dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_3523 | Incompatible blood transfusion leads to all except | [
"Increased plasma bilirubin",
"Increased plasma prothrombin",
"Jaundice",
"Renal failure"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45906 | Periphery and posterior of retina is best visualized with: | [
"Direct ophthalmoscopy",
"Indirect ophthalmoscopy",
"Retinoscopy",
"USG"
] | Indirect ophthalmoscopy | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23070 | Cock up splint is used for | [
"Median nerve palsy",
"Radial nerve palsy",
"Ulnar nerve palsy",
"Femoral nerve palsy"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e. radial nerve palsy Other important splints used:* Knuckle bender splint*-Ulnar nerve palsy* Foot drop splint*-Sciatic nerve palsy or common peroneal nerve palsy* Shoulder abduction splint-Axillary nerve palsy* Aero plane splint*-Brachial plexus injury* Bohler Braun splint*- femur* Turn buckle splint*-Volkman's ischemic contracture* | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47363 | This is known as ? | [
"Falanga",
"Bansdola",
"Telefono",
"Jack knife Toure"
] | FALANGA/ BASTINADO It is a type of toure method in which the soles of the feet of the victim are beaten by stick or blunt object Findings : Hematoma on the sole of the feet TELEFONO :Repeated slapping on the ears DRY SUBMARINE :Plastic bag asphyxiation WET SUBMARINE : Forced immersion of head under water. PICANA :Electric shock toure. PLANTON :Prolonged standing | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31500 | Great auricular nerve originates from: | [
"C2,C3",
"C3,C4",
"C4,C5",
"C5,C6"
] | The great auricular nerve is a superficial branch of the cervical plexus composed of branches of spinal C2 and C3. It provides sensory innervation to the skin overlying the parotid gland, angle of mandible, external ear and posterior auricular region. The skin of the face is supplied three divisions of the trigeminal nerve except for the small area over the angle of mandible and parotid gland which is supplied by greater auricular nerve(C2,C3). Ref: Snell's Clinical Anatomy, 7th Edition, Page 722 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39064 | Hypersegmented neu trop h ills are seen in? | [
"Microcytic hypochronic anemia",
"Sideroblastic anemia",
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Hemolytic anemia"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Megaloblastic anemia o Earliest and characteristic finding of megaloblastic anemia is hypersegmented neutrophills (neutrophils with > 5 lobes). Diagnosis is made even if a single neutrophil with > 6 lobes is seen or >5% neutrophils with 5 lobes are seen.Other Features of megaloblastic anemia Peripheral bloodo Macrocytosis i.e., megaloblastic RBC - Due to nuclear/cytoplasmic asynchronyo Macrocytes lack central pallor of normal RBCo Anisopoikilocytosis - Marked variation in shape and sizeo Majority of RBCs appear as macroovalcytes.o Few tear drop cells.o Low reticulocyte counto Some nucleated RBCs may appear (normally, during maturation of RBC, nucleus disappears)o Large megakaryocytes with multilobate nuclei.o Evidence of erythropoiesis: - Basophilic stippling, Cabott Ring, Howell-jolly bodies.o As DNA synthesis is impaired in all proliferating cells, pancytopenia (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) may occur.Bone marrowo Hypercellular due to proliferation of erythroid precursors replacing fat - Decreased ration of fat cells to hematopoietic elements (normal is 1:1).o Reversal of myeloid to erythroid ratio (normal is 2 to 3 : 1) due to proliferation of erythroid precursorso Megaloblastic erythropoiesisOtherso | MCV due to macrocytosiso | MCH due to increased hemoglobin content.o Normal MCHC because hemoglobin content in the cell is increased proportionate to increase in the size of RBC.o Increased serum LDH. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27996 | Features of fracture neck of femur includes | [
"Flexion at hip and lateral rotation",
"Flexion at hip abduction",
"Shoening and lateral rotation",
"Shoening and flexion"
] | C i.e. Shoening & Lateral rotation Fracture neck femur and inter trochanteric femur present with - lateral rotation and shoingQ. The only difference is in the amount i.e. * Less lateral rotation deformity in fracture neck femur is due to attachment of capsule to the distal fracture fragment which prevents excessive rotation in acute cases. But gradually the deformity increases d/t stretching of hip joint capsule by the weight of limb. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2082 | Which of the following patient characteristics is a possible reason for the use of celecoxib in the treatment of ahritis? | [
"History of severe rash after treatment with a sulfonamide antibiotic",
"History of gout",
"History of peptic ulcer disease",
"History of type 2 DM"
] | Therefore history of peptic ulcer is a possible reason for use of celecoxib. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10059 | A Bone marrow transplant recipient patientdeveloped chest infection. On HRCT 'Tree in bud appearance' is seen. Most likely causative agent is: | [
"Klebsiella",
"Pneumocystis",
"TB",
"RSV"
] | Pneumocystis [Ref: Harrison I7/e p843; Aicle 'Tree in bud sign' in Journal 'Radiology' and 'Radiographics7 Tree-in-bud is a sign seen in HRCT, most commonly seen with endobronchial spread of Tuberculosis, but can be seen with a wide variety of conditions, most commonly infections. (Described ahead in detail). Theoretically all the options can cause 'Tree-in-bud' sign (although Klebsiella has not been mentioned in the list). So the next clue is Bone marrow transplant. Bone marrow transplant causes a transient state of immunological deficiency leading to a wide variety of oppounistic infections. Among the given options, according to the table and text of Harrison (17/e chapter 'Infections in Transplant Recipients') Pneumocystis and RSV can cause pneumonia after transplant: butPneumocystis is a much more common than RSV. Common Sources of Infections after Hematopoietic Stein Cell Transplantation Period after Transplantation Infection Site Early (<1 Month) Middle (1-4 months) Late (>6 Months) Disseminated Aerobic gram-negative, grain-positive bacteria Nocardia Candida, Aspergillus Encapsulated bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis) Skin and mucous membranes HSV- HHV-6 VZV Lungs Candida, Aspergillus HSV CMV, seasonal respiratory viruses Pneumocystis Toxoplasma Pneumocystis Gastrointestinal tract CMV Kidney BK virus, adenovirus BK virus Brain HHV-6 Toxoplasma Toxoplasma JC virus Bone marrow HHV-6 Tree-in-bud sign The tree-in-bud sign is a finding seen on thin-section computed tomographic images of the lung (HRCT). (Not seen on X-rays) Peripheral, small, centrilobular nodules are connected to linear, branching opacities that have more than one contiguous branching site, thus resembling a budding or, fruiting tree: this is known as tree-in-bud-pattern. It represents dilated and impacted (mucus or pus-filled) centrilobular bronchioles. The presence of tree-in-bud is indicative of small airway disease. It is most commonly associated with endobronchial spread of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. But it can also be seen in a large number of conditions. Pulmonary infectious disorders involving the small airways are the most common causes of the tree-in-bud sign. Any infectious organism, including bacterial, mycobacterial, viral, parasitic, and fungal agents, can involve the small airways and cause a tree-in-bud pattern. Causes of Tree-in-bud appearance Peripheral airway disease Infection Bacterial Mycobacterium tuberculosis M avium-intracellulare complex Staphylococcus aureus Haemophilus influenzae Fungal Aspergillus Pneumocystis carinii, (renamed Pneumocystis jiroveci) Viral Cytomegalovirus Respiratory syncytial virus Congenital disorders Cystic fibrosis Kaagener syndrome Idiopathic disorders Obliterative bronchiolitis Diffuse panbronchiolitis A spiration Inhalation Toxic fumes and gases Immunologic disorders Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Connective tissue disorders Rheumatoid ahritis Sjo-gren syndrome Peripheral pulmonary vascular disease Neoplasms Primary pulmonary lymphoma Neoplastic pulmonary emboli Gastric cancer Breast cancer Ewing sarcoma Renal cancer | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27075 | In testicular feminisation syndrome,false statement is : | [
