index=a/b Normal range is 0.8 -1.2 If ratio increases it suggests patella is at a higher level-PATELLA ALTA If ratio decreases it suggests patella is at a lower level -PATELLA BAHA ref:apley's 9th edition pg no.565 | |
Which of the following is true about imatinib: (A) It acts by inhibition of tyrosine kinase, (B) It is used to treat GIST, (C) Side effect of imatinib is pedal edema, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
A head injured patient, who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused and localizes to pain. What is the Glassgow coma score :: (A) 7, (B) 9, (C) 11, (D) 13 | Answer is C. Answer is C (11): A head injury patient who opens eyes to painfid stimulus (2), is confused (4) and localizes pain (5) has a GCS `Glasgow coma scale' score of 11. | |
Vitamin D-resistant rickets is associated with all of the following, except: (A) Hypophosphatemia, (B) Increased calcium absorption, (C) Osteomalacia, (D) Osteoporosis | Answer is D. None | |
Which is the middle and large carpal bone -: (A) Scaphoid, (B) Pisiform, (C) Hamate, (D) Capitate | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Capitate o Among the given options only capitate lies in middle (not lateral or medial) and it is the largest carpal boneo Scaphoid is lateral most bone in proximal row, pisiform is medial most bone in proximal row and hamate is medial most bone in distal row.Carpal bonesProximal Row (Lat... | |
Which one of the following is a subcortical dementia?: (A) Alzheimer's disease, (B) Huntington's chorea, (C) Normal pressure Hydrocephalus, (D) Vit B12 deficiency | Answer is B. None | |
Severe malnutrition is defined in adults with BMI less than: (A) 18.5, (B) 16, (C) 13, (D) 11 | Answer is B. Body mass index (BMI) BMI = wt (kg)/ ht (m)2 Example: an adult of 70 kg with a height of 1.75 m has a BMI of 70/1.752= 22.9 kg/m2 * BMI is a useful way of identifying under- or over-nutrition but cannot discriminate between lean body or muscle mass and fat mass <img src=" /> Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 76 | |
First cell to migrate into a wound due to chemotaxis to sta the process of wound healing is -: (A) Lymphocyte, (B) Macrophage, (C) Platelet, (D) Neutrophil | Answer is D. . In healing 1.intial haemorrhage. 2.acute inflammatory response:this occurs withiwithin 24 hours with appearance of polymorphs from margin of incision by the 3rd day polymorphs are replaced by macrophages. Ref Robbins 9 /e pg62-65 | |
Most common ovarian tumour in less than 20 year old is:: (A) Epithelial tumour, (B) Germ cell tumour, (C) Metastatic tumour, (D) Sex cord stromal tumour | Answer is B. Below 20 years, 60% ovarian tumours are of germ cell origin and in girls less than 105, 85% tumours are of germ cell origin. Ref: Shaw 15th edition: page; 376. | |
Fohergill's repair is also known as :: (A) Khanna's sling operation, (B) Manchester operation, (C) Le Fo's repair, (D) Shirodkar's abdominal sling operation | Answer is B. Manchester operation | |
All of the following are contraindications for rigid esophagoscopy Except: (A) Trismus, (B) Aoic aneurysm, (C) Stricture, (D) None | Answer is C. Regular oesophageal dilatation is done for stricture. Stricture is dilated endoscopically using guidewires. Dilators are solid type with gradual increase in diameters. Dilatation should be done up to minimum 16mm diameter. Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edittion, page no= 792 | |
The Pearl index indicates the number of accidental pregnancies per -: (A) 1000 population, (B) 100 live births, (C) 100 women in the age group of 15 to 44 years, (D) 100 women years | Answer is D. None | |
Shoening of lower limb with abduction and internal rotation is observed in which of the following types of hip dislocation?: (A) Anterior dislocation, (B) Posterior dislocation, (C) Central dislocation, (D) Lateral dislocation | Answer is C. Ans. c. Central dislocation | |
Acantholysis is characteristic of:: (A) Pemphigus vulgaris, (B) Pemphigoid, (C) Erythema multoforme, (D) Dermatitis herpetiformis | Answer is A. A i.e. Pemphigus Vulgaris | |
