dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_18283 | Sternum attached to scapula (FMGE Dec 2018) | [
"Manubrium",
"Clavicle",
"First rib",
"Second rib"
] | By forming sternoclavicular joint & Acromioclavicular joint, clavicle connects sternum (Axial skeleton) to scapula (Appendicular skeleton). Clavicle transmits the weight / force of appendicular skeleton to axial skeleton. acromioclavicular ligament is impoant in this. That's why clavicle is most commonly fractured bone in body -Sternum contains - Manubrium - Body - Xiphoid process * Manubrium of sternum: angled posteriorly on body of sternum at manubriosternal joint, forms sternal angle which is major surface landmark used by clinicians in physical examination. * RIBS: All ribs aiculate with thoracic veebrae posteriorly, most ribs (II to IX) have 3 aiculations with veebral column. anteriorly, costal cailages of ribs I to VII aiculate with sternum, VIII to X aiculate with inferior margins of costal cailage above them, XI & XII floating ribs - because they do not aiculate with ribs, costal cailage or sternum | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51524 | Gag gene encodes for - | [
"Reverse transcriptase",
"Core antigen",
"Envelope",
"Gene activation"
] | The Gag gene determines the core and shell of the virus.. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-571 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17981 | A study of women with breast carcinoma is done to determine the presence and amount of estrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) in the carcinoma cells. Large amounts of ER and PR are found in the carcinoma cells of some patients. These receptors are not present in the cells of other patients. The patients with positivity for ER and PR are likely to exhibit which of the following traits? | [
"Greater immunogenicity",
"Greater likelihood of metastases",
"Greater risk of familial breast cancer",
"Higher response to therapy"
] | The estrogen receptor and progesterone receptor (ER and PR) status help predict whether chemotherapy with antiestrogen compounds such as tamoxifen would be effective; however, the correlation is not perfect. ER and PR do not affect the immunogenicity and are not targets for immunotherapy. In contrast, immunotherapy targeted to the overexpressed HER2/neu gene is being used. The overall prognosis may be predicted from several factors, including histologic type, histologic grade, presence of metastases, degree of aneuploidy, and tumor stage. Family history and the presence of specific mutations such as BRCA1 or BRCA2 correlate with the familial risk of breast cancer. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50273 | Which of the following nucleus controls the circadian rhythm? | [
"Supraoptic nucleus",
"Paraventricular nucleus",
"Suprachiasmatic nucleus",
"Premamillary nucleus"
] | Hypothalamic control of circadian rhythm: A large number of physiologic rhythms ( body temperature, sleep-wakefulness, coisol secretion among a host of others ) in the body run to a cyclic pattern that is approximately 25 hours long. These rhythms are entrained to 24 hours due to environmental signals such as light and darkness. These signals are callwd zeitgebers. The suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to be responsible for the rhythmicity of these circadian cyclesRef: Guyton & Hall Textbook of medical physiology- a south Indian edition 2014 pg no: 812 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47411 | Zinc phosphide is – | [
"Rodenticide",
"Insecticide",
"Larvicide",
"All"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9936 | Outward displacement of fractured hyoid bone is seen in: UP 10 | [
"Manual strangulation",
"Ligature strangulation",
"Hanging",
"Bansdola"
] | Ans. Hanging | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37653 | A patient presented with thunder clap headache. Followed by unconsciousness with progressive 3rd cranial nerve palsy | [
"Extradual hemorrhage",
"Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage",
"Basilar migraine",
"Cluster Headache"
] | Harrison's textbook of internal medicine 17th edition . *Sudden transient loss of consciousness may be preceded by brief moment of excruciating head ache ,but most patient first complain of head ache on regain the consciousness . *3rd cranial nerve palsy , associate with pupillary dilatation,loss of ipsilateral light reflex,focal pain above and behind the eye . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2445 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2366 | Which is risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma | [
"Obesity",
"Primary sclerosing cholangitis",
"Salmonella carrier state",
"HBV infection"
] | Risk factors include primary sclerosing cholangitis Congenital fibropolycystic disease of biliary tree Infestation by Clonorchis sinensis or Opisthorchis viverrini HCV infection Exposure to Thorotrast TEXT BOOK OF ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.643 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38879 | Which is the prognostic scoring system for head injury in children? | [
"CCS",
"AUDIT",
"Injury severity score",
"Pediatric Trauma Score"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CCS * Scoring scales such as the Abbreviated Injury Scale (AIS), Injury Severity Score (ISS), Pediatric Trauma Score and Revised Trauma Score are used to predict mortality as well as morbidity in patients sustaining trauma in general.* They use physiological parameters to predict patient outcome.* CCS (Children Coma Score) is the paediatric counterpart of Glasgow Coma Score for patient with head injury.Children Coma Score:Eye Opening (Total Possible Points 4)Spontaneous4 To voice3 To pain2 None1 Verbal Response (Total Possible Points 5)Older Children Anfants and Young Children Oriented5Appropriate words, smiles, fixes, and follows5Confused4Consolable crying4Inappropriate3Persistently imitable3Incomprehensible2Restiess, agitated2None1None1Motor Response (Total Possible Points 6)Obeys6 Localized pain5 Withdraws4 Flexion3 Extension2 None1 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32669 | All are false regarding polio virus except: | [
"Most cases are symptomatic",
"Inactivated vaccine given IM",
"Inactivated polio vaccines are given to child less than 3 years of age",
"Only one type exists"
] | Ans. (b) Inactivated vaccine is given IM Inactivated poliovaccine or IPV (salk type) is given subcutaneously or IM. Other options Option L. Most cases of polio are asymptomatic Option c Dose schedule of IPV: First dose when infant is 6 weeks old Additional doses are recommended prior to school entry and then every five years until the age of 18. Option d These are three serotypes of polio virus Most outbreaks of paralytic polio are due to type 1. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46674 | MC cause of secondary amenorrhoea is: March 2004 | [
"Pregnancy",
"TB",
"Thyrotoxicosis",
"None of the above"
] | Ans. A i.e. Pregnancy | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46257 | Duroziez’s sign is seen in? | [
"Aortic Regurgitation",
"Aortic Stenosis",
"Mitral Stenosis",
"Mitral Regurgitation"
] | Duroziezs sign is seen in severe aortic regurgitation, gradual pressure over the femoral artery leads to a systolic and diastolic bruit.