"Buccal smear is chromatin positive",
"Normal breast size",
"amenorrhea",
"Familial incidence is recognised"
] | Testicular feminising syndrome karyotype is 46 XY normal breast development primary amenorrhea inherited as autosomal dominant/X linked recessive gene sex chromatin is negative D.C.DUTTA'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:443,6th edition | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22333 | Rural health scheme introduced by | [
"Bhore committee",
"Mukherjee committee",
"Srivastava committee",
"Mudaliar committee"
] | Rural health scheme 1977The most impoant recommendation of the shrivastav committee was that primary health care should be provided within the community itself through specially trained workers so that the health of the people is placed in the hands of the people themselves. Ref: Park; 23rd ed; Pg 875 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1171 | Least common type of pelvis is : | [
"Gynaecoid",
"Android",
"Mixed",
"Platypelloid"
] | Platypelloid | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31431 | Most common bacterial cause of Rhinitis is | [
"Haemophilus influenza",
"E.coli",
"Pasturella multocida",
"Cornybacterium diphtheria"
] | Secondary Invaders Streptococcus haemolyticus Pneumococcus Staphylococcus Haemophilus influenza Klebsiella Ref : Dhingra 7e pg 171. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10422 | A 21yrs. old pt. attended a pay the previous night and gives the following symptoms - pain in abdomen radiating to back, pulse 100/min, BP 100/76 temp 39degC and vomiting before coming Most probable dx is : | [
"Acute appendicitis",
"Acute cholecystitis",
"Acute diveiculitis",
"Acute pancreatitis"
] | Ans. is "d' ie Acute Pancreatitis The signs and symptoms exhibited by the pt. correlate with that of acute pancreatitis, most characterstic of which is ---> Radiation of pain to back and pay in previous night (ie. h/o alcohol) Other imp. diagnostic clue (not given in question) is --> Relief from pain on sitting in upright posture.* Some imp. points about Acute Pancreatitis Etiology Gall stones (50 - 70% ie MC cause)* Alcohol (25%) Grey Turner sign or Cullens sign* : Bleeding into the fascial planes in acute pancreatitis can cause bluish discolouration of ? Umbilicus" v:shapes="_x0000_s1026">flanks* in Grey Turner sign* umblicus* in Cullens sign* Plain abdominal x-ray findings - include a - sentinel loop * - a colon cut off sign* - a renal 'halo' sign* | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9113 | Eosinophilic abscess in the lymph node is characteristically seen in - | [
"Kimura's disease",
"Hodgkin's lymphoma",
"Tuberculosis",
"Sarcoidosis"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25345 | Guanethidine is used in the treatment of which of the following condition? | [
"Thyrotoxic ophthalmopathy",
"Ptosis",
"Bell's palsy",
"Horner's syndrome"
] | Guanethidine (10%) eye drops is useful in decreasing lid retraction in Thyrotoxic ophthalmopathy. It is an adrenergic neuron blocker which acts by inhibiting the release of noradrenaline in response to nerve stimulation. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9950 | A drug that binds to a receptor at a site distinct from the active site and alters the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand is a:- | [
"Competitive antagonist",
"Inverse against",
"Paial agonist",
"Allosteric modulator"
] | * Allosteric modulator that binds to a receptor at a site distinct from the active site and alters the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand. * Competitive antagonist binds to the same site as that of agonist, produces surmountable effect i.e. effect of antagonist can be overcome by increasing concentration of agonist. * Inverse agonist and paial agonist also bind to the same site as that of the agonist. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48735 | Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by an increase of - | [
"Urea",
"Glutamate",
"Ammonia",
"Fattyacid"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ammonia* Hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by altered level of consciousness, caused by liver disorder.* Liver disorder is characterized by elevation of ammonia. As liver is considered with detoxification of ammonia to form urea, in liver failure ammonia level is elevated.* Hepatic encephalopathy basically presents with manifestations of CNS depression* Pathogenesis:# Ammonia crosses Blood Brain Barrier and is taken up astrocytes. Astrocytes contribute to 30% of cells in the Central Nervous System. Within astrocytes, as pKa of ammonia is very high, it sequestrates hydrogen ions to form ammonium ions. Ammonium ions are positively charged. Additionally, ammonia reacts with glutamate to form glutamine. Glutamine is also positively charged. Both ammonium ions and glutamine, being positively charged, they attract water (Ammonium and glutamine are osmotically active). This causes astrocytes swelling. Neuronal swelling in respiratory centre causes hyperventilation and the person presents with repiratory alkalosis.# As glutamate levels are low, the neuronal activity is reduced. This explains depression, coma and EEG abnormalities (characteristic slowing of waves with high amplitude)* Hence, all features of hepatic encephalopathy are explained by hyperammonemia. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35569 | A patient who wanted to go skiing in the Rockies took a medication to combat altitude sickness. A graph of this medication's mechanism of inhibition is shown. What type of inhibitor is this medication? | [
"Competitive",
"Non-competitive",
"Irreversible",
"Allosteric"
] | In noncompetitive inhibition, the Km is not altered, whereas the Vmax is decreased. The drug used to treat altitude sickness is acetazolamide, which is a noncompetitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase. The graph is one of a pure noncompetitive inhibitor. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51019 | Ischemic necrosis' in alkali burn is - | [
"Stage I",
"Stage II",
"Stage III",
"Stage IV"
] | Clinical feature can be divided into three stages: 1. Stage of acute ischaemic necrosis. In this stage: * Conjunctiva shows marked oedema, congestion, widespread necrosis and a copious purulent discharge. * Cornea develops widespread sloughing of the epithelium, oedema and opalescence of the stroma. * Iris becomes violently inflamed and in severe cases both iris and ciliary body are replaced by granulation tissue. 2. Stage of reparation. In this stage, conjunctival and corneal epithelium regenerate, there occurs corneal vascularization and inflammation of the iris subsides. 3. Stage of complications. This is characterised by development of symblepharon, recurrent corneal ulceration and development of complicated cataract and secondary glaucoma Ref khurana 6/e p 439 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51478 | Which of the following is not true regarding herpes zoster ophthalmicus: | [
"Frontal nerve is most common nerve involved",
"Dendritic ulcers are seen",
"Punctate epithelial keratitis",
"Cranial nerves can also be involved"
] | Pseudodendritic and not dendritic ulcers are seen. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus Acute infection of Gasserian ganglion of 5th cranial nerve by VZV MC nerve involved Frontal nerve, most specific nerve involved: Nasociliary Can involve all pas of eye though they are strictly limited to one side of head Pseudodendritic ulcer: HZV & Acanthamoeba. Pseudodendrites don't have terminal bulbs as seen in dendritic ulcer and more peripheral. Ocular Features Follicular conjunctivitis & hemorrhagic conjunctivitis Punctate epithelial keratitis Nummular keratitis: Tiny granular deposits surrounded by stromal haze Disciform keratitis Dendritic ulcers are caused by Herpes Simplex Virus not HZV | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_162 | Bilateral uveitis in 10 year old child, proper investigation (s) for his work up would be – a) C.T scan b) Tuberculin testb) X–ray sacroiliac jointc) HIV testd) X–ray chest | [
