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A thirty year man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of 5 days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubin of 6.7 mg/dl (conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT/SGPT (AST/ALT) of 1230/ 900 IU/ml. The serological tests showed presence of HBsAg, IgM anti HBc and HBe Ag. The most likely diagnosis -: (A) Chronic he... | Answer is B. None | |
In computed tomography (CT), the attenuation values are measured in Hounsfield units (HU). An attenuation value of '0' (zero) HU corresponds to:: (A) Water, (B) Air, (C) Very dense bone structures, (D) Fat | Answer is A. Ans. Water | |
SSRI is first line treatment for :: (A) OCD, (B) Panic disorder, (C) Social phobia, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans:D.)All Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are US-FDA approved drugs of first choice (line) for major Depression, Obscessive - compulsive disorder (OCD), Premenstrual dysphoric disorder, Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), Panic disorder, Eating disorder (bulimia nervosa), and Social pho... | |
Mees lines are characteristic of which poisoning?: (A) Phosphorus, (B) Arsenic, (C) Lead, (D) Thalliam | Answer is B. Mes line(Aldrich mees line) are very charactristic of Arsenic poisoning.They are white bands of opacity in the nails of fingers and toes. | |
Glutamic acid is formed from which of the following amino acid?: (A) Threonine, (B) Proline, (C) Alanine, (D) Lysine | Answer is C. Glutamic acid is formed by the transamination of alanine and vice versa. Alanine aminotransferase is the enzyme and pyridoxal phosphate is the coenzyme.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 201, fig.15.8. | |
Which disease comes under International Surveillance?: (A) Typhoid fever, (B) Salmonellosis, (C) Chikungunya fever, (D) Hepatitis B | Answer is B. Diseases under WHO surveillance Polio Rabies Relapsing fever Influenza Salmonellosis Malaria Louse born typhus Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition | |
Coenzyme used in Kreb's cycle ?: (A) NAD, (B) NADP, (C) NADPH, (D) NADH | Answer is A. Niacin is used as coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD') for transfer of hydrogen. | |
Apolipoprotein activating L-CAT (LQ) is: (A) B - 48, (B) A - I, (C) A - II, (D) B-100 | Answer is B. A-1 is the integral apoprotein of HDL.LCAT binds to discoidal HDL activated by A1 conves discoidal HDL to HDL 3Harpers Biochemistry; 30th edition | |
B-type tympanogram is seen in -: (A) Serous otitis media, (B) Ossicular discontinuity, (C) Otosclerosis, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Serous otitis media Type of curseConditionA curve (Normal peak height and pressure)NormalEustachian tube obstructionAs curve (It is also a variant of normal tympanogram but may be shallow)OtosclerosisTumors of middle earFixed malleus syndromeTy mpanosclerosi sAd curve(Variant of normal wi... | |
In adults, circulatory collapse occurs after a minimum of what percentage burns of total body surface area: NIMHANS 08; TN 11: (A) 5%, (B) 10%, (C) 15%, (D) 20% | Answer is C. Ans. 15% | |
What passes through diaphragm at T12 level ?: (A) Esophagus, (B) IVC, (C) Thoracic duct, (D) Phrenic nerve | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thoracic duct | |
Beri-Beri is caused by -: (A) Thiamine, (B) Folic acid, (C) Riboflavin, (D) Niacin | Answer is A. - beri beri is due to the deficiency of thiamine. - it has 3 main forms. Dry form characterised by nerve involvement. Wet firm characterised by hea involvement and infantile beri beri. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:618 <\p> | |
A 58 year old male presents with hematuria. He s diagnosed of having bladder cancer which extends muscle deep. The best treatment is: (A) Intravesical Chemotherapy, (B) Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radical cystectomy, (C) Radiotherapy, (D) Tranurethral resection | Answer is B. Answer- B. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radical cystectomy | |
The condition in which patient present with normal
leucocyte count or less than normal and shows WBC in
the peripheral blood:: (A) Aleukemic Leukemia, (B) Subleukemic leukemia, (C) Acute leukemia, (D) Chronic leukemia | Answer is A. None | |
The most common cause of a pleural effusion is: (A) Cirrhosis, (B) Left ventricular failure, (C) Pulmonary embolism, (D) Pneumonia | Answer is B. The most common cause of pleural effusion is left ventricular failure. Pleural effusions occur in hea failure when there are increased hydrostatic forces increasing the pulmonary interstitial fluid and the lymphatic drainage is inadequate to remove the fluid.Right-sided effusions are more common than left-... | |
