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Absense of taste sensation is termed as:
(B) Ageusia # Ageusia is the loss of taste functions of the tongue, particularly the inability to detect sweetness, sourness, bitterness, saltiness, and umami (the taste of monosodium glutamate). It is sometimes confused for anosmia--a loss of the sense of smell. Because the tongue can only indicate texture and differe...
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Hutchinsons secondaries In skull are due to tumors in
Adrenal neuroblastomas are malig8nant neoplasms arising from sympathetic neuroblsts in Medulla of adrenal gland Neuroblastoma is a cancer that develops from immature nerve cells found in several areas of the body.Neuroblastoma most commonly arises in and around the adrenalglands, which have similar origins to nerve cel...
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NiTi alloy shows superelasticity through:
Superelasticity and shape memory of NiTi alloys is because of phase transformation in their crystal structures when cooled from the stronger, high temperature form (Austenite) to the weaker low temperature form (Martensite).
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An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly of Myocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone for almost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About a week after the death she heard his voice clearly talking to her as he would in a routine manner from the n...
D i.e. HaloperidolThe diagnosis of this lady is morbid grief When there is an exaggeration of one or more symptoms of normal grief or the duration becomes prolonged beyond 6 months without recovery, it is k/a morbid grief.Preoccupation with the memory of deceased is a characteristic featureQ.Idealization of deceased (i...
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All endothelial cells are involved in the production of thrombomodulin EXCEPT those found in:
Endothelium of the blood vessels plays an active role in preventing the extension of clots into blood vessels. All endothelial cells except those in the cerebral circulation produce thrombomodulin. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology By Ganong, 22nd Edition, Page 543; Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Pag...
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Heme is conveed to bilirubin mainly in:
C i.e. Spleen Breakdown of heme to bilirubin occurs in macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system mainly in the spleenQ also in the liver and bone marrow.
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All of the following cause osteonecrosis except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above o Osteonecrosis is a pathologic process that has been associated with trauma, with numerous atraumatic conditions, and with therapeutic interventions, most commonly corticosteroid use and excessive alcohol intake. o Compromise of the bone vasculature, leading to the death of bone and...
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Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is avoided in a HIV positive patient on zidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir therapy who develops TB?
RIFAMPACIN: Powerful enzyme inducer of the Hepatic Cytochrome P450 system. It increasesmetabolism of many drugs and as a consequence, can make them less effective, or even ineffective in some cases, by decreasing their levels in the plasma. Rifampicin can induce the metabolism of Indinavir and can result in therapeutic...
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TRUE about RU - 486 is :
Used for inducing aboion in early week of pregnancy
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Which of the following is sign of severe Dehydration in a child
Sunken eyes, mouth and tongue very dry , condition lethargy ,skin pinch goes back very slowly The patient has 2 / more signs there is severe dehydration Ref: Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 293
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Which of the following statements about contrast in radiography is true -
option A is correct : Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per two paicles in solution Ionic dimers and non ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per one paicle in solution Non ionic dimers have six iodine atoms per one paicle in solution option B is incorrect : High osmolar agents (ionic monomers) are only ionic lo...
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A 6-year-old child presents with lesions on face, covered with honey colored crusts. Pruritus is present. The possible cause can be:
Ans. a. ImpetigoNon bullous impetigo or impetigo contagiosa lesions have golden yellow, honey coloured crusting
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Spigelberg criteria is used in:
Ans. is a, i.e. Ovarian pregnancySite of ectopicCriteria for diagnosisOvarian ectopicAbdominal ectopicCervical ectopicSpigelberg criteriaStuddiform ectopicRubin criteria/ Palmann criteria
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Calculate degree of freedom Material Location X Y Glass 8 23 Cupboard 56 3 Metal 1 14
Degree of freedom = (C-1) (R-1) Given rows = 3 ; columns = 2 DOF = (2-1) (3-1) = 1x2 = 2
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Which of the following enzyme of TCA cycle is analogous to Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase catalyses an oxidative decarboxylation reaction similar to that of pyruvate dehydrogenase. uses the same coenzymes as the PDH complex (their E3 components are identical). Like PDH complex, its E2 is inhibited by arsenic.