"abd",
"bd",
"bcde",
"cd"
] | First see causes of uveitis in children | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14441 | A pregnant women, previous LSCS presents with hematuria. What is the likely diagnosis? | [
"Eclampsia",
"Obstructed labour",
"Ureteral injury",
"Cystitis"
] | In obstructed labour the bladder becomes an abdominal organ and due to compression of urethra between the presenting pa and symphysis pubis, the patient fails to empty the bladder. The transverse depression at the junction of the superior border of the bladder and the distended lower segment is often confused with the Bandl's ring. The bladder wall gets traumatized which may lead to blood stained urine, a common finding in obstructed labour. Ref: D.C.Dutta 6th Ed Page 405. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26058 | Which of the following is a "Fenestrated hip prosthesis"? | [
"Bipolar prosthesis",
"Austin Moore prosthesi",
"Thompson prosthesis",
"All"
] | ANSWER: (B) Austin Moore prosthesisREF: Essential Handbook of Practical Orthopedic Examination, By Dr. Kaushik Banerjee, page 146Bipolar prosthesis is used for total hip replacement (THR) while the Austin Moore and Thompson both are used for hemiarthroplasty. Bipolar prosthesis can be both fenestrated and non-fenestratedAustin Moore is always fenestratedThompson is always non fenestrated Austin mooreThompsonPartsHead, neck, collar, shoulder, stemHead, neck, collar, stem (no shoulder)FixingWithout bone cementWith bone cementExtractionEasierVery difficultStem fenestrationsTwo in numberNilCollar holePresent (to check position)AbsentSelf-lockingPresentAbsentWeightLight weightHeavierUsed whenCalcar femorale > 1.25 cmCalcar femorale <1.25 cm | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10665 | Which of the following is not included in phase I clinical trial of medicine: March 2007 | [
"Healthy volunteers",
"Patient with end stage disease",
"Epilepsy patients",
"HIV drug trial"
] | Ans. C: Epilepsy patients Clinical trials involving new drugs are commonly classified into four phases. Each phase of the drug approval process is treated as a separate clinical trial. The drug-development process will normally proceed through all four phases over many years. If the drug successfully passes through Phases I, II, and III, it will usually be approved by the national regulatory authority for use in the general population. Phase IV are 'post-approval' studies. Before pharmaceutical companies sta clinical trials on a drug, they conduct extensive pre-clinical studies. Pre-clinical studies involve in vitro (i.e., test tube or laboratory) studies and trials on animal populations (in vivo) in order to obtain preliminary efficacy, toxicity and pharmacokinetic information and to assist pharmaceutical companies in deciding whether it is wohwhile to go ahead with fuher testing. Phase 0 trials are also known as human microdosing studies. Distinctive features of Phase 0 trials include the administration of single subtherapeutic doses of the study drug to a small number of subjects (10 to 15) to gather preliminary data on the agent's pharmacokinetics (how the body processes the drug) and pharmacodynamics (how the drug works in the body). A Phase 0 study gives no data on safety or efficacy, being by definition a dose too low to cause any therapeutic effect. Phase I trials are the first stage of testing in human subjects. Normally, a small (20-80) group of healthy volunteers will be selected. This phase includes trials designed to assess the safety (pharmacovigilance), tolerability, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics of a drug. These trials are often conducted in an inpatient clinic, where the subject can be observed by full-time staff. Phase I trials also normally include dose-ranging, also called dose escalation, studies so that the appropriate dose for therapeutic use can be found. Phase I trials most often include healthy volunteers. However, there are some circumstances when real patients are used, such as patients who have end-stage disease and lack other treatment options. This exception to the rule most often occurs in oncology (cancer) and HIV drug trials. Once the initial safety of the study drug has been confirmed in Phase I trials, Phase II trials are performed on larger groups (20-300) and are designed to assess how well the drug works, as well as to continue Phase I safety assessments in a larger group of volunteers and patients. Phase IIA is specifically designed to assess dosing requirements (how much drug should be given). Phase IIB is specifically designed to study efficacy (how well the drug works at the prescribed dose(s). Phase III studies are randomized controlled multicenter trials on large patient groups (300-3,000 or more depending upon the disease/medical condition studied) and are aimed at being the definitive assessment of how effective the drug is, in comparison with current 'gold standard' treatment. Because of their size and comparatively long duration, Phase III trials are the most expensive, time-consuming and difficult trials to design and run, especially in therapies for chronic medical conditions. Phase IV trial is also known as Post Marketing Surveillance Trial. Phase IV trials involve the safety surveillance (pharmacovigilance) and ongoing technical suppo of a drug after it receives permission to be sold. Phase IV studies may be required by regulatory authorities or may be undeaken by the sponsoring company for competitive or other reasons. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3917 | In a case control study on smoking and lung cancer, out of 35 lung cancer patients, 33 are smokers. Out of 82 controls, 27 are non smokers. Find the odds ratio: | [
"0.21",
"8.1",
"4.1",
"2.1"
] | Cancer Controls without cancer Smokers 33 (a) 55 (b) Non smokers 2 (c) 27 (d) Total 35 82 Odds ratio= axd/bxc = 33x27/55x2= 8.1 REMEMBER: while constructing table keep exposure in rows (e.g.: smokers v/s non smokers here) and presence or absence of disease condition in columns (e.g.: cancer v/s no cancer) Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21stedition, page-69. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29256 | The primordia of the craniofacial complex develops from | [
"Hensen's node",
"Notochordal process",
"Cloacal membrane",
"Blastopore"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14353 | A patient with cervical cancer is missed by a screening test and later diagnosed to have advanced disease. This time interval is called: | [
"Lead time",
"Screening time",
"Serial interval",
"Generation time"
] | Ref: K. Park, Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine.22nd edition. P 127: Text book of public health and community medicine. Armed Force Medical College, Pune. First edition 2009 p 136. p224Explanation:Lead time:Lead time is defined as the interval between the point a condition is detected through screening and the time it would normally have been detected due to appearance and reporting of signs and symptoms.It is the advantage gained by screeningScreening time:The time interval between the point a condition is detected through screening and final critical diagnosis by other means before usual time of diagnosis.Serial Interval: The gap in time between the onset of the primary case and the secondary case is called the '"serial interval".Generation time:It is defined as "the interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host" | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5163 | The cell free zone in pulp lies: | [
"Above odontoblast",
"Below odontoblast",
"In radicular pulp",
"In pulp horn"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47991 | Which of the following is not a calcium channel blockers | [
"Enalapril",
"Nifedipine",
"Verapamil",
"Diltiazem"