M/c cause of chronic laryngeal stenosis ?: (A) Trauma, (B) TB, (C) Wegeners, (D) Tumor | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trauma Laryngeal stenosis (LS) is a congenital or acquired narrowing of the larynx causing airway compromise. The acquired causes may be due to endotracheal intubation, trauma, burns, inflammation, neoplasms, autoimmune disorders and collagen vascular disease. | |
Child knows his/her sex at the age of:: (A) 1 year, (B) 3 years, (C) 5 years, (D) 7 years | Answer is B. A child knows her full name and gender by the age of 3 years. | |
Early stage of trauma is characterized by: (A) Catabolism, (B) Anabolism, (C) Glycogenesis, (D) Lipolysis | Answer is A. Injury Phase (Phase of catabolism):-- Begins at the time of injury and lasts for 2-5 days-- Phase of hypermetabolism-- Stress hormones (coisol, catecholamines and glucagon) and volume control hormones (renin-angiotensin, aldosterone and ADH) are increased. This leads to proteolysis, lipolysis, hyperglycemi... | |
Example for Denticulate suture: (A) Internasal suture, (B) Coronal suture, (C) Lambdoid suture, (D) Parietotemporal suture | Answer is C. Types of sutures:Plane: Internasal sutureSerrate: Coronal sutureDenticulate: Lambdoid sutureSquamous: Parieto-Temporal sutureReference: Chourasia; 6th Edition; 4th page | |
A 29-year-old female diagnosed with AIDS has been suffering from a progressive blurring of vision in her right eye. On funduscopic examination, a small white opaque lesion is noted on the retina of her right eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?: (A) Acyclovir, (B) Amantadine, (C... | Answer is D. This patient is most likely suffering from cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. The best drug treatment for this infection is ganciclovir. Acyclovir is not effective in CMV infections. It is used more for HSV type 1 and 2 infections. Amantadine is used either therapeutically or prophylactically for the influen... | |
Denominator of MMR if MMR is expressed as 167 is:-: (A) Per 100000 live births, (B) Per 1000 total birth, (C) Per 10000 total birth, (D) Total number of women of reproductive age group in the population | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. 1000 live births It's a ratio: Denominator is Per 100000 live births. It will be rate : if the denominator is reproductive women. But still some books write it as rate. But in Park it's clearly differentiated. The data we express MMR as 167 is a ratio. | |
Kamli Rath 75 yrs old woman present with post-myocardial infarction after 6 weeks with mild CHF. There was past H/O neck surgery for parathyroid adenoma 5 years ago, EKG shows slow atrial fibrillation. Serum Ca+2 13.0 mg/L and urinary Ca2+ is 300 mg/ 24 hr. On examination, there is small mass in the Para tracheal posi... | Answer is D. This patient operated previously for parathyroid adenoma, is having recurrent hyperparathyroidism.
In the setting of recent myocardial infarction, CHF and atrial fibrillation, any operation carries a high risk. Furthermore, an operation on a previously operated neck is quite difficult.
Alcohol ablation of ... | |
Polyariticular rheumatoid ahritis is diagnosed when more than............. Joints are involved: (A) One, (B) Two, (C) Four, (D) Five | Answer is D. The initial pattern of disturbution of joint involvement may be monoaicular,oligoaicular(less than 4 joints),or Polyariticular (,greater than 5 joints ) usually on a symmetric distribution Ref, :Robbins page no 1209 8th edition | |
A 56-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer that was treated 5 years ago with lumpectomy and radiation but with no chemotherapy returns with bone pain, fatigue, and weakness. A complete blood count reveals severe anemia, as well as decreased white blood cells and platelets. Examination of a peripheral blood sme... | Answer is D. - Infiltration of tumor cells from cancers, those of breast & prostate - displaces bone marrow elements, thereby causing myelophthisic anemia. OTHER OPTIONS: - Chloramphenicol causes aplastic anemia in some individuals. - Diphyllobothrium latum infestation can result in megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin ... | |
Which is the first permanent tooth to erupt ?: (A) Canine, (B) Molar, (C) Incisors, (D) Premolar | Answer is B. First and the last tooth to erupt in permanent dentition is Molars. | |
The limit of loudness (expressed as decibels) that workers can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing, during their work hours, is:: (A) 55, (B) 65, (C) 75, (D) 85 | Answer is D. A noise of 90 dB (A) SPL, 8 hours a day for 5 days per week is the maximum safe limit as recommended by Ministry of Labour, Govt. of India-Model rules under Factories act Noise induced hearing loss Hearing loss can result from damage to structures or nerve fibers in the inner ear that respond to sound. Thi... | |