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Auditory area located in which lobe:
Most of the primary auditory cortex is in the temporal lobe, but the association auditory cortices extend over much of the insular lobe and even onto the lateral portion of the paritetal lobe
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Classical symptom of endocervical polyp is
Intermenstrual bleeding is classical symptom of endocervical polyp.
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For teletherapy, isotopes commonly used are
C i.e. Co-60
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The most likely inheritance pattern depicted in the following pedigree is:
. X-linked dominant
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Afferents to basal ganglia rests in
The main inputs to the basal ganglia terminate in the striatum. They include the excitatory coicostriate pathway from M1 and premotor coex. There is also a projection from intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus to the striatum (thalamostriatal pathway).Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition.
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Maximum contraction of gall bladder is seen with:
A i.e. CCK Most potent stimulus for causing gall bladder contraction is CCK-PZQ.
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The most impoant stimulant of respiratory centre is:
Response to Co2, PaCO2 is most impoant factor in control of ventilation under normal conditions. PCo2 is most impoant input regulating magnitude of ventilation under resting conditions. Changes in alveolar ventilation have immediate, pronounced effect on aerial Pco2 (unlike Po2). Even slight alterations from normal Pco...
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An 80-year-old woman presents with a 4-hour history of fever, shaking chills, and disorientation. Her blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg. Physical examination shows diffuse purpura on her upper arms and chest. Blood cultures are positive for Gram-negative organism. Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in t...
Septicemia (bacteremia) denotes the clinical condition in which bacteria are found in the circulation. It can be suspected clinically, but the final diagnosis is made by culturing the organisms from the blood. In patients with endotoxic shock, lipopolysaccharide released from Gram-negative bacteria stimulates monocytes...
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A patient with blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg presents with pronounced cyanosis. Blood drawn from peripheral veins is observed to be chocolate brown in colour. The most likely diagnosis is:
Answer is A (Methaemoglobinemia) Pronounced cyanosis together with chocolate brown colour of 'freshly drawn blood suggests a diagnosis of methaemoglobinemia Methaemoglobinemia * * * Methaemoglobinemia is an uncommon but distinct cause of central cyanosis in the absence of hypoxemia or cardio vascular compromise Methaem...
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A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks ,the most likely diagnosis is
Red degeneration of fibroid: It results from softening of surrounding connective tissue The capillaries tend to rupture and blood effused out into the myoma causing a diffuse reddish discoloration The tumor it self assumes a peculiar purple red colour and develops a fishy odour,if the tumor is carefully examined We may...
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Call Exner bodies are found in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Granulosa Ceil Tumour "The formation of Call - Exner bodies is a distinct feature of granulose cells and can be readily recognised in certain types of granulosa cell tumours. "
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Monteggia fracture is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fracture of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation Eponymous injuries of forearmNameInjuryMonteggia fracture dislocationFracture of upper third of ulna with dislocation of the radial headGalleazi fractureFracture of distal third of radius with dislocation or subluxation of inferior (distal) ra...
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Commonest cause of esophageal perforation: March 2007
Ans. D: Instrumentation Instrumentation is by far the most common cause of perforation Boerhaave syndrome/Esophageal perforation, is rupture of the esophageal wall caused by excessive vomiting in eating disorders such as bulimia although it may rarely occur in extremely forceful coughing or other situations, such as ob...
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Sensory supply for skin over angle of jaw is
Cervial plexus supplies Skin over the angle of the jaw and over the parotid gland. Lower margin of the lower jaw
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Population covered by a community health centre?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 100,000
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The fastest type of nerve fibers are
According to erlanger and gasser classification, A fibers are myelinated and has large diameter The conduction velocity is 120m per second Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:73
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Form of vitamim D which is measured in serum ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 25 hydroxyvitamin DThough, 1, 25 dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) is the active form of vitamin D, its serum measurement does not provide any information about vitamin D status because it is often normal or elevated due to secondary hyperparathyroidism associated with vitamin D deficiency...Measurement...