] | Refer kDT 7/e p562 Calcium channel blockers are prescription medications that relax blood vessels and increase the supply of blood and oxygen to the hea while also reducing the hea's workload. Examples of calcium channel blockers include: Amlodipine (Norvasc) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23035 | Which of the following combination of iron can be given both IM and IV | [
"Iron dextran",
"Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution",
"ferrous Sulphate",
"ferrous Humourate"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9556 | All of the following are major criteria inthe diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever, except - | [
"Prolonged PR interval",
"Subcutaneous Nodules",
"Chorea",
"Carditis"
] | Ans-A Prolonged PR interval | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27487 | Area of mitral orifice in adults is: | [
"6-8 cm2",
"5-2 cm2",
"4-6 cm2",
"1-4 cm2"
] | Answer is C (4-6 cm2): The normal area of mitral valve is 4-6 em2. Mitral Valve & pathology Area Normal Mitral Valve 4-6 cm2Q Mild Mitral Valve < 2 cm? Severe Mitral Stenosis < 1.3 cm2Q Critical Mitral Stenosis < 1 cm2 Q Aoic Valve & pathology Area Normal Aoic Valve 2.6 - 3.5 cm2Q Mild Aoic Stenosis 1.5 - 2 cm2 Moderate Aoic Stenosis 1 - 1.5 cm2 Severe Aoic Stenosis < 0.8cm2 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46369 | The Most common hallucinations seen in psychiatric practice are | [
"Auditory",
"Olfactory",
"Tactile",
"Visual"
] | (A) Auditory | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51103 | Not true about rheumatoid arthritis | [
"Peri-articular osteopenia",
"Periosteal reaction seen",
"Narrowing of joint space",
"DIP is usually spared"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50936 | A hemodynamically stable patient with early pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 x 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 mIU /ml, with no intrauterine gestational sac. What modality of treatment is suitable for her | [
"Progesterone therapy",
"Medical management",
"Laparoscopic surgery",
"Laparotomy"
] | The history is suggestive of Ectopic pregnancy Management of Ectopic pregnancy Medical management Surgical management b-HCG levels <5000 mIU >5000 mIU Size of G-sac <4 cm >4 cm Cardiac activity -ve +ve Evidence of rupture none + Hemodynamics stable unstable Medical management of ectopic pregnancy Methotrexate: 50 mg/sq. m (IM) given as single dose, two dose or multiple dose regimens. Patient is followed up for adequate fall in beta HCG levels and for evidence of rutpure. If beta HCG levels do not fall, or there is any evidence of rupture surgical management is done Other drugs used are: Actinomycin D and KCL Conservative management may be done for patients with falling B Hcg levels. However tubal rupture can occur even with falling beta hcg levels. Patients with low initial levels of beta hcg are generally the best candidates for expectant management, and there is a repoed 88% success rate of spontaneous remission with an initial beta hcg levels of less than 200 mIU/mL. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54315 | Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with: | [
"Small celI carcinorna",
"Respiratory bronchiolitis",
"Emphysema",
"Bronchiectasis"
] | Respiratory Bronchiolitis is usually rare complication compared to the other conditions associated with smoking. All other conditions mentioned above are associated with smoking. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1495; R Alagappan, Manual of Practical Medicine, 3rd Edition, Pages 720-21. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10808 | Not compatible with soda Time – | [
"Ether",
"Halothane",
"Trilene",
"N2O"
] | Not compatible with sodalime → Trilene (produces phosgene and dichloroacetylene) and sevoflurane (produces compound A). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48095 | A 1–year–old child presented with a swelling in the left flank with episodes of flushing, diarrhea, sweating and bone pain. The diagnosis is – | [
"Neuroblastoma",
"Wilm's tumor",
"Medulloblastoma",
"Pheochromocytoma"
] | Clinical manifestations of neuroblastoma
Because neuroblastoma arises from neural crest derivatives of sympathetic nervous system, it produces catecholamines.
So, it may cause clinical feature due to : --> 1. Primary tumor 2. Metastais 3. Catecholamine secretion | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30964 | Which is NOT a micro nutrient - | [
"Iodine",
"Vitamin A",
"Iron",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'None' NUTRIENTS o Nutrients are organic and inorganic complexes contained in food. o There are two major types of nutrients ? A) Micronutrients Micronutrients are nutrients needed throughout life in small quanties. They are dietary minerals needed by the human body in very small quantities. Macrominerals which are required in larger quantities. o Micronutrients include ? 1. Vitamins Vitamin A (retinal) Vitamin B complex --> B1 (thiamin), B2(riboflavin),133(Niacin),13,(Pento thenic acid), B6 (Pyridoxin), B, (biotin), 13, (folic acid), B12 (cyanocobalamin). Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) Vitamin D 2. Vitamin E Vitamin K Z Microminerals (Trace elements)--) required intake is less than 100 mg/day Boron o Chromium o Fluoride o Iron o Molybdenum q Zinc Cobolt o Copper o Iodine o Mangnese o Selenium 3. Macrominerals required > 100 mg/day Calcium Phosphorus Sodium Magnesium Potassium B) Macninutrients (liroximateprincipals) o These are the nutrients which are consumed in large quantities. a They provide bulk energy. Macronutrients are - i) Proteins it) Fats iii) Carbohydrate | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17038 | Tracheal bifurcation on X–ray corsponds to – a) T5T6b) T4T5c) Sternal angled) Thoracic inlet | [
"a",
"bc",
"ac",
"ad"
] | Tracheal bifurcation (carina) is located at about 4th thoracic vertebral body or T4-T5 disc space posteriorly and sternal angle of louis anteriorly. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50624 | Middle piece of sperm contains - | [
"Golgi apparatus",
"Mitochondria",
"Lysosome",
"Ribosome"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Mitochondria Sperm atozoon (sperm)o Sperm has following parts :i) Headii) Middle pieceiii) Principal pieceiv) End piece (tail)----5 mm5 mm50 mm5 mm}Total length 65pm o Each sperm has a head that is made up mostly of chromosomal material.o Covering the head like a cap is the acrosome, a lysosome- like organelle rich in enzymes involved in sperm penetration of the ovum and other events involved in fertilization,o The motile tail of the sperm is wrapped in its proximal portion by a sheath holding numerous mitochondria. The membranes of late spermatids and spermatozoa contain a special small form of angiotensin-converting enzyme called germinal angiotensin-converting enzyme.Note :o Golgi apparatus forms acrosomic cap.o In the middle piece the fibrous sheath is surrounded by mitochondria. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23891 | Indicator used in autoclave is ? | [
"Clostridium tetani",
"Bacillus stereothermophilus",
"Bacillus pumilis",
"Bacillus subtilis Var Niger"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bacillus stereothermophilus Biological indicators . Biological indicators are standardised preparations of microorganisms used to assess the effectiveness of a sterilization process. . They usually consist of a population of bacterial spores placed on an ine carrier, for example a strip of filter paper, a glass slide or a plastic tube. . Most commonly, spores of Bacillus stereothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) are used. Spores of Bacillus subtilis and Bacillus pumilis are alse used. . For various methods of sterilization following biological indicators are used :- Type of Sterilization Spore used Moist heat (autoclave) Bacillus stearothermophilus Dry heat (hot air oven) Bacillius subtilis Ionizing radiation Bacillus pumilis Gas sterilization (ethylene oxide) Bacillus subtilis Plasma sterilization Bacillus stearothemophilus | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15860 | Cobblestone appearance of oral mucosa: | [
"Crohn disease.",
"Ulcerative colitis.",
"Whipple disease.",
"All of the above."