In cirrhotic ascites, which diuretic is preferred ?: (A) Furosemide, (B) Acetazolamide, (C) Spironolactone, (D) Any of the above | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following peptides are not produced by the renal system?: (A) Renin, (B) Angiotensin I, (C) Erythropoietin, (D) 1,25DHCC | Answer is B. The hormones produced in the kidneys are 1,25 Dihyrocholecalciferol, Renin and Erythropoetin. Angiotensin is an oligopeptide and is a hormone and a powerful dipsogen. It is derived from the precursor molecule angiotensinogen, a serum globulin produced in the liver. It plays an impoant role in the renin-ang... | |
All of the following drugs act by blocking calcium channels except:: (A) Dantrolene, (B) Nicardipine, (C) Diltiazem, (D) Verapamil | Answer is A. None | |
Bone marrow depression is seen with chronic administration of: (A) Isoflurane, (B) N2O, (C) Ether, (D) Halothane | Answer is B. (Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no.163-168) | |
Which of the following statements about imipenem is most accurate?: (A) The drug has a narrow spectrum of antibacterial action, (B) It is used in fixed dose combination with sulbactum, (C) In renal dysfunction, dosage reductions are necessary to avoid seizures, (D) Imipenem is active against methicillin-resistant staph... | Answer is C. Carbapenems are synthetic b-lactam antibiotics Imipenem, meropenem, doripenem and eapenem are the drugs of this group currently available. Imipenem : Effective against : Gm +ve, Gm -ve including pseudomonas and anaerobic. Dehydropeptidase by kidney metabolises imipenem rapidly. Cilastatin is a dehydropetid... | |
The true statement about contrast induced acute kidney injury is:: (A) Rise in the serum creatinine after 12 hours, (B) Peak in serum creatinine in 2 weeks, (C) Dialysis requirement is usually uncommon, (D) High fractional excretion of Na is a common finding | Answer is C. Iodinated contrast agents are a leading cause of AKI. Increased risk is seen in Chronic kidney disease - paicularly diabetic nephropathy The most common clinical course of contrast nephropathy is A rise in SCr beginning 24-48 hours following exposure Peaking within 3-5 days Resolving within 1 week ALSO NOT... | |
A pt. presents with hematuria of several days and dysmorphic RBC casts in urine. The site of origin is -: (A) Kidney, (B) Ureter, (C) Bladder, (D) Urethra | Answer is A. None | |
Which Fully humanized antibody is used in treatment of rheumatoid ahritis?: (A) Anakira, (B) Adalimumab, (C) Infliximab, (D) Leflunomide | Answer is B. MUMABs- are fully humanized monoclonal antibodies Omabs- derived from mice Zumabs- 80 % Human Adaliimumab: This recombinant monoclonal anti-TNF Antibody is administered s.c. 40 mg every 2 weeks. Injection site reaction and respiratory infections are common adverse effects. Combination with Mtx is advised t... | |
The drug of choice for mushroom poisoning-: (A) Adrenaline, (B) Physostigmine, (C) Atropine, (D) Carbachol | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Atropine Mushroom poisoning o Depending on the toxic principal present in the paicular species, at least 3 types of mushroom poisoning is known. 1. Muscarine type (early mushroom poisoning) Due to Inocybe and related species. Symptoms are due to muscarinic action. T/t of choice is atropin... | |
Prerequisite for applying forceps are all except: September 2007: (A) Aftercoming head of breech, (B) There should be no CPD, (C) Saggital suture should be in line with transverse diameter of pelvis, (D) Foetal head should be engaged | Answer is C. Ans. C: Saggital suture should be in line with transverse diameter of pelvis Conditions to be fulfilled prior to forceps operation: The fetal head must be engaged Cervix must be fully dilated Membranes must be ruptured The position and station of the fetal head must be known No major CPD Adequate analgesia... | |
Amino acid involved in urea synthesis:: (A) Glutamine, (B) Aspaic acid, (C) Valine, (D) Phenylalanine | Answer is B. Ans:B.)Aspaic Acid Urea has 2 amino (-NH2) groups, one derived from NH3 and other from aspaate.UREA CYCLE* Location: Cytosol and mitochondria of hepatocytes.* Substrates: NH 3 (as derived from oxidative deamination of glutamate); CO2 ; aspaate; three ATP.* Products: Urea; fumarate; H2O.* Purpose: The urea ... | |