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Which of the following factors are present in the final common terminal complement pathway?
C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9 are the factors present in common terminal pathway. The classic activation pathway, mannose-binding lectin activation pathway and alternative activation pathway converge on the final common terminal pathway. The cleavage of C3 by each pathway (classic activation pathway, mannose-binding lectin act...
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Peptic ulcer is caused by
A. i.e. (H. pylori) (594 - Basic pathology 8th)PEPTIC ULCER - two conditions are key for the development of peptic ulcers1. H. pylori infection(i) 70 - 90% persons with duodenal ulcer(ii) 70% persons with gastric ulcers2. Mucosal exposure to gastric acid and pepsin* NSAIDs are the major cause of peptic ulcer disease in...
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All are resected in whipples operation except:
Ans is 'c' ie Portal vein Whipple's operation (Pancreaticoduodenectomy)is the most commonly performed operation for carcinoma of head of pancreas.It includes resection of: distal stomach - duodenumgall bladder - proximal jejunumCBD - regional lymphatics head of pancreasRestoration of gastrointestinal continuity require...
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Prevalence of a disease depends upon the following?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Both of the above Prevalence = Incidence 'x mean duration
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The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Papillary type [Ref: Schwartz 9/e p1361 (8/e p1417); Harrison 17/e p.2242 (16/e, p.2122)\o "Papillary carcinoma accounts for 80% of ail thyroid malignancies in iodine-sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation." - Schwartzo Incidenc...
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Transection of the brain stem at the mid-pontine level with bilateral vagotomy causes ______
Transection of the brainstem at the midpoint level with bilateral vagotomy causes apneusis. At mid pontine level lesion, the apneustic centre is intact while the pneumotaxic centre is seperated. Concurrent removal of vagus inputs causes this kind of abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by deep, gasping inspirati...
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The ureteric bud develops from ?
Development of kidneys - The definative human kidney arises from two distinct sources, 1). The secretory pa , I.e., excretory tubules or (nephrons) are derived from the lowest pa of the nephrogenic cord this pa is the metanephros, the cells of which form the metanephric blastema 2). The collecting pa of the kidney is d...
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True about treatment of carcinoma left colon with acute obstruction
Ans. is ' a ' , ' b ' , ' c '
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Superantigens true is -
Superantigens are a class of antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release. Superantigens bind first to the MHC Class II and then coordinate to the variable alpha or beta chain of T-cell Receptors . Reff: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook ...
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Which of the following is true about colour vision
Opponent theory for colour vision is proposed by Hering This theory states that the three primary colours red, blue and green oppose one another so that the opponent processing cells can't detect the presence of both colours at the same time Neurotransmitter stored in rods and cones is glutamate Ref: Ganong 25th ed/pag...
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In which of the following ahritis erosion are not seen
Ref Semantischolar.org
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Alvarado score is used for
Answer- B. Acute appendicitisScoring system for Acute Appendicitis: Alvarado Score:The diagnosis of appendicitis is based primarily on clinical history and physical examination assisted by blood counts. A number of clinical and laboratory based scoring systems have been devised to assist diagnosis.The most widely used ...
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Indication of fetal distress is:
Ans: d
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AED stands for?
ADE is automated external defibrilater An automated external defibrillator (AED) is a poable electronic device that automatically diagnoses the life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia,and is able to treat them through defibrillation, the application of...
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Which cardiovascular change is physiological in last trimester of pregnancy?
Ans. is c, i.e. Shift of apical impulse laterally and upwards in the left 4th intercostal spaceRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 52; Williams Obs. 25/e, p 60-62, 119, 960Clinical findings related to cardiovascular changes occuring during pregnancy:Heart rate (resting) increases by about 10-15 bpm. QApex beat shifts to the 4th int...
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Na-K ATPase
Na+-K+ATPase, which actively moves Na+and K+ against their electrochemical gradient. The electrogenic Na K ATPase plays a critical role in cellular physiology by using the energy in ATP to extrude 3 Na+ out of the cell in exchange for taking two K+ into the cell. (REF.GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY 23rd EDITION ...
