dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_4944 | Modified shock index formula is: | [
"Hea rate/Systolic BP",
"Hea rate/Diastolic BP",
"Hea rate/Mean aerial pressure",
"Pulse rate/Systolic BP"
] | Shock Index(SI) Modified Shock Index (MSI) SI is defined as hea rate divided by systolic BP Better marker for assessing severity of shock than hea rate & BP alone. Utility in trauma patients , sepsis, obstetrics, myocardial infarction, stroke & other acute critical illnesses. Correlated with need for interventions such as blood transfusion & invasive procedures including operations SI is known as a hemodynamic stability indicator Si does not take into account the diastolic BP MSI is defined as hea rate divided by mean aerial pressure High MSI indicates a value of stroke volume & low systemic vascular resistance, a sign of hypodynamic circulation Low MSI indicates a hyperdynamic state. MSI has been considered a better marker than SI for moality rate prediction. Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 52 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7023 | A patient Dharampal has been diagnosed to have bronchial asthma and is maintained on oral prednisolone 20 mg daily and inhaled salbutamol as required. The patient develops chest infection. Which of the following measures would you like to take? | [
"Stop prednisolone",
"Reduce prednisolone dose to 5 mg/day",
"No change/increase in prednisolone dose",
"Substitute prednisolone with inhaled budesonide"
] | * During conditions of stress or infection, dose of steroids should not be decreased. coicosteroids reduce the inflammatory response by inhibiting the activation of inflammatory cells and by reducing mediator production, microvascular leakage, and mucus formation.Coicosteriods helps in reducing infections. Rather, increase in dose may be required. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35334 | Which is the nerve root of Biceps jerk? | [
"C5-C6",
"C6-C8",
"C7-C8",
"C8-T1"
] | Ans. A C5-C6Ref: Gray's Anatomy, 41st ed. pg. 792* Biceps jerk (C5, 6) The elbow is flexed to a right angle and slightly pronated. A finger is placed on the biceps tendon and struck with a percussion hammer; this should elicit flexion and slight supination of the forearm.Extra Mile* Triceps jerk (C6-8) The arm is supported at the wrist and flexed to a right angle. Triceps tendon is struck with a percussion hammer just proximal to the olecranon; this should elicit extension of the elbow.* Radial jerk (C7, 8) The radial jerk is a periosteal, not a tendon reflex. The elbow is flexed to a right angle and the forearm placed in the mid pronation/supination position. The radial styloid is struck with the percussion hammer. This elicits contraction of brachioradialis, which causes flexion of the elbow | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45722 | Malphigian corpuscles are seen in: | [
"Thyroid",
"Kidney",
"Neurons",
"Liver"
] | Ans. (b) Kidney | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50248 | The brilliantly transilluminant tumour in the neck may be- | [
"Branchial cyst",
"Thyroglossal cyst",
"Sternomastoid tumour",
"Cystic hygroma"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36732 | A 63 year old male presented with sudden onset of weakness of the face and tongue and dysahria suggestive of a lesion involving coiculonuclear tract. MRI revealed ischaemic stroke of a ceain pa of the internal capsule. Which of the following pas of the internal capsule was most likley affected? | [
"Anterior limb",
"Genu",
"Posterior limb",
"Both genu and posterior limb"
] | The coiconulcear fibers pass through the genu of the internal capsule. The coiconuclear tract (previously called coicobulbar tract) innervated the muscles of the face and tongue the facial and hypoglossal nerves. Pas of internal capsule Motor fibers/ Descending fibers Sensory fibers/ Ascending tracts Anterior limb Frontopontine Anterior thalamic radiation Genu Coiconuclear Coicospinal Superior thalamic radiation Posterior limb Coicospinal Coicorubral Frontopontine Superior thalamic radiation Retrolentiform pa Pariteopontine Occipitopontine occipitotectal Posterior thalamic radiation Optic radiation Sublentiform pa Temporopontine Parietopontine Auditory radiation Ref: Gray's Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 395 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7197 | First web space of foot is supplied by: | [
"Common peroneal nerve",
"Superficial peroneal nerve",
"Deep peroneal nerve",
"Sural nerve"
] | Ans. C Deep peroneal nerveRef: Anatomy of Foot and Anklet pg 12NerveMotor InnervationSensory DistributionCommon peroneal (L4, L5, S1, S2)Deep and superficial peronealArticular branches to knee; anterolateral aspect proximal leg (via lateral sural nerve)Deep peronealTibialis anterior, EDL, EHL, peroneus tertius Lateral branch: EDBMedial branch: Dorsal first web space lateral hallux, medial second toe.Lateral branch: Tarsal and metatarsal jointsSuperficial peronealPeroneus longus and brevisAnterolateral distal two thirds of leg; dorsum of foot and toes | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20434 | Which of the following is not approved for treatment of leprosy? | [
"Ofloxacin",
"Minocycline",
"Azathioprine",
"Rifampicin"
] | Rifampicin is combined with dapsone to treat paucibacillary leprosy. Rifampicin and clofazimine are combined with dapsone to treat multibacillary leprosy. A single dose of combination therapy has been used to cure single lesion paucibacillary leprosy: rifampicin (600 mg), ofloxacin (400 mg), and minocycline (100 mg). Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive medication. It is used in rheumatoid ahritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, and in kidney transplants to prevent rejection. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1212 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45264 | Which of the following statement is true about the anterior fontanelle? | [
"Size of anterior fontanelle is about 2.5 mm x 2.5 mm",
"It normally closes at bih",
"It must be measured across the borders",
"Early closure is seen in rickets"
] | Size of anterior fontanelle is 2.5 cm x 2.5 cm. It closes by 18 months. It must be measured across the borders. Delayed closure is seen in hypothyroidism, rickets, trisomy syndromes, intrauterine infections, hypophosphatasia and osteogenesis imperfecta. Ref: Clohey, 8th edition, pg no 103; Dutta Obstetrics, 8th edition, pg no 95 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10564 | Which among the following diagnostic technique is confirmatory for Lymphangiosarcoma | [
"Lymphangiography",
"Ultrasonography",
"Skin biopsy",
"Lymphoscintigraphy"
] | Skin or nodule biopsy is confirmative for diagnosis of Lymphangiosarcoma. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38961 | Urinary stone formed in patients with regional bowel enteritis is | [
"Calcium oxalate",
"Urate",
"Phosphate",
"Cysteine"
] | Calcium oxalate stones are more common in Crohn's patients (regional bowel enteritis)than in the general population because of fat malabsorption. Fat binds to calcium, leaving oxalate free to be absorbed leading to hyperoxaluria and deposition in the kidney, where it can form into stones ref : Bailey 27th edition , chapter 76 , 69 , pg no :- 1406 , 1244 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33128 | True about pseudohypoparathyroidism: | [
"Dystrophic calcification",
"|ed Ca2+",
"|ed PO4",
"|ed PTH"
] | Answer is D ( |ed PTH): Pseudohypoparathyroidism is associated with elevated PTH and signs of ineffective PTH action The response of urinary cAMP to PTH is decreased/normal and Heterotopic ossification may be characteristically seen. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29526 | Glucose is conveed to sorbitol by ? | [
"Aldolase B",
"Aldose reductase",
"Sorbitol dehydrogenase",
"All of these"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Aldose reductase | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39350 | Ductus deference is derived from | [
"Mesonephric duct",
"Mullerian duct",
"Paramesonephric",
"Vitelline duct"
] | Inderbir Singh&;s Human embryology Tenth edition The mesonephric ducts give rise to: Trigone of urinary bladder Posterior wall of prostatic urethra Ductus deferens Seminal vesicles Epididymis Ejaculatory ducts | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15499 | Drug that is used for fetal lung maturity is: | [
