dataset
string
id
string
question
string
choices
list
rationale
string
answer
string
subject
string
medmcqa
medmcqa_3523
Incompatible blood transfusion leads to all except
[ "Increased plasma bilirubin", "Increased plasma prothrombin", "Jaundice", "Renal failure" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45906
Periphery and posterior of retina is best visualized with:
[ "Direct ophthalmoscopy", "Indirect ophthalmoscopy", "Retinoscopy", "USG" ]
Indirect ophthalmoscopy
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23070
Cock up splint is used for
[ "Median nerve palsy", "Radial nerve palsy", "Ulnar nerve palsy", "Femoral nerve palsy" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e. radial nerve palsy Other important splints used:* Knuckle bender splint*-Ulnar nerve palsy* Foot drop splint*-Sciatic nerve palsy or common peroneal nerve palsy* Shoulder abduction splint-Axillary nerve palsy* Aero plane splint*-Brachial plexus injury* Bohler Braun splint*- femur* Turn buckle splint*-V...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47363
This is known as ?
[ "Falanga", "Bansdola", "Telefono", "Jack knife Toure" ]
FALANGA/ BASTINADO It is a type of toure method in which the soles of the feet of the victim are beaten by stick or blunt object Findings : Hematoma on the sole of the feet TELEFONO :Repeated slapping on the ears DRY SUBMARINE :Plastic bag asphyxiation WET SUBMARINE : Forced immersion of head under water. PICANA :Elect...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31500
Great auricular nerve originates from:
[ "C2,C3", "C3,C4", "C4,C5", "C5,C6" ]
The great auricular nerve is a superficial branch of the cervical plexus composed of branches of spinal C2 and C3. It provides sensory innervation to the skin overlying the parotid gland, angle of mandible, external ear and posterior auricular region. The skin of the face is supplied three divisions of the trigeminal n...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_39064
Hypersegmented neu trop h ills are seen in?
[ "Microcytic hypochronic anemia", "Sideroblastic anemia", "Megaloblastic anemia", "Hemolytic anemia" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Megaloblastic anemia o Earliest and characteristic finding of megaloblastic anemia is hypersegmented neutrophills (neutrophils with > 5 lobes). Diagnosis is made even if a single neutrophil with > 6 lobes is seen or >5% neutrophils with 5 lobes are seen.Other Features of megaloblastic anemia Periphera...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_27996
Features of fracture neck of femur includes
[ "Flexion at hip and lateral rotation", "Flexion at hip abduction", "Shoening and lateral rotation", "Shoening and flexion" ]
C i.e. Shoening & Lateral rotation Fracture neck femur and inter trochanteric femur present with - lateral rotation and shoingQ. The only difference is in the amount i.e. * Less lateral rotation deformity in fracture neck femur is due to attachment of capsule to the distal fracture fragment which prevents excessive rot...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_2082
Which of the following patient characteristics is a possible reason for the use of celecoxib in the treatment of ahritis?
[ "History of severe rash after treatment with a sulfonamide antibiotic", "History of gout", "History of peptic ulcer disease", "History of type 2 DM" ]
Therefore history of peptic ulcer is a possible reason for use of celecoxib.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10059
A Bone marrow transplant recipient patientdeveloped chest infection. On HRCT 'Tree in bud appearance' is seen. Most likely causative agent is:
[ "Klebsiella", "Pneumocystis", "TB", "RSV" ]
Pneumocystis [Ref: Harrison I7/e p843; Aicle 'Tree in bud sign' in Journal 'Radiology' and 'Radiographics7 Tree-in-bud is a sign seen in HRCT, most commonly seen with endobronchial spread of Tuberculosis, but can be seen with a wide variety of conditions, most commonly infections. (Described ahead in detail). Theoretic...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_27075
In testicular feminisation syndrome,false statement is :
[ "Buccal smear is chromatin positive", "Normal breast size", "amenorrhea", "Familial incidence is recognised" ]
Testicular feminising syndrome karyotype is 46 XY normal breast development primary amenorrhea inherited as autosomal dominant/X linked recessive gene sex chromatin is negative D.C.DUTTA'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:443,6th edition
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_22333
Rural health scheme introduced by
[ "Bhore committee", "Mukherjee committee", "Srivastava committee", "Mudaliar committee" ]
Rural health scheme 1977The most impoant recommendation of the shrivastav committee was that primary health care should be provided within the community itself through specially trained workers so that the health of the people is placed in the hands of the people themselves. Ref: Park; 23rd ed; Pg 875
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1171
Least common type of pelvis is :
[ "Gynaecoid", "Android", "Mixed", "Platypelloid" ]
Platypelloid
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31431
Most common bacterial cause of Rhinitis is
[ "Haemophilus influenza", "E.coli", "Pasturella multocida", "Cornybacterium diphtheria" ]
Secondary Invaders Streptococcus haemolyticus Pneumococcus Staphylococcus Haemophilus influenza Klebsiella Ref : Dhingra 7e pg 171.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10422
A 21yrs. old pt. attended a pay the previous night and gives the following symptoms - pain in abdomen radiating to back, pulse 100/min, BP 100/76 temp 39degC and vomiting before coming Most probable dx is :
[ "Acute appendicitis", "Acute cholecystitis", "Acute diveiculitis", "Acute pancreatitis" ]
Ans. is "d' ie Acute Pancreatitis The signs and symptoms exhibited by the pt. correlate with that of acute pancreatitis, most characterstic of which is ---> Radiation of pain to back and pay in previous night (ie. h/o alcohol) Other imp. diagnostic clue (not given in question) is --> Relief from pain on sitting in upri...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9113
Eosinophilic abscess in the lymph node is characteristically seen in -
[ "Kimura's disease", "Hodgkin's lymphoma", "Tuberculosis", "Sarcoidosis" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25345
Guanethidine is used in the treatment of which of the following condition?