Among the following the least common cause of acute upper GI bleeding is?: (A) Mallory Weiss tear, (B) Ulcer, (C) Varices, (D) Vascular ectasia | Answer is D. Source of bleeding Propoion of patients, % Ulcers 31-67 Varices 6-39 Mallory Weiss tears 2-8 Gastroduodenal erosions 2-18 Erosive esophagitis 1-13 Neoplasm 2-8 Vascular ectasia 0-6 No source identified 5-15 | |
HHV-6B causes -: (A) Carcinoma cervix, (B) Carcinoma endometrium, (C) Clear cell carcinoma, (D) Focal encephalitis | Answer is D. HHV 6B is the cause of mild but common childhood illness exanthem subitum. In older age groups ,it has been associated with infectious mononucleosis syndrome,focal encephalitis and in the immunodeficient,with pneumonia and disseminated disease. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 8TH E... | |
Anatomical structure injured in excision of ranula -: (A) Lingual vein, (B) Lingual artery, (C) Submandibular duct, (D) Parotid duct | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following findings is suggestive that ovulation has taken place?: (A) Pseudostratification in endometrium, (B) Presence of Spinnbarkeit Phenomenon in cervical mucous, (C) Sudden reduction in size of follicle and free fluid in Pouch of Douglas on USG, (D) Trilamilar endometrium on USG | Answer is C. Endometrial biopsy Early secretory Subnuclear vacuolation (Ist HPE evidence of progesterone secretion) Seen on D16 of cycle Nuclei of glands gone up Stromal edema Late secretory Toous/ coiled glands All secretions in lumen of gland Cork screw glands( on D20 of cycle) Max stromal edema seen around D22of cyc... | |
Sedative with GABA facilitating action but without anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant propeies and no effect on sleep ?: (A) Diazepam, (B) Zolpidem, (C) Phenobarbitone, (D) Buspirone | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Zolpidem Among the given options, three are sedative-hypnotic with GABA facilitatory action - Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) - But it also has anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant propey. it) Phenobarbitone - But it has anticonvulsant propey. Zolpidem Has no anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant ... | |
First branch of Facial nerve is:: (A) Nerve to stapedius, (B) Chorda tympani nerve, (C) Greater petrosal nerve, (D) Lesser petrosal nerve | Answer is C. Ans. C. Greater petrosal nerveFacial nerve is the 7th cranial nerve. It is a mixed (i.e., motor and sensory) nerve, but predominantly it is motor. It is named facial nerve because it supplies the muscles of facial expression.Branchesa. Greater petrosal nerve--arises from the geniculate ganglion. It is the ... | |
The demographic goal of Net Reproduction Rate is equal to one (NPR=1) can be achieved only if the Couple Protection Rate exceeds: (A) 40%, (B) 50%, (C) 60%, (D) 70% | Answer is C. (C) 60%[?]Couple protection rate (CPR)oCouple protection rate (CPR) is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community.oIt is defined as the per cent of eligible couples effectively protected against childbirth by one or the other approved methods of family planning, viz. steriliz... | |
Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC are all of the following, except:: (A) Polycythemia, (B) Hypercalcemia, (C) Hypeension, (D) Cushing syndrome | Answer is D. RCC is associated with wide range of paraneoplastic syndromes, ? Erythrocytosis (polycythemia ? Hypercalcemia ? Hypeension ? Non metastatic hepatic dysfunction Cushing syndrome is rarely seen in RCC. Ref: Emil A. Tanagho, Jack W. McAninch, (2004), Chapter 21, "Renal paranchymal neoplasm", In the book, "Smi... | |
Red flag sign in child development if not attained by __________: (A) No single word at 18 month, (B) Not able sit with unsuppoed by 12 months, (C) Not walking alone by 18 month in boys, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Red Flags in Developmental Screening and SurveillanceThese indicators suggest that development is seriously disordered and that the child should be promptly referred to a developmental or community pediatrician. Note: Most children do not have "red flags" and thus require quality screening to detect any pr... | |
Michaelis Menten Hypothesis states that: (A) Rate of enzymatic reaction is independent of substrate concentration, (B) Rate of non enzymatic reaction is proportional to substrate concentration, (C) Km is the enzyme substrate complex association constant, (D) Enzyme substrate complex formation is essential in enzymatic ... | Answer is D. Michaelis-Menten Theory (Enzyme-Substrate Complex Theory)
