instruction stringlengths 29 1.82k | input stringclasses 1
value | output stringlengths 14 22.5k |
|---|---|---|
A patient presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy demonstrates a nodular lymphoma with follicle formation. This lesion would most likely be associated with which of the following?: (A) bcr-abl hybrid, (B) bcl-2 activation, (C) c-myc activation, (D) t(8, 14) | Answer is B. Nodular lymphomas of all types are derived from the B-cell line. The translocation t(14, 18), with bcl-2 activation, is associated with these lymphomas. Must know: An abl-bcr hybrid and t(9, 22) translocation are associated with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). c-myc activation and t(8, 14) are associated w... | |
Regarding anaplastic carcinoma, which of the following statement is true?: (A) Common in young, (B) Associated with p53 mutation, (C) Surrounding neck tissue is usually free, (D) Radiotherapy cures | Answer is B. ATC is the most aggressive form of thyroid carcinoma with a disease-specific moality approaching 100%. A typical manifestation is an older patient with dysphagia, cervical tenderness, and a painful, rapidly enlarging neck mass. Patients frequently have a history of prior or coexistent DTC, and up to 50% ha... | |
ESI act was made in -: (A) 1946, (B) 1948, (C) 1952, (D) 1954 | Answer is B. - the ESI act passed in 1948 is an impoant measure of social security and health insurance in the country. - it provides for ceain cash and medical benefits to industrial employees in case of sickness, maternity and employment injury. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edit... | |
Munchausen's syndrome by proxy involves-: (A) Drug abuse, (B) Toxin-mediated neuropsychiatric, (C) Illness caused by care giver, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Munchausen's syndrome by proxy is a form of child abuse in which a patent, usually the mother, or a caretaker repeatedly fabricates or actually inflicts injury or illness in a child for whom medical intervention is then sought, often in an emergency setting. | |
All of the following are features of phaeochromocytoma except :: (A) Hypeensive paroxysm, (B) Headache, (C) Ohostatic hypotension, (D) Wheezing | Answer is D. Answer is D (Wheezing): Wheezing has not been mentioned as a symptom of Pheochromocytoma. The most common symptoms in order of frequency during paroxysm are: - Headache - Palpitation - Vomiting - Sweating - Dyspnea - Weakness - Pallor The most common manifestation is hypeension. e It most commonly occurs i... | |
MC malignancy in children is:: (A) Retinoblastoma, (B) Leukemia, (C) Wilms tumor, (D) Neuroblastoma | Answer is B. b. Leukemia(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 2416)Most frequent childhood cancers are: (in order of decreasing frequency)Leukemia (Most common is ALL)Brain TumorsNeuroblastomaWilms tumor | |
In a 10-year-old child the lower canines are trying to erupt in 2mm insufficient space. The primary molars are large and firmly fixed. The 1st premolars are also erupting. The treatment of choice is:: (A) Remove primary 2nd molars, (B) Place a removable bite-opener, (C) Remove 1st premolars, (D) Mesial stripping of pri... | Answer is D. None | |
Isthmus of thyroid gland lies at which level -: (A) C2, (B) C4, (C) C5, (D) C7 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., C7 Scheme to show the location arsd subdivisions of the thyroid gland including the false capsule | |
Which of the following side effects are seen with etomidate-: (A) Myoclonus, Adrenal suppression, Haemodynomic imbalance(HI), (B) Myoclonus, adrenal suppression, pain on IV injection, (C) Pain on IV injection, Adrenal suppression, HI, (D) Pain on IV injection, HI ,Myoclonus. | Answer is B. Etomidate a intravenous anaesthetic agent is Milky white in colour , imidazolone derivative, causes pain on iv injection. Major advantages over other intravenous agents is cardiovascular stability thus use cardiac compromised patients Routinely not in clinical use since it is adrenal suppressant. Other sid... | |
Which of the following nerves lies closest to the Wharton' s duct -: (A) Hypoglossal, (B) Lingual, (C) Chorda tympani, (D) Facial | Answer is B. None | |
Which carrier pump is transpoing solutes in thick ascending limb of Henle loop?: (A) Carrier pump Na-K-2Cl transpoer., (B) NaCl- cotranspoer, (C) Na2+-H+ exchanger, (D) Na2+-K+ exchanger | Answer is A. Carrier pump Na-K-2Cl transpoer. REABSORPTION IN THICK ASCENDING LIMB: Sodium, Potassium & Chloride reabsorption: By "Secondary active transpo" - Through Na2+-K+-2Cl-- carrier transpoer. Transpos one Na2+, one K+, & two Cl-. Active sodium absorption occurs. 30% filtered Na2+ reabsorbed. Ref: Guyton 12th Ed... | |