[ "Thyrotoxic ophthalmopathy", "Ptosis", "Bell's palsy", "Horner's syndrome" ]
Guanethidine (10%) eye drops is useful in decreasing lid retraction in Thyrotoxic ophthalmopathy. It is an adrenergic neuron blocker which acts by inhibiting the release of noradrenaline in response to nerve stimulation.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9950
A drug that binds to a receptor at a site distinct from the active site and alters the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand is a:-
[ "Competitive antagonist", "Inverse against", "Paial agonist", "Allosteric modulator" ]
* Allosteric modulator that binds to a receptor at a site distinct from the active site and alters the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand. * Competitive antagonist binds to the same site as that of agonist, produces surmountable effect i.e. effect of antagonist can be overcome by increasing concentratio...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_48735
Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by an increase of -
[ "Urea", "Glutamate", "Ammonia", "Fattyacid" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ammonia* Hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by altered level of consciousness, caused by liver disorder.* Liver disorder is characterized by elevation of ammonia. As liver is considered with detoxification of ammonia to form urea, in liver failure ammonia level is elevated.* Hepatic encephalopath...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_35569
A patient who wanted to go skiing in the Rockies took a medication to combat altitude sickness. A graph of this medication's mechanism of inhibition is shown. What type of inhibitor is this medication?
[ "Competitive", "Non-competitive", "Irreversible", "Allosteric" ]
In noncompetitive inhibition, the Km is not altered, whereas the Vmax is decreased. The drug used to treat altitude sickness is acetazolamide, which is a noncompetitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase. The graph is one of a pure noncompetitive inhibitor.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51019
Ischemic necrosis' in alkali burn is -
[ "Stage I", "Stage II", "Stage III", "Stage IV" ]
Clinical feature can be divided into three stages: 1. Stage of acute ischaemic necrosis. In this stage: * Conjunctiva shows marked oedema, congestion, widespread necrosis and a copious purulent discharge. * Cornea develops widespread sloughing of the epithelium, oedema and opalescence of the stroma. * Iris becomes viol...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51478
Which of the following is not true regarding herpes zoster ophthalmicus:
[ "Frontal nerve is most common nerve involved", "Dendritic ulcers are seen", "Punctate epithelial keratitis", "Cranial nerves can also be involved" ]
Pseudodendritic and not dendritic ulcers are seen. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus Acute infection of Gasserian ganglion of 5th cranial nerve by VZV MC nerve involved Frontal nerve, most specific nerve involved: Nasociliary Can involve all pas of eye though they are strictly limited to one side of head Pseudodendritic ulcer...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_162
Bilateral uveitis in 10 year old child, proper investigation (s) for his work up would be – a) C.T scan b) Tuberculin testb) X–ray sacroiliac jointc) HIV testd) X–ray chest
[ "abd", "bd", "bcde", "cd" ]
First see causes of uveitis in children
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14441
A pregnant women, previous LSCS presents with hematuria. What is the likely diagnosis?
[ "Eclampsia", "Obstructed labour", "Ureteral injury", "Cystitis" ]
In obstructed labour the bladder becomes an abdominal organ and due to compression of urethra between the presenting pa and symphysis pubis, the patient fails to empty the bladder. The transverse depression at the junction of the superior border of the bladder and the distended lower segment is often confused with the ...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26058
Which of the following is a "Fenestrated hip prosthesis"?