Enzyme combines with a substrate to form a transient Enzyme-Substrate Complex which immediately break into Enzyme and products. | |
Function of Ig A is -: (A) Acts as a mucosal barrier for infection, (B) Circulating antibody, (C) Kills virus infected cells, (D) Activates macrophages | Answer is A. Question repeated | |
Glycolytic enzymes(s) inhibited by Fluoride:: (A) Hexokinase, (B) Aldolase, (C) Enolase, (D) Pyruvate kinase | Answer is C. Inhibitors of Glycolysis: Inhibitors of Glycolysis Enzyme Inhibited Iodoacetate Glyceraldehyde - 3 - P Dehydrogenase Arsenate Glyceraldehye - 3 - P Dehydrogenase Sodium fluoride Enolase Oxamate Lactate Dehydrogenase | |
A patient is to undergo angiography for unstable angina. His routine evaluation revealed his serum creatinine to be elevated. All of the following can be used to prevent contrast nephropathy, EXCEPT:: (A) Haemofiltration, (B) Fenoldopam, (C) N-acetylcysteine, (D) 1/2 N saline | Answer is B. Strategies for the Prevention of Contrast-Induced Nephropathy: Strategies that do not work: Mannitol Furosemide Dopamine Atrial natriuretic factor Fenoldopam Hemodialysis Strategies that may work: Calcium channel blockers Theophylline N-Acetylcysteine Hemofiltration Sodium bicarbonate Ascorbic acid Iso-osm... | |
A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All the following things are suitable for performing LASIK surgery except –: (A) Myopia of 4 Diopters, (B) Age of 15 years, (C) Stable refraction for 1 year, (D) Corneal thickness of 600 microns | Answer is B. Patient selection criteria for LASIK
Patients above 20 years of age
Stable refraction for at least 12 months
Motivated patients
Myopia up to -12D
The absence of corneal pathology
Corneal thickness > 500 m
Contraindications of LASIK
Monocular patient
Infections eg: conjunctivitis
Glaucoma
Autoimmune dis... | |
Cardiac index is the ratio of?: (A) Cardiac output and body weight, (B) Cardiac output and surface area, (C) Cardiac output and work of hea, (D) Surface volume and surface area | Answer is B. Cardiac index is the cardiac output corrected for the individual's size. For example, the cardiac output of a 50-kg woman will be significantly lower than that of a 90-kg man. It has been found, however, that cardiac output correlates better with body surface area than with body weight. Therefore, it is co... | |
Carcinoma cervix involving upper 2/3rd of vagina. The stage would be: September 2009: (A) Stage II a, (B) Stage II b, (C) Stage III a, (D) Stage III b | Answer is A. Ans. A: Stage II a | |
An 18-year-old pregnant woman receives no prenatal care, eats a diet containing mostly carbohydrates and fats, and does not take prenatal vitamins with iron. She feels increasingly tired and weak during the third trimester. The infant is born at 35 weeks' gestation and is listless during the first week of life. Laborat... | Answer is C. Iron deficiency, which gives rise to microcytic anemia, is common in women of reproductive age because of menstrual blood loss and in children with a poor diet. During pregnancy, women have greatly increased iron needs. Low serum ferritin is indicative of iron deficiency. Dermatitis can be seen in pellagra... | |
Not a cause of Roth spots?: (A) Leukemia, (B) Severe anemia, (C) SLE, (D) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis | Answer is D. Roth spots Round retinal hemorrhages with white centers Seen in : Infective endocarditis SLE Serum sickness Polyaeritis nodosa Severe anemia Leukemia Prolonged anesthesia | |
Which of the following is not true about the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?: (A) Acts on mid brain, ascending reticular formation and limbic system, (B) It exerts effects through the GABA A receptors, (C) It increases conductance of Cl- channels, (D) It has GABA mimetic action | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., It has GABA mimetic action Mechanism of action of benzodiazepines (BZDs)* Muscle relaxation is produced by action on medulla.* Ataxia is due to action on cerebellum.* BZDs acts on GABAA receptors.* GABAa receptor has 5 subunits a / b, b, a / g.* GABA binding site is on b. subunit, while B... | |
Following are the findings in sickle cell Anemia, except -: (A) Fish vertebra, (B) Enlarged heart, (C) Splenomegaly usually seen, (D) Leukocytosis | Answer is C. Splenomegaly is found in the early stage of sickle cell anemia. By continued infarction and hypoxia leads to progressive scarring and shrinkage of the spleen, so that by adolescent or the adulthood, only a small nubbin of fibrous tissue may be left; this is called autosplenectomy.