] | Crohn disease:
A type of granulomatous disease involving the intestinal mucosa
Also called regional enteritis
Characterized by granulomatous, superficial ulcerations of the intestinal tract with frequent fistulas developing onto body surfaces or viscera, or between intestinal loops. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23323 | All of the following are affected in low radial nerve palsy except | [
"Extensor carpi radialis longus",
"Extensor carpi radialis brevis",
"Finger extensors",
"Sensation on dorsum of hand"
] | A i.e. Extensor carpi radialis longus Extensor carpi radialis longus muscle is supplied by main trunk of radial nerve above the level of elbow joint; whereas extensor carpi radialis brevis, finger extensors (extensor indics, extensor digitorum, extensor digits minimi) are supplied by its posterior interosseous branch and sensation on dorsum of hand by superficial radial branch below the level of elbow joint. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6541 | Thalidomide is used in all of the following except: | [
"HIV associated peripheral neuropathy",
"HIV associated aphthous (mouth) ulcers",
"Behcet syndrome",
"Erythema nodosum leprosum"
] | Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) Initial: 100-300 mg PO qHS More severe reaction may sta at 400 mg Continue until active symptoms subsided, at least 2 weeks, THEN Titrate down by 50 mg increments q2-4Weeks Multiple Myeloma 200 mg PO qHS in 28 day cycles Take 40 mg of dexamethasone on days 1-4, 9-12, 17-20 of 28 days GVHD Indicated for prevention and treatment of graft versus host disease Mycobacterial infection Indicated for treatment of the clinical manifestations of mycobacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and non-tuberculous mycobacteria Recurrent aphthous ulcers Indicated for treatment and prevention of recurrent aphthous ulcers in severely, terminally immunocompromised patients Severe recurrent aphthous stomatitis Indicated for treatment of severe recurrent aphthous stomatitis in severely, terminally immunocompromised patients Primary brain malignancies Indicated for treatment of primary brain malignancies HIV-associated wasting syndrome Indicated for treatment of HIV-associated wasting syndrome Crohn&;s disease Indicated for treatment of Crohn&;s disease Kaposi&;s Sarcoma Indicated for treatment of Kaposi&;s Sarcoma Myelodysplastic syndrome Indicated for treatment of myelodysplastic syndrome Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation :Indicated for conditioning treatment prior to hematopoietic stem cell transplantation REFERENCE: www.medscape.com | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28131 | Kashima 's operation done for all conditions except: | [
"Vocal cord dysplasia",
"Ca larynx",
"Nasophargyneal Ca",
"Bilateral abductor palsy"
] | Kashima's operation: A transverse Endoscopic transverse chordectomy/ Posterior paial chordectomy using CO2 laser- performed for treating the respiratory difficulty caused as a result of bilateral abductor vocal fold paralysis. It is done in case of: - B/L Recurrent Laryngeal nerve palsy. - Dysplastic vocal folds - Malignancies (not a mainstay treatment for malignancies) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41697 | Surgical lobes of liver are divided on the basis of | [
"Hepatic aery",
"Hepatic vein",
"Bile ducts",
"Central veins"
] | Functional anatomy of the liver is based on couinaud's division of liver into eoght(subsequently nine) functional segments, based upon the distribution of poal venous branches and location of hepatic veins in the parenchyma Couinaud 1957 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49171 | 2ndpa of duodenum is derived from ? | [
"Foregut",
"Midgut",
"Both foregut & midgut",
"Hindgut"
] | Both foregut & midgut | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28955 | A 15-year-old boy presented in an unconscious state and on connecting the ECG electrodes, atrial fibrillation was diagnosed. The relatives told the doctor that the boy had similar episodes of syncope in the past as well. Lab studies revealed normal potassium and calcium levels, normal CK-MB levels. The patient died of cardiac arrest and could not be revived. When the previous records were checked some undue abnormality was noted in the ECGs. There was also a history of sudden cardiac death in the family. What is the most likely defect in the above patient: - | [
"SCN5A",
"KCN5A",
"CCN5A",
"PCN5A"
] | THIS IS A CLASSICAL CASE OF BRUGADA SYNDROME. Syncope and cardiac arrest are the most common clinical manifestations leading to the diagnosis of Brugada syndrome. Males are more commonly affected than females. Mutations involving cardiac sodium channels (SCN5A) are identified in ~25% of cases. Administration of the sodium channel blocking drug flecainide, ajmaline, or procainamide can augment ST elevation in affected individuals. An ICD is indicated for individuals who have had unexplained syncope or been resuscitated from cardiac arrest. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11624 | A double headed monster is known as a : | [
"Diplopagus",
"Dicephalus",
"Craniopagus",
"Heteropagus"
] | Dicephalus | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47389 | Term for relation of different pas of the fetus to one another: September 2009, March 2013 | [
"Fetal station",
"Fetal attitude",
"Fetal lie",
"Fetal presentation"
] | Ans. B: Fetal Attitude Fetal station: This is the relationship between the presenting pa of the baby- the head, shoulder, buttocks, or feet and two pas of the mother's pelvis called the ischial spines. Normally the ischial spines are the narrowest pa of the pelvis. They are a natural measuring point for the delivery progress. If the presenting pa lies above the ischial spines, the station is repoed as a negative number from -1 to -5 (each number is a centimeter). If the presenting pa lies below the ischial spines, the station is repoed as a positive number from +1 to +5. The baby is said to be "engaged" in the pelvis when it is even with the ischial spines at 0 station. Fetal lie: This is the relationship between the head to tailbone axis of the fetus and the head to tailbone axis of the mother. If the two are parallel, then the fetus is said to be in a longitudinal lie. If the two are at 90-degree angles to each other, the fetus is said to be in a transverse lie. Nearly all (99.5%) fetuses are in a longitudinal lie. Fetal attitude: The fetal attitude describes the relationship of the fetus' body pas to one another. The normal fetal attitude is commonly referred to as the fetal position. The head is tucked down to the chest, with arms and legs drawn in towards the center of the chest. Abnormal fetal attitudes may include a head that is extended back or other body pas extended or positioned behind the back. Abnormal fetal attitudes can increase the diameter of the presenting pa as it passes through the pelvis, increasing the difficulty of bih. Fetal presentation: The presenting pa is defined as the pa of the presentation which overlies the internal os. - Cephalic (head-first) presentation: - Cephalic presentation is considered normal and occurs in about 97% of deliveries. There are different types of cephalic presentation, which depend on the fetal attitude. Rarely, the fetus' head is extended back, and the chin, face, or forehead will present first depending on the degree of extension. This is a more difficult delivery, because this is not the smallest pa of the fetus' head. It may result in a need for cesarean delivery. A cesarean delivery may be recommended for any of the fetal positions other than cephalic. Breech presentation: Breech presentation is considered abnormal and occurs about 3% of the time. A complete breech presentation occurs when the buttocks present first, and both the hips and knees are flexed. A frank breech occurs when the hips are flexed so the legs are straight and completely drawn up toward the chest. Other breech positions occur when either the feet or knees come out first. Shoulder presentation: The shoulder, arm, or trunk may present first if the fetus is in a transverse lie. This type of presentation occurs less than 1% of the time. Transverse lie is more common with premature delivery or multiple pregnancies. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36839 | The following are components of Kawasald disease except - | [
"Purulent conjunctivitis",
"Pedal edema",
"Truncal rash",
"Pharyngeal congestion"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8014 | In Patey's procedure | [
"Removal of both pectoralis major & minor",
"Removal of pectoralis minor and preservation of pectoralis major",
"Pectoralis minor is divided",
"Both (Major & Minor) are preserved"
] | Patey's operation is total mastectomy with clearence of all levels of lymph nodes and removal pectoralis minor muscle.It is enblock dissection of breast and axila. Nerve to serratus anterior,nerve to lattismus dorsi,axillary vein ,cephalic vein and pectoarlis major muscles are preserved So Patey 's procedure include removal of pectoralis minor with preservation of paectoralis major muscle. SRB's Manual of Surgery.Edition -5. Pg no:547. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47832 | The right coronary aery arises from ? | [
"anterior aoic sinus",
"left posterior aoic sinus",
"right posterior aoic sinus",
"inter aoic sinus"