[ "Bipolar prosthesis", "Austin Moore prosthesi", "Thompson prosthesis", "All" ]
ANSWER: (B) Austin Moore prosthesisREF: Essential Handbook of Practical Orthopedic Examination, By Dr. Kaushik Banerjee, page 146Bipolar prosthesis is used for total hip replacement (THR) while the Austin Moore and Thompson both are used for hemiarthroplasty. Bipolar prosthesis can be both fenestrated and non-fenestrat...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10665
Which of the following is not included in phase I clinical trial of medicine: March 2007
[ "Healthy volunteers", "Patient with end stage disease", "Epilepsy patients", "HIV drug trial" ]
Ans. C: Epilepsy patients Clinical trials involving new drugs are commonly classified into four phases. Each phase of the drug approval process is treated as a separate clinical trial. The drug-development process will normally proceed through all four phases over many years. If the drug successfully passes through Pha...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3917
In a case control study on smoking and lung cancer, out of 35 lung cancer patients, 33 are smokers. Out of 82 controls, 27 are non smokers. Find the odds ratio:
[ "0.21", "8.1", "4.1", "2.1" ]
Cancer Controls without cancer Smokers 33 (a) 55 (b) Non smokers 2 (c) 27 (d) Total 35 82 Odds ratio= axd/bxc = 33x27/55x2= 8.1 REMEMBER: while constructing table keep exposure in rows (e.g.: smokers v/s non smokers here) and presence or absence of disease condition in columns (e.g.: cancer v/s no cancer) Ref: Park's t...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29256
The primordia of the craniofacial complex develops from
[ "Hensen's node", "Notochordal process", "Cloacal membrane", "Blastopore" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14353
A patient with cervical cancer is missed by a screening test and later diagnosed to have advanced disease. This time interval is called:
[ "Lead time", "Screening time", "Serial interval", "Generation time" ]
Ref: K. Park, Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine.22nd edition. P 127: Text book of public health and community medicine. Armed Force Medical College, Pune. First edition 2009 p 136. p224Explanation:Lead time:Lead time is defined as the interval between the point a condition is detected through screening and the...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5163
The cell free zone in pulp lies:
[ "Above odontoblast", "Below odontoblast", "In radicular pulp", "In pulp horn" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47991
Which of the following is not a calcium channel blockers
[ "Enalapril", "Nifedipine", "Verapamil", "Diltiazem" ]
Refer kDT 7/e p562 Calcium channel blockers are prescription medications that relax blood vessels and increase the supply of blood and oxygen to the hea while also reducing the hea's workload. Examples of calcium channel blockers include: Amlodipine (Norvasc)
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23035
Which of the following combination of iron can be given both IM and IV
[ "Iron dextran", "Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution", "ferrous Sulphate", "ferrous Humourate" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9556
All of the following are major criteria inthe diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever, except -
[ "Prolonged PR interval", "Subcutaneous Nodules", "Chorea", "Carditis" ]
Ans-A Prolonged PR interval
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_27487
Area of mitral orifice in adults is:
[ "6-8 cm2", "5-2 cm2", "4-6 cm2", "1-4 cm2" ]
Answer is C (4-6 cm2): The normal area of mitral valve is 4-6 em2. Mitral Valve & pathology Area Normal Mitral Valve 4-6 cm2Q Mild Mitral Valve < 2 cm? Severe Mitral Stenosis < 1.3 cm2Q Critical Mitral Stenosis < 1 cm2 Q Aoic Valve & pathology Area Normal Aoic Valve 2.6 - 3.5 cm2Q Mild Aoic Stenosis 1.5 - 2 cm2 Moderat...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46369
The Most common hallucinations seen in psychiatric practice are
[ "Auditory", "Olfactory", "Tactile", "Visual" ]
(A) Auditory
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51103
Not true about rheumatoid arthritis
[ "Peri-articular osteopenia", "Periosteal reaction seen", "Narrowing of joint space", "DIP is usually spared" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_50936
A hemodynamically stable patient with early pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 x 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 mIU /ml, with no intrauterine gestational sac. What modality of treatment is suitable for her
[ "Progesterone therapy", "Medical management", "Laparoscopic surgery", "Laparotomy" ]
The history is suggestive of Ectopic pregnancy Management of Ectopic pregnancy Medical management Surgical management b-HCG levels <5000 mIU >5000 mIU Size of G-sac <4 cm >4 cm Cardiac activity -ve +ve Evidence of rupture none + Hemodynamics stable unstable Medical management of ectopic pregnancy Methotrexate: 50 mg/sq...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54315
Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with:
[ "Small celI carcinorna", "Respiratory bronchiolitis", "Emphysema", "Bronchiectasis" ]
Respiratory Bronchiolitis is usually rare complication compared to the other conditions associated with smoking. All other conditions mentioned above are associated with smoking. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1495; R Alagappan, Manual of Practical Medicine, 3rd Edition, Pages 720-2...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10808
Not compatible with soda Time –
[ "Ether", "Halothane", "Trilene", "N2O" ]
Not compatible with sodalime → Trilene (produces phosgene and dichloroacetylene) and sevoflurane (produces compound A).