Bone changes in sickle ce... | |
Which of the following conditions does not have a National Screening/Control Programme?: (A) Diabetes Mellitus, (B) Dental caries, (C) Refractive errors, (D) Carcinoma cervix | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. Dental caries o No National programme for oral health is under implementation. About other options o There is Pilot Programme for prevention & control of DM. CVD and deafness. o The National Programme for control of blindness includes screening for refractive errors. o Cervical cancer scre... | |
Which of the following contains sulphur?: (A) Creatine, (B) Insulin, (C) Inulin, (D) Creatinine | Answer is B. Ans: b (Insulin) Ref: Harper, 25th ed, p. 347,115Insulin is a polypeptide consisting of two chains linked by two inter chain di sulphide bridges.Amino acids required for special products:> Creatine - glycine + arginine+ methionine> Glutathione - glycine + cysteine + glutamate> Purine - glycine + aspartate ... | |
Which one of the following is the management of pancreatic abscess -: (A) Needle aspiration, (B) Gastro-cytostomy, (C) External drainage, (D) Jejuno-cystostomy | Answer is C. None | |
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is done in all except: (A) ca breast, (B) ca penis, (C) malignant melanoma, (D) ca colon | Answer is D. None | |
During pregnancy the maternal blood volume increases by nearly :: (A) 5 - 10%, (B) 15 -- 20%, (C) 50%, (D) 70% | Answer is C. Ans. is c i.e. 50% Friends, we have dealt with hemodynamic changes during pregnancy in detail earlier but here lets quickly revise a few changes asked quite often. Most impoant physiological changes during pregnancy (for 11th hour revision) Net weight gain in pregnancy is 11 kg (24 lb).deg Blood volume T's... | |
Side effect of MgSo4 used in the treatment of eclampsia is: (A) Hypotension, (B) Polyuria, (C) Coma, (D) Pulmonary edema | Answer is D. Complications : Pulmonary edema Anuria Hea failure Hyperpyrexia Psychosis Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 222. | |
True about Ischiorectal fossa Boundaries: (A) Anterior border is formed by inferior fascia of urogenital diaphragm., (B) Superior border is formed by Gluteus Maximus, (C) Lateral border is formed by Levator Ani, (D) Posterior border is formed by obturator internus muscle. | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Anterior border is formed by inferior fascia of urogenital diaphragm.Ref: IB singh Anatomy 2nd ed. / fig. 25.12ANTERIOR* Fascia of Colles covering the Transversus perinea superficialis* Inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragmPOSTERIOR* Gluteus maximus* Sacrotuberous ligamentLATERAL MEDIAL* Lev... | |
Hypehyroidism will present as all, except :: (A) Hypotension, (B) Atrial fibrillation, (C) Tremor, (D) Panic attacks | Answer is A. Hypehyroid symptoms include heat intolerance, increased sweating and thirst, and weight loss despite adequate caloric intake. Symptoms of increased adrenergic stimulation include palpitations, nervousness, fatigue, emotional lability, hyperkinesis, and tremors. The most common GI symptoms include increased... | |
A patient presents in the causality with history of abdominal pain. On examination the person is in shock, with severe abdominal tenderness and guarding. There was also one episode of bloody diarrhoea. He gives a history of recurrent abdominal pain soon after taking food which persists for about 3 hours after food. He ... | Answer is A. The person has had recurrent episodes of abdominal angina as shown by the pain after food intake. He also has a history of MI which also suggests that he has atherosclerosis. The bloody diarrhoea is again suggestive of mesenteric vascular occlusion in this patient. Ref: Manipal Millennium Edition, Page 429... | |
Fick principle of calculation of cardiac output doesn't depend on-: (A) Whole body oxygen consumption, (B) Oxygen content of arterial blood, (C) Stroke volume, (D) Oxygen content of venous blood | Answer is C. Based on Fick principle | |
Example of type 4 hypersensitivity is:: (A) Serum sickness, (B) Granulomatous reaction, (C) Schwazman reaction, (D) Ahus reaction | Answer is B. Ans. b. Granulomatous reaction | |
A boy presented with prolonged jaundice, constipation and umbilical hernia. what is the probable diagnosis?: (A) Growth hormone deficiency, (B) Kernicterus, (C) Congenital hypothyroidism, (D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia | Answer is C. Prolonged jaundice, constipation, Umbilical hernia are all seen in congenital hypothyroidism. | |
Osteosarcoma can arise from:: (A) Diaphysis, (B) Epiphysis, (C) Metaphysis, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Ans. c (Metaphysis). (Ref. to Radiology Review Manual, 5th/138; Essential orthopedics by Maheshwari 2nd/218)OSTEOSARCOMA* It is 2nd most common 1deg malignant tumor of bone (after multiple myeloma). Peak incidence in menl0-20 years of age. * It has bimodal age distribution: 10-25 years and > 60 years with ... | |
Episodic hypeension is a feature of: (A) Carcinoid tumor, (B) Insulinoma, (C) Pheochromocytoma, (D) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome | Answer is C. Classic triad: Headache + Diaphoresis+ Palpitation | |
Acantholysis is:: (A) Lysis of basale cell layer, (B) Separation of keratinocytes, (C) Thickening of granular layer, (D) Thickening of corneum layer | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Separation of keratinocytesRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 370* Keratinocytes are connected to one another by intracellular desmosomal bridges.* If there is loss of these desmosomal bridges, it will lead to separation of keratinocytes and the condition is known as acantholysis.* If separation continues, ... | |