Function of incretin is -: (A) Increased heart rate, (B) Increased insulin secretion, (C) Increased respiratory rate, (D) Stimulate erythropoiesis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increased insulin secretion o Incretins are GI hormones which are secreted by enteroendocrine cells in response to meals.o The most important action of incretins is to stimulate insulin secretion after a meal.o Two important GI incretins are.i) Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1).ii) Glucose-... | |
Cribriform, Honey comb (or) swiss cheese histology pattern is seen in: (A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma, (B) Pleomorphic adenoma, (C) Acinic cell carcinoma, (D) Clear cell carcinoma | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following malignancy is associated with underlying progression and spreads characteristically in a stepwise fashion and hence staging the disease is an impoant prognostic factor? -: (A) Hodgkin's lymphoma, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Mature T cell NHL, (D) Mature B cell NHL | Answer is A. Hodgkin&;s disease primary arises within the lymph nodes and involves the extranodal sites secondarily Based on the extent of involvement of the disease ,Staging is studied in order to select proper treatment and assess the prognosis. Reference textbook of Pathology 6th edition author: Harsha Mohan page nu... | |
A patient presented with defective adduction of the hip joint with pain in the knee and hip joint, the nerve involved is?: (A) Obturator nerve, (B) Tibial nerve, (C) Femoral nerve, (D) Saphenous nerve | Answer is A. Obturator nerve is the largest nerve formed from the anterior divisions of lumbar plexus (L2,L3,L4).The roots unite within the posterior pa of psoas, and then descends through psoas and runs downward over sacral ala into lesser pelvis, lying lateral to ureter and internal iliac vessels. They enter the uppe... | |
In paogram, first time of the initial markings are made in:: (A) Left side of the action line, (B) On the action line, (C) On the ale line, (D) Right side of the ale line | Answer is C. Paograph In paogram, first time of the initial markings are marked on the ale line. The subsequent plotting is done from this point. Till the graph stays on the left if the ale line, the progress can be considered satisfactory. If the graph moves towards the right of the ale line, caution is required and w... | |
Corpulence index is a measure of:: (A) Copper level in the serum, (B) Iron loss in faeces, (C) Obesity, (D) Income inequality | Answer is C. Corpulence index= actual weight/ desirable weight A value above 1.2 indicates obesity Ref: Park 21st edition, page 178. | |
The type of enzyme inhibition in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by malonate is an example of:: (A) Noncompetitive, (B) Uncompetitive, (C) Competitive, (D) Allosteric | Answer is C. Inhibition of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase by malonate illustrates competitive inhibition by a substrate analog. Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the removal of one hydrogen atom from each of the two-methylene carbons of succinate. Both succinate and its structural analog malonate can bind to the ac... | |
Which of the following drugs does not cross placenta ?: (A) Heparin, (B) Warfarin, (C) Dicoumarol, (D) Nicoumalone | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following drug will cause hemolysis in G6PD patients:: (A) Cephalosporins, (B) Ampicillin, (C) Chloroquine, (D) Erythromycin | Answer is C. Ref: KDT 6th ed. pg. 64 * G6PD is an enzyme present on RBC membrane provides strength to RBC which can counteract free radicals and oxidizing stress of drugs.* In absence of G6PD enzyme, these cells cant bear the stress and results in Hemolysis.* Drugs causing Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency patients are:# An... | |
Target sign on USG is seen in: (A) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric Stenosis, (B) Gastric ulcers, (C) Achalasia, (D) All the above | Answer is A. Target sign - hypoechoic ring and hypertrophied pyloric muscle around echogenic mucosa
Centrally on transverse Scan - Seen in CHPS. | |
Patient is able to recognize voice but not face: (A) Temporal lobe, (B) Occipital, (C) Frontal lobe, (D) Parietal lobe | Answer is A. Memory and language problems after temporal lobectomy. Temporary double vision after temporal lobectomy. Increased number of seizures after corpus callosotomy, but the seizures should be less severe. Reduced visual field after a hemispherectomy. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 editio... | |
Tiger eye sign on MRI is seen in -: (A) Halloverden spatz disease, (B) CHPS, (C) Achalasia Cardia, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Halloverden spatz diseaseo Tiger eye is an abnormal T2 signal in the globus pallidus seen in Pantothenate kinase-2 (PANK-2) mutation of Holloverden spat disease. | |