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_48095
A 1–year–old child presented with a swelling in the left flank with episodes of flushing, diarrhea, sweating and bone pain. The diagnosis is –
[ "Neuroblastoma", "Wilm's tumor", "Medulloblastoma", "Pheochromocytoma" ]
Clinical manifestations of neuroblastoma Because neuroblastoma arises from neural crest derivatives of sympathetic nervous system, it produces catecholamines. So, it may cause clinical feature due to : --> 1. Primary tumor          2. Metastais          3. Catecholamine secretion
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_30964
Which is NOT a micro nutrient -
[ "Iodine", "Vitamin A", "Iron", "None" ]
Ans. is 'None' NUTRIENTS o Nutrients are organic and inorganic complexes contained in food. o There are two major types of nutrients ? A) Micronutrients Micronutrients are nutrients needed throughout life in small quanties. They are dietary minerals needed by the human body in very small quantities. Macrominerals which...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_17038
Tracheal bifurcation on X–ray corsponds to – a) T5T6b) T4T5c) Sternal angled) Thoracic inlet
[ "a", "bc", "ac", "ad" ]
Tracheal bifurcation (carina) is located at about 4th thoracic vertebral body or T4-T5 disc space posteriorly and sternal angle of louis anteriorly.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_50624
Middle piece of sperm contains -
[ "Golgi apparatus", "Mitochondria", "Lysosome", "Ribosome" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Mitochondria Sperm atozoon (sperm)o Sperm has following parts :i) Headii) Middle pieceiii) Principal pieceiv) End piece (tail)----5 mm5 mm50 mm5 mm}Total length 65pm o Each sperm has a head that is made up mostly of chromosomal material.o Covering the head like a cap is the acrosome, a lysosome- like ...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23891
Indicator used in autoclave is ?
[ "Clostridium tetani", "Bacillus stereothermophilus", "Bacillus pumilis", "Bacillus subtilis Var Niger" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bacillus stereothermophilus Biological indicators . Biological indicators are standardised preparations of microorganisms used to assess the effectiveness of a sterilization process. . They usually consist of a population of bacterial spores placed on an ine carrier, for example a strip of filter pape...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15860
Cobblestone appearance of oral mucosa:
[ "Crohn disease.", "Ulcerative colitis.", "Whipple disease.", "All of the above." ]
Crohn disease: A type of granulomatous disease involving the intestinal mucosa Also called regional enteritis Characterized by granulomatous, superficial ulcerations of the intestinal tract with frequent fistulas developing onto body surfaces or viscera, or between intestinal loops.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23323
All of the following are affected in low radial nerve palsy except
[ "Extensor carpi radialis longus", "Extensor carpi radialis brevis", "Finger extensors", "Sensation on dorsum of hand" ]
A i.e. Extensor carpi radialis longus Extensor carpi radialis longus muscle is supplied by main trunk of radial nerve above the level of elbow joint; whereas extensor carpi radialis brevis, finger extensors (extensor indics, extensor digitorum, extensor digits minimi) are supplied by its posterior interosseous branch a...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_6541
Thalidomide is used in all of the following except:
[ "HIV associated peripheral neuropathy", "HIV associated aphthous (mouth) ulcers", "Behcet syndrome", "Erythema nodosum leprosum" ]
Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) Initial: 100-300 mg PO qHS More severe reaction may sta at 400 mg Continue until active symptoms subsided, at least 2 weeks, THEN Titrate down by 50 mg increments q2-4Weeks Multiple Myeloma 200 mg PO qHS in 28 day cycles Take 40 mg of dexamethasone on days 1-4, 9-12, 17-20 of 28 days GVH...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28131
Kashima 's operation done for all conditions except:
[ "Vocal cord dysplasia", "Ca larynx", "Nasophargyneal Ca", "Bilateral abductor palsy" ]
Kashima's operation: A transverse Endoscopic transverse chordectomy/ Posterior paial chordectomy using CO2 laser- performed for treating the respiratory difficulty caused as a result of bilateral abductor vocal fold paralysis. It is done in case of: - B/L Recurrent Laryngeal nerve palsy. - Dysplastic vocal folds - Mali...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41697
Surgical lobes of liver are divided on the basis of
[ "Hepatic aery", "Hepatic vein", "Bile ducts", "Central veins" ]
Functional anatomy of the liver is based on couinaud's division of liver into eoght(subsequently nine) functional segments, based upon the distribution of poal venous branches and location of hepatic veins in the parenchyma Couinaud 1957
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_49171
2ndpa of duodenum is derived from ?