] | Right coronary aery is smaller than the left coronary aery. It arises from the anterior aoic sinus. Left coronary aery is larger than the right coronary aery. It arises from the left posterior aoic sinus. REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. FIG REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. ( fig 18.22a and b ). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29485 | All of the following factors stimulate angiogenesis in a fetus, except: | [
"Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)",
"Basic Fibroblast Growth Factor (bFGF)",
"Interleukin - 8 (IL8)",
"Interferon Alpha (INFa)"
] | Interferon Alpha (INFa) were the first described endogenous inhibitors of angiogenesis, they are anti angiogenic agent. It action is by down regulation of bFGF (b Fibroblast Growth Factor). Thus INFa is used in the treatment of pulmonary, brain and other hemangiomas, angioblastomas and giant cell tumours, all of which produce high levels of bFGF. Ref: Tumour Angiogenesis: Basic Mechanisms and Cancer Therapy By Dieter Marme Norbe Fusening, Page 223; Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 463 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26496 | Hutchinson's incisors are present in: | [
"Congenital syphilis",
"Tertiary syphilis",
"Secondary syphilis",
"Acquired syphilis"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21593 | who coind akathisia | [
"bleuler",
"schneider",
"erik erikson",
"haskovek"
] | Acute akathisia * It was coined by Haskovec * Subjective state of restlessness and fidgety behaviour * <72 hours of staing antipsychotics * DD=agitated depression * If this is misdiagnosed as agitation and if antipsychotic is hiked there will be worsening of symptoms Propranolol id the TOC Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 925 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37479 | Bad prognosis in AML Is indicated by | [
"Monosomy",
"Deletion of X or Y chromosome",
"T(8:21)",
"Nucleophosmin mutation"
] | Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with monosomy 7 is associated with poor disease-free survival when treated by aggressive conventional chemotherapy alone. Similarly, outcomes are poor in children with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with monosomy 7 treated by chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs or suppoive measures Myelodysplastic syndrome AML arising from a pre-existing myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or myeloproliferative disease (so-called secondary AML) has a worse prognosis, as does treatment-related AML arising after chemotherapy for another previous malignancy. Both of these entities are associated with a high rate of unorable cytogenetic abnormalities Cytogenetics The single most impoant prognostic factor in AML is cytogenetics, or the chromosomal structure of the leukemic cell. Ceain cytogenetic abnormalities are associated with very good outcomes (for example, the (15;17) translocation in acute promyelocytic leukemia). About half of people with AML have "normal" cytogenetics; they fall into an intermediate risk group. A number of other cytogenetic abnormalities are known to associate with a poor prognosis and a high risk of relapse after treatment. Genotype A large number of molecular alterations are under study for their prognostic impact in AML. However, only FLT3-ITD, NPM1, CEBPA and c-KIT are currently included in validated international risk stratification schema. These are expected to increase rapidly in the near future. FLT3 internal tandem duplications (ITDs) have been shown to confer a poorer prognosis in AML with normal cytogenetics. Several FLT3 inhibitors have undergone clinical trials, with mixed results. Two other mutations - NPM1 and biallelic CEBPA are associated with improved outcomes, especially in people with normal cytogenetics and are used in current risk stratification algorithms. Researchers are investigating the clinical significance of c-KIT mutations in AML. These are prevalent, and potentially clinically relevant because of the availability of tyrosine kinase inhibitors, such as imatinib and sunitinib that can block the activity of c-KIT pharmacologically. It is expected that additional markers (e.g., RUNX1, ASXL1, and TP53) that have consistently been associated with an inferior outcome will soon be included in these recommendations. The prognostic impoance of other mutated genes (e.g., DNMT3A, IDH1, IDH2) is less clear. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 789 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53377 | The six keys to normal occlusion were given by: | [
"Lawrence F. A.",
"Angle",
"Lischer",
"Moyer"
] | ANDREWS SIX KEYS TO NORMAL OCCLUSION
Lawrence F Andrews studied 120 casts of non-orthodontic patients with normal occlusion for four years (1960-1964). He identified 6 key characteristics.
He was of the opinion, that for normal occlusion to exist these six characteristics had to be present. According to Andrews, the 6 keys to normal occlusion contributed individually and collectively to the total scheme of occlusion and, were therefore essential for an orthodontic treatment to be considered successful.
Ref: Textbook of orthodontics Gurkeerat Singh 2nd ed page no 59 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32661 | True about cross section study- | [
"Prevalence study",
"Useful for chronic disease",
"Simple study",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Cross - sectional studieso Cross sectional study is the simplest form of an observational study.o It is also known as prevalence study.o It is based on a single examination of a cross - section of population at one point of timeo Results of this examination can be projected on the whole populationo Cross-sectional study tells about the distribution of a disease rather than its etiology.o Cross-sectional studies can be thought of as providing a snapshot of the frequency and characteristic of a disease in a population at a particular point in timeo Cross-sectional study is more useful for chronic diseaseo As population is studied at once, no follow-up is required. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6472 | ANCA positive vascuiltis is | [
"Henoch schonlein purpura",
"Behcet'S syndrome",
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"None"
] | Wegener granulomatosis is a necrotizing vasculitis characterized by a specific triad of findings: * Granulomas of the lung and/or the upper respiratory tract (ear, nose, sinuses, throat) * Vasculitis of small to medium-sized vessels (capillaries, venules, aerioles, and aeries), most prominently in the lungs and upper respiratory tract * Glomerulonephritis PR3-ANCAs are present in almost 95% of cases and probably drive the subsequent tissue injury; Robbins Basic pathology,9th edition,pg no.353 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39682 | The balance between REM and ISREM sleep is maintained by- | [
"Pitutary gland",
"Cerebellum",
"Suprachiasmatic",
"Gracile nucleus"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Suprachiasmatic nucleus o A prominent feature of the organization of the sleep and wake is their diurnal rhythim.o The amount of REM slaap reaches its maximum during the late rest phase, whereas NREM sleep peaks in the early rest phase.o This sleep - wake rhythm is a result of the interaction between circadian and homeostatic processes.o Suprachiasmatic nucleus is the centre for maintaining the circadian rhythm and is thus centre for the regulation of the sleep - wake cycle and thus REM - NREM sleep balance.o Circadian clock - suprachiasmatic nucleus promotes REM sleep. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51808 | Catgut suture is derived from which pa of the sheep | [
"Stomach",
"Intestine",
"Muscle",
"Ligaments"
] | Answer- C. MuscleCatgut suture is prepared from the submucosa of the first one-third of the small intestine of sheep or cow.Chromic catgut is made by treating catgut with cbromic acid salt. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9536 | Which is not a true rib: | [
"5th",
"6th",
"7th",
"8th"
] | Ans. D 8thRef: BDC, 6th ed. Vol 1 pg. 196-97* True ribs: Ribs directly articulating with sternum through costal cartilage. They are ribs 1 to 7* False ribs: Ribs that do NOT articulate directly with sternum. Ribs 8 to 12th. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40003 | Anagen phase of the hair indicates- | [
"The phase of activity and growth",
"The phase of transition",
"The phase of resting",
"The phase of degeneration"
] | Anagen phase- active growth phase-70-80% of hairs will be in anagen phase.last for 2-10years Catagen phase- regression phase- lasts for 1-3 weeks Telogen phase- resting phase- lasts for 3months Reference Harrison20th edition pg 1230 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_124 | Characteristics of glycoprotein: | [
"Protein linked with glycosidic bond",
"Core protein",
"Sugar residues are long in carbohydrate poion of glycoprotein",
"None"
] | A i.e. Protein linked with glycosidic bond | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28867 | LMN type Facial palsies -a) Bell's palsy most commonb) Cornea should be protectedc) Unilateral paralysis is seen in Mobius syndromed) Prognosis affected before repeated electric stimulation | [
"ab",
"a",
"ad",
"bc"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3291 | Undersurface of pontic should be | [
"Concave mesio distally and convex buccolingually",
"Convex mesio distally and concave buccolingually",
"Convex in all directions",