"Dexamethasone",
"Folic acid",
"Beclomethasone",
"None"
] | Ans. a. DexamethasoneRef: Williams Obstetrics 24th Ed; Page No-754ANTENATAL CORTICOSTEROID THERAPYA single dose of corticosteroids is recommended for pregnant women with gestational age 23-34 weeks of gestation who are at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days.A complete course isBetamethasone two IM 12-mg doses given 24 hours apartORDexamethasone four IM 6-mg doses given 12 hours apart.Lower severity, frequency, or both of respiratory distress syndrome, intracranial hemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis and death are seen such type of neonates whose mothers receive antenatal corticosteroids. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48359 | Virulence factor of the group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is | [
"Protein M",
"Protein T",
"Protein R",
"Lipotechoic acid"
] | The virulence factors of group A streptococcus or Streptococcus pyogenes: 1. Capsule 2. Carbohydrate antigen 3. Protein antigen M, T, R proteins 4. Pili M protein - acts as virulence factor by inhibiting phagocytosis. Heat and acid stable but susceptible to tryptic digestion. Antibody to M proteins promote phagocytosis of cocci and is protective. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 213 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40901 | Flaying is seen in which wound? | [
"Laceration",
"Incised wound",
"Stab wound",
"Contusion"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Laceration LACERATION (TEAR OR RUPTURE)Lacerations are tears or splits of skin, mucous membrane and underlying tissue (e.g., muscle or internal organs). Lacerations are produced by application of blunt force to broad area of the body, which crush or stretch tissues beyond the limits of their elasticity. Localized poions of tissue are displaced by the impact of the blunt force, which sets up traction forces and causes tearing of tissues. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13261 | Cyanide poisoning acts by : | [
"Inhibiting DNA synthesis",
"Inhibiting enzymes of proteins synthesis",
"Inhibiting cellular respiration",
"Inhibiting protein breakdown"
] | C i.e. Inhibit cellular respiration | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47751 | Hernia occurring in a potential space posterior to gastrojejunostomy is called | [
"Bochdalek's Hernia",
"Peterson's Hernia",
"Littre's Hernia",
"Richter's Hernia"
] | Answer- B. Peterson's HerniaPetersen hernias are a type ofinternal hernia which occurs in the potential space posterior to a gastrojejunostomy.This hernia is caused by the herniation of intestinal loops through the defect between the small bowel limbs, the transverse mesocolon and the retroperitoneum, after any type of gastrojejunostomy. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48223 | All are indications of methotrexate except? | [
"Leukemia",
"Breast cancer",
"Rheumatoid ahritis",
"Renal failure"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Renal failure o MTX, usually in combination with other drugs, is effective against acute lymphocytic leukemia, choriocarcinoma, Burkitt's lymphoma in children, breast cancer, and head neck carcinomas. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11589 | Prokaryotes are characterized by - | [
"Absence of nuclear membrane",
"Presence of microvilli on its surface",
"Presence of smooth endoplasmic reticulum",
"All of the above"
] | Different between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes PROKARYOTES EUKARYOTES Nuclear membrane absent Nuclear membrane well defined Cytoplasmic structures absent e.g. Mitochondria, Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum are absent. All these cell organelles are present In cell wall muramic acid & diaminopimelic acids (DAPA) present Both absent in cell wall No sterols in cell membrane Sterols present in cell membrane Eg-bacteria, blue-green algae Fungi, protozoa, slime moulds Site of respiration - Mesosomes Mitochondria Ribosomes--protein production site - 70S (50S + 30S), free in cytoplasm or bound to cell membrane Ribosomes--protein production site - 80S (60S + 40S), attached to rough endoplasmic reticulum | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3359 | The four points of probe placement in focused abdominal sonogram for trauma (FAST) in thoracoabdominal trauma are | [
"subxiphoid, (R) upper quadrant, (L) upper quadrant , suprapubic",
"Epigastrium, (R) and (L) hypochondria, (R) iliac fossa",
"Epigastrium, (R) and (L) lumbar region, (R) Lower Chest",
"Hypogastrium, (R) and (L) lumbar region, (R) lower chest"
] | FAST - Focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination is a bedside screening tool to identify free intraperitoneal, pleural and pericardial fluid. It is limited ultrasound examination with 6 views. - The average time to perform a complete FAST examination is 2-4 minutes. The four points of probe placement in focused abdominal sonogram for trauma (FAST) in thoracoabdominal trauma: 1) Subxiphoid To look for pericardial fluid & 4 chamber view of the hea 2) Right intercostal oblique view To look for right pleural effusion 3) Right coronal view To look for free fluid in Morrison's pouch and paracolic gutter 4) Left intercostal oblique view To look for left pleural effusion, free view fluid in subphrenic space 5) Left coronal view For left paracolic gutter 6) Pelvic (longitudinal/ transverse) views To detect free fluid in cul-de-sac | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29231 | In which of the following conditions oxygen delivery is least to muscles? | [
"Person inhaling 100 percent oxygen at the top of mout everest",
"Marathon runner at sea level",
"Person with carbon monoxide poisoning",
"None of the above (this option none of the above was also there)"
] | In person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning , perfusion to the muscle is least Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:353,354,355 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53612 | In case of hypothyroidism which investigation is most informative and most commonly used: | [
"Serum TSH level",
"Serum T3 and T4 level",
"Serum calcitonin assay",
"Serum TRH assay"
] | TSH* Most informative among thyroid function test parameters because of ultra-sensitivity* Can detect subclinical hypothyroidism & subclinical hypehyroidism* Hypothyroidism - TSH |* Hypehyroidism - TSH | | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38072 | Best reproductive out come among mullerian duct anomalies is | [
"Bicornuate uterus > Arcuate uterus > Didelphic uterus",
"Didelphic uterus > Bicornuate uterus > Arcuate uterus",
"Arcuate uterus > Didelphic uterus > Bicornuate uterus",
"Unicornuate uterus > Arcuate uterus > Didelphic uterus"
] | Best reproductive out come is seen is arcuate uterus > Didelphic uterus > Bicornuate uterus. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19646 | Cytoplasm to Mitochondria substrate shuttle is: | [
"Glycerophosphate shuttle",
"Malate shuttle",
"Phosphoenol pyruvate",
"Oxaloacetate"
] | Ans. (b) Malate shuttleRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30 ed. pg. 134-135th* There are certain shuttle systems that operate for transport of reducing equivalents from cytosol into mitochondria. These shuttle systems operate because mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to cytosolic NADH produced during glycolysis. In order to gain entry of NADH into mitochondrial electron transport chain, these shuttle systems are helpful.* Malate shuttle (aka malate-aspartate shuttle): it is most common and universal shuttle system. Mitochondrial NADH which gains entry from cytosol is oxidized by mitochondrial ETC, leading to formation of 2.5 molecules of ATP.* Glycerophosphate shuttle: in this mechanism, cytosolic NADH is used to reduce dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glycerol-3 phosphate which diffuse through the outer mitochondrial membrane into the inter-membrane space of the mitochondria. In this space, glycerol 3 phosphate is reoxidized to dihydroxyacetone phosphate and the reducing equivalents are transferred to FAD to form is oxidized in ETC to form 1.5 molecules of ATP.FADH2 FADH2 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41482 | Impacted wisdom teeth may produce referred pain via | [