[ "Foregut", "Midgut", "Both foregut & midgut", "Hindgut" ]
Both foregut & midgut
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28955
A 15-year-old boy presented in an unconscious state and on connecting the ECG electrodes, atrial fibrillation was diagnosed. The relatives told the doctor that the boy had similar episodes of syncope in the past as well. Lab studies revealed normal potassium and calcium levels, normal CK-MB levels. The patient died of ...
[ "SCN5A", "KCN5A", "CCN5A", "PCN5A" ]
THIS IS A CLASSICAL CASE OF BRUGADA SYNDROME. Syncope and cardiac arrest are the most common clinical manifestations leading to the diagnosis of Brugada syndrome. Males are more commonly affected than females. Mutations involving cardiac sodium channels (SCN5A) are identified in ~25% of cases. Administration of the sod...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_11624
A double headed monster is known as a :
[ "Diplopagus", "Dicephalus", "Craniopagus", "Heteropagus" ]
Dicephalus
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47389
Term for relation of different pas of the fetus to one another: September 2009, March 2013
[ "Fetal station", "Fetal attitude", "Fetal lie", "Fetal presentation" ]
Ans. B: Fetal Attitude Fetal station: This is the relationship between the presenting pa of the baby- the head, shoulder, buttocks, or feet and two pas of the mother's pelvis called the ischial spines. Normally the ischial spines are the narrowest pa of the pelvis. They are a natural measuring point for the delivery pr...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_36839
The following are components of Kawasald disease except -
[ "Purulent conjunctivitis", "Pedal edema", "Truncal rash", "Pharyngeal congestion" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8014
In Patey's procedure
[ "Removal of both pectoralis major & minor", "Removal of pectoralis minor and preservation of pectoralis major", "Pectoralis minor is divided", "Both (Major & Minor) are preserved" ]
Patey's operation is total mastectomy with clearence of all levels of lymph nodes and removal pectoralis minor muscle.It is enblock dissection of breast and axila. Nerve to serratus anterior,nerve to lattismus dorsi,axillary vein ,cephalic vein and pectoarlis major muscles are preserved So Patey 's procedure include re...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47832
The right coronary aery arises from ?
[ "anterior aoic sinus", "left posterior aoic sinus", "right posterior aoic sinus", "inter aoic sinus" ]
Right coronary aery is smaller than the left coronary aery. It arises from the anterior aoic sinus. Left coronary aery is larger than the right coronary aery. It arises from the left posterior aoic sinus. REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. FIG REF : B D Chaurasia's Huma...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29485
All of the following factors stimulate angiogenesis in a fetus, except:
[ "Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)", "Basic Fibroblast Growth Factor (bFGF)", "Interleukin - 8 (IL8)", "Interferon Alpha (INFa)" ]
Interferon Alpha (INFa) were the first described endogenous inhibitors of angiogenesis, they are anti angiogenic agent. It action is by down regulation of bFGF (b Fibroblast Growth Factor). Thus INFa is used in the treatment of pulmonary, brain and other hemangiomas, angioblastomas and giant cell tumours, all of which ...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26496
Hutchinson's incisors are present in:
[ "Congenital syphilis", "Tertiary syphilis", "Secondary syphilis", "Acquired syphilis" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_21593
who coind akathisia
[ "bleuler", "schneider", "erik erikson", "haskovek" ]
Acute akathisia * It was coined by Haskovec * Subjective state of restlessness and fidgety behaviour * <72 hours of staing antipsychotics * DD=agitated depression * If this is misdiagnosed as agitation and if antipsychotic is hiked there will be worsening of symptoms Propranolol id the TOC Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synops...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37479
Bad prognosis in AML Is indicated by
[ "Monosomy", "Deletion of X or Y chromosome", "T(8:21)", "Nucleophosmin mutation" ]
Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with monosomy 7 is associated with poor disease-free survival when treated by aggressive conventional chemotherapy alone. Similarly, outcomes are poor in children with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with monosomy 7 treated by chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs or suppoive measures Myelod...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53377
The six keys to normal occlusion were given by:
[ "Lawrence F. A.", "Angle", "Lischer", "Moyer" ]
ANDREWS SIX KEYS TO NORMAL OCCLUSION Lawrence F Andrews studied 120 casts of non-orthodontic patients with normal occlusion for four years (1960-1964). He identified 6 key characteristics. He was of the opinion, that for normal occlusion to exist these six characteristics had to be present. According to Andrews, the 6 ...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32661
True about cross section study-