Pyogenic infection and brain infarction associated with -: (A) Coagulative necrosis, (B) Liquefaction necrosis, (C) Caseous necrosis, (D) Fat necrosis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Liquefactive necrosis | |
In gingival bleeding index given by Ainamo and Bay, positive score is taken at what time after appearance of bleeding on probing?: (A) 10 Sec., (B) 20 Sec., (C) 30 Sec., (D) 40 Sec | Answer is A. None | |
20 yr old boy is brough to the emergency following an A with respiratory distress and hypotension He has subcutaneous emphysema and no air entry on the right side What is the next best step in the management: (A) sta IV fluids after inseion of wide bore iv line, (B) Needle decompression in the 5th Ics, (C) Shift to Icu... | Answer is B. Hlistory of clinical examination is suggestive of tension pneumothorax according to trauma updates needle decompression in adults should be done in 5th Ics at mid axillary line * in children needle in 2nd ICS at MCL ref : baile and love 27th ed | |
A 25-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic complaining of feeling sleepy all the time, even during the daytime. The symptoms have persisted for years and are now brought to medical attention after falling asleep at work on multiple occasions. He is concerned that he might lose his job. He has no past medical h... | Answer is B. The early age of onset and otherwise good health suggest a diagnosis of narcolepsy, which is usually accompanied by other symptomatology. Hypnagogic hallucinations are almost always visual. They occur most frequently at the onset of sleep, either during the day or at night. They are generally very vivid. C... | |
Analgesic used for pain associated with STEMI: (A) Morphine, (B) Diclofenac, (C) Paracetamol, (D) Dicyclomine | Answer is A. Morphine is a very effective analgesic for the pain associated with STEMI.However, it may reduce sympathetically mediated aeriolar and venous constriction, and the resulting venous pooling may reduce cardiac output and aerial pressure. These hemodynamic disturbances usually respond promptly to elevation of... | |
Otitis and osteomyelitis is seen in?: (A) Hepatitis B vaccine, (B) BCG, (C) Measles vaccine, (D) IPV | Answer is B. Ans. (b) BCGRef : OP Ghai 8th ed./191BCG* Although BCG vaccination often causes local reactions, serious or long-term complications are rare. Reactions that can be expected after vaccination include moderate axillary or cervical lymphadenopathy and induration and subsequent pustule formation at the injecti... | |
Reversible cause of dementia -a) Hypothyroidismb) Alzheimer's diseasec) Vitamin B12 deficiencyd) Vitamin A deficiency: (A) ac, (B) bc, (C) ad, (D) b | Answer is A. None | |
In Bater's Syndrome, which of the following is not seen-: (A) Metabolic Alkalosis, (B) Hypokalemia, (C) Hypomagnesemia, (D) Decrease in urinary calcium | Answer is D. Bater's syndrome - There is loss of transpo function of Thick ascending loop of henle(TALH) Segment of nephron which results in hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis classic BS- typically suffer from polyuria and polydypsia due to reduction in renal concentrating ability . Increase in urinary calcium excretion 2... | |
Which of the following steroids is not used topically:: (A) Hydrocoisone, (B) Fluticasone, (C) Triamcinolone, (D) Prednisonlone | Answer is D. Prednisonlone | |
The procedure shown below is: (A) Radical trachelectomy, (B) Partial hysterectomy, (C) Large loop excision of transformation zone, (D) Dilatation and curettage | Answer is C. This is LLETZ: Diathermy wire loop is used to remove a portion of Cervix that includes transformation zone with area of CIN. | |
Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis occurs with: (A) Herpes zoster, (B) Herpes simplex, (C) Enterovirus, (D) All | Answer is C. C i.e. Enterovirus Acute Haemorrhagic Conjunctivitis or Apollo Conjunctivitis or Jai Bangla Conjunctivitis or Epidemic haemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by picorna virus family (usually enterovirus 70)Q. But occasionally Coxsackie virus A-24 or adenovirus //Q also leads to this. | |
MDR tuberculosis is defined when M. tuberculosis shows resistance to -: (A) Isoniazid + Rifampicin, (B) Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide, (C) Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide, (D) Rifampicin + Ethambutol | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Isoniazid + Rifampicin * Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) are by definition infected with strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis resistant to isoniazid and rifampin.* Extremely drug resistant TB (XDR-TB) due to MDR strains that are resistant to all fluoroquinolones and to at least one of th... | |
Frost bite is treated by -: (A) Rapid rewarming, (B) Slow rewarming, (C) IV pentoxyphiline, (D) Amputation | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Slow rewarming | |