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Which of the following anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease?
The complications of IVRA is mainly attributable to the use of the tourniquet. On inflation of the touniquet there is physiological deoxygenation. In patients with sickle cell disease this might lead to sickling crisis. In these patients IVRA causes stasis, local acidosis and hypoxia. Hence IVRA is best avoided in sick...
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Raynaud's phenomenon seen in all EXCEPT:
Juvenile rheumatoid ahritisREF: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery 9' edition Chapter 23. Aerial Disease, Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition Chapter 243 Table 243-1 "Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in Rheumatoid ahritis not Juvenile Rheumatoid ahritis" The term Raynaud's phenomenon applies to a heterogeneous symptom ar...
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All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except -
Osteoporosis It refers to reduction ofbone mass per unit volume (loss of matrix and defective mineralisation) (Fig. 9.47). Aetiology 1.Involutional 2.Endocrinological 3.Gastrointestinal 4.Haematological 5.Rheumatological 6.Collagen vascular Normal bone Type I (postmenopausal) and Type II (senile) Hypehyroidism Hyperpar...
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Protein of muscle which helps in relaxation is
Titin Location: Reaches from the Z line to the M line.Function: Largest protein in the body. Role in relaxation of the muscle.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 51 Muscle & the Cytoskeleton
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Levamisole is used as all except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Immunodepressant in high doses Levamisol o Levamisole is an immunomodulator - restores depressed T cell function -3 Immunostimulant (not immunodepressant). o Single dose of levamisol can be used in ascariasis. Other uses --> A. duodenal (less active against N. americana). o It causes tonic paralysis (...
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Which of following is not absorbed in PCT:
D i.e. H+
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IPD records of patients are preserved for how many years ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 years Medical Council recommends that the medical records of the indoor patient to be aintained for atleast a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of treatment.
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Auditory pathway passes through -
Ans-A
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Durck granuloma is seen in
Ans. (d) Cerebral malaria(Ref: Malaria - Page 76)In malignant cerebral malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, brain vessels are plugged with parasitized red cells, causing ring hemorrhage which is accompanied by necrosis of surrounding parenchyma.The damage leads to formation of Durck's granuloma - collection of micr...
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All vaccines are given in disaster,except ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cholera Vaccines recommended in disasters o Following vaccines are recommended 1) Children < 10 years :- DPT, inactivated polio (IPV), H.influenzae type b (Hib), hepatitis B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella vaccine, influenza, hepatitis A and rotavirus. 2) ...
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The goal of NRR=1 can be best achieved by use of following contraceptive methods -
Sterilization is the most effective contraception to achieve NRR =1 Male sterilization Male sterilization or vasectomy being a comparatively* simple operation can be performed even in primary health centres by trained doctors under local anaesthesia. When carried out under strict aseptic technique, it should have no ri...
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All of the following agents can be given for induction of anaesthesia in children, EXCEPT:1
Morphine has pharmacokinetic differences in young individuals, that may predispose them to develop respiratory depression. So this drug should be used with caution in infants less than 6 months of age who are not ventilated. Drugs used in the induction of anesthesia in children are a mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide...
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A 6-year old child who presented with perianal pruritus, excoriation of skin and nocturnal enuresis was found to be infected with a parasite causing autoinfection. The causative agent is diagnosed by the -
The causative agent is Enterobius vermiculais & is diagnosed by NIH swab or perianal swab moistened with saline ie by applying the adhesive surface of cellophane tape to perianal skin in the morning & then this is examined on a glass slide inder microscope. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1102
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A histological section of the left ventricle of a deceased 28-year-old male shows classic contraction band necrosis of the myocardium. Biological specimens confirm the presence of cocaine and metabolites. Activity of which of the following enzymes was most likely increased in the patient's myocardial cells sholy prior ...