The systolic murmur is heard best when the proximal femoral artery is compressed and the diastolic when the distal femoral artery is compressed. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19318 | Drug of choice for prophylaxis of TB is?(DNB 2012-section-1) | [
"Rifampicin",
"Isoniazid",
"Pyrizinamide",
"Streptomycin"
] | Ans. (b) IsoniazidRef .KDT 6/e / 740-743 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45619 | True about burns - | [
"Hyperglycemia is seen in early burns",
"Child with burns should have damp dressing",
"Chemical powder burns should be kept dry",
"3rd degree burns are painfull"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hyperglycemia is seen in early burns | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48823 | Pleural pressure at the end of respiration is ? | [
"Zero",
"More negative",
"Positive",
"Less negative"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., More negativeDuring quiet breathing, the intrapleural pressure fluctuates between -3 and -6 mm Hg, depending upon the phase of respiration, more negative at the end of inspiration and less negative during expiration.Intrapleural pressure (Pleural pressure)It is the pressure between two pleural surfaces. The lung is covered with visceral pleura and the thoracic cage is lined on inside with parietal pleura. Between the two layers of pleura is a very narrow space, called the pleural cavity. Intrapleural pressure is always negative and during quiet breathing the Intrapleural pressure fluctuates between -3.8 mm Hg (- 5.0 cm watery to -6.0 mm Hg (-8.0 cm water).Now let us examine why the pleural pressure is negative; more negative during inspiration, less negative during expiraion, but always negative during quiet breathing. The key to the answer is the fact that both the thoracic cage and lungs are elastic structures. Being elastic structure they both tend to recoil, but in opposite direction. The lungs have a tendency to collapse and thoracic cage has a tendency to expand. However, because of the anatomical relationships in the body, these tendencies do not normally materialize. But the tendencies do create an inward pull on the visceral pleura (by lung) and an outward pull on parietal pleura (by thoracic cage). The results of these pulls is a negative pressure in the space between the pleural surfaces, i.e., in the pleural cavity. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10157 | Neurotransmitter employed by rods and cones is | [
"Dopamine",
"Serotonin",
"Glutamate",
"Nitric oxide"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16180 | CYP 3A4 enzymes are affected by: a) Fexofenadine b) Phenytoin c) Carbamazepine d) Azithromycin e) Penicillin | [
"ab",
"bc",
"ad",
"bd"
] | CYP3A4 cary out biotransformation of large number of drugs. The inhibition of this isoenzyme by erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole etc. is responsible for important drug interactions with terfenadine, astemizole and cisapride. Rifampicin, barbiturates and other anticonvulsants are important inducers. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53810 | A 30-year-old female presents with a palpable mass in her left breast that has been steadily increasing in size over the past year. On examination it is well-circumscribed and freely mobile and appears to be around 5.7 cm in its greatest dimension. A core needle biopsy is performed and shows the following. What is the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Fibroadenoma",
"DCIS",
"Intraductal papilloma",
"Giant fibroadenoma"
] | Fibroadenomas are benign solid tumours composed of stromal and epithelial elements. After carcinoma, fibroadenoma is the second most common tumour in the breast and is the most common tumour in women younger than 30 years. Clinically, they are firm tumours that may increase in size over a period of several months. They slip easily under the examining fingers and may be lobulated. Treatment of fibroadenoma follows that for any unexplained solid mass within the breast A tissue diagnosis is required to rule out malignancy and may be accomplished by image-guided core needle biopsy or excisional biopsy. Two subtypes of fibroadenoma are recognized. 1. Giant fibroadenoma is a descriptive term applied to a fibroadenoma that attains an unusually large size, typically greater than 5 cm. 2. Juvenile fibroadenoma refers to the occasional large fibroadenoma that occurs in adolescents and young adults and histologically is more cellular than the usual fibroadenoma. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8504 | Which of the following exclusively involve neurons: | [
"Spinocerebellar ataxia",
"Supranuclear palsy",
"Corticobasilar degeneration",
"Multiple system atrophy"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Spinocerebellar ataxia | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6959 | Which drug is not used for acute bronchial asthma ? | [
"Salmeterol",
"Formeterol",
"Salbutamol",
"Coicosteroids"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Salmeterol Bambuterol is a prodrug of terbutaline. It is slowly hydrolysed by pseudocholineterase. Sho acting 132-agonists produce bronchodilatation within 5 min and action lasts for 2-6 hrs --> are used to abo and terminate acute asthma, but are not suitable for prophylaxis. Salmeterol is delayed acting, can be used for prophylaxis only, while formoterol is fast acting and long acting can be used for both prophylaxis and acute attack. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41487 | Following are the drugs used in alcohol dependence to prevent relapse except - | [
"Fluoxetine",
"Nalmefene",
"Acamprosate",
"Topiramate"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fluoxetine | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24319 | Most sensitive test for screening of " SLE" is | [
"LE phenomenon",
"Rheumatoid ahritis",
"Anti_nuclear factor",
"Double stranded DNA test"
] | Ref Robbins 9/e p219, 8/e p214 ,7/e p228 Spectrum of Autoantibodies in SLE Antibodies have been identified against a host of nuclear and cytoplasmic components of the cell that are specific to neither organs nor species. Another group of antibodies is directed against surface antigens of blood cells, while yet another is reactive with proteins in complex with phospho- lipids (antiphospholipid antibodies) (Chapter 3). * Antinuclear antibodies. ANAs are directed against several nuclear antigens and can be grouped into four catego- ries: (1) antibodies to DNA, (2) antibodies to histones, (3) antibodies to nonhistone proteins bound to RNA, and (4) antibodies to nucleolar antigens. Table 4-10 lists several autoantibodies, including ANAs, and their asso- ciation with SLE as well as with other autoimmune dis- eases, to be discussed later. The most widely used method of detecting ANAs is the indirect immunofluo- rescence assay (IFA), which screens for autoantibodies that bind to a variety of nuclear antigens, including DNA, RNA, and proteins. Four staining patterns are seen with IFA: homogeneous or diffuse, rim or periph- eral, speckled, and nucleolar. While each pattern can be suggestive of the presence of specific autoantibodies, the strength of these associations is limited and should not be relied on. ANA testing by IFA is extremely sensitive, as more than 95% of patients with SLE will test positive, but the test's specificity is quite limited, because patients with other autoimmune diseases, chronic infections, and cancer will test positive as well. Fuhermore, ANAs are seen in approximately 5% to 15% of healthy people, and the incidence increases with age. Recently, the IFA has been replaced in many clinical laboratories by multiplex