Triad of biotin deficiency is: (A) Dermatitis, glossitis, Steatorrhea, (B) Dermatitis, glossitis, Alopecia (314-Basic 8th), (C) Mental changes, diarrhoea, Alopecia, (D) Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhoea | Answer is B. (Dermatitis, glossitis, Alopecia) (407-H) (314-Basic pathology 8th)(Biotin deficiency) - clinical features -Adult = Mental changes (depression, hallucination), paresthesia, anorexia, nausea, A scaling, seborrheic and erythematous rash may occur around the eye, nose, mouth, as well as extremities (407-H)Inf... | |
True of the following:: (A) Calcium reabsorbed in DCT, (B) 90% calcium excreted by glomerulus, (C) Parathormone (PTH) promotes absorption of Ca++ from intestine, (D) PTH promote action of calcitonin | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Parathormone (PTH) promotes absorption of Ca++ from intestine(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.379)Parathormone (PTH) promotes absorption of Ca++ from intestineThis is an indirect action of PTH by increasing vitamin D levels | |
Rabies vaccine schedule is:: (A) 0,3,7,14,28, (B) 8,0,4,0,1,1, (C) 8,0,0,4,1,1, (D) 8,0,4,0,0,1 | Answer is B. 8, 0, 4, 0, 1, 1 | |
Enzymes not used in glycogen metabolism: (A) Glycogen phosphorylase B, (B) Glycogen synthase I, (C) Glycogen synthase C, (D) Glycogen synthase D | Answer is C. The liver phosphorylase-b is the inactive form. It becomes active on phosphorylation. The active form is phosphorylase-a.Glycogen synthase exists in two distinct forms that can be interconveed by the action of specific enzymes; active dephosphorylated glycogen synthase(glucose-6-p-independent) and less act... | |
A community suffering from dry mouth condition is likely to have: (A) Increased incidence of dental caries, (B) Decreased incidence of dental caries, (C) Increased incidence of crack tooth syndrome, (D) Decreased incidence of crack tooth syndrome | Answer is A. None | |
Urinary catheterisation indicated in case of acute retention of urine in following conditions: (A) Stricture, (B) Rupture, (C) Postoperative, (D) Carcinoma prostate | Answer is C. The most frequent causes of acute retention Male * Bladder outlet obstruction (the most common cause) * Urethral stricture * Acute urethritis or prostatitis * Phimosis Female * Retroveed gravid uterus * Bladder neck obstruction (rare) Both (Male and female) * Blood clot * Urethral calculus * Rupture of the... | |
17 years old girl with ovarian tumor, USG showed predominant solid component, CA-125-ve, AFP- ve, ALP raised -: (A) Dysgerminoma, (B) Endodermal sinus tumor, (C) Malignant teratoma, (D) Mucinous cystadenoma | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., DysgerminomaOvarian mass in 25 year old female suggests the diagnosis.Although dysgerminomas are relatively uncommon among all ovarian neoplasms (only accounting for only about 2%) they account for about 32.8% of malignant ovarian germ cell neoplasms.Majority of cases arise in adolescent ... | |
A 23-year-old woman who receives a deep cut to her ring finger by a kitchen knife is unable to move the metacarpophalangeal joint. Which of the following pairs of nerves was damaged?: (A) Median and ulnar, (B) Radial and median, (C) Musculocutaneous and ulnar, (D) Ulnar and radial | Answer is D. Metacarpophalangeal joint of the ring finger is flexed by the lumbrical, palmar, and dorsal interosseous muscles, which are innervated by the ulnar nerve. Extensor digitorum, innervated by the radial nerve, extends this joint. Musculocutaneous and axillary nerves do not supply muscles of the hand. Median n... | |
A child was given Ringer's lactate due to severe blood loss by a road accident. What is the potassium content of Ringers' lactate in mEq/L?: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 4, (D) 6 | Answer is C. Composition in 1 Litre of Ringer's lactate: Sodium 130 mEq/L Potassium 4 mEq/L Calcium 3.5 mEq/L Chloride 110 mEq/L Lactate 27 mEq/L Ref: Oski's Pediatrics: Principles And Practice By Julia A. McMillan, Ralph David Feigin, 4th edition, Page 64. | |
The left suprarenal vein drains into:: (A) Inferior vena cava, (B) Lt. renal vein, (C) Rt. renal vein, (D) Portal vein | Answer is B. Ans: b (Lt. renal vein)Venous drainage of the suprarenals:Left suprarenal vein drains into the Lt. renal veinRt. suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cavaArterial supply.Each gland is supplied by:1) Superior suprarenal artery- Br. of inferior phrenic artery2) Middle suprarenal artery- Br. of abdom... | |
Organophosphate insecticides are all except – a) Dieldrinb) Fenthion c) Diazinond) Propoxure) Lindane: (A) acd, (B) bde, (C) ade, (D) ad | Answer is C. Organo-phosphorus Insecticides:
– Malathion – Parathion
– Fenthion – Diazinon
– Fenitrothion – Chlorpyrifos
– Dioxathion – Chlorthion
Organo-chlorine Insecticides:
– DDT – BHC (HCH)