"Lingual nerve",
"Facial nerve",
"Branch of the auriculo temporal nerve",
"None of the above"
] | Unerupted wisdom teeth, erupting teeth, and malocclusion can cause ear pain secondary to direct impingement of the auriculotemporal nerve. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12975 | A person has inability to look downward and laterally. The nerve injured is: September 2012 | [
"Occulomotor",
"Trochlear",
"Abducent",
"Trigeminal"
] | Ans. B i.e. Trochlear Cranial nerves related to ophthalmology 3rd cranial nerve: - Supplies all extra-ocular muscle EXCEPT superior oblique & lateral rectus, Complete paralysis results in external ophthalmoplegia (Inability to move the eye upward, inward & downward), - Drooping of the upper eyelids due to paralysis of levator palpabrae superioris (ptosis), - Pupillary sparing is a feature of DM 4th cranial nerve: - Weakness/ paralysis of superior oblique muscle; - Which normally moves the eye downwards & inwards 6th cranial nerve: - Weakness/paralysis of lateral rectus; - Which normally rotates the eye laterally | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7600 | A 25 year old overweight female was given fentanyl-pancuronium anesthesia for surgery. After surgery and extubation she was observed to have limited movement of the upper body and chest wall in the recovery room. She was conscious and ale but voluntary respiratory effo was limited. Her blood pressure and hea rate were normal. The likely diagnosis is: | [
"Incomplete reversal of pancuronium",
"Pulmonary embolism",
"Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity",
"Respiratory depression"
] | Patient with limited movement of the upper body and chest wall and limited respiratory effo after receiving a long acting muscle relaxant pancuronium is showing features of incomplete reversal from the effects of muscle relaxant drug. Factors affecting rate of recovery of neuromuscular activity after reversal depend upon: 1. Intensity of block - greater the intensity of block at the time or reversal longer the recovery of neuromuscular activity. 2. Dose. 3. Choice of neuromuscular blocking agent - Overall recovery of intermediate acting agents (atracuium, vecuronium, mivacurium, rocuronium) following same dose of anticholinesterase is more rapid and more complete than after pancuronium. 4. Age - recovery occur more rapidly with smaller doses of anticholinesterases in infants and children than adults. 5. Drug interactions 6. Renal failure. Ref: Neonatal Formulary : Drug Use in Pregnancy and the First Year of Life By Edmund Hey, Nohern Neonatal Network, Page 102; Clinical Anesthesia By Paul G. Barash, Page 465; Textbook of Pediatric Emergency Procedures By Christopher King, Page 422 ; Clinical Anesthesia By Paul G. Barash, Page 524; Respiratory Disorders for Lawyers By Norman John, Page 114 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11958 | Closure of glottis is by, all except - | [
"Posterior cricoarytenoids",
"Lateral cricoarytenoids",
"Cricothyroid",
"Thyroarytenoids"
] | Muscles which adduct the vocal cords (close the glottis) are thyroarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, Interarytenoid (Transverse arytenoid), Cricothyroid. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50749 | Which of these forms the principle of stroboscopy | [
"Terrier's law",
"Goldsmith law",
"Seldinger principle",
"Talbott's law"
] | Talbot law --images on human retina linger for 0.2 seconds after exposure.Therefore, sequential images produced at intervals less than 0.2 seconds produce the illusion of a continuous image which allows for the illusion of motion when rapidly produced still images are presented Ref : Diseases of ENT by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 385 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17040 | What is true of Spigelian hernia? | [
"It occurs exclusively in males.",
"It involves part of the circumference of the bowel wall.",
"It is best repaired by the classical Bassini technique of inguinal ligament repair.",
"It occurs at the lateral edge of the linea semilunaris."
] | Spigelian hernia occurs at the semilunar line, which extends along the lateral border of each rectus abdominis muscle. The posterior rectus sheath is deficient at the level of the arcuate line (semicircular line) about one-third of the distance between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis; this is the most common site for Spigelian hernia to occur through the linea semilunaris. It occurs in both sexes. The Bassini technique refers to inguinal hernias only. A hernia that involves part of the bowel wall is known as a Richter's hernia. The appendix may or may not form part of the contents of the sac. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39805 | A patient presented with a vesicle on shin. Microscopy of Tzanck smear showed giant cells. Causative agent is: | [
"Vaccinia virus",
"Varicella zoster",
"Mycobacterium",
"Molluscum contagiosum"
] | Ans. b. Varicella zoster (Ref: Fitzpatrick 7/e p490-493 1873-1898; Rooks 8/e p33 14-33.22; Roxburgh 18/52-54) Vesicles on shin and giant cell on Tzanck smear suggest the diagnosis of Herpes Zoster.Tzanck SmearCytological examination of skin blistersAlter rupturing roof of the blister, the floor is scraped with a surgical blade and material is transferred on to a microscopic slide and fixed.Slides are stained with Giemsa stain. Wright's stain or toluidine blue and examined under the microscope.DisorderFindingPemphigusAcantholytic cellsQBullous pemphigoidPredominantly eosinophilQChronic bullous disease of childhoodPredominantly neutrophilsQVaricella zosterMulti nucleated giant cellsQHerpes simplex infectionMultinucleated giant cellsQToxic epidermal necrolysisNecrotic cellsHerpes ZosterCaused by Varicella Zoster (chicken pox) virusQ, one attack gives life long immunityThoracic nerves (intercostal nerves)Q, ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve and other spinal nerves are most commonly affectedPathology:Ballooning is characteristicQTzanck smear: Multinucleated giant cellsQClinical Features:Prodrome of segmental pain begins 1-4 days before the eruptionQ, erythema and edema is rapidly followed by appearance of grouped vesicles unilateral and in a segmental distribution (MC thoracic dermatome)Q, mucous membrane within the affected dermatome may be involvedUnilateral vesicular eruption within a dermatome associated with severe painThe dermatome from T3 to L3 are most frequently involveComplications:Post-herpetic neuralgiaQ (persistent neuralgic pain)Corneal ulcer and scarring (zoster of ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve), eye involvement is indicated when vesicles are present on the side of nose- Hutchinson's signQVariants:Ramsay Hunt Syndrome: H. zoster involving sensory branch of facial nerveQZoster opthalmicus: H. zoster involving ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve.Q | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23678 | Hypothalmo-hypophyseal tract is present in? | [
"Infundibular stalk",
"Pars intermedia",
"Pars nervosa",
"All of the above"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24045 | Nummular keratitis is a feature of: September 2012 | [
"Fungal keratitis",
"Herpes zoster keratits",
"Bacterial keratitis",
"Acanthamoeba keratitis"
] | Ans. B i.e. Herpes zoster keratitis | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47691 | True regarding Sjogren's syndrome are all of the following except: September 2009 | [
"Autoimmune condition",
"Males are commonly affected",
"Progressive destruction of lacrimal and salivary gland",
"No single laboratory investigation is pathognomic"