[ "Prevalence study", "Useful for chronic disease", "Simple study", "All of the above" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Cross - sectional studieso Cross sectional study is the simplest form of an observational study.o It is also known as prevalence study.o It is based on a single examination of a cross - section of population at one point of timeo Results of this examination can be projected on the who...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_6472
ANCA positive vascuiltis is
[ "Henoch schonlein purpura", "Behcet'S syndrome", "Wegener's granulomatosis", "None" ]
Wegener granulomatosis is a necrotizing vasculitis characterized by a specific triad of findings: * Granulomas of the lung and/or the upper respiratory tract (ear, nose, sinuses, throat) * Vasculitis of small to medium-sized vessels (capillaries, venules, aerioles, and aeries), most prominently in the lungs and upper r...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_39682
The balance between REM and ISREM sleep is maintained by-
[ "Pitutary gland", "Cerebellum", "Suprachiasmatic", "Gracile nucleus" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Suprachiasmatic nucleus o A prominent feature of the organization of the sleep and wake is their diurnal rhythim.o The amount of REM slaap reaches its maximum during the late rest phase, whereas NREM sleep peaks in the early rest phase.o This sleep - wake rhythm is a result of the interaction between ...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51808
Catgut suture is derived from which pa of the sheep
[ "Stomach", "Intestine", "Muscle", "Ligaments" ]
Answer- C. MuscleCatgut suture is prepared from the submucosa of the first one-third of the small intestine of sheep or cow.Chromic catgut is made by treating catgut with cbromic acid salt.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9536
Which is not a true rib:
[ "5th", "6th", "7th", "8th" ]
Ans. D 8thRef: BDC, 6th ed. Vol 1 pg. 196-97* True ribs: Ribs directly articulating with sternum through costal cartilage. They are ribs 1 to 7* False ribs: Ribs that do NOT articulate directly with sternum. Ribs 8 to 12th.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40003
Anagen phase of the hair indicates-
[ "The phase of activity and growth", "The phase of transition", "The phase of resting", "The phase of degeneration" ]
Anagen phase- active growth phase-70-80% of hairs will be in anagen phase.last for 2-10years Catagen phase- regression phase- lasts for 1-3 weeks Telogen phase- resting phase- lasts for 3months Reference Harrison20th edition pg 1230
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_124
Characteristics of glycoprotein:
[ "Protein linked with glycosidic bond", "Core protein", "Sugar residues are long in carbohydrate poion of glycoprotein", "None" ]
A i.e. Protein linked with glycosidic bond
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28867
LMN type Facial palsies -a) Bell's palsy most commonb) Cornea should be protectedc) Unilateral paralysis is seen in Mobius syndromed) Prognosis affected before repeated electric stimulation
[ "ab", "a", "ad", "bc" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3291
Undersurface of pontic should be
[ "Concave mesio distally and convex buccolingually", "Convex mesio distally and concave buccolingually", "Convex in all directions", "Concave in all directions" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_49224
Cyst and trophozite in stool
[ "Mycoplasma", "Toxoplasma", "Leptospira", "Treponema" ]
Toxoplasma
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10692
Most impoant feature to diagnose severe pneumonia?
[ "Cyanosis", "Chest indrawing", "Nasal flaring", "Fast breathing" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chest indrawing The only sign for severe pneumonia is chest indrawing
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23166
During fixation of Bennett's fracture, which muscle hinders it?
[ "Extensor pollicis brevis", "Flexor pollicis brevis", "Flexor pollicis longus", "Abductor pollicis longus" ]
Bennett's fracture is difficult to maintain in a reduced position due to the pull of the Abductor pollicis longus. Bennett Fracture * Treatment Non-operative closed reduction & cast immobilization * Indications : non-displaced fractures technique * reduction maneuver with traction, extension, proration. and abduction R...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37931
All help in assessing obesity except
[ "Quetelet's Index", "Ponderal Index", "Corpulence Index", "Sullivan Index" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_38757
In myocardial infarction, early light microscopic change is -
[ "Waviness of fibres", "Necrosis of fibres", "Round cell infiltration", "None" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24759
Drug that does not prevent preterm labor is:
[ "Ritodrine", "Atosiban", "Dexamethasone", "Nitroglycerine patch" ]
Dexamethasone REF: See APPENDIX-64 for list of "Tocolytic agents" "Steroids are given in preterm labor for fetal lung maturity and not as tocolytic agent" Nitroglycerine is also a tocolytic agent not listed in the APPENDIX-64 as it is not used routinely (not recommended)
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8560
Roopmati, A 56–year–old female with lymph-node-positive breast cancer was treated with systemic chemotherapy. Four weeks later, she developed frequent urination, suprapubic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. Which of the following could have prevented this patient's condition?