Cocaine causes contraction band necrosis by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, resulting in excessive vasoconstriction of coronary vessels, leading to ischemia and infarction of hea tissue. Under these pathological conditions, myocardial cells switch to anaerobic metabolism and therefore glycolysis becomes the so...
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All are hypercoagulable states, except :
Answer is B (factor V Leiden deficiency) Factor V Leiden mutation (or T Factor V Leiden levels) are associated with a hypercoaguable state and not a Factor V Leiden deficiency. Inherited Defective inhibition of coagulation factors Factor V Leiden (resistant to inhibition by activated protein C) - Antithrombin III defic...
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Parasites not transmitted through soil:
Ans: (c) TapewormRef: K.D. Chatterjee, 13th edition, Page 212-222Nematodes based on mode of infection:Mode of InfectionOrganismsIngestionEggsEnterobius , Ascaris , Irichuris (EAT)Larva within intermediate hostDrancunculus medinensisEncysted larva in muscleTrichinella spiralisPenetration of skinStrongyloides, Ancylostom...
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Which of the following does not undergo phosphorylation by protein kinases?
Phosphorylation occurs at the hydroxyl groups of serine, threonine, and tyrosine. A protein kinase is a kinase enzyme that modifies other proteins by chemically adding phosphate groups to them (phosphorylation). Phosphorylation usually results in a functional change of the target protein (substrate) by changing enzyme ...
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All the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in an APH patient except
The definite management - comprises prompt delivery, this is considered when ever The patient has her first bout of bleeding after 37 completed weeks. Successful conservative treatment brings the patients upto 37 weeks. If the initial or a subsequent bout of bleeding is very severe Patient is in labour Evidence of mate...
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Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome :
Ans. is b i.e. Amniocentesis In a pregnant lady with H/0 previous Down syndrome, the chances of recurrence are increased. Extensive screening should be carried out in all such females. Now in the question given - female is presenting at 18 weeks and investigation of choice is being asked which will definately be amnioc...
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Hypersensitivity angitis is seen in -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Henoch schonlein purpurao HSP is not hypersensitivity angitis. But the best answer amongst the given options is HSP because it is the most impoant differential of hypersensitivity angitis.Hypersensitivity angitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis or hypersensitivity angitis or leukocytoclastic angitis is a ...
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Train of four is characteristically used in concern with-
Train of four is used for monitoring neuromuscular block during anaesthesia. Fade on TO4 is the characteristic feature of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockage.
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The commonest site of lodgement of a pulmonary embolus is in the territory of -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lt. upper lobe
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Plummer vinson syndrome is characterised by all except
rare disease characterized by difficulty swallowing, iron-deficiency anemia, glossitis, cheilosis and esophageal webs.Treatment with iron supplementation and mechanical widening of the esophagus generally provides an excellent outcome.
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Which of the following drug is an enzyme inducer?
(Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 59; KDT, 6th ed. pg. 27)Enzyme induction involves microsomal enzyme in liver as well as in other organ.It increases the rate of metabolism 2 - 4 fold. Therefore, effect of drug decreases.Enzyme inhibitors also involves microsomal enzyme.It inhibits the microsomal enzyme, which decreases drug...
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Trantas spots are seen in –
Tranta's spots (Horner tranta's spots) are discrete white raised dots along the limbus and are composed of degenerated eosinophils.
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Haversian system is seen in
* Microscopically, the bone is of five types, namely lamellar (including both compact and cancellous), woven, fibrous, dentine and cement. 1. Lamellar bone: Most of the mature human bones, whether compact or cancellous, are composed of thin plates of bony tissue called lamellae. These are arranged in piles in a cancell...
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A 50-year-old woman presents with easy fatigability, a smooth sore tongue, numbness and tingling of the feet, and weakness of the legs. A complete blood count shows a megaloblastic anemia that is not reversed by folate therapy. Hemoglobin is 5.6 g/dL, WBC count is 5,100/mL, and platelets are 240,000/mL. This patient mo...