"Concave in all directions"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49224 | Cyst and trophozite in stool | [
"Mycoplasma",
"Toxoplasma",
"Leptospira",
"Treponema"
] | Toxoplasma | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10692 | Most impoant feature to diagnose severe pneumonia? | [
"Cyanosis",
"Chest indrawing",
"Nasal flaring",
"Fast breathing"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chest indrawing The only sign for severe pneumonia is chest indrawing | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23166 | During fixation of Bennett's fracture, which muscle hinders it? | [
"Extensor pollicis brevis",
"Flexor pollicis brevis",
"Flexor pollicis longus",
"Abductor pollicis longus"
] | Bennett's fracture is difficult to maintain in a reduced position due to the pull of the Abductor pollicis longus. Bennett Fracture * Treatment Non-operative closed reduction & cast immobilization * Indications : non-displaced fractures technique * reduction maneuver with traction, extension, proration. and abduction Ref : Maheshwari and Mhaskar 9th ed pg 122 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37931 | All help in assessing obesity except | [
"Quetelet's Index",
"Ponderal Index",
"Corpulence Index",
"Sullivan Index"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38757 | In myocardial infarction, early light microscopic change is - | [
"Waviness of fibres",
"Necrosis of fibres",
"Round cell infiltration",
"None"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24759 | Drug that does not prevent preterm labor is: | [
"Ritodrine",
"Atosiban",
"Dexamethasone",
"Nitroglycerine patch"
] | Dexamethasone REF: See APPENDIX-64 for list of "Tocolytic agents" "Steroids are given in preterm labor for fetal lung maturity and not as tocolytic agent" Nitroglycerine is also a tocolytic agent not listed in the APPENDIX-64 as it is not used routinely (not recommended) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8560 | Roopmati, A 56–year–old female with lymph-node-positive breast cancer was treated with systemic chemotherapy. Four weeks later, she developed frequent urination, suprapubic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. Which of the following could have prevented this patient's condition? | [
"Folinic acid",
"Mesna",
"Dexrazoxane",
"Amifostine"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12890 | Vitamin E toxicity is associated with | [
"Peripheral neuritis",
"Ataxia",
"Loss of vibration sense",
"Exfoliative dermatitis"
] | Severe deficiency, as may occur in persons with abetalipoproteinemia or fat malabsorption, profoundly affects the central nervous system and can cause ataxia and a peripheral neuropathy resembling Friedreich ataxia. Patients receiving large doses of vitamin E may experience a halt in the progression of the disease <img src=" /> Reference Harrison20th edition pg 56 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13806 | Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus - | [
"Vasopressin",
"Desmopressin",
"Lypressin",
"Presselin"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Desmopressin o Desmopressin (intranasal) is the DOC for central DI.Uses of vasopressine analogue|||Based on V2 action (Desmopressin is the DOC)Based on V1 actiono Central (neurogenic) diabetes insipiduso Nocturnal enuresiso Renal concentration testo Haemophilia, von willebrand's diseaseo Bleeding esophageas variceso Before abdominal radiography | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1052 | Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure? | [
"Rapacurium",
"Pancuronium",
"Atracurium",
"Rocuronium"
] | Muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure is atracurium, since it is not eliminated through the kidney. It is inactivated in the plasma by spontaneous non enzymatic degradation (Hofmann elimination) in addition to that by cholinesterase. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 314. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17646 | Triangular relation of elbow is maintained in: | [
"Fracture ulna",
"Anterior dislocation of elbow",
"Posterior dislocation of elbow",
"Supracondylar fracture of humerus"
] | Triangular relation of elbow includes medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle and tip of olecranon. The relationship is destroyed by dislocations of elbow. It is maintained in supracondylar fracture of Humerus (occurs above elbow joint) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43935 | Prolonged parasitism in malaria is due to ? | [
"Antigenic variation",
"Intracellularity of parasite",
"Immunosuppression",
"Sequestration"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Intracellularity of parasite | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30689 | Treatment of primary piles is -a) Surgeryb) Sclerotherapyc) No treatmentd) Analgesics | [
"ac",
"ab",
"ad",
"bc"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41824 | Eichosapentaenoic acid is present in- | [
"Soyabean oil",
"Corn oil",
"Safflower oil",
"Fish oil"
] | Ans. is `d' i.e., Fish oil | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38377 | Omalizumab True statement is? | [
"Anti-IgE",
"Used as add on therapy in moderate to severe asthma prophylaxis",
"Givn subcutaneously",
"All o above"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Anti-IgE (Omalizumab). Omalizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds IgE, thereby preventing its binding to the high-affinity IgE receptor and blocking IgE-mediated allergic responses and inflammation. approved for patients >12 yr old with moderate to severe asthma, It is given every 2-4 wk subcutaneously based on body weight and serum IgE levels. Its clinical efficacy as an "add-on" therapy for patients with moderate to severe allergic asthma It is generally well tolerated, although local injection site reactions can occur | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4786 | Anopheles species for the transmission of malaria in urban areas is | [
"Anopheles culicifacies",
"Anopheles fluviatilis",
"Anopheles sundaicus",
"Anopheles stephensi"
] | Vector of rural malaria is Anopheles culicifacies.
Vector of urban malaria is Anopheles stephensi. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3518 | Soap-bubble appearance on X-ray is characteristic of | [
"Osteoclastoma",
"Osteoblastoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Osteoma"
] | OSTEOCLASTOMA (GIANT CELL TUMOUR) Giant cell tumour (GCT) is a common bone tumour with variable growth potential. Characteristic radiological features of this tumour: A solitary may be loculated, lytic lesion. Eccentric location, often subchondral Expansion of the overlying coex (expansile lesion). 'Soap-bubble' appearance - the tumour is homogeneously lytic with trabeculae of the remnants of bone traversing it, giving rise to a loculated appearance. No calcification within the tumour. None or minimal reactive sclerosis around the tumour. Coex may be thinned out, or perforated at places. Tumour usually does not enter the adjacent joint. Reference: Maheshwari; Essential Ohopaedics; Page no: 238 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39315 | At the time of autopsy of a 39-yrs-old woman who died of complications of SLE, several medium-sized vegetations are found on both sides of the mitral valve and tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the basic abnormality that produced these cardiac vegetations? | [
"Turbulent blood flow through' an incompetent mitral valve",
"Excess secretion of a vasoactive amine",
"Presence of an anticardiolipin antibody",
"Cachexia produced by a hypercoagulable state"
] | * Plaques or vegetations are found in characteristic locations within the hea in several different disorders. * Vegetations can occur in acute rheumatic fever as small masses found in a row along the lines of closure of the valves. * In contrast, the vegetations of infective endocarditis arc large, irregular masses that extend beyond the valves onto the chordae. Nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis, which is associated with prolonged debilitating diseases and cachexia, may produce one or two small, sterile vegetations at the line of valve closure. In patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, medium-sized vegetations (libman-Sacks endocarditis) may occur on either or both sides of the valve leaflets, typically on the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve. * The development of Libman-Sacks endocarditis is associated with the presence of the lupus anticoagulant (antiphospholipid syndrome), an antibody that makes platelets 'sticky' and increases the chance of thrombosis. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47329 | Most common cause of ptosis | [
"Myasthenia gravis",
"Paralysis of 3rd nerve",
"Idiopathic",
"Congenital"
] | *Congenital myogenic ptosis is the most common type of ptosis and is often bilateral. Ref: Clinical ophthalmology p.786 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42052 | Cytogenetics for synovial cell sarcoma | [
"t (9,22)",
"t (11,14)",
"t (8,14)",
"t (x,18)"
] | t (x,18) is seen in synovial cell sarcoma and it produces fusion genes like SS18-SSXl-SSX2-SSX4 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37216 | Anesthetic testing is most effective in localizing pain | [
"to a specific tooth.",
"to the mandible or maxilla.",
"across the midline of the face.",
"to a posterior tooth."