flow cytometry immunoassays that can simultaneously test for multiple specific autoantibodies, but these assays may lack the sensitivity of the IFA. Antibodies to double- stranded DNA (dsDNA) and the so-called Smith (Sm) antigen can be detected by ELISA or multiplex flow methods and are specific for SLE. * Other autoantibodies. Antibodies against blood cells, including red cells, platelets, and lymphocytes, are found in many patients. Antiphospholipid antibodies are present in 40% to 50% of patients with lupus and react with a wide variety of proteins in complex with phospholipids. Some bind to cardiolipin antigen, used in serologic tests for syphilis, so patients with lupus may have a false-positive test result for syphilis. Antiphos- pholipid antibodies contribute to coagulation abnormal- ities, which are described below. Mechanisms of Tissue Injury Regardless of the exact sequence by which autoantibodies are formed, they are likely to be the mediators of tissue injury, probably through multiple mechanisms. * Most organ damage in SLE is caused by immune complex deposition. Skin and kidney biopsies from patients with SLE typically demonstrate diffuse and heavy granular deposits of complement and immunoglobulin. Autoan- tibodies complexed with DNA can be detected as well. These deposits of immune complexes had been thought to cause tissue damage by activating the classical com- plement pathway (type III hypersensitivity); 75% of patients will have reduced serum levels of C3 and C4 at the time of SLE flares, presumably because complement is being activated and consumed faster than it can be produced. However, people and rodents deficient in C1q are not protected from SLE and actually can spon- taneously develop SLE, raising the possibility that complement-independent mechanisms may also con- tribute to tissue damage. * Autoantibodies of different specificities contribute to the pathology and clinical manifestations of SLE (type II hyper- sensitivity). Autoantibodies against red cells, white cells, and platelets opsonize these cells and lead to their phagocy- tosis, resulting in cytopenias. Autoantibodies against various phospholipids lead to increased thrombosis in patients, with varied clinical consequences, including recurrent spontaneous aboion and thrombotic epi- sodes. These disorders are pa of the antiphospholipid syndrome. Paradoxically, these antibodies interfere with clotting tests and are actually called "lupus anticoagu- lants." Autoantibodies are also produced against clot- ting factors such as thrombin, and these too may contribute to clotting disorders. Autoantibodies against central nervous system receptors for various neurotransmit- ters have been implicated in the neuropsychiatric com- plications of the disease. * There is no evidence that ANAs can permeate intact cells. However, if cell nuclei are exposed, the ANAs can bind to them. In tissues, nuclei of damaged cells react with ANAs, lose their chromatin pattern, and become homogeneous, to produce so-called LE bodies or hema- toxylin bodies. An in vitro correlate of this is the LE cell, a neutrophil or macrophage that has engulfed the dena- tured nucleus of another injured cell. When blood is withdrawn and agitated, a number of leukocytes are sufficiently damaged to expose their nuclei to ANAs, with secondary complement activation; these antibody- and complement-opsonized nuclei are then readily phagocytosed. Although the LE cell test is positive in as many as 70% of patients with SLE, it is now largely of historical interest. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40191 | Which of the following drugs are believed to be effective in the treatment of post operative shivering? | [
"Ondansetron",
"Diclofenac sodium",
"Pethidine",
"Paracetamol"
] | Ans. (C) Pethidine(Ref: Anesthesiology by Longnecker/1485; KDT 8th/e p503)Pethidine is most effective drug for treatment of post-operative shivering. Other drugs that can be used for this purpose are clonidine, doxapram, ketanserin and alfentanil. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43173 | All of the following show compression osteosynthesis except: | [
"Dynamic compression plates.",
"Champys mini plates.",
"Eccentric compression plates.",
"Lag screw."
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47800 | Pansystolic murmur is present in all of the following cardiac conditions, EXCEPT: | [
"MR",
"MS",
"VSD",
"TR"
] | Pansystolic murmurs are audible throughout systole from the first to second hea sounds. It is caused by regurgitation through incompetent atrioventricular valves and by ventricular septal defects. Murmur of mitral regurgitation is loudest at the cardiac apex and it radiates to the left axilla. Murmur of tricuspid regurgitation and ventricular septal defect are loudest at the left lower sternal edge. Early diastolic murmurs are high pitched and they sta immediately after the second hea sound fading away in mid diastole. They are caused by regurgitation through incompetent aoic and pulmonary valves. Murmur of aoic regurgitation radiates from aoic area to the left sternal edge Pulmonary regurgitation murmur is heard at the pulmonary area. Ref: Hutchison's Clinical Methods: An Integrated Approach to Clinical Practice edited by William M. Drake section 3. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50538 | Primary and secondary case are used to define? | [
"Generation time",
"Serial interval",
"Secondary attack rate",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Serial interval | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40851 | A 50 years old man is admitted to the hospital with acute myocardial infarction. After 12 hours he becomes hypotensive and oliguric. He is lying comfoably on his back, B.P. is 90/60 mmHg, hea rate is 60 BPM and JVP is 15 cm H2O. The hea sounds are regular without gallop, murmur or rub and the lungs are clear on auscultation. The next step should be to give: | [
"Intravenous Furosemide",
"Intravenous Fluids",
"Digoxin & Dopamine",
"Norepinephrine and Intraaoic Balloon Pump"
] | This patient probably has an inferior wall myocardial infarction complicated by right ventricular involvement. The Cardiac output is probably depressed because of low left hea filling pressure secondary to right ventricular infarction. The initial treatment should be to administer fluids intravenously. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31396 | Which of the following is related to third part of duodenum - | [
"Portal vein",
"Head of pancreas",
"Hepatic artery",
"Superior mesenteric vein"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21261 | A child presents with complaints of oliguria, abdominal distension and diarrhoea. On examination there is deep jaundice. Hepatomegaly was present measuring 4 cm below the costal margin. Conjugated bilirubin in blood was 38 mg/dL, and there was urine urobilinogen and bile pigments. Hemoglobin was 4mg/dL and serum creatinine was 3mg/dL. Which of the following tests is of least impoance to diagnose this case - | [
"G-6-PD level in blood",
"Serum ceruloplasmin",
"Reticulocyte count",
"Leptospiral antibody level"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Serum ceruloplasmin level o Serum ceruloplasmin measurement is useful in the diagnosis of Wilson's disease, but Wilson's disease in the above patient can easily be ruled out because in Wilson's disease there is no renal involvement, where as the patient in question is having renal involvement (Serum Creatinine 3 mg/dL). o Lepto spiral antibody level Leptospiral antibody measurement is useful in the diagnosis of leptospirosis. o The symptomatic profile of the patient is very similar to that of severe leptospirosis (Weil's syndrome). C/F of Weil's syndrome o Jaundice o Hemorrhagic diathesis o Hepatomegaly o Spleenomegaly o Hemolysis o Rhabdomyolysis o Congestive hea failure o Pulmonary involvement o Renal failure (During 2nd wk). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35487 | Sleep pattern in > 50 years all EXCEPT | [