– Lindane – Dieldrin
Carbamate Insecticides:
– Carbaryl – Propoxur | |
Among the drugs given below, which is LEAST likely to be implicated in drug induced hepatitis?: (A) Isoniazid, (B) Streptomycin, (C) Rifampicin, (D) Pyrazinamide | Answer is B. None | |
Ferning ol cervical mucu3 depends on :: (A) Eslrogen, (B) Progesterone, (C) LH, (D) FSH | Answer is A. Eslrogen | |
Which of the following can be given as a single dose antimalarial for P.vivax malaria: (A) Atovaquone + Proguanil, (B) Artemisinin, (C) Quinine + Tetracycline, (D) Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime | Answer is D. None | |
Hippocampal formation includes all Except: (A) Dentate gyrus, (B) Sibiculum, (C) Amygdaloid, (D) Entorhinal coex | Answer is C. The hippocampal formation in the medial temporal lobe of the brain includes the dentate gyrus, the hippocampus proper and the subiculum | |
Reactive arthritis is usually caused by -: (A) Shigella flexneri, (B) Shigella boydii, (C) Shigela shiga, (D) Shigela dysentriae | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Shigella Flexneri o Organisms that have been associated with Reiter Arthritis include the follow ing:C trachomatis (L2b serotype)Ureaplasma urealyticumNeisseria gonorrhoeaeShigella flexneriSalmonella enterica serovars TyphimuriumMycoplasma pneumoniaeMycobacterium tuberculosisYersinia ente... | |
Most common congenital tumour of conjunctiva is: (A) Papilloma, (B) Squamous cell carcinoma, (C) Epibulbar dermoid, (D) Melanoma | Answer is C. Commonest congenital tumour of the conjunctiva - Epibulbar dermoid | |
All are true about spinal tuberculosis except ?: (A) Back pain earliest symptom, (B) Dorsolumbar spine commonest site, (C) Exaggerated lumbar lordosis, (D) Secondary to lung infection | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Exaggerated lumbar lordosis Tuberculosis of spine (Pott's spine) The spine is the commonest site of bone and joint tuberculosis. The most common site is Dorsolumbar region. Lower dorsal (thoracic) region is the most common segment involved followed by lumbar segment. The tuberculosis of s... | |
Maximum oral bioavailability among statins is of which drug -: (A) Fluvastatin, (B) Atorvastatin, (C) Pravastatin, (D) Simvastatin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fluvastatino All statins can be absorbed orally (maximum fluvastatin). Food increases absorption of all drugs except pravastatin. Lovastatin and simvastatin undergo extensive first pass metabolism and are administered as prodrugs.Remembero Statins are the most effective and best tolerated... | |
A 22 year old boy was all alright 2 days back. But since then he claims that people are abusing him and he c/o hearing of voices when no one is around, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever since only 2 days. No past history. Which is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Dementia, (B) Acute psychosis, (C) Delirium,... | Answer is B. Ans. B. Acute Psychosis* Hearing of voices, Aggressive Behaviors, muttering to self is a sign of psychosis as it less than 1 month it is Acute Psychosis.* It is not fever induced or Delirium because in these conditions the orientation is usually impaired but is not impaired in this question.* In delusional... | |
Breast fed babies as compared to aificially fed babies have all the follwing benefits except -: (A) Lower incidence of diarrhoea episodes, (B) Lower incidence of respiratory infection, (C) Lower incidence of late onset tetany, (D) None | Answer is D. Ans. is None | |
Withdrawal of which of the following causes piloerecton?: (A) Morphine, (B) Cannabis, (C) Smoking, (D) Alcohol | Answer is A. Ans. A. MorphineManifestations of morphine withdrawalLacrimationAnxiety & fearSweatingRestlessness rYawningGooseflash (Piloerection). | |
Commonest site for fibroid is :: (A) Submucous, (B) Intramural, (C) Subserous, (D) Cervical | Answer is B. Intramural | |
Semi-circular canals are associated with: (A) Linear acceleration, (B) Angular acceleration, (C) Static equlibirium, (D) Hearing | Answer is B. Each semicircular canals has an enlargement at one of its ends called the ampulla, and the ducts and ampulla are filled with a fluid called endolymph. Flow of the fluid through one of the ducts and through its ampulla excites the sensory organs of the ampulla. In each ampulla a small crest called crista am... | |
Abnormalities in synthetic function of liver results in: (PGI Dec 2006): (A) |PT, (B) Hyperbilirubinemia, (C) |Acute phase reactant, (D) Disturbance in Kupffer cells | Answer is A. Ans: A (|PT); B {Hyperbilirubinemia} & C (| Acute phase reactants) 411]Liver Function Test - Harrison 17th/ 1918"The most commonly used liver ''function" testsQ are measurements of serum bilirubin, albumin, and prothrombin timeQ. The serum bilirubin level is a measure of hepatic conjugation and excretion, ... | |