All are causes of pulmonary hypertension except-: (A) Hyperventilation, (B) Morbid obesity, (C) High altitude, (D) Fenfluramine | Answer is A. None | |
Current mode of analgesia best for intrapartum pain relief:: (A) Epidural analgesia, (B) Spinal anaesthesia, (C) Inhalational, (D) Local analgesia | Answer is A. Ans. a (Epidural analgesia)LUMBAR EPIDURAL ANALGESIAIndications for lumbar epidural analgesia :# Pain in labor, management of the patient with preeclampsia who does not have a coagulation abnormality, management of labor in patients with certain cardiac lesions, and management of breech delivery.# Of the v... | |
28 weeks pregnancy with abdominal pain and fever. Ultrasonographic examination shows presence of fibroid. What is the next line of management-: (A) Hysterectomy, (B) Conservative management, (C) Termination, (D) Myomectomy | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Conservative management o The presence ofpain and fever in a female in her mid pregnancy with ultrasound examination showing presence offibroid supports the diagnosis of red degeneration.Red Degeneration (Also known as Carneous Degeneration)o Occurs in pregnant females with presence of fi... | |
Which of the following is seen at high altitude:September 2011: (A) Low PaO2, (B) High PaO2, (C) Normal PaO2, (D) High PaCO2, Low PaO2 | Answer is A. Ans. A: Low PaO2With increasing altitude, barometric pressure decreases, so the total pressure of the air decreases and pH2O and pCO2 remains constant So p02 and pN2 decreases progressively with heightHigh-altitude illnessUsually occurs at altitudes of over 1,500 m (4,921 ft)Caused primarily by hypoxia but... | |
In a child presenting with obstructive jaundice all are seen except: (A) Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, (B) Alkaline phosphatase, (C) Glutamate dehydrogenase, (D) 5' Nucleotidase | Answer is C. .lab investigations in obstructive jaundice gamma glutamyl transpeptidase:>50IU/L Serum bilirubin:>1mg%direct is increased serum albumin globulin ratio prothrombin time serum alkaline phosphatase,SGOT,SGPT,5&;nucleotidase ERCP TLC BAILEY AND LOVE&;S SHO PRACTICE OF SURGERY,24 th edition, PG NO:696 | |
Most common renal pathology in shock:: (A) Acute tubular necrosis, (B) Acute cortical necrosis, (C) Renal vein thrombosis, (D) Acute medullar necrosis | Answer is A. Ans: a | |
Which of these features is a classic radiologic feature of optic nerve glioma:: (A) Tram-track appearance of optic nerve, (B) Kingking of optic nerve, (C) Multiple cystic spaces in optic nerve, (D) Adjacent bony erosion | Answer is B. Ans. Kingking of optic nerve | |
Treatment of Advanced Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional retinal detachment involves all of the following except.: (A) Reattachment of detached or torn retina, (B) Removal of epiretinal membrane, (C) Vitrectomy, (D) Exophotocoagulation | Answer is D. D i.e. Exophotocoagulation Treatment of advanced proliferative diabetic retinopathy with vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional rectinal detachment involves previtrectomy pan retinal endophoto coagulation (not exophotocoagulation)Q, vitrectomy (pars plana or posterior route), reattachment of detached or tor... | |
Deficiency in globin synthesis: (A) Thalassemia, (B) Sickle cell disease, (C) Hereditary spherocytosis, (D) None of these | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., ThalassemiaThalassemia Syndromes :?The thalassemia syndromes are a heterogeneous group of disorders caused by inherited mutations that decrease the synthesis of either the a-globin or (3-globin chains that compose adult hemoglobin, HbA (a2(32), leading to anemia, tissue hypoxia, and red c... | |
A alcoholics addicted presents in emergency with irrelevant talking & disoriented to time, place and person there is H/O not taking alcohol from last 3 days & no head injury. He also have visual hallucination. The diagnosis?: (A) Dementia praecox, (B) Delirium tremens, (C) Schizophrenia, (D) Korsakoff psychosis | Answer is B. B i.e. Delirium tremens |
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