High risk of malignancy is seen in?: (A) Simple hyperplasia with atypia, (B) Simple hyperplasia without atypia, (C) Complex hyperplasia with atypia, (D) Complex hyperplasia without atypia | Answer is C. Answer is option3, complex hyperplasia with atypia Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia is the least common type of hyperplasia, but is the type most likely to progress to type 1 endometrial carcinoma (1-3) which accounts for 97% of uterine cancers, whereas simple hyperplasia rarely progresses to carcinoma.... | |
The Millennium Development Goals (MUG) is to be achieved by the year -: (A) 2010, (B) 2015, (C) 2020, (D) 2030 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2015 | |
Systemic causes of epistaxis are all except:: (A) Hypeension, (B) Anticoagulant treatment, (C) Hereditary telangietasia, (D) Hemophilia | Answer is D. Hemophilia is secondary cause of epistaxis in children. Ref.Scott Brown 7/e,vol 2,p 1605 | |
Which of the following situations will lead to increased viscosity of blood:: (A) Fasting state, (B) Hypoglycemia, (C) Multiple myeloma, (D) Amyloidogenesis | Answer is C. C i.e. Multiple myeloma | |
A person is being treated for Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1. He developed hyperiglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Most likely drug implicated for these adverse effects is: (A) Ritonavir, (B) Raltegravir, (C) Tenofovir, (D) Eirenz | Answer is A. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor and can cause hyperiglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. All protease inhibitors are metabolized by liver and all can cause metabolic abnormalities including hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, insulin resistance and altered fat istribution (lipodyst... | |
Ropinirole is most useful for the treatment of:: (A) Parkinson's disease, (B) Wilson's disease, (C) Hoffmann syndrome, (D) Carpal tunnel syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. (A) Parkinson's disease(Ref: KDT 8/e p457)Ropinirole is a non-ergot dopamine agonist useful for Parkinsonism. It is also used these days for restless leg syndrome. | |
Which of the following helminths primarily produces gastrointestinal symptoms, without lung involvement, during the course of its infection?: (A) Dirofilaria immitis, (B) Strongyloides stercoralis, (C) Trichuris trichiura, (D) Ascaris lumbricoides | Answer is C. Trichuris humans acquire the infection by eating foods contaminated with infective eggs. Once eggs are swallowed, the larvae hatch in the small intestine, where they mature and migrate to the colon. Trichuris infections with a low worm burden are usually asymptomatic, but infections of moderate to heavy wo... | |
In solitary thyroid nodule true is/are :: (A) THR-Ab, (B) Lined by columnar epithelium, (C) Diffuse hyperplasia of thyroid, (D) Common in female | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e. Common in female A solitary thyroid nodule is a palpably discrete swelling within an otherwise apparently normal thyroid gland. Ceain imp. points about solitary thyroid nodules : STN are more common in women than in men The incidence of STN increases with age Solitary nodules, in general, ... | |
Indications of celiotomy in blunt trauma:: (A) Grade I spleen damage, (B) Grade II liver damage, (C) Peritoneal air on imaging, (D) All | Answer is C. Ans is C (Peritoneal air on imaging) Most spleen and liver injuries are managed non-operatively, if the patient is hemodynamically stable. | |
Two most impoant tests to be done in a comatose patient with blood glucose of 750 mg/dl will be -: (A) Sr. creatinine, (B) Sr. sodium, (C) CSF examination, (D) Blood pH | Answer is A. Comatose patients with blood glucose level of 750 mg/dl suggests the possibility of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state . Lab abnormality in this is marked hyperglycemia, hyperosmolarity, prerenal azotemia. Comatose patients with hyperglycemia is also seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Thus blood ph ( to detect a... | |
A different sequence of amino acids having a similar structure of proteins is an example of: (A) Divergence, (B) Convergence, (C) Opportunistic, (D) Incidental | Answer is B. Divergence and convergence are two evolutionary processes by which organisms become adapted to their environments.
Convergence has been defined as the acquisition of morphologically similar traits between distinctly unrelated
organisms.
Convergence occurs at every level of biological organization.
Functio... | |
Shelf life of Platelets is: (A) < 5 days, (B) < 3 weeks, (C) < 5 weeks, (D) < 2 years | Answer is A. Shelf life of Platelets is < 5 days Cryoprecipitate is 2 years. | |
Phenomenon called anticipation is seen in?: (A) Mitochondrial inheritance, (B) x - linked dominant disorders, (C) Trinucleotide repeat expansion, (D) Genomic imprinting | Answer is C. Instablity of triplet repeats can lead to gradual expansion from generation to generation,a phenomenon called anticipation,Genetic anticipation is characterized by the reduction in the age of disease onset by successive genarations. | |
Lung is characteristically involved in -: (A) Churg-Strauss syndrome, (B) HSP, (C) PAN, (D) ITP | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Churg-Strauss syndromeChurg- strauss syndrome o Also known as allergic granulomatosis and angitis.o It is a medium and small size vasculitis, invoves mainly the blood vessels of lungs, GIT, peripheral nerves, hea, skin, kidney.o As it is allergic, vasculitis it is associated with eosinoph... | |
Which of the following drugs is used for narcoanalysis -: (A) Atropine, (B) Phenobarbitone, (C) Scopolamine, (D) Pethidine | Answer is C. Scopolamine is used as truth serum. Drugs commonly used in narcoanalysis are 1. Thiopentone sodium (Sodium pentothal) 2. Scopolamine hydrobromide 3. Sodium secnol 4. Benzodiazepines REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION | |
Commonest organism giving rise to urinary tract infection -: (A) E. coli, (B) Proteus, (C) Staphylococcus, (D) Streptococcus | Answer is A. • Most UTIs are caused by a single bacterial species.