Active method of transport is-: (A) Simple diffusion, (B) Facilitated diffusion, (C) Along concentration gradient, (D) Against concentration gradient | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Against concentration gradient* Transport across a cell membrane is divided into passive or active, based on whether it is along the concentration gradient or against the concentration gradient.1) Passive transport# It is in the direction of concentration gradient i.e., "Downhill movement... | |
Chaperones are:: (A) Purine metabolism mediators, (B) Antigen presenting cells, (C) Mediators of post-transitional assembly of protein complexes, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. CHAPERONES-FOLDING /SHAPE /ASSEMBLY OF PROTEIN POST-TRANSITIONAL CHANGE They facilitate and our the interactions on the polypeptide surfaces to finally give the specific conformation of a protein. Type 1. Hsp70 system- This mainly consists of Hsp70 (70-kDa heat shock protein) and Hsp40 (40-kDa Hsp). These ... | |
Structures preserved in functional radical dissection of the neck -a) Int. jugular veinb) Sternomastoidc) Lymph nodesd) Accessory nerve: (A) abc, (B) bcd, (C) abd, (D) acd | Answer is C. Functional dissection is modified radical neck dissection (MRND Type III ) Modified radical neck dissection is done only selected cases where tumor is very well differentiated and less aggressive like in papillary carcinoma of thyroid with lymph node secondaries . Structures preserved here are sternomastoi... | |
Humectant in tooth paste serves to: (A) as an abrasive, (B) retains moisture, (C) flavoring agent, (D) foaming agent | Answer is B. None | |
Route of administration of nitrous oxide is:: (A) Inhalation., (B) Oral., (C) Intramuscular., (D) Intravenous. | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following has no Tm value ?: (A) Albumin, arginine, (B) Betahydroxybutyrate, glucose, (C) Glucose haemoglobin, phosphate, (D) Urea | Answer is D. D i.e. Urea | |
All are seen in primary extraglandular Sjogren syndrome except -: (A) Rheumatoid ahritis, (B) Raynaud's phenomena, (C) Lymphoma, (D) Splenomegaly | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rheumatoid ahritiso Primary Sjogren syndrome is not associated with other autoimmune disorders, e.g. Rheumatoid ahritis. o Sjogren syndrome occurs in elderly (50-60 yrs)female. | |
Adenovirus causes all except -: (A) Hemorrhagic cystitis, (B) Diarrhea, (C) Respiratory tract infection, (D) IMN | Answer is D. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by EBV | |
Traction epiphysis is are: (A) Head of humerus, (B) Lesser tubercle, (C) Deltoid tuberosity, (D) Ciracoid process | Answer is B. Traction epiphysis are usually present at the end if bones and develop due to traction by the attached muscle (and are therefore extracapsular), eg Greater (and lesser) tubercle in humerus and greater ( and lesser) trochanter in femur Ref: Gray's39e/p185-210 | |
Total body water is: (A) 40% of body weight, (B) 20% of body weight, (C) 10% of body weight, (D) 60% of body weight | Answer is D. In the average young adult male, 18% of the body weight is protein and related substances, 7% is mineral, and 15% is fat. The remaining 60% is water.(REF: GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY 23rd EDITION page no.2) | |
Best parameter for monitoring HIV disease progression is -: (A) Peripheral blood CD4 + Tcell counts, (B) Plasma levels of HIV RNA, (C) Peripheral blood CD4 + Tcell counts with Plasma levels of HIV RNA, (D) Peripheral blood CD4 + T cell counts or Plasma levels of HIV RNA | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Peripheral blood CD4 + Tcell counts with Plasma levels of HIV RNA Laboratory monitoring in HIV infection* The epidemic of HIV infection and AIDS has provided the clinician with new challenges for integrating clinical and laboratory data to effect optimal patient management.* The close rel... | |
Which of the following drugs has maximum chances of absorption from gastric mucosa ?: (A) Morphine sulfate, (B) Diclofenac sodium, (C) Hyoscine hydrobromide, (D) Quinine dihydrochloride | Answer is B. - Among the given options, only diclofenac sodium is acidic and remains unionized in the acidic medium of the stomach. Other drugs are basic in nature. So diclofenac has higher chances of getting absorbed from gastric mucosa. | |
A pregnant mother is treated with oral anticoagulant.The likely congenital malformation that may result in the fetus is:: (A) Long bones limb defect, (B) Cranial malformation, (C) Cardiovascular malformation, (D) Chondrodysplasia Punctata | Answer is D. Warfarin is an anticoagulant drug.
Action : Interferes with the synthesis of the vitamin K dependent factors like II, VII, IX and X.
Side effects:
Hemorrhage
It leads to:
– Contradi’s syndrome : skeletal and facial anomalies in the fetus
– Chondrodysplasia punctata in the fetus.