] | Ans. B: Males are commonly affected SjOgren's Syndrome (SS) is a systemic autoimmune disease characterised by lymphocytic infiltration, acinar cell destruction and proliferation of duct epithelium in all salivary and larimal gland tissue. Extra glandular involvement of muscles, blood vessels, lungs, kidneys may also occur. Females are affected more than the males It may be primary and secondary (when associated with other connective tissue diseases). There is a risk of progression to lymphoid malignancy. Dry mouth, dry eyes and ahritis/ahralgia are the 3 common presenting features. Of the extraaicular manifestations, Raynaud's phenomena is the most common skin manifestation seen in 35% of patients. Vasculitis has been repoed in 5% of patients with Sjogren's syndrome. This includes small vessel leucocytoclastic vasculitis and medium vessel necrotising vasculitis. Distal A may be silent or lead to renal stones, nephrocalcinosis and compromised renal function. Hypergammaglobulinemia may be due to polyclonal activation of B cells. The diagnosis is base on the history as no single laboratory investigation is pathognomic of either primary or secondary Sjogren's syndrome | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24691 | Fetal heart starts contracting at | [
"10-12 days",
"10-12 weeks",
"3-5 weeks",
"3- 5 month"
] | (C) 3-5 weeks[?]The Beginning:The human heart begins to beat and pump blood through the embryo around day 22 of gestation.The electric stimulus that triggers contractions in the myocardium arise spontaneously within the myocardium itself, and propagate from cell to cell. Input from the central nervous system can modify the heart rate (the frequency of heart beats), but it does not initiate beats.The ability of cardiac myocytes to beat is an intrinsic property of these cells. It has been found that myocytes removed from the early heart and grown in culture will beat sporadically, and if they become connected to each other, will then begin to beat rhythmically, in unison.As a functional organ, the heart begins to beat very early, even before it has assumed its final form.Interestingly, the heart begins to beat even before structures such as valves and septa (singular: septum; the muscular walls that divide the chambers) have formed. The initial contractions are peristaltic - that is, they proceed in a wave like fashion along the length of the heart. IMPORTANT EVENTS FOLLOWING FERTILIZATION0' hourFertilization (day-15 from LMP)30 hours2 cell stage (blastomeres)40-50 hours4 cell stage72 hours12 cell stage96 hours16 cell stage. Morula enters the uterine cavity5th dayBlastocyst4-5th dayZona pellucida disappears5-6th dayBlastocyst attachment to endometrial surface6-7th dayDifferentiation of cyto and syncytiotrophoblast layers10th daySynthesis of hCG by syncytiotrophoblast9-10th dayLacunar network forms10-11th dayTrophoblasts invade endometrial sinusoids establishing uteroplacental circulationInterstitial implantation completed with entire decidual coverage13th dayPrimary villi16th daySecondary villi21st dayTertiary villi21st-22nd dayFetal heart, Fetoplacental circulation | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23590 | Recurrent Bilateral Hypopyon formation associated with thrombophlebitis is most consistent with which of the following: | [
"HLA B 27 associated uveitis",
"Behcet's syndrome",
"Syphilis",
"Herpes Zoster"
] | Answer is B (Behcet's syndrome): Recurrent bilateral Hypopyon is a characteristic feature of Behcet's syndrome. Behcet's syndrome is also associated with thrombophlebitis which is therefore the single hest answer of choice. HLA - B27 associated uveitis may also present with hypopyon but this is typically unilateral and not associated with thrombophlebitis. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17923 | Histologically intense lymphocytic infiltration of the gland replacing the acinar structures, but preserving the lobular architecture seen in: | [
"Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.",
"Epithelial- myoepithelial carcinoma.",
"Sjogren syndrome.",
"Myoepithelioma"
] | The three types of histologic alterations seen in Sjogren's syndrome are as follows:
Intense lymphocytic infiltration of the gland replacing the acinar structures, but preserving the lobular architecture.
Proliferation of the ductal epithelium and myoepithelium to form epimyoepithelial islands
Atrophy of the glands sequential to the lymphocytic infiltration. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45423 | AML best prognosis is seen with ? | [
"Acute myelo monocytic leukemia.",
"Acute monocytic leukemia.",
"Acute promyeloblastic lukemia (M.3).",
"Erythro leukemia"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acute promyeloblastic leukemia (M.3) Acute promycloblastic leukemia Also known as M-3 Associated with t(15:17) DIC, chloromas common Very responsine to retinoic acid combined with anthracylines. M.7 (acute megakaryocytic leukemia) mostly seen in down syndrome. French-American-British (FAB) Classification of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25415 | A 25-year-old male presents to emergency dept. following a road traffic accident. On examination, there is pelvic fracture and blood at urethral meatus.Following are true about pt except - | [
"Anterior urethra is most likely site of injury",
"Retrograde urethrography should be done after the pt is stabilized.",
"Foley catheter may be carefully passed if the RGU is normal",
"Rectal examination may reveal a large pelvic hematoma with the prostate displaced superiorly."
] | The pa of urethra most likely injured in the pelvic fracture is membranous urethra (a pa of post. urethra) Post. Urethra includes -- Prostatic + membranous urethra Anterior urethra includes -- Bulbar + penile urethra The anterior urethra (paicularly bulbar urethra) is injured due to a direct blow to the perineum (straddle injuries*) About other options - (d) The prostate is displaced superiorly (high lying prostate) in membranous urethral injury due to rupture of puboprostatic fascia. A pelvic hematoma is seen in membranous urethral injuries (Perineal hematoma is seen in bulbar urethral injury) (b) Once a urethral injury is suspected the pt. is instructed not to pass urine and a RGU or ascending urethrogram is performed to assess the injury. (c) Catheterization is contraindicated and is passed only if the RGU is normal. Ref : Bailey and Love 25/e p1363 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19192 | The force of a twitch is less than that in a tetanus, BECAUSE: | [
"One action potential does not release sufficient Ca++ to saturate the troponin binding sites",
"Ca++ reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum is so rapid that there is insufficient time for all the troponin Ca++ -binding sites to be occupied",
"Crossbridge cycling is not fast enough to allow expression of the ... | There is enough elasticity in the structures transmitting force (crossbridges, thick and thin filaments, Z-disks, tendons) that the 10 nm shoening / half sarcomere produced by one cycle will not produce much force. Many cycles are needed to fully stretch these elastic elements. Ca++ must remain high as a result of a train of action potentials in a tetanus for some time to allow the full force to be developed. A is not correct because sufficient Ca++ is released after the transit of one action potential to saturate essentially all of the troponin binding sites and enable all the crossbridges to attach and cycle. Other factor(s) must explain the low twitch force. B is not correct because Ca++ reuptake is a very rapid process. Neveheless, the very high affinity of troponin for Ca++ ensures that it is saturated before the myoplasmic Ca++ falls significantly. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5050 | "Umami" is type of | [
"Color blindness",
"Smell sensation",
"Taste sensation",
"Deafness"