[ "Folinic acid", "Mesna", "Dexrazoxane", "Amifostine" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12890
Vitamin E toxicity is associated with
[ "Peripheral neuritis", "Ataxia", "Loss of vibration sense", "Exfoliative dermatitis" ]
Severe deficiency, as may occur in persons with abetalipoproteinemia or fat malabsorption, profoundly affects the central nervous system and can cause ataxia and a peripheral neuropathy resembling Friedreich ataxia. Patients receiving large doses of vitamin E may experience a halt in the progression of the disease <img...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13806
Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus -
[ "Vasopressin", "Desmopressin", "Lypressin", "Presselin" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Desmopressin o Desmopressin (intranasal) is the DOC for central DI.Uses of vasopressine analogue|||Based on V2 action (Desmopressin is the DOC)Based on V1 actiono Central (neurogenic) diabetes insipiduso Nocturnal enuresiso Renal concentration testo Haemophilia, von willebrand's diseaseo Bleeding esop...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1052
Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure?
[ "Rapacurium", "Pancuronium", "Atracurium", "Rocuronium" ]
Muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure is atracurium, since it is not eliminated through the kidney. It is inactivated in the plasma by spontaneous non enzymatic degradation (Hofmann elimination) in addition to that by cholinesterase. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 314.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_17646
Triangular relation of elbow is maintained in:
[ "Fracture ulna", "Anterior dislocation of elbow", "Posterior dislocation of elbow", "Supracondylar fracture of humerus" ]
Triangular relation of elbow includes medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle and tip of olecranon. The relationship is destroyed by dislocations of elbow. It is maintained in supracondylar fracture of Humerus (occurs above elbow joint)
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43935
Prolonged parasitism in malaria is due to ?
[ "Antigenic variation", "Intracellularity of parasite", "Immunosuppression", "Sequestration" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Intracellularity of parasite
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_30689
Treatment of primary piles is -a) Surgeryb) Sclerotherapyc) No treatmentd) Analgesics
[ "ac", "ab", "ad", "bc" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41824
Eichosapentaenoic acid is present in-
[ "Soyabean oil", "Corn oil", "Safflower oil", "Fish oil" ]
Ans. is `d' i.e., Fish oil
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_38377
Omalizumab True statement is?
[ "Anti-IgE", "Used as add on therapy in moderate to severe asthma prophylaxis", "Givn subcutaneously", "All o above" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Anti-IgE (Omalizumab). Omalizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds IgE, thereby preventing its binding to the high-affinity IgE receptor and blocking IgE-mediated allergic responses and inflammation. approved for patients >12 yr old with moderate to severe asthma, It is given...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_4786
Anopheles species for the transmission of malaria in urban areas is
[ "Anopheles culicifacies", "Anopheles fluviatilis", "Anopheles sundaicus", "Anopheles stephensi" ]
Vector of rural malaria is Anopheles culicifacies. Vector of urban malaria is Anopheles stephensi.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3518
Soap-bubble appearance on X-ray is characteristic of
[ "Osteoclastoma", "Osteoblastoma", "Osteosarcoma", "Osteoma" ]
OSTEOCLASTOMA (GIANT CELL TUMOUR) Giant cell tumour (GCT) is a common bone tumour with variable growth potential. Characteristic radiological features of this tumour: A solitary may be loculated, lytic lesion. Eccentric location, often subchondral Expansion of the overlying coex (expansile lesion). 'Soap-bubble' appear...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_39315
At the time of autopsy of a 39-yrs-old woman who died of complications of SLE, several medium-sized vegetations are found on both sides of the mitral valve and tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the basic abnormality that produced these cardiac vegetations?