] | Selective Anesthesia
When symptoms are not localized or referred, the diagnosis may be challenging. Sometimes the patient may not even be able to specify whether the symptoms are emanating from the maxillary or mandibular arch. In these instances, when pulp testing is inconclusive, selective anesthesia may be helpful.If the patient cannot determine which arch the pain is coming from, then the clinician should first selectively anesthetize the maxillary arch. This should be accomplished by using a periodontal ligament (intraligamentary) injection. The injection is administered to the most posterior tooth in the quadrant of the arch that may be suspected, starting from the distal sulcus. The anesthesia is subsequently administered in an anterior direction, one tooth at a time, until the pain is eliminated. If the pain is not eliminated after an appropriate period of time, then the clinician should similarly repeat this technique on the mandibular teeth below. It should be under-stood that periodontal ligament injections may anesthetize an adjacent tooth and thus are more useful for identifying the arch rather than the specific tooth.
Cohen's Pathway of the Pulp ed:11th Pg20 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26044 | All of the following are causes of night blindness EXCEPT: | [
"Oguchi's disease",
"Vitamin A deficiency",
"High myopia",
"Devics disease"
] | Causes of night blindness or nyctalopia: Vitamin A deficiency Tapetoretinal degenerations like retinitis pigmentosa Congenital high myopia Familial congenital night blindness Oguchi's disease Lenticular or corneal opacities Advanced primary open angle glaucoma | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16113 | A funguicidal drug that can be used orally for the treatment of onychomycosis is | [
"Griseofulvin",
"Amphotericin B",
"Clotrimazole",
"Terbinafine"
] | Ref-KDT 6/e 765 Fungicidal drugs are amphotericin B and terbinafine.out of these, amphotericin B cannot be given orally.thus,the and is terbinafine. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31600 | 62 Year old male presented to OP with the following condition. Which drug is used to treat him permanently? | [
"Colchicine",
"Febuxostat",
"Allopurinol",
"Dexamethasone"
] | The given condition is GOUTHere the question is permanent treatment, not just acute or symptomatic treatment. So we can eliminate coicosteroids and ColchicineBoth allopurinol and febuxostat decrease uric acid production.But febuxostat being a non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor with very less adverse effects more potent and more selective than allopurinol is preferable.Ref: HL.Sharma 3rd ed.Pg 383 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13177 | Serum calcitonin may be elevated in | [
"Islet cell tumour of pancreas",
"Choriocarcinoma of ovary",
"Carcinoid tumour of appendix",
"Medullary carcinoma of thyroid"
] | Calcitonin is a polypeptide of 32 amino acids derived from ultimobranchial body. It is secreted from C cells of thyroid (parafollicular cells). It lowers the plasma calcium and phosphorus levels. It blocks the PTH induced bone resorption. Calcium from the circulation is shunted into the bone. It increases the excretion of calcium, phosphorus, sodium and potassium. Normally it is less than 0.08 ng/L (undetectable). It is increased in medullary carcinoma of thyroid. It is very good tumour marker for MCT. It confirms the relapse/ metastases/residual disease. Increased levels in family members confirm the genetic relation and such relatives should undergo prophylactic total thyroidectomy. Reference : page 488 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30196 | Chloroquine cause exacerbation of : | [
"Malaria",
"Psorisasis",
"DLE",
"Photosensitivity"
] | B i.e. Psoriasis | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23327 | On electron microscopy amyloid characteristically exhibits: | [
"B-plated sheets",
"Hyaline globules",
"7.5-10 nm fibrils",
"20-25 nm fibrils"
] | Propeies of Amyloid Proteins: -Physical Nature of Amyloid: Electron microscopy-- Continuous, non-branching fibrils with a diameter of approximately 7.5 to 10 nm. X-ray crystallography and infrared spectroscopy-- Cross-b-pleated sheet conformation. This conformation is responsible for the distinctive Congo red staining and birefringence of amyloid. -Chemical Nature of Amyloid The AL (amyloid light chain)-excess of the light chains will deposit outside the cell in the form of Amyloid protein.It is seen in Multiple Myeloma patients. The AA (amyloid-associated) type of amyloid fibril protein is derived from unique non-Ig protein made by the liver. b-amyloid protein (Ab)-Seen in Alzheimer disease.(deposition of Ab plaque in the brain,causing damage to the coical neurons lowering the acetylcholine levels ,leading to |Memory. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10657 | True about Epigastric Hernia is | [
"Located below the umbilicus and always in the midline",
"Located above the umbilicus and always in the midline",
"Located above the umbilicus and on either side",
"Can be seen anywhere on abdomen"
] | Ans is 'b' i.e. Located above the umbilicus and always in the midline Ref: Schwartz 9/e pi273; Maingot's Abdominal operations Chapter 5 "Epigastric hernias are located in the midline between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. Schwartz "An epigastric hernia is a defect in the abdominal wall in the midline junction of the aponeuroses of the abdominal wall musculature from the xiphoid process superiorly to the umbilicus inferiorly." MaingotEpigastric herniaAn epigastric hernia occurs through the linea Alba anywhere between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus.The mouth of the hernia is too small; consequently, in most cases contain only preperitoneal fat, or rarely may contain only a small portion of greater omentum.These may be congenital and due to defective midline fusion of developing lateral abdominal wall elements.It is most commonly diagnosed in middle age.Epigastric hernias are two to three times more common in men. The defects are small and often produce pain out of proportion to their size owing to incarceration of preperitoneal fat.They are multiple in up to 20% of patients although most are associated with one dominant defect. Repair usually consists of excision of the incarcerated preperitoneal tissue and simple closure of the fascial defect similar to umbilical hernias.Umbilical herniasUmbilical hernias occur at the umbilical ring and may either be present at birth or develop gradually during the life of the individual.Umbilical hernias are present in approximately 10 percent of all newborns and are more common in premature infants.Most congenital umbilical hernias close spontaneously by age 5 years. If closure does not occur by this time, elective surgical repair usually is advised.Adults with small, asymptomatic umbilical hernias may be followed clinically. Surgical treatment is offered if a hernia is observed to enlarge, if it is associated with symptoms, or if incarceration occurs.Spigelian herniaA spigelian hernia occurs through the spigelian fascia, which is composed of the aponeurotic layer between the rectus muscle medially and the semilunar line laterally.Nearly all spigelian hernia occur at or below the arcuate line (Arcuate line lies midway b/w the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis) Spigelian hernias are variety of intraparietal hernia with the hernial sac dissecting beneath the internal oblique muscles. More often, it advances through the muscle and spreads out like a mushroom between the internal and external oblique aponeurosis.It is seen in older age group (>50 yrs of age)Most spigelian hernias are small and present with localized pain in the area without a bulge because the hernia lies beneath the intact external oblique aponeurosis - Ref. SabistonSpigelian hernias have a high incidence of strangulation (because of the narrow & rigid neck) and should be repaired. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2460 | If head of the radius is removed, it will result in | [
"Lengthening of limb",
"Valgus deformity",
"Varus deformity",
"No deformity"
] | B i.e. Valgus deformity Classically the head of radius should not be excised in children because ? - It will interfere with the synchronous growth of radius and ulnar producing wrist & elbow deformity. - It leads to proximal radial migration & subluxation of inferior radio ulnar joINTEGER(2. - It causes weakness of extremity & discomfo in distal radio - ulnar joint with heavy activities - May produce cubitus valgus deformityQ and instability. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25661 | The concentration of NaF in a daily mouth rinse is: | [
"0.20%",
"0.05%",
"0.03%",
"0.01%"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33417 | Triple assessment for cancer of breast includes which of the following? | [
"History, Clinical examination and mammogram",
"History, Clinical examination and FNAC",
"USG, Mammogram and FNAC",
"Clinical Examination, Mammogram and FNAC"
] | Patients with suspected breast cancer should undergo triple assessment, which includes a combination of clinical examination, breast imaging (mammography and or ultrasound) and pathologic evaluation. With triple assessment definitive diagnosis of breast cancer can be made in 99% cases. Ref: Oxford Desk Reference Oncology By Thankamma V. Ajithkumar, Page 152 | D | null |
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