Except for a few rare situations, vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) deficiency is usually a result of pernicious anemia, an autoimmune disease of the stomach. Vitamin B12 is required for DNA synthesis, and its deficiency results in large (megaloblastic) nuclei.Diagnosis: Vitamin B12 deficiency, pernicious anemia
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Quadrivalent Meningococcal vaccine is not used for?
Ans. (b) Serotype BRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1002* There are currently three vaccines available in the USA to prevent meningococcal disease, all quadrivalent in nature, targeting serogroups A, C, W-135, and Y.* Meningococcal polysaccharide or conjugate vaccines provide no protection against serogroup B disease and MenB v...
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In systemic form of JIA, all are true EXCEPT:
RA factor may be positive in polyahritis, but not in systemic onset JIA. Systemic form of JIA: High fever with rash Hepatosplenomegaly Elevated ESR Types of JIA Systemic JIA- Systemic involvement seen Oligoaicular- Affects four or fewer joints, often the knee or ankle. Polyaicular ahritis, rheumatoid factor negative Po...
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Which of the following is true regarding IUGR ?
All of the above
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Duct of Bartholins gland opens
Duct of Bartholins gland opens on the inner side of Labium minus external of hymen.
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For shield (mould) in eye tumors which of the following is preferred?
Ans. D. Phosphorous-32Some useful radionuclides used in clinical radiotherapyRadionuclideEnergy Half-life Medical uses* Radium-2260.83mv1625 yearsfor brachytherapy but not used now a days* Cobalt-601.25mv5.4 yearsteletherapy & brachytherapy* Caesium-1370.666mv30 yearsteletherapy & brachytherapy* Iridium-1920.380mv72 da...
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Posterior limb of internal capsule is supplied by all except
Recurrent aery of Heubner does not supply posterior limb of internal capsule. Blood supply of internal capsule Anterior Limb Recurrent aery of Heubner Genu Recurrent aery of Heubner Charcot&;s aery (lenticulostriate aery or aery of cerebral hemorrhage) Posterior limb Charcot&;s aery (branch of middle cerebral aery) Ant...
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In prayer Willi syndrome, which of the following is increased
Ghrelin is a growth hormone secreatagogue and the only gut harmone with orexigenic propey It is primarily produced in the stomach. In children ,it's value is inversely related with body mass index and insulin values. robbins 8/e 441-2 9/e 444
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Which of the following is associated with Madonna-Putana complex ?
Madonna-Putana complex Psychogenic male erectile disorder Can be organic or psychologic or both. Inability to have arousal towards a woman , the man desires. Men have arousal only with women whom they see as degraded.
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Ductus arteriosus closes in response to:
b. Indomethacin therapy(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2197, Ghai 8/e p 417)Indomethacin, a Prostaglandin inhibitor is used in medical closure of Ductus arteriosus.
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A person has unprotected sex 3 weeks back, To rule out HIV infection the best test is
Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection Laboratory diagnosis is made by: A. Antibody detection It is the most common method used for diagnosis of HIV infection. ELISA is the most sensitive test and therefore is the screening test of choice. Western blot is the most specific (Confirmatory) test and therefore is the’gold ...
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All are true about vocal cord nodule except:
Ans:B (Commonly occur at Junction of middle & posterior 1/3 ) VOCAL NODULES (SINGER'S OR SCREAMER S NODES)PL Dhingra 6th/303-04# Their size varies from tha t of pin-head to half a peaThey are the result of vocal trauma when person speaks in unnatural low tones for prolonged periods or at high intensitiesThey mostly aff...
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Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in
Brain abscesses in congenital cyanotic heart diseases occur due to hematogenous seeding of bloodborne bacteria. These blood borne bacteria bypass the pulmonary capillary bed d/t right to left shunt. They commonly infect parietal & frontal lobes (territory of middle cerebral artery).