"High REM",
"Low latency of REM",
"Less duration of sleep",
"Experience earlier wake times"
] | (A) High REM # SLEEP PATTERN WITH AGE: Changes in sleep with age. NOTE: Time (in minutes) for sleep latency, amount of time spent awake after initially falling asleep (WASO), rapid eye movement (REM), non-rapid eye movement (NREM), stages 1, 2, and slow-wave sleep (SWS).> Sleep patterns change as people age.> As shown in the two graphs above, infants spend more time sleeping and spend a greater percentage of sleep in REM sleep compared with the times of older children & adults,> For example, newborn babies sleep about 16 hours per day and spend about 50% of that time in REM sleep.> Older people (50-85 years old) sleep only 5.75-6 hours per day and spend 13.8-15% of that time in REM sleep.> As you might expect, as children grow, they spend less time sleeping during the day.> Graph illustrates how nighttime and daytime sleep time changes with age.> Sleep architecture continues to change with age across adulthood.> Two major attributes of age-related sleep changes are earlier wake time and reduced sleep consolidation.> A hallmark change with age is a tendency toward earlier bedtimes and wake times.> Older adults (approximately ages 65 to 75) typically awaken 1.33 hours earlier, and go to bed 1.07 hours earlier, than younger adults (approximately ages 20 to 30). There are no conclusive studies that demonstrate why older adults experience earlier wake times, despite decreased sleep efficiency, but one hypothesis may be an advanced circadian pacemaker that accompanies age.> It is unclear if this is due to older adults experiencing an increased sensitivity to light.> Consequences of an advanced circadian rhythm are a 1-hour advance in body temperature increase in the early morning and misaligned melatonin and cortisol secretion rhythms with the circadian clock.> Younger adults may experience brief awakenings, but they are usually minor and occur close to an REM sleep transition; thus, sleep remains relatively consolidated. Arousal occurring mostly from REM sleep in young adults suggests that there is a protective mechanism to keep from awakening during NREM sleep; however, this protective effect appears to also decline with age.> As an individual ages (between the ages of 20 to 60), SWS declines at a rate of about 2 percent per decade.> Because arousal thresholds are typically highest during SWS, and because SWS declines with age, older adults experience more frequent awakenings during a sleep episode.> Another important variable may be an age-related reduction both in homeostatic sleep pressure and circadian pacemaker effectiveness during the night. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18191 | Perceptual misinterpretation of a real object is known as: | [
"Illusion",
"Delusion",
"Hallucination",
"Schizophrenia"
] | Illusion refers to a false interpretation of a sensory stimulus. Illusion can occur in delirium, which might be visual, auditory, gustatory, tactile, kinesthetic or visceral. Illusions may also occur in hysteria, depression, and schizophrenia. Hallucination is a false perception that occurs in the waking state in the absence of a sensory stimulus. Hallucinations can be auditory, visual, olfactory or gustatory, tactile, or somatic. Hallucination can occur secondary to tumors of the olfactory or basal temporal regions, toxins, fever, cerebro-vascular disease, central degenerative disorders and schizophrenia. Ref: Nurcombe B., Ebe M.H. (2008). Chapter 4. The Psychiatric Interview. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7906 | A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with di associated with repetitive hand washing. She repos these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies: | [
"Exposure and response prevention.",
"Systematic desensitization.",
"Asseiveness training.",
"Sensate focusing."
] | A i.e. Exposure and Response preventionSystematic desensitization is behaviour therapy of choice for specific and social phobiasQ whereas exposure and response prevention is behaviour therapy of choice for obscessive- compulsive disorderQBehavior Therapy (BT)It is a sho duration (6-8 week) therapy based on theories of learning (Skinner's operant and Pavlov's classical conditioning) and assume that all behaviour is learned behaviour. So a behaviour that is followed by a reward (positive reinforcement) is more likely to occur again that behaviour is learned more easily if taught in small steps. It aims at changing maladaptive behaviour & substituting it with adaptive behaviot42. John B. Watson is father of behaviourism and Joseph Wolpe developed systemic desensitization. Types include:Systematic Desensitization (SD) Based on Wolpe's principle of counter conditioning or reciprocal inhibition, whereby a person over comes maladaptive anxiety by appoching the feared situation gradually in a state of complete psycophysiological relaxation It consists of 3 steps : relaxation training, hierarchy construction (i.e. a list is made of situations that provoke increasing degrees of anxiety) and desensitization (i.e. patient proceed systematically through the list from least to most anxiety provoking situation while in a deeply relaxed state)- Works best in clearly identifiable anxiety provoking stimulus such as phobias (simple & social) where it is BT of choiceQ, panic attacks, generalized anxiety disorder, obsessiove-compulsive disorder (BT of 2.d choice)Q and some sexual disorders. Therapeutic-Graded Exposure Similar to SD, except that relaxation training is not involved & treatment is usually carried out in a real life context to learn firsthand that no dangerous consequences will ensue. Flooding (Implosion)- Patient is exposed to maximum level of feared situation (near the top of hierarchy without a gradual buildup or relaxation exercises, as in SD) from the sta of treatment and remain their until autonomic habituation occurs/ anxiety diminishes. - Premature withdrawal from feared situation or prematurely terminating the fantasized scene (imaginal flooding) is equivalentContingency (Reinforcer) ) Contracting & Behaviour Exchange/Contingency Management- Operant is a term used to describe a mechanism by which a behavior operates on environment. In this learning model, behavior is not evoked or elicited (as in classic conditioning) but occurs independently, and environmental responses influence whether the behavior is continued or stopped. For a consequence to change a ceain behavior, the consequence must be contigent on the behavior. Contingency refers to the relationship between a behavior and the events that follow it. A consequence is contingent when it is delivred only after the target behavior is performed and it is otherwise not available.Reinforcement is a contigent event that strengthens the response that it follows (eg a child is given a chocolate when he smiles; the child then smiles again). Reinforcers are always individual (eg food may be reinforcer for a hungry person but not to one who has just finished a large meal). Primary reinf orcers are objects with their own intrinsic or inherent value such as food or water. Secondary reinforcers are objects that have acquired value (eg money). The notion of contingency is iron clad i.e. inconsistent applications of contingencies (such as not giving reward after desired behavior few times) results in poor response acquisition.A behavior may be positively reinforced, negatively reinforced or punishedPositive reinforcement increases the frequency of a paicular resonse by giving something ourable immediately after the response (eg candy).Negative reinforcement increases the frequency of a response by removing an aversive event immediately after response (scoulding / nagging stops after a child cleans his room).Punishment decreases the frequency of a response by either pesenting an aversive event following a response (eg spanking; punishment I) or a removal of a positive event following a response (eg allowance is withdrawn; punishment II).Contingent ActionPositive (+) EventNegative Event (-)GivenPositive ReinforcementPunishment ITaken AwayPunishment IINegative ReinforcementContinuous reinfofcement means that reinforcemnt /punishment is applied every time the behavior occurs. Intermittent reinforcement occurs a/t schedule (eg every 3rd time) whereas, variable reinforcement is randomly determined.