] | Ans. c (Taste sensation) (Ref. Ganong Physiology 23rd/pg. Chapter 10, Figure 10-6.)Umami is the fifth taste sense triggered by glutamate and particularly by the monosodium glutamate (MSG) used so extensively in Asian cooking. The taste is pleasant and sweet but differs from the standard sweet taste. The action of umami receptors explains why foods treated with MSG often taste fuller.UMAMI# Humans have five established basic tastes: sweet, sour, bitter, salt, and umami.# Umami is one of the five basic tastes sensed by specialized receptor cells present on the human tongue.# Umami is a Japanese word meaning "savory" or "meaty" and thus applies to the sensation of savoriness--specifically, to the detection of glutamates, which are especially common in meats, cheese and other protein-heavy foods.# Afferent nerves to the nucleus tractus solitarius contain fibers from all types of taste buds, without any clear localization of types.TASTE RECEPTORS# The sour taste is triggered by protons.# Umami taste is due to activation of a truncated metabotopic glutamate receptor, mGluR4, in the taste buds, and the agonists are purine 5-ribonucleotides such as IMP and GMP in the food.# Bitter taste is produced by a variety of unrelated compounds, many of which are poisons. It was originally thought that a single bitter receptor was linked to the heterotrimeric G protein gustducin.# A taste modifier protein, miraculin, has been discovered in a plant. When applied to the tongue, this protein makes acids taste sweet.# A protein that binds taste-producing molecules has been cloned. It is produced by Ebner's glands--glands that secrete mucus into the cleft around vallate papillae and probably have a concentrating and transport function similar to that of the OBP in olfaction.# In humans, the taste buds are located in the mucosa of the epiglottis, palate, and pharynx and in the walls of the fungiform and vallate papillae of the tongue.# The fungiform papillae are rounded structures most numerous near the tip of the tongue; the vallate papillae are prominent structures arranged in a V on the back of the tongue. Each fungiform papilla has up to five taste buds, and they are usually located at the top of the papilla.# The larger vallate papillae each contain up to 100 taste buds, usually located along the sides of the papillae. The small conical filiform papillae that cover the dorsum of the tongue do not usually contain taste buds.# There are a total of about 10,000 taste buds. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41052 | NMR principle is based on | [
"Positron",
"Neutron",
"Proton",
"Electron"
] | NMR/MRI principle is based on ability of protons in the body to absorb and emit radio waves when the body is placed in strong magnetic field | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50167 | Which of the following best estimates the amount of radiation delivered to an organ in the radiation field? | [
"Absorbed dose",
"Equivalent dose",
"Effective dose",
"Exposure dose"
] | Absorbed dose refers to the quantity of total energy per unit mass of matter that is absorbed from ionizing radiation. Unit for absorbed dose is gray(Gy). Ref: Radiation Protection in Educational Institutions By National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements; Operational Health Physics, National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements, Page 12, 13 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37131 | The two blocks in the twin block functional appliance are angulated at (Or) The angle of inclined plane in clarke's twin block is | [
"45°",
"70°",
"65°",
"80°"
] | "Twin - Block appliance" is the most acceptable functional appliance and was introduced by William Clark. The appliance consists of a upper and lower appliances with posterior bite blocks. The upper and lower bite blocks interlock at an 70° | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33182 | Mutation in Keratin 1 and 10 are associated with? | [
"Epidermolysis bullosa simplex",
"Epidermolytic hyperkeratosis",
"Epidermolytic palmoplantar keratoderma",
"Meesmann epithelial corneal dystrophy"
] | ANSWER: (B) Epidermoiytic hyperkeratosisREF: Journal of Pathology 2004; 204: 355-366- DOI: 10.1002/path.l643"Mutations in keratins K1 and K10 are associated with bullous congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma (BCIE), also sometimes referred to as EH or EHK (epidermoiytic hyperkeratosis, the principal clinical feature of this disorder) "Mutations of keratin: (Remember at least first 2)K5/K14Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS)K1/K10Bullous congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma or Epidermoiytic hyperkeratosis (EHK)K9Epidermoiytic palmoplantar keratodermaK6, K16, and K17Pachyonychia congenitaK3/K12Meesmann epithelial corneal dystrophyK4/13White sponge naevus | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29061 | Brilliantly translucent swelling in the neck region in a 2 year old child, diagnosis is | [
"Lipoma",
"Teratoma",
"Cystic Hygroma",
"Thyroglossal cyst"
] | CYSTIC HYGROMA:
• Cystic hygromas are multiloculated cystic spaces lined by endothelial cells.
• It results due to sequestration of a portion of the jugular lymph sac from the lymphatic system.
• Cysts are filled with clear lymph and are lined by endothelium.
• Turner's syndrome is associated with cystic hygroma.
• Most cystic hygromas involve the lymphatic jugular sacs.
• MC site: Posterior neck region.
• Other common sites: Axilla, mediastinum, inguinal and retroperitoneal regions.
• Approximately 50% of them are present at birth.
• It may show spontaneous regression.
Clinical Features
• Usually present as soft cystic masses. that distort the surrounding anatomy, can result in acute airway obstruction.
• Usually manifests in the neonates or in early infancy (50% present at birth).
• Prone to infection and hemorrhage within the mass.
• Swelling is soft and partially compressible and invariably increases in size, when the child coughs or cries.
• Characteristic features: Brilliantly translucent.
Diagnosis
• MRI play a crucial role in preoperative planning.
Treatment
• Complete surgical excision is the preferred treatment.
• Injection of sclerosing agents, such as bleomycin or OK-432 (Picibanil), derived from Streptococcus pyogenes may eradicate the cystic hygroma. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_458 | The treatment of choice in Cushing's disease is | [
"Open adrenalectomy",
"Bilateral adrenalectomy",
"Medical management",
"Transsphenoidal excision of the pituitary adenoma"
] | The treatment of choice in Cushing's disease is transsphenoidal excision of the pituitary adenoma, which is successful in 80% of patients. Pituitary irradiation has been used for patients with persistent or recurrent disease after surgery. However, it is associated with a high rate of panhypopituitarism, and some patients develop visual deficits. This has led to increased use of stereotactic radiosurgery, which uses CT guidance to deliver high doses of radiotherapy to the tumour (photon or gamma knife) and also bilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy. Patients who fail to respond to either treatment are candidates for pharmacologic therapy with adrenal inhibitors (medical adrenalectomy) such as ketoconazole, metyrapone, or aminoglutethimide | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44751 | Chlamydia can cause infertilty due to? | [
"Slaphingitis",
"Endometritis",
"Oophritis",
"Cervicitis"
] | ANSWER: (A) SlaphingitisREF: Shaw 13th ed p. 209Salphingitis due to chlamydia and gonnorrea are common causes of tubal block resulting in infertility | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33719 | Clergyman&;s knee is due to | [
"Prepatellar bursitis",
"Subcutaneous Infrapatellar bursitis",
"Deep Infrapatellar bursitis",
"Suprapatellar bursitis"
] | Subcutaneous Infrapatellar BursaIt lies in front of lower pa of the tibial tuberosity and of the lower pa of the ligamentum patellae.Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursitis is called "clergyman&;s knee."Ref: Chaurasia; Volume 2; 6th edition; Page no: 44 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31473 | What is the most common site of an accessory spleen? | [
"Greater curvature of the stomach",
"Gastrocolic ligament",
"Splenocolic ligament",
"Splenic hilum"
] | Splenunculi- single or multiple accessory spleens MC site: near the hilum of the spleen > behind the tail of the pancreas The remainder are located in the mesocolon, greater omentum or the splenic ligaments. Significance- failure to identify and remove these at the time of splenectomy may give rise to persistent disease | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45952 | Edema occurs when plasma protein level is below: | [
"8 g/Dl",
"2 g/dL",
"5 g/dL",
"10 g/dL"
] | Ans. (c) 5g/dL(Ref: Harshmohan 5th pg 97)When total plasma proteins <5gm/dl (normal 6-8gm/dl) or albumin <2.5gm/dl (normal 3.5-5gm/dl) edema takes place | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2017 | Lepra cells seen in leprosy are: | [
"Lymphocytes",
"Plasma cells",
"Vacuolated Histiocytes",
"Neutrophils"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24730 | The group of drugs used as subsidiary medicines in cancer treatment? | [