Miscarriage, IUGR and st... | |
The most common side effect of IUCD which requires its removal: (A) Bleeding, (B) Pain, (C) Pelvic infection, (D) Ectopic pregnancy | Answer is B. Pain is the second major side effect leading to IUCD removal WHO estimates that 15-40 percent of the IUCD removal appears to be for pain only Pain may be experienced during the inseion and for a few days thereafter and during menstruation Reference: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, Page ... | |
Trombiculid mite can transmit: (A) Indian tick typhus, (B) Q. fever, (C) Relapsing fever, (D) Scrub typhus | Answer is D. None | |
Which of these organelles functions as the digestive system of the cell?: (A) Mitochondria, (B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, (C) Golgi apparatus, (D) Lysosomes | Answer is D. Lysosomes are spherical vesicles enveloped by a single membrane.
Lysosomes are regarded as the digestive tract of the cell, since they are actively involved in digestion of cellular substances-namely proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and nucleic acids.
Lysosomal enzymes are categorized as hydrolases.
The l... | |
Adenocarcinoma of ethmoid sinus occurs commonly in?: (A) Fire workers, (B) Chimney workers, (C) Watch markers, (D) Wood workers | Answer is D. Workers of the furniture industry( woodworkers) develop a demo carcinoma of the ethmoids and the nasal cavity, while those engaged in nickel refining get squamous cell anaplastic carcinoma. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 231) | |
In nonexposed persons, the level of coproporphyrin in urine is :: (A) Less than 150 microgram/litre, (B) Less than 1000 microgram/litre, (C) More than 500 microgram/litre, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. A i.e. < 150 mg/litres | |
About RCT all are true except: (A) Baseline characteristics are comparable, (B) Dropouts are excluded from the study, (C) Sample size depends on type of study, (D) Bias eliminated by double blinding | Answer is B. None | |
Urinary incontinence results from all except:: (A) Neurogenic bladder, (B) Vesico vaginal fistula, (C) Ectopic ureter, (D) Rectovesical fistula | Answer is D. Rectovesical fistula doesn&;t cause urinary incontinence, as the level of fistula is above the sphincter mechanism. Causes of Incontinence: Problems of social control Uninhibited detrusor hyperreflexia and impaired social perception in dementia Storage problems Small bladder capacity owing to fibrosis (tub... | |
True about PPV is: (A) Increases with prevalence, (B) Decreases with prevalence, (C) No relation with prevalence, (D) Accuracy | Answer is A. The predictive value of a positive test indicates the probability that a patient with a positive test result does indeed have the disease in question. The more prevalent a disease, the more accurate will be the predictive value of a positive screening test. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive ... | |
Which of the following antiretroviral drugs is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor -: (A) Zidovudine, (B) Efavirenz, (C) Saquinavir, (D) Stavudine | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following is most characteristics of granuloma: (A) Epitheliod cell, (B) Giant cells, (C) Fibroblast, (D) Endothelial cells | Answer is A. ref Robbins 9/e p97-78 a granuloma is an organized collection of macrophages. In medical practice, doctors occasionally use the term "granuloma" in its more literal meaning: "a small nodule". Since a small nodule can represent anything from a harmless nevus to a malignant tumor, this usage of the term is n... | |
Milk teeth - Total no. in human being __________: (A) 20, (B) 28, (C) 32, (D) 24 | Answer is A. Deciduous teeth, commonly known as milk teeth, baby teeth, temporary teeth, and primary teeth, are the first set of teeth in the growth development of humans and other diphyodont mammals. They develop during the embryonic stage of development and erupt--that is, they become visible in the mouth--during inf... | |
Specific type of cells found in infectious mononucleosis:: (A) Downey cells., (B) Raquet cells., (C) Arbiskov cells., (D) None of the above. | Answer is A. None | |
All of the following cause myocardial depression except:: (A) Halothane, (B) Etomidate, (C) Thiopentone, (D) Ketamine | Answer is B. B i.e. Etomidate - Etomidate causes adreno - coical suppressionQ by inhibiting enzymes 11/3 hydroxylase (mainly) & 17 a hydroxylase involved in coisol and aldosterone (mineralocoicoid) productionQ. Vit C supplimentation restores coisol level. - Etomidate and midazolam provide cardiovascular stabilityQ. But... | |
Organism commonly causing diarrhoea in young children is:: (A) Rotavirus, (B) Calci virus, (C) E. coli, (D) Staphylococcus | Answer is A. Ans: a (Rota vims) Ref: Nelson, 18th ed, p. 1399; 17th ed, p. 1081; OP Ghai, 6th ed, p. 270In early childhood, the single most important cause of severe dehydrating diarrhoea is rota virus infection.Important pathogens of human viral gastroenteritis* Rota vims\* Adenovirus* Astro vims* Calci vims such as N... | |