- Shaping and Chaining are other operant strategies for acquisition of new behaviors. Shaping is a process of reinforcing (rewarding) successive (gradual) approximations that come increasingly close to a desired behavior goal because they resemble the desired behavior or include a component of desired behavior. For example, in the case of selective mutism, the ultimate goal of treatment would be to have the child speak aloud in full sentences in front of others. Shaping uses a process of slow, small steps to reach this final goal.- Most daily activities require a series of small behaviors or steps that when performed in sequence form a chain. Forward chaining consists of teaching the sequence of behaviors beginning with the initial step in the chain (from 1 to 10). In backward to an escape, that would reinforce both conditioned anxiety & avoidance behaviour andproduce the opposite of desired effect.It works best in specific phobias and is contraindicated when intense anxiety would be hazardous to a patient (eg hea disease or fragile psychological patient)Exposure and Response PreventionIt is BT of choice for obscessional ritualsQ and is based on concept that the urge to carry out rituals diminishes if rituals can berestrained for long periods (- an hour)- Steps include : explaining the rationle of treatment & agreeing targets for exposure with patient --> Modelling (i.e. therapist demonstrates procedure himself) --> initially therapist suppo & accompany patients while they strive to prevent the rituals --> Urge to carry out rituals is made greater by persuading the patient and they do this on their own. Eye Movement Desensitization &Reprocessing- Inducing. Saccadic eye movements (which are rapid oscillation of eyes that occur when person follows rapid side to side moving object) while a person is imagining or thinking about (i.e. exposing to) , an anxiety provoking event can yield a positive thought or image that results in decreased anxiety. Used in post traumatic stress disorders & phobias.Thought Stopping and Distraction- Automatic negative thoughts and repetitive, intrusive ruminations are some times too intense to address with purely cognitive interventions. So thought stopping, a behavioural ditraction technique capitalizes on the individuals ability to focusattention away from distressing thoughts by producing a sudden sensory stimulus. For example -Snapping a rubber band on the wrist as a distractor or visualizing a large red stop sign. The command "stop!" is paired with the image or snap- It has 4 stages : 1) defining & recording the behaviour to be changed (by another person) 2) identifying the stimuli and reinforcers by recording the events that immediately follow the behaviour, 3) redirecting reinforcement from problem behaviour to desired behaviours eg parents advised to attend less when child shouts & more when quiet, 4) monitoring progress.It relies on principles of 1) controlling over contingency or reinforcer controls behaviour, 2) positive contingency should be desirable & available sholy after the terms of contract have been met 3) terms of contract should be negotiated, specific & straight forward 4) pairing or chaining a high frequency behaviour (eg watching TV) to a low frequency one (eg doing paperwork/house work etc).1) Reinforcement is a privilege that must be earned2) Good contracts are based on even exchange3) The value of contract is influenced by the reinforcement received4) A contract increases freedom within the relationship for both paies to earn the reinforcement that they deserve- Sta out relatively rich (eg 1 hour TV after 15 minutes of homework) and progressively thinned in time.- Used mainly in t/t of children & people with learning disbility and patients with medication adherence (pairing medication taking with routine activities)Q. - Token Economy (token reinforcement & response cost) Programs are a formalized method of contingency management, which clearly spells out a series of behaviors that are expected (eg making bed, arriving on time, cleaning) and the contingencies for compliance / non-compliance with these behavior goals (i.e. reward or privileges achieved or not respectively). Some programs include response cost (a form of punishment), which is the removal or withdrawl of a reinforcer / reward following in appropriate/problem behavior (eg fining a child for swearing). Imposing fine / response cost is very effective for suppressing undesirable behavior. The combination of token reinforcement and response cost is more effective then either alone.Child Management Training (CMT) is most established contingency managment program that teaches disciplinary skills to parents and includes: 1) how to use reinforcement to change a chld's behavior (positive reinforcement training; 2) how to attend to a desirable behavior to increase its frequency and ignore undesirable behavior to decrease their frequency (eg praising a child when he plays quietly & ignoring a child when he is interrupting); 3) how to give commands and use time outs & response costs. Time out is a punishment by the removal of positive reinforcement.Asseiveness Training- Asseive behaviour enables a person to act in his own best interest, to stand up for himself without undue anxiety, to express honest feelings comfoably & to exercise personal rights without denying the right of others.- By a combination of coaching, modelling (role playing), role reversal, videofeed back etc patients are encouraged to judge the level of self asseion and practise appropriate verbal & non verbal behaviours.