• At least 80% of the uncomplicated cystitis and pyelonephritis are due to E. coli, with most of pathogenic strains belonging to the O serogroups.
• Other less common uropathogens include Klebsiella, Proteus, and Enterobacter spp. and enterococci.
• In ... | |
Carbamide solution used for bleaching degrades into: (A) 0.3% sodium perborate, (B) 30% hydrogen peroxide, (C) 3% hydrogen peroxide, (D) 30% sodium perborate | Answer is C. None | |
Mechanism of action of sildenafil is: (A) Inhibits PDE 2, (B) Inhibits PDE 4, (C) Inhibits PDE 5, (D) Inhibits PDE 3 | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Inhibits PDE 5 * Sildenafil (Viagra) acts to increase cGMP by inhibiting its breakdown by phosphodiesterase isoform 5 (PDE-5). | |
Intercourse can be cumbersome, annoying & also 'Noisy' with the use of which of the following :: (A) Male condom, (B) Female condom, (C) IUCD, (D) Vaginal ring | Answer is B. Disadvantages of female condoms: 1. Intercourse is noisy, and slippage occurs in about one in 5-10 uses; however, female condom rarely breaks. 2. Occasionally the penis is introduced, by mistake, outside the female condom, which may lead to pregnancy and STDs including HIV. 3. It is an expensive method. | |
Which virus given below is not a teratogenic virus ?: (A) Rubella, (B) Cytomegalovirus, (C) Herpes simplex, (D) Measles | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Measles Many viruses can be transmitted to the fetus and cause infection and tissure damage. Five viruses are known to be teratogenic in humans: cytomegalovirus, rubella, herpes simplex, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, and varicella viruses. | |
Vector for T.cruzi is -: (A) Reduvid bug, (B) Tsetse fly, (C) Sand fly, (D) Hard tick | Answer is A. T.cruzi passes its life cycle I two host Definitive host- humans Intermediate host-triatomine bugs Humans become infectious when reduviid bug bites and the infected faecal matter is discharged near bite wound (refer pgno:49 baveja 3 rd edition) | |
Which of the following is most commonly involved in Hypersensitivity vasculitis:: (A) Capillaries, (B) Aerioles, (C) Post-capillary venules, (D) Medium sized aeries | Answer is C. Answer is C (Post-capillary venules): Post-capillary venules are most commonly involved in Hypersensitivity vasculitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis refers to small vessel vasculitis that is restricted to the skin and not associated with any other form of primary or secondary vasc... | |
Hallmarks of the hemophilia is: (A) Epistaxis, (B) Hemarthrosis, (C) Abdominal pain, (D) Anaemia | Answer is B. (Hemarthroses): Ref: 326-G, 1657-Nelson 17th (321-Ghai 7th)Hemophilia - X-1 inked recessive, The females carries the hemophilia trait but only male offspring suffers from the disease.Clinical features - Bleeding following tooth extraction, severe trauma or following surgery muscle hematoma, and bleeding in... | |
For central venous pressure monitoring all are true except: (A) Internal jugular vein is preferred site, (B) Indicated to administer hyperosmolar drugs, (C) Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure normally is 10-20 mmHg, (D) Swan- ganz catheter entering pulmonary artery shows as dicrotic notch. | Answer is C. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in 4-12 mmHg normally. | |
Cranial end of Wolffian duct forms:: (A) Epoophoron, (B) Paraepoophoron, (C) Gartner cyst, (D) Bartholin cyst | Answer is A. Ans: A (Epoophoron) Ref: Grays Anatomy 40th EdExplanation:Embryology of Reproductive SystemGonadMALES (Testis)FEMALES (Ovary)Gubernacular cord Mesonephros (Wolffian body)Gubernaculum testisOvarian and round ligamentsAppendix of epididymis (?)Appendices vesiculosae (?)Efferent ductulesEooophoronLobules of e... | |
A 60-year old male presents with progressive difficulty in swallowing, vomiting and occasional regurgitation for the past 3 months. Barium studied showed marked dilatation of the upper esophagus with narrowing of the lower segment. Manometry showed absent esophageal peristalsis. This patient needs to have -: (A) Ballon... | Answer is A. The most common cause of narrowing of the esophagus, or stricture, is scarring of the esophagus from reflux of stomach acid occurring in patients with heaburn. Patients with a narrowed poion of the esophagus often have trouble swallowing; food feels like it is "stuck" in the chest region, causing discomfo ... | |
Regarding ranula, all are true except -: (A) Retention cyst, (B) Arises from submandibular gland, (C) Translucent, (D) Plunging may be a feature | Answer is B. A ranula is a mucous retention cyst which arises from sublingual salivary gland and presents as fluctuant swelling with a bluish translucent colour.