All the following are hormonal agents used against breast cancer EXCEPT :: (A) Letrozole, (B) Exemestane, (C) Taxol, (D) Tamoxifen | Answer is C. None | |
The North Kerelia project evaluate risk factors of: (A) Diabetes, (B) Cancers, (C) Coronary heart disease, (D) Obesity | Answer is C. None | |
Lateral border of the cubital fossa is -: (A) Brachiradialis, (B) Pronator teres, (C) Flexor Carpi Radialis, (D) Triceps | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Brachiradialis Cubital fossaLateral boundryBrachioradialisMedial boundryPronater teresBaseLine joining the two epicondyles of humerusApexPoint joining lateral and medial boundriesFloorBrachialis, supinatorRoofSkin, superficial fascia (containing medial cubital vein, lateral and medial cut... | |
A 50-year-old man with muscle pain and fever for a month now notes darker colored urine for the past 2 weeks. On physical examination, he has palpable purpuric lesions of his skin. Urinalysis shows hematuria and proteinuria. Serum laboratory findings include mixed cryoglobulinemia with a polyclonal increase in IgG, as ... | Answer is B. Microscopic polyangiitis involves small vessels, typically capillaries. Kidneys and lungs are commonly involved, but many organs can be affected. There may be an underlying immune disease, chronic infection, or drug reaction. Giant cell arteritis typically involves arterial branches of the external carotid... | |
MHC class I represented on -: (A) All cells, (B) All nucleated cells, (C) RBCs, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., All nucleated cells o MHC class I is found on the surface of all nucleated cells and platelets. | |
Iodine uptake is seen in the following organs: (A) Ovary, (B) Thyroid, (C) Parathyroid, (D) Adrenal gland | Answer is B. Ans. B Thyroida. Iodine Trapping (Iodine pump)b. Iodide uptake is a critical first step in the thyroid hormone synthesis by the thyroid.c. Iodide uptake from circulation, is mediated by Na+/I- symporter (NIS), which is expressed at the basolateral membrane of the thyroid follicular cells. It is an example ... | |
An acute apical abscess is usually a result of:: (A) Periodontal pocket, (B) Occlusal interference, (C) Necrotic pulp, (D) Chronic gingivitis | Answer is C. None | |
Anti leprosy drug causing ichthyoses is -: (A) Dapsone, (B) Clofazimine, (C) Rifampicin, (D) Clarithromycin | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clofazimine Acquired ichthyosis (Ichthyosis acouista)o Acquired ichthyosis is seen in : -Deficiency:- Protein, Vitamin A, Kwashiorkor, Marasmus.Infection:- Leprosy, AIDSSenile ichthyosis: -ElderlySystemic diseases: -SLE, DM, hypothyroidism, Sarcoidosis, liver & kidney diseases.Malignancy,... | |
False about Wolman disease is -: (A) It is a lysosomal storage disorder, (B) It is characterized by deficient acid lysosomal lipase, (C) It shows autosomal AR inheritance pattern, (D) It is characterized by adrenal calcification and corneal clouding | Answer is D. Wolmans disease is due to deficiency of the enzyme lysozomal acid lipase . Major accumulating metabolites being cholestrol esters and triglycerides. It is a lysosomal storage disease, also shows autosomal ressesive inheritance. so answer is option 4. Robbins basic pathology. 7th edition . Chapter Genetic d... | |
Sign of pubey in boys ?: (A) Enlargement of penis, (B) Enlargement of testes, (C) Appearance of pubic hair, (D) Appearance of axillary hair | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Enlargement of testes In girls, the first visible sign of pubey is the appearance of breast buds (Thelarche), between 8-12 years of age. In boys the first visible sign of pubey is testicular enlargement, beginning as early as 91/2 yr. | |
In rickets all are seen EXCEPT:: (A) Craniotabes, (B) Increased acid phosphatase, (C) Bow legs, (D) Increase alkaline phosphatase | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) Increased acid phosphataseREF: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics 17th edition page 186-187"Alkaline phosphatase not acid phosphatase is increased in rickets"RICKETS is a softening of bones in children due to deficiency or impaired metabolism of vitamin D, magnesium, phosphorus or calcium, potentia... | |
All of the following decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis except:: (A) Alendronate, (B) Etidronate, (C) Strontium, (D) Teriparatide | Answer is D. Ans. (D) Teriparatide(Ref: CMDT 2010/1041; KDT 8/e p365)Teriparatide acts by stimulating the formation of bone whereas bisphosphonates act by inhibiting the resorption of bone. Strontium ranelate has both of these properties. |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.