- It is usually required for 1) Setting limits on pushy friends or relatives, 2) Social encounters such as being ignored by gossiping shop assistant, countering a sales pitch or being persistent when returning defective merchandise:Problem Solving Skills Training (PST)Impulsive/Careless problem solving, characterized by hurried, impulsive and careless attempts at problem resolution. And avoidant problem solving is procrastination, passivity and over dependence on others to provide solutions.Master's and Johnson's Dual Sex Therapy- Developed by William Masters and Virginia Johnson is a behaviour therapy used for treatment of sexual dysfunctions. In premature ejacutation, semen's squeeze technique and in male erectile disorder or impotence, sensate focus technique (to discover sensate focuses on body excluding genitalia where manipulation leads to sexual arousal); In orgasm and psychosexual disorders, orgasmic conditioning & desensitization are used.Habbit Reversal Training (H)- Has 4 components which include training in 1) becoming aware of onset of behavior (awareness training), 2) monitoring of behaviour and habit control motivation 3) initiating competing responses, that are incompatible with the behavior and inconspicuous (invisible) to others eg fist clenching is incompatable with body focused repetitive behaviours such as hair pulling, nail biting & skin picking (completing response training is the core of H), 4) relaxation & social suppo- Used to treat (reduce) repetitive behaviours (habbits) like tics, Tourette's syndrome, hair pulling, nail bitting & stutteringQ. Positive effects have been repoed but the evidence to decide the effectiveness of treatment is insufficient Rational problem solving is systematic, planned & constructive- Problems are defined as life situations tht require responses for adaptive functioning. Solutions are coping responses that alter the nature of problems, negative emotional reactions to them, or both- PST may be effective in wide range of situations (eg patients with schizophrenia, depression, eating disorders), psychological problems (eg smoking, marital discord) and stress a/w chronic illness.Social Skills Training- Some social behaviours can be learned eg making eye contact or staing conversation, negotiating & compromising, conflict management, community living, friendship & dating, work, vocation, medication management and asseiveness (eg making/refusing requests, making/ responding to complaints, making apologies, expressing unpleasant feelings /fear, asking for information, refusing drugs etc), - Useful for socially inadequate people or in rehabilitation of chronic mental disorders (Schizophrenia, depression, social phobia)Behavioral Activation Treatment for Depression (BATD)- Depression is at least paially maintained by a lack of positive reinforcement. Severly depressed mood 1/t behavioral withdrawl, which inturn results in a loss of reinforcement from pleasureable events or activities.- Guiding principle of BATD is matching law, which states that behaviors are allocated to various alternatives (eg should I stay home or go out) based on the propoion of reinforcers obtained from the various alternatives. It says that depression persists because depressed behavior is more highly reinforced than nondepressed behavior. BATD increases the individual's exposure to positive out come of healthy behavior, there by increasing the frequency of these behaviors and reducing depressed behavior.Aversion Based Approches- Based on operant &/or counter conditioning strategies such as timeout, response cost and/or application of noxious stimulus to decrease the likelihood of undesived behavior.- Three different stimuli have been used as aversive conditioning stimuli 1) Chemical aversion (olfactory aversion = pairing of extremely noxious but harmless odors such as amonia with sexual perversion; gustatory /emetic aversion = pairing chemical that induces vomition with substance abuse). 2) Faradic or electrical aversion andVerbal aversion (k/a Cove sensitization) involves the presentation of an imaginal scene involving dent behavior that is immediately f/b a scene that produces nausea. All three types of aversion therapies are used for treatment of sexual detions and substance abuseQ (however alone is rarely sufficient to treat substance abuse/ dependence) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7196 | In a case of hypersplenism all are true, EXCEPT | [
"Cytopenia",
"Hyperplastic bone marrow",
"Normal bone marrow",
"Splenomegaly absent"
] | (D) Splenomegaly absent # Hypersplenism: The complete blood count may reveal cytopenia of one or more blood cell types, which should suggest hypersplenism.> This condition is characterized by splenomegaly, cytopenia(s), normal or hyperplastic bone marrow & a response to splenectomy. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31342 | A 30-year-old G3P2 woman delivered a term baby and staed bleeding after delivery. She was given in fluids but bleeding did not stop. The EMO advised blood transfusion. After how many blood trans! fusions should be given FFP: | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | The most impoant initial resuscitating step of PPH is fluid management Till blood is not available this is done using colloids and crystalloids which replaces the fluid but worsens the existing coagulopathy Blood transfusion should be followed by fresh frozen plasma and platelets This is done after 4 units of blood transfusion The ratio of FFP: RBC : Platelets = 1:1:4. Ref: Fernando Arias 4e pg 395. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15028 | The biochemistry of cataract formation is –a) Hydration intumescenceb) Denaturation of lens proteinsc) Slow sclerosisd) All of the above | [
"ac",
"ab",
"ad",
"bc"
] | Marked hydration of lens and coagulation & denaturation of lens proteins are seen in cortical senile cataract.
There is intensification of nuclear sclerosis (not slow sclerosis). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5321 | Bilateral germ cell tumour is . | [
"Dysgerminoma",
"Immature teratoma",
"Embryonal cell carcinoma",
"Endodermal sinus tumour"
] | Ans. is c i.e. Embryonal cell carcinoma Friends, this is one of those type of questions where we will derive a correct answer by ruling out other options. Let see, Option 'a' : Dysgerminoma "They are bilateral in about 10% of cases". Option 'b' : Immature teratoma "In a premenopausal patient whose lesion appears to be confined to a single ovary, unilateral oophorectomy and surgical staging should be performed. For a postmenopausal patient, a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy may he performed. Contralateral involvement is rare, and routine resection or wedge biopsy of the contralateral ovary is unnecessary." Coming on to Option 'c' with embryonal cell carcinoma. It is a rare type of Germ cell tumor and so is the information available on at. The only information I could lay my hands was : Options 'c': Embryonal cell carcinoma The primary lesions tend to be large, and about two thirds are confined to one ovary at the time of diagnosis Option 'd' : Endodermal Sinus Tumour (EST) It is unilateral in 100% of cases. Considering all above options I choose embryonal cell carcinoma as the option of choice I have provided you with all related references, you are free to have your opinion. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9046 | Which of the following type of pancreatitis is associated with better prognosis ? | [
"Alcoholic pancreatitis",
"Gall stone pancreatitis",
"Post operative pancreatitis",
"Idiopathic pancreatitis"
] | Pancreatitis caused by a remediable cause such as cholilithiasis is associated with best prognosis. Eradication of gallsones can prevent fuher attacks of pancreatitis. Gall stone pancreatitis accounts for about 90% of cases of acute pancreatitis. Women are more affected than men. In this, gallstone is typically located in the distal common bile duct, which shares its pathway with the main pancreatic duct. Gallstones are recoverable in the feces of over 90% of patients within 10days of an attack of acute pancreatitis. Treatment involves suppoive care till amylase and lipase levels returns to normal. ERCP with sphincterectomy and stone retrieval is done in patients who do not pass the stone spontaneously. After the resolution of of an episode of gallstone pancreatitis, patient should be treated with a laparoscopic hysterectomy with a cholangiogram. Ref: Oxford Textbook of Surgery, 2nd Edition, Page 1766; Clinical Review of Surgery: ABSITE Preparation By Surgisphere Corporation, Page 237-8 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46358 | 'Chancre redux' is a clinical feature of: | [
"Early relapsing syphilis",
"Late syphilis",
"Chancroid",