"Amefostine",
"Filgrastim",
"Cytochalasin",
"All of the above"
] | The above-given drugs are considered as cancer Protectants. Cytochalasin is a migrostatic or anti-metastatic drug.Ref: Sharma and Sharma 2nd e/pg 858. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42220 | In TRIAGE system for disaster management, Red colour code indicates? | [
"About to die patients",
"Uninjured patients",
"High priority or transferable cases",
"Dead or moribund cases"
] | Ans. c (High priority or transferable cases) (Ref. Park Textbook of PSM 22nd/pg.741)TRIAGEIt consists of rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of the severities of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention.Four colour coding# Red - High priority or transferable cases# Yellow - medium priority# Green - ambulatory patients# Black - dead or moribund patients. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_275 | A 25 years female was found in room with 1000/0 burns on her body. The tongue was protruding out; body was in pugilistic attitude with heat ruptures, peeling of skin, and heat haematoma and heat fractures of skull. Carboxy hemoglobin was 250/0 and soot paicles were present in trachea. Which of the combinations of two findings will establish that the burns were antemoem in nature: | [
"Heat haematoma & heat ruptures",
"Heat fracture of skull and peeling of skin",
"Heat haematoma and pugilistic attitude",
"Carboxv hemoglobin (25%) and soot paicles in trachea"
] | D i.e. Carboxy hemoglobin 250/0 and shoot paicles in trachea | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16406 | Hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated in women: | [
"Less than 25 years of age",
"Who are normotensive",
"Who have thromoboembolic disorders",
"Who have anemia"
] | - Combined oral contraceptives are absolutely contraindicated in those with Thrombo-embolic disorders. - They are useful in women with anemia, as they decrease the menstrual blood loss. Other Absolute CI of OCPs: Cancer Liver diseases Uterine bleeding Cardiovascular diseases Hyperlipidemia Pregnancy | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45597 | A 2-year-old girl presented with recurrent abdominal pain. She was admitted in pediatrics for detailed work up. When her blood was drawn for investigation it was milky white. Yellowish white papules noted on the dorsum of hands. On fundoscopic examination opalescent retinal vessels were seen. Fasting triglycerides >1000mg/dL, but cholesterol level was normal. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Familial chylomicronemia syndrome",
"Familial defective Apo B",
"Sitostrelomia",
"Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia"
] | Ans. A. Familial chylomicronemia syndromeIdentifying features are* Recurrent abdominal pain due to pancreatitis* Milky white plasma* Eruptive xanthoma* Lipemia retinalis* Very high triglycerides* Normal cholesterol | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13137 | The contact area on the distal side of a maxillary first premolar is located: | [
"Middle of the middle third with buccal embrasure wider than lingual",
"Middle of the middle third with lingual embrasure wider than buccal",
"Litter cervical to the junction of occlusal and middle third of the crown with wide occlusal embrasure",
"Cervical third with buccal embrasure wider than lingual embra... | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43458 | All of the following are approaches to health education except - | [
"Service approach",
"Regulatory appraoch",
"Health education approach",
"Mass media"
] | The approach to health education includes; - regulatory approach - service approach - health education approach - primary health care approach Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:859 <\p> | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48309 | Which is an allosteric protein: | [
"Transferrin",
"Ceruloplasmin",
"Phosphofructokinase",
"Haemoglobin"
] | D i.e. Hemoglobin | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54318 | All of the following structures passes through the deltopectoral triangle, EXCEPT: | [
"Cephalic vein",
"Axillary nerve",
"Deltopectoral lymph nodes",
"Branch of thoracoacromial aery"
] | Contents of the deltopectoral triangle are cephalic vein, deltoid branch of thoracoacromial aery and deltopectoral nerves. Boundaries of the triangle are formed by:Upper margin of pectoralis major mediallyAnterior margin of deltoid laterallyClavicle superiorlyRef: Clinical Anatomy: (a Problem Solving Approach) By Kulkarni PAGE 85. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35972 | Which one of the following is the common cause of Congenital Hydrocephalus is ? | [
"Craniosynostosis",
"Intra uterine Meningitis",
"Aquedectal stenosis",
"Malformations of Great vein of Galen"
] | Aqueductal stenosis is the most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14782 | The following phenomenon is responsible for antibiotic resistance in bacteria due to slime production- | [
"Co-aggregation",
"Biofilm formation",
"Mutation evolving in altered target site for antibiotics",
"Mutation evolving a target bypass mechanism"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1483 | Corpus cancer syndrome is characterized by following except NOT RELATED-MEDICINE | [
"Diabetes",
"Obesity",
"Multiparity",
"Hypeension"
] | Is triad of obesity, HTN and DM - a predisposing factor for Endometrial Ca | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18844 | NOT an indication for surgery in Ventricular septal
defect | [
"Hepatomegaly",
"Suck- Rest-Suck cycle while feeding",
"Pulmonary: Systemic blood flow > 2:1",
"Eisenmenger's Syndrome"
] | Eisenmenger's Syndrome is an absolute contraindication for Surgery in Ventricular septal defect. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32620 | 26 yrs woman with fetus in transverse lie, shoulder presentation, membranes absent, comes to the casualty in second stage of labour, management includes? | [
"External cephalic version",
"Internal podalic version",
"Cleidotomy",
"Cesarean section"
] | Caesarean section in the preferred method of delivery if version fails or contraindicated . External cephalic version should be considered around 37 weeks onward . Internal podalic version is contraindicated because it can cause premature rupture of the membrane, placental abruption and bleeding. It can be done in transverse lie of 2nd baby in twin pregnancy. Cleidotomy is done for shoulder dystocia in dead fetus. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20002 | Mycobacterium tuberculosis was discovered by - | [
"Louis pasteur",
"Robert koch",
"Lister",
"Jenner"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27369 | Which is the most common oncogene involved in human cancer? | [
"RET",
"RAS",
"RB",
"pS3"
] | RAS is a signal transduction protein. It is the most common oncogene mutation involved in human cancer. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36301 | Sentinel node of gall bladder is - | [
"Virchow's nodes",
"Iris nodes",
"Clouquet node",
"Lymphnode of lund"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lymphnode of lund | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23656 | Most common injury-related deaths in pediatrics is due to | [
"Road traffic accidents",
"Homicides",
"Burns",
"Drowning"
] | Cause of deaths in pediatric population by injuriesRoad traffic accidents - Most commonDrowning - 2nd Most commonFire-related burns - 3rd Most commonHomicideFallsPoisoningWar(Refer: OP Ghai's Textbook of Pediatrics, 8th edition, pg no. 682) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42083 | All the statements are True regarding Selexipag except? | [
"Selective IP receptor antagonist",
"Prostacyclin receptor agonist",
"Used in Pulmonary Hypeension",
"Adverse effects of Selexipag are similar to those of PGI2 analogues"
] | Selexipag is an orally active, Selective IP receptor agonist(Prostacyclin Receptor Agonist) . Selexipag has shown to reduce Morbidity and Moality in patients with Pulmonary HT . A/E : similar to those of PGI2 analogues and include headache, jaw pain, nausea, dizziness, flushing, nasopharyngitis and vomiting. Adverse effects appear to be more common when the drug is taken while fasting . MOA : | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14181 | "Aldehyde" test is for: | [