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Beta blockers are indicated in -
Ans. is 'b' Anxiety Antianxiety Drugs areBenzodiazepinesB BlockersBuspironeMeprobamate & Hydroxyzine
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All are waterborne diseases except -
Fish tapeworm(Diphyllobothrium latum) Infection is acquired when the person eats undercooked fish containing the parasite and not by drinking water! Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition Ref: 25th Ed K.Park's Textbook Of Preventive and Social Medicine
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Not true about Fosphenytoin
Fosphenytoin, a more soluble phosphate prodrug of phenytoin, is well absorbed. Fosphenytoin sodium is available for intravenous or intramuscular use and replaces intravenous phenytoin sodium, a much less soluble form of the drug. Used in generalized Tonic-clonic seizures and paial seizures. Highly bound to plasma prote...
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All are duties of a medical practitioner except
Doctor should get informed consent from the patient or his relatives after explaining all procedures and risks before doing a surgery DUTIES OF REGISTERED MEDICAL PRACTITIONER TOWARDS PATIENT 1. Duty to exercise reasonable degree of skill and knowledge. 2. Duties in regard to attendance and examination. 3. Duty to furn...
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Which of the following drug's use alone is to be avoided in a patient with adrenaline producing pheochromocytoma?
Vasomotor Reversal Of Dale - Adrenaline has biphasic effect on blood pressure. - a1 - Strong receptor thus more effect. - b2 - Sensitive receptor thus stimulated at low dose too. When adrenaline is given IV at high doses 1st BP will increase due to stimulation of a1 > b2 & then BP will decrease due to b2 stimulation. W...
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Which one of the following is an Aldosterone antagonist?
(A) Spironolactone > Spironolactone is a steroid chemically related to the mineralocorticoid aldosterone> Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist.
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Disinfection by autoclaving is NOT recommended for -
.sterilizers which operate at high temperatures and pressure are called autoclaves.they generate steam under pressure or saturated steam which is the most effective sterilizing agent.they fall in two categories,grvity displacement autoclaves and high speed pre-vaccum autoclaves.works on the same principle as that of a ...
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During bilateral adrenalectomy, intraoperative dose of hydrocoisone should be given after
"Patients undergoing surgery for a primary adrenal adenoma secreting glucocoicoids require preoperative and postoperative steroids due to suppression of the contralateral adrenal gland. Duration of steroid therapy is determined by the ACTH stimulation test. Exogenous steroids may be needed for up to 2 years but are nee...
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Prolonged apnea may occur in patients with a genetically determined abnormal variant of cholinesterase following intravenous administration of
Both succinylcholine and mivacurium are completely and rapidly eliminated by plasma cholinesterase. Other nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, and atracurium, are eliminated by renal or hepatic mechanisms or by spontaneous hydrolysis (atracurium). Patients with genetically determin...
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Which proton pump inhibitor can be used IV ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pantoprazole Pantaprazole - it is more acid stable and has higher oral bioavailability. It is also available for i.v. administration; paicularly employed in bleeding peptic ulcer and for prophylaxis of acute stress ulcers.
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A 25-year-old woman with amenorrhea has never had menarche. On physical examination, she is 145 cm (4 ft 9 in) tall. She has a webbed neck, a broad chest, and widely spaced nipples. Strong pulses are palpable in the upper extremities, but there are only weak pulses in the lower extremities. On abdominal MR imaging, her...
The features described are those of classic Turner syndrome. Individuals who reach adulthood may have mosaic cell lines, with some 45, X cells and some 46, XX cells. A female carrier of the fragile X syndrome, X(fra), is less likely to manifest the disease than a male, but the number of triple repeat sequences (CGG) in...
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ALL are true about Colles fracture except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Garden spade deformity' COLLES FRACTUREo Colles fracture is an extra-articular fracture at the distal end of radius, at its corticocancellous junction. It is the most common fracture in person over 40 years of age and especially in women after menopause (Postmenopausal females). The association of the...
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A 70 year old female with psychiatric symptoms diagnosed of having schizophrenia. Which is the poor prognostic factor in schizophrenia?
Predictors of poorer outcome in schizophrenia:Age below 20Dilated ventricles, brain atrophy in CT or MRINegative symptoms (e.g., flat affect, povey of thought, apathy, asociality); obsessive-compulsive symptomsIrregular occupational recordInsidious onsetSlow rate of progressionmalesYears of duration prior to assessment...
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