"Recurrent herpes simplex infection"
] | Chancre redux : Recurrence of the primary sore at its original site during the first two years of the disease (Relapsing stage of syphilis). Pseudochancre redux : Gummatous (teiary stage) recurrence at the site of the primary chancre. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21594 | All are true about hyperparathyroidism except? | [
"Solitary adenoma",
"Malignant",
"Thyroid malignancy",
"Parathyroid hyperplasia"
] | Hyperparathyroidism is usually due to a solitary adenoma. It can also be due to MEN Type 1 which accounts for about 90% of parathyroid cancers, which do not include thyroid malignancies in the group of the multiple endocrine neoplasms. Parathyroid hyperplasia can also lead to hyperparathyroidism. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50463 | Features of multiple myeloma are | [
"B cell monoclonal proliferation",
"B cell in bone marrow",
"B cell in peripheral blood",
"Plasma cell secretes immunoglobulin"
] | Multiple myeloma is a malignant proliferation of plasma cells. Normal plasma cells are derived from B cells & prodece immunoglobulins which contain heavy & light chains. Normal immunoglobulins are polyclonal,which means that a variety of heavy chains are produced . In myelona,plasma cells produce immunoglobulin of a single hwavy & light chain , a monoclonal protein commonly referred to as a paraprotein.Reference :Davidson's principles &practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 1046. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3927 | On autopsy, fine froth was found in the resp. tract, nose and mouth. Likely cause of death - | [
"Drowning",
"Hanging",
"Strangulation",
"Tooth paste poisoning"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40595 | All of the following are anti-Pseudomonal drugs except:- | [
"Piperacillin",
"Cefoperazone",
"Ceftazidime",
"Cefadroxil"
] | DRUGS EFFECTIVE AGAINST PSEUDOMONAS Beta lactam antibiotics Carboxypenicillins i. Carbenicillin ii. Ticarcillin Ureidopenicillin i. Piperacillin ii. Azlocillin iii. Mezlocillin Carbapenems i. Imipenem ii. Doripenem iii. Meropenem Monobactams i. Aztreonam Cephalosporins i. Ceftazidime ii. Cefoperazone iii. Moxalactam iv. Cefepime v. Cefpirome Fluoroquinolones i. Ciprofloxacin ii. Levofloxacin Polypeptide Antibiotics i. Colistin ii. Polymixin B. Aminoglycosides | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12005 | The ureteric bud develops from- | [
"Pronephros",
"Mesonephros",
"Metanephros",
"Cloaca"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mesonephros Development of kidney* Ureteric bud (mesonephros) arise from mesonephric duct and gives rise to collecting system of kidney (renal pelvis, major and minor calyces, collecting tubule) and ureter.* Metanephric mesoderm (blastema or metanephros) arisefrom nephrogenic cord which in turn is derived from intermediate mesoderm. It gives rise to excretory unit (nephron), i.e. glomeruli, PCT, Loop of henle and DCT. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39679 | Shortest acting Benzodiazepine - | [
"Diazepam",
"Midazolam",
"Alprazolam",
"Chlordiazepoxide"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Midazolam o Midazolam is the shortest acting benzodiazipine.o It is 3 times more potent than diazepam.o Midazolam is now very commonly used BZD in intraoperative period,o Advantages of midazolam over diazepam are :Water based preparation, so injection is painless.Elimination half life is 2-3 hours, so can be safely used for day care procedures.Reversal with flumezanii is complete (no resedation).o Disadvantages are that decrease in BP and peripheral vascular resistance, respiratory depression and incidence of apnea are higher and more profound than diazepam. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11032 | Most common malignant brain tumor | [
"Astrocytoma",
"Glioblastoma multiforme",
"Oligodendroglioma",
"Ependymoma"
] | Ans. B Glioblastoma multiforme Ref: Sabiston.Page 1371 The following data should be remembered for brain tumors- Most common malignant Brain tumor: Secondaries > Gliomas > Meningiomas > Astrocytomas. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45544 | Ciclipirox Oleamine is used in : | [
"Dermatophytosis",
"Acne",
"Psoriasis",
"Lichen Planus"
] | A i.e. Dermatophytosis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16241 | Which is not a beta lactum antibiotic? | [
"Penicillin",
"Carbepenem",
"Monobactum",
"Azithromycin"
] | These are antibiotics having a beta-lactam ring. The two major groups are penicillins and cephalosporins. Monobactams and carbapenems are relatively newer additions. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY page no.716 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49358 | The muscle that acts primarily as an eveor of ankle inseed into the medial cuneiform is which of the following? | [
"Peroneus longus",
"Peroneus brevis",
"Tibialis anterior",
"Tibialis posterior"
] | The peroneus longus and brevis act primarily as eveors, with the peroneus brevis being the stronger of the two. In the question, the eveor inseed to the medial cuneiform, which is peroneus longus. The peroneus brevis inses on the base of the fifth metatarsal and the peroneus longus courses under the cuboid to inse on the base of the first metatarsal and medial cuneiform. The tibialis anterior is the dorsiflexor of foot at the ankle joint. It is the inveor of the foot at the midtarsal and subtalar joints.Tibialis posterior is the principal inveor of the foot. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2211 | Corneal epithelium is composed of - | [
"Stratified keratinized epithelium",
"Stratified non- keratinized epithelium",
"Columnar epithelium",
"Pseudostratified epithelium"
] | Corneal epithelium is of stratified squamous type and continuous with epithelium of bulbar conjunctiva at the limbus.It consists of 5-6 layer of cells Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,6th edition,pg no.95 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36658 | Distribution of weakness in Pyrimidal tract lesions? | [
"Extensors more than flexors in lower limb",
"Flexors more than extensors in upper limb",
"Antigravity muscles are affected",
"Antigravity muscles are spared"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Antigravity muscles are spared The following clinical features characterize a UMN lesion: Increased tone (spasticitv) Initially, UMN weakness may be flaccid, with absent or diminished deep tendon reflexes. There is little understanding of the reasons behind this initial flaccidity and it is often referred to as 'shock'. Increased tone of a UMN type is called spasticity. It may develop several hours, days or even weeks after the initial lesion has occurred. Spasticity is manifested by : Spastic catch' : Mild spasticity may be detected as a resistance to passive movement or 'catch' in the pronators on passive supination of the forearm and in the flexors of the hand/forearm on extension of the wrist/elbow. The 'clasp-knife' phenomenon: In more severe lesions, following strong resistance to passive flexion of the knee or extension of the elbow, there is a sudden relaxation of the extensor muscles of the leg and flexor muscles in the arm. Clonus: Rhythmic involuntary muscular contractions follow an abruptly applied and sustained stretch stimulus, e.g. at the ankle following sudden passive dorsiflexion of the foot. `Pyramidal-pattern' weakness The antigravity muscles are preferentially spared and stronger The flexors of the upper limbs and the extensors of the lower limbs. The patient can develop a characteristic posture of flexed and pronated arms with clenched fingers, and extended