"Fasciola",
"Leishmania",
"Toxoplasma",
"Toxocara"
] | Leishmania | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32711 | The side effects of digitalis are all except - | [
"Ventricular tachycardia",
"Vasodilatation",
"Nausea and vomiting",
"Ventricular Bigemini"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vasodilatation o Digitalis causes mild vasoconstriction (not vasodilatation).Manifastations of digitalis intoxicationo Anorexia, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain are usually reported first.o Later occuring - fatigue, malaise, no desire to walk or lift an arm, headach, mental confusion, restlesness, disorientation, visual disturbances - yellow vision, weight loss, cachexia, gynaecomastia delerium, skin rash,diarrhoea.o Cardiac - Most frequent disturbances of cardiac rhythm are ventricular premature beat, bigeminy, ventricular tachycardia and rarely ventricular fibrillation.o A-V block and non paroxysmal atrial tachcardia with variable A-V block are characteristic of digitalis intoxication.o Severe bradycardia, atrial extrasystoles, AF and AFI may occur. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33489 | An obese lady accountant working in POF hospital Wah Cantt came to the dietician there and took advice for a balanced diet. Dietician told that important point for prudent diet is that | [
"Unsaturated fats should be less than 10%",
"Dietary fat should be limited to 20-30% of total intake",
"Avoidance of complex carbohydrates",
"Proteins should account for 50-60% of diet"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22155 | Which virus is not a teratogenic Virus? | [
"Rubella",
"Cytomegalovirus",
"Herpes simplex",
"Measles"
] | TORCH complex consists of Toxoplasmosis, Others ,Rubella ,Cytomegalovirus ,& Herpes simplex virus. Others refer to hepatitis B, mumps ,coxsackevirus B. All the microoganisms in TORCH complex are transmitted transplacentally & therefore infect the foetus from mother . Lesions produced by TORCH complex in utero includes microcephaly, microphthalmia,hepatomegaly, hea disease, splenomegaly,pneumonitis. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 978 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15508 | Asherman syndrome is due to : | [
"Overdose drugs",
"Postaboion curettage",
"Speticemia",
"Contraceptal pills"
] | Postaboion curettage | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15664 | Following an emergency operation for hepatic and splenic trauma, the surgeon inserts a finger into the foramen of Winslow in an attempt to stop the bleeding. Which is TRUE of the hepatic artery? | [
"It is called the common hepatic artery at this level.",
"It is medial to the common bile duct and anterior to the portal vein.",
"It is posterior to the portal vein.",
"It is posterior to the inferior vena cava."
] | The hepatic artery is medial to the common bile duct and anterior to the portal vein. The inferior vena cava passes posterior to the (epiploic) foramen of Winslow, where it lies behind the portal vein. The foramen represents the only natural communication between the lesser and greater peritoneal bursa (sac). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10478 | Declaration of Geneva is related with - | [
"Medical etiquette",
"Disciplinary control",
"Hippocratic oath",
"Professional misconduct"
] | The modernized version of the Hippocratic Oath is the Declaration of Geneva (1948). DECLARATION OF GENEVA: Adopted by the 2nd General Assembly of the World Medical Association, Geneva, Switzerland, September 1948and amended by the 22nd World Medical Assembly, Sydney, Australia, August 1968and the 35th World Medical Assembly, Venice, Italy, October 1983and the 46th WMA General Assembly, Stockholm, Sweden, September 1994and editorially revised by the 170th WMA Council Session, Divonne-les-Bains, France, May 2005and the 173rd WMA Council Session, Divonne-les-Bains, France, May 2006 and amended by the 68th WMA General Assembly, Chicago, United States, October 2017. At the time of registration by the State Medical Council, each applicant is given a copy of the Declaration of Geneva by the Registrar concerned. Ref: 1. <a href=" <p> 2. Dr.K.S.Narayana Reddy, The Essentials of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 34th edition, Pg.25. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27046 | Characteristic hallucination of schizophrenia is | [
"Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient",
"Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary",
"Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient",
"Auditory hallucinations talking to patient"
] | Ans. B. Auditory hallucinations giving running commentaryThird-person hallucinations, e.g. voices heard arguing, commenting or discussing the patient or giving a running commentary on one's action; are characteristic of schizophrenia.In schizophrenia auditory hallucinations are the most common type of hallucinations. First-person hallucination:- Audible self-thoughtsSecond person hallucination:- Voices address the person directly or commanding one's action andThird-person hallucinations:- voices heard arguing, commenting or discussing the patient or giving a running commentary on his action or thought. Only the "third person hallucinations' are characteristic of schizophrenia. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13477 | Most common cause of maternal anaemia in pregnancy | [
"Acute blood loss",
"Iron deficiency state",
"Gastrointestinal blood loss",
"Hemolytic anaemia"
] | According to WHO anemia in pregnancy is defined as haemoglobin level below 11g/dl Iron deficiency anemia is the most common cause of anaemia both in the non pregnant and pregnant state Reference: Text Book of Obstetrics; Sheila Balakrishnan; 2nd edition; Page no: 285 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26646 | Liver biopsy is normal in - | [
"Dubin johnson syndrome",
"Gilbe syndrome",
"Hemochromatosis",
"Wilson's disease"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gilbe syndromeLiver pathology is normal in Gilbe, Crigler Najjar, Rotor Syndrome.o In Dubin Johson syndrome liver is darkly pigmented. Liver biopsy is not normal in wilson's disease, Hemochromatosis. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14426 | Most common malignant tumor of kidney in children is: | [
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Mesoblastic nephroma",
"Wilm's tumour",
"None of the above"
] | Wilms' tumor is the most common primary malignant tumor of the kidney in children. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25530 | HLA-B51 is associated with which disease | [
"Lupus vulgaris",
"Psoriasis",
"Behcet disease",
"None of the above"
] | MHC-associated diseases # Lupus (SCLE and SLE): HLA-DR3 # Psoriasis: HLA-Cw6 (most linked to psoriasis), B17 and B13 (guttate psoriasis), and B27 (psoriatic ahritis) # Reactive ahritis: HLA-B27 # Behcet's disease: HLA-B51 # Chronic idiopathic uicaria: HLA-DR4, HLA-DRB4, and HLA-DQ8 # Pemphigoid gestationis: HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4 # Pemphigus vulgaris: HLA-DR4 and DRw6 # Dermatitis herpetiformis: Class I: HLA-A1 and HLA-B8; Class II: HLA-DR3 and HLA-DQ2 # Lichen planus: Class I: HLA-B57 and HLA-B8; Class II: HLA-DR1 and DR10 # Vitiligo: Class I: HLA-A33 and HLA-B13; Class II: HLA-B44, HLA-DRB1, and HLA-DR4. Ref:- Review of Dermatology by Alikhan; pg num:-25 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14385 | Which of the following is true about holders method of pasteurization | [
"It kills all bacteria and spores",
"It kills all bacteria except Coxiella burnetti",
"It kills 95% of microorganisms",
"All bacteria are destroyed"
] | Pasteurization: Pasteurization is a technique in which heat is applied to liquids to kill potential agents of infection and spoilage, while at the same time retaining the liquid's flavor and food value. Pasteurization is an example of sterilization at a temperature <100degC. Methods: 63degC for 30 min (Holder method) and 72degC for 15-20 sec (Flash method) followed by rapid cooling to 13oC (Better method) Pasteurization kills nearly 90% of bacteria in milk except ceain bacteria like Coxiella burnetti which is resistant to Holder's method of sterilization but killed by Flash method of Sterilization. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21851 | True about hypehermic anhydrosis except | [