[ "Turbulent blood flow through' an incompetent mitral valve", "Excess secretion of a vasoactive amine", "Presence of an anticardiolipin antibody", "Cachexia produced by a hypercoagulable state" ]
* Plaques or vegetations are found in characteristic locations within the hea in several different disorders. * Vegetations can occur in acute rheumatic fever as small masses found in a row along the lines of closure of the valves. * In contrast, the vegetations of infective endocarditis arc large, irregular masses tha...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47329
Most common cause of ptosis
[ "Myasthenia gravis", "Paralysis of 3rd nerve", "Idiopathic", "Congenital" ]
*Congenital myogenic ptosis is the most common type of ptosis and is often bilateral. Ref: Clinical ophthalmology p.786
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_42052
Cytogenetics for synovial cell sarcoma
[ "t (9,22)", "t (11,14)", "t (8,14)", "t (x,18)" ]
t (x,18) is seen in synovial cell sarcoma and it produces fusion genes like SS18-SSXl-SSX2-SSX4
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37216
Anesthetic testing is most effective in localizing pain
[ "to a specific tooth.", "to the mandible or maxilla.", "across the midline of the face.", "to a posterior tooth." ]
Selective Anesthesia When  symptoms  are  not  localized  or  referred,  the  diagnosis may be challenging. Sometimes the patient may not even be able to specify whether the symptoms are emanating from the maxillary or mandibular arch. In these instances, when pulp testing is inconclusive, selective anesthesia may be h...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26044
All of the following are causes of night blindness EXCEPT:
[ "Oguchi's disease", "Vitamin A deficiency", "High myopia", "Devics disease" ]
Causes of night blindness or nyctalopia: Vitamin A deficiency Tapetoretinal degenerations like retinitis pigmentosa Congenital high myopia Familial congenital night blindness Oguchi's disease Lenticular or corneal opacities Advanced primary open angle glaucoma
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16113
A funguicidal drug that can be used orally for the treatment of onychomycosis is
[ "Griseofulvin", "Amphotericin B", "Clotrimazole", "Terbinafine" ]
Ref-KDT 6/e 765 Fungicidal drugs are amphotericin B and terbinafine.out of these, amphotericin B cannot be given orally.thus,the and is terbinafine.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31600
62 Year old male presented to OP with the following condition. Which drug is used to treat him permanently?
[ "Colchicine", "Febuxostat", "Allopurinol", "Dexamethasone" ]
The given condition is GOUTHere the question is permanent treatment, not just acute or symptomatic treatment. So we can eliminate coicosteroids and ColchicineBoth allopurinol and febuxostat decrease uric acid production.But febuxostat being a non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor with very less adverse effects more pot...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13177
Serum calcitonin may be elevated in
[ "Islet cell tumour of pancreas", "Choriocarcinoma of ovary", "Carcinoid tumour of appendix", "Medullary carcinoma of thyroid" ]
Calcitonin is a polypeptide of 32 amino acids derived from ultimobranchial body. It is secreted from C cells of thyroid (parafollicular cells). It lowers the plasma calcium and phosphorus levels. It blocks the PTH induced bone resorption. Calcium from the circulation is shunted into the bone. It increases the excretion...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_30196
Chloroquine cause exacerbation of :
[ "Malaria", "Psorisasis", "DLE", "Photosensitivity" ]
B i.e. Psoriasis
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23327
On electron microscopy amyloid characteristically exhibits:
[ "B-plated sheets", "Hyaline globules", "7.5-10 nm fibrils", "20-25 nm fibrils" ]
Propeies of Amyloid Proteins: -Physical Nature of Amyloid: Electron microscopy-- Continuous, non-branching fibrils with a diameter of approximately 7.5 to 10 nm. X-ray crystallography and infrared spectroscopy-- Cross-b-pleated sheet conformation. This conformation is responsible for the distinctive Congo red staining ...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10657
True about Epigastric Hernia is
[ "Located below the umbilicus and always in the midline", "Located above the umbilicus and always in the midline", "Located above the umbilicus and on either side", "Can be seen anywhere on abdomen" ]
Ans is 'b' i.e. Located above the umbilicus and always in the midline Ref: Schwartz 9/e pi273; Maingot's Abdominal operations Chapter 5 "Epigastric hernias are located in the midline between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. Schwartz "An epigastric hernia is a defect in the abdominal wall in the midline junction o...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_2460
If head of the radius is removed, it will result in
[ "Lengthening of limb", "Valgus deformity", "Varus deformity", "No deformity" ]
B i.e. Valgus deformity Classically the head of radius should not be excised in children because ? - It will interfere with the synchronous growth of radius and ulnar producing wrist & elbow deformity. - It leads to proximal radial migration & subluxation of inferior radio ulnar joINTEGER(2. - It causes weakness of ext...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25661
The concentration of NaF in a daily mouth rinse is:
[ "0.20%", "0.05%", "0.03%", "0.01%" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_33417
Triple assessment for cancer of breast includes which of the following?
[ "History, Clinical examination and mammogram", "History, Clinical examination and FNAC", "USG, Mammogram and FNAC", "Clinical Examination, Mammogram and FNAC" ]
Patients with suspected breast cancer should undergo triple assessment, which includes a combination of clinical examination, breast imaging (mammography and or ultrasound) and pathologic evaluation. With triple assessment definitive diagnosis of breast cancer can be made in 99% cases. Ref: Oxford Desk Reference Oncolo...
D
null