Types of Ranula
Ranula may be of two types : -
1)Simple : - Situated in the floor of mouth without any cervical prolongation.
2)Deep/plunging : - Ranula wi... | |
Thinnest labial plate is found in the region of:: (A) Upper central incisors, (B) Lower central incisors, (C) Upper canines, (D) Lower canines | Answer is B. None | |
If thiopentone is injected accidently into an aery the first symptom is: (A) Analgesia, (B) Paralysis, (C) Skin ulceration, (D) Pain | Answer is D. D i.e. Pain | |
40 years old male patient came with complaint of dry cough and dyspnoea. On lung function tests, restrictive pattern of decreases lung function is seen. Chest x-ray showed few reticular opacities in bilateral lung. HRCT of lung was performed which shows GGO in bilateral lung fields sparing sub-pleural region. Most prob... | Answer is B. Interstitial Lung Disease UIP (Usual interstitial pneumonia) NSIP (Non - specific interstitial pneumonia) Reticular opacities Traction bronchiectasis Subpleural honeycombing Subpleural sparing | |
Malignant gastric ulcers are characterized by all except: (A) ulcer extends beyond the gastric wall., (B) Mucosal rugae stop far of ulcers, (C) Eccentric crater, (D) Margins are raised | Answer is A. In malignant ulcers mucosal rugae stop far of the ulcers whereas in benign ulcers mucosal rugae projects outwards front the margins of the ulcer | |
The measure of strength of association between risk factor and outcome is:: (A) Odds ratio, (B) Attributable risk, (C) Relative risk, (D) Poisson's ratio | Answer is A. It is a measure of the strength of association between risk factor and outcome.
The derivation of the Odds ratio is based on three assumptions:
a) The disease being investigated must be relatively rare. In fact, the majority of chronic diseases have a low incidence in the general population.
b) The case... | |
The following affect enzyme activity except: (A) Methylation, (B) Acetylation, (C) Induction, (D) Phosphorylation | Answer is C. Regulation of Enzymes
Can be classified as:
Regulation of Enzyme Quality (Intrinsic Catalytic Efficiency)
• Allosteric Regulation
• Covalent modification.
Covalent modification
• Phosphorylation/dephosphorylation
• Methylation
• Adenylation
• ADP ribosylation
• Acetylation.
Regulation of enzyme quantity
... | |
Aggrecan is:: (A) A receptor over platelets, (B) A molecule present in osteoid tissue, (C) Granules in leukocytes, (D) Impoant component of cailage | Answer is D. Aggrecan is a proteoglycan, also known as cailage-specific proteoglycan core protein (CSPCP) or chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 1. It is encoded by the ACAN gene. Aggrecan is an integral pa of the extracellular matrix (ECM) in cailagenous tissue and it withstands compression in cailage. | |
Feature of diabetes mellitus in pregnancy:a) Postdatismb) Hydramniosc) Neonatal hyperglycemiad) ↑congenital defecte) PPH: (A) bde, (B) ade, (C) ace, (D) bce | Answer is A. As explained in the previous question maternal hyperglycaemia leads to fetal hyperglycaemia, which in turn causes polyuria and thus causes polyhydramnios.
Polyhydramnios leads to preterm delivery and not post datism.
Excessive uterine enlargement because of polyhydramnios and macrosomia causes increased ... | |
Treatment of Mycobacteria avium complex include all except :: (A) Ciprofloxacin, (B) Clarithromycin, (C) Rifabutin, (D) Pyrazinamide | Answer is D. None | |
Specific antibody associated with primary biliary cirrhosis is:: (A) Anti-myosin, (B) Anti-nuclear, (C) Anti-mitochondrial, (D) Anti-endomysial | Answer is C. Ans. C: Anti-mitochondrial Primary biliary cirrhosis is strongly associated with the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA), which are diagnostic PBC: Associated with CREST syndrome, sicca syndrome, auto-immune thyroiditis, type I DM and IgA deficiency IgG AMA is detected in more than 90% of patie... | |
Long acting insulin is?: (A) Insulin glargine, (B) Insulin Lispro, (C) Insulin aspart, (D) Insulin glulisine | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Insulin glargineREF: Pharmacology ReCap 2.0 for Bachelor of Dentistry Students by Dr. J. G. Buch page 304, Harrison s 18m ed chapter 344INSULINS:Highly purifiedmono-componentinsulinPorcine Actrapid- RegularShort actingPorcine Monotard- LenteIntermediate actingPorcine Insulatard- NPH Porcine Mix... | |
Which of the following is not an alkylating agent?: (A) Cyclophosphamide, (B) Busulfan, (C) 5-Fluorouracil, (D) Melphalan | Answer is C. 5- Fluorouracil' Repeat from AI1MS 09 |
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