"Also called as desse syndrome",
"complete absence of sweating",
"Hyperkeratotic plugging of sweat glands",
"Papular rashes over face and neck"
] | Hypehermic anhydrosis: Also called as desse syndrome After generalised profuse sweating for days perspiration stops suddenly in all pas of the body below neck region but persists in face and neck. Hyperkeratotic plugging of sweat glands. Papular rashes over face and neck. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49090 | Specific reason to disallow the sample for culture- | [
"Sample brought within 2 hr of collection",
"Sample brought in sterile plastic container",
"Sample brought in formalin",
"Sample obtained after cleaning the collection site"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41354 | Avascular necrosis can be a possible sequelae of fracture of all of the following bones, except: | [
"Femur neck",
"Scaphoid",
"Talus",
"Calcaneum"
] | Ans. (d) Calcaneum:Ref: Maheshwari 5th ed. / 50, 2nd 141; Adams 9th/62Common sites of avascular necrosisHead of femurFracture neck femur Posterior dislocation of hipProximal pole of scaphoidFracture through waist of scaphoidBody of Talus LunateFracture through neck of talus Dislocation | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14342 | Mutation of which of the following gene is most impoant in paroxysmal nocturnal hemaglobinuria? | [
"Decay accelerating factor (DAF)",
"Membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis (MIRL)",
"Glycosyl phosphatidyl inositol (GPI)",
"CD8 binding protein"
] | Ans. is 'c Glycosyl phosphatidylinositol o PNH results from acquired mutation that inhibits the synthesis of Glycosyl-phosphatidyl-inositol (GPI). o The GPI linked proteins that are missing are membrane inhibitors of reactive lysis (MIRL; CD59), delay accelerating factor (DAF; CD55), C8 binding protein, urokinase plasminogen activator receptor, leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18744 | Good prognosis factors of ALL are all EXCEPT: | [
"Hyperdipoidy",
"Female sex",
"Pre B cell ALL",
"T (12:2) translocation"
] | Pre B cell ALL REF: Devita's ed p. 2240, Nelson 17" ed p. 1695 Prognostic factors for ALL Determinants Favourable Unourable WBC count Low High Age 3-7 yrs <1, > 10 yrs Sex Female Male Race White Black Hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy Absent present Testicular involvement Absent Present CNS Absent Ove FAB classification L1 L2 PLOIDY Hyperdiploidy hypoploidy Cytogenetic markers Trisomy 4,10, 7 7 t(12:21) tel:aml t(9:22) (bcr:abl) t(4:11) (mil af4) t(1:19) Time of remission <14 d >28 d Minimal residual disease <10-4 >10-3 Immunophenotype Early pre B cell T cell | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8954 | Most common site of berry's aneury sm is- | [
"Vertebral artery",
"Basilar artery",
"Junction of anterior cerebral artery and anterior communicating artery",
"Posterior cerebral artery"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Junction of anterior cerebral artery and anterior communicating arteryBerry aneurysmo The further away the aneurysm from the anterior circulation or from the circle of willis , the less common will be its rate of occurance.o Berry aneurysm orSaccualr aneurysm or Congenital aneurysm is the most frequent type of intracranial aneurysm.o Most aneurysms occur in the anterior circulation and are found near the branchs points.o Most common site is junction between anterior cerebral artery and anterior communication artery (40%).o Next most common site is internal carotid artery> and posterior communicating artery> (20%)Less frequent sites includeo Top of basilar artery-o Junction of basilar artery and the superior cerebllar artery or anterior inferior cerebellar artery;o Junction of vertebral artery' and posterior inferior cerebellar artery; | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49921 | What is seen in CO poisoning? | [
"Oxygen curve shifts to left",
"Hypoxic hypoxia",
"Cyanosis",
"Diffusion capacity of lung decreases"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22815 | Decrease in osmotic fragility cause hemolysis in | [
"Thalassemia",
"β-Thalassemia",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Methemoglobinemia"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49758 | Breast fed baby is protected from some GI infection due to presence of what in mothers milk: March 2013 | [
"IgA",
"Vitamin D",
"Long chain omega-3 fatty acids",
"IgE"
] | Ans. A i.e. IgA | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51308 | Cytochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these 2 proteins | [
"Quaernary structure",
"Teiary structure",
"Amino acid sequence",
"Loop and turn segments"
] | Cytochrome c occurs only in eukaryotes, but prokaryotes contain proteins, known as c-type cytochromes, which perform the same general function (that of an electron carrier). The major structural differences among c-type cytochromes lie in the various polypeptide loops on their surfaces. The sequences of the c-type cytochromes have diverged so far from one another that, in the absence of their X-ray structures, they can be properly aligned only through the use of mathematically sophisticated computer programs. Thus, it appears that the essential structural and functional elements of proteins, rather than their amino acid residues, are conserved during evolution. Ref : Voet Fundamentals of Biochemistry 4th Edition Pg no 151-152. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3279 | Location of Arlt's line: | [
"Sclera",
"Lens",
"Lower palpebral conjunctiva",
"Upper palpebral conjunctiva"
] | Ans. (d) Upper palpebral conjunctivaRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. 169* Conjuctival scarring seen in trachoma as irregular stellate shaped scars over sulcus subtarsalis is called Arlts line.* It is seen in upper palpebral conjunctiva. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50562 | Bones contain which type of collagen ? | [
"I",
"II",
"III",
"IV"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., I | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48814 | Composition of Nova-T is _______ | [
"Copper and silver",
"Copper and aluminium",
"Copper only",
"Copper and selenium"
] | Composition of Nova-T is copper and silver Copper carrying devices: In these, copper wire of surface area 200 to 250mm is wrapped round the veical stem of a polypropylene frame. Among these devices are copper T 200, Copper 7, Multiload copper 250, Cop-per T 380, Copper T 220 and Nova T. They have an effective life of about 3-5 years. It is estimated that about 50 mcg of copper is elute daily in the uterus. Copper T 380, known as Paraguard, has a lifespan of 1 years. Nova-T had silver added to the copper wire, thereby increasing its lifespan to 5 years. IUCDs are a good contraceptive choice for the following groups of women: Low-risk of STD. Multiparous woman Monogamous relationship Desirous of long-term reversible method of contraception, but not yet desirous of permanent sterilization Unhappy or unreliable users of oral contrception or barrier contraception Uses of IUCD: As a contraceptive Postcoital contraception (emergency contraception) Preferably avoid its use in unmarried and nulliparous patients because of the risk of PID and subsequent tubal infeility. Ref: Shaw&;s textbook of Gyaecology 17th edition Pgno: 258 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17946 | What will be the best treatment for the below patient? | [
"Laser photocoagulation",
"Three monthly injections of Ranibizumab",
"Photodynamic therapy",
"Observation and follow-up"
] | Ans. (b) Three monthly injections of RanibizumabOption a - LP is done for extrafoveal lesions, rarely done now a days.Option b - Anti-VEGF drugs are the mainstay of treatment for Wet ARMD as has been seen in many trials such as MARINA, ANCHOR, Pronto trial etcOption c - PDT can be done, but used only ifPurely occult CNVPredominantly classical CNV, subfoveal, not larger than 5400 microns and a visual acuity of 6/60 or better.Option d - Wet ARMD needs to be treated. Observation may be done in cases of Dry ARMD. | B | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.