and adducted legs with plantar flexion of the feet. In upper extremiteis Relative sparing of the flexors More involvement of the extensor In lower extremities Predominant invovlement of the flexors with Relative sparing of the extensor or Absence of muscle wasting and fasciculations Focal muscle wasting andjasciculations are features of an LMN lesion. With chronic disuse, some loss of muscle bulk can occur after a UMN lesion, but this is rarely severe or focal. Brisk tendon reflexes and extensor plantar responses The tendon reflexes are brisk. The cremasteric and abdominal or 'cutaneous' reflexes are depressed or absent. The plantar responses are extensor (upgoing toes' or 'positive' babinski sign). Anti-gravity muscles are typically spared in pyramidal tract lesions. Weakness, in pyramidal tract lesions is often termed as 'pyramidal' in distribution affecting extensors more than flexors in the upper limb, and flexors more than extensors in the lower limb (Anti-gravity muscles are spared). Pyramidal weakness - Loss of power most marked in the extensors muscles in the arms and flexors in the legs Proximal weakness - Shoulders, hips, trunks, neck and sometimes face. Associated with myopathy. Distal weakness - Affects hands and feets. Associated with peripheral motor neuropathy. Global weakness - Generalized weakness in limbs which may result from severe pathologies. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43668 | Which index of obesity does not include height? | [
"BMI",
"Ponderal's index",
"Broca's index",
"Corpulence index"
] | Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 418 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35996 | A defect in the enzyme hexosaminidase causes | [
"Gaucher disease",
"Farber disease",
"Tay-Sachs disease",
"Krabbe disease"
] | DiseaseEnzyme DeficiencyClinical SymptomsTay-Sachs disease Hexosaminidase AMental retardation, blindness, muscular weaknessRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 24 Metabolism of Acylglycerols & Sphingolipids | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18138 | Which of the following bacteria act by increasing CAMP- | [
"Which of the following bacteria act by increasing CAMP-",
"Staphyloccus aureus",
"E. coli, heat stable toxin",
"Salmonella"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vibrio cholerae . V. cholerae and heat labile toxin of E.coli cAMP . Heat stable toxin of E coli --> cGMP | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16447 | A vaccine which requires stringent condition for storage is | [
"DPT",
"OPV",
"BCG",
"TT"
] | (Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24thedition, pg no: 222) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20933 | Which of the following is used to detect mucosa in Meckel's diveiculum: March 2011 | [
"Technetium-99 scan",
"Barium meal",
"CT scan",
"MRI scan"
] | Ans. A: Technetium-99 scan Meckel's diveiculum can be very difficult to demonstrate by contrast radiology; small bowel enema would be the most accurate investigation Technetium-99m scanning may be useful in identifying Meckel's diveiculum as a source of gastrointestinal bleeding | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50264 | Sublethal damage to DNA is caused by: | [
"Deterministic effect",
"Stochastic effect",
"Both",
"None"
] | Comparison of Deterministic and Stochastic effects of radiation (Very important and conceptual topic): | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15084 | Most efficient larval control method to prevent transmission of urban malaria - | [
"Covering overhead tanks",
"Cleaning of drains",
"Filling of ditches and cesspools",
"Uprooting of plants"
] | Vector of malaria in urban areas breeds largely in man-made containers including overhead tanks and underground water storage tanks, water coolers, cisterns, roof gutters, flower vases, bottles, ornamental ponds.etc which can collect water control of urban malaria lies in the use of larvivorous fish and larvicides in waterbodies. The breeding habitat of Anopheles is clean water. In the given options Overhead tank is the only Anopheles breeding place and hence it should be the most effective method to prevent transmission. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 830. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22062 | A child with vesicoureteric reflex of grade 2 comes to OPD. What is the
preferred treatment method | [
"Antibiotics",
"Observation",
"Sting operation",
"Ureteric reimplantation"
] | Prophalyctatic antibiotics is given to all vesicoureteric reflex pts. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4850 | Enterokinase is an activator of: | [
"Trypsinogen",
"Trypsin",
"Chymotrypsin",
"Antitrypsin"
] | Ans. A TrypsinogenRef: Ganongy 25th ed. pg 479* Trypsinogen is converted to active enzyme trypsin by enterokinase when the pancreatic juice enters into the duodenum. Enterokinase contains 41% polysaccharide and this high polysaccharide content prevents the enterokinase from getting digested.* The trypsin, chymotrypsin and elastase act at interior peptide bonds in the peptide molecules and are called as endopeptidases. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29337 | Maximum dose of lignocaine with adrenaline (in mg/kg) - | [
"4",
"5",
"7",
"10"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7 mg/kg o Maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine- 300 mg (4[?]5 mg'kg).o Maximum safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine- 500 mg (7 mg.'kg). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51162 | Disrobing a women comes under | [
"354 D",
"354 A",
"354 B",
"354 C"
] | 354 A Sexual assault 354 B Disrobing a woman in a public place 354 C Voyeurism punishment 354 D Stalking punishment | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41561 | Best assessment of protein quality is done through: | [
"Net protein utilization",
"Protein biological value",
"Digestibility coefficient",
"Protein energy ratio"
] | Ref: Park s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 22nd edition. Page 588Explanation:Protein Energy Ratio (PER)It assesses the quantity of protein rather than quality.Its percentage of energy provided by protein in diet.PER = Energy from Protein/Total Energy in DietNet Protein Utilization (NPU)The best measure as it uses both biological value (PBV) and digestibility co-efficient (DC).It is measure of protein retained out of consumed.It is product of PBV and DC divided by 100.Protein requirement inversely proportional to NPU of protein.NPU of average Indian diet is assumed to be 65(50-80).NPU of common food items:o Egg - 100.o Pulses - 65o Meat-80o Milk-75.NPU = Digestibility coefficient x Biological value / 100Digestibility Co-efficient (DC)It is percentage of protein that is absorbed from consumed.DC = Protein absorbed/Proiein Consumed x 100Biological Value (BV)BV of protein is percentage of protein that is utilized by body out of absorbed.BV- Protein utilized/Protein absorbed x 100Protein efficiency ratio = Weight gain per unit protein consumed.Amino acid score = mg of amino acid per gram of protein = mg of same amino acid per g of egg protein. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41860 | An 8 year old child is brought to the emergency room with testicular torsion. The parents tell you that he ate sandwich 6 hours ago. Surgeon wants to operate immediately. Your response should be | [
"Wait for 2 more hours, deem it urgent, do rapid-sequence intubation",
"Take him to the OT, deem it emergent, do rapid-sequence intubation",
"He is adequately fasting, consider elective intubation",
"Wait for 2 hours, consider elective intubation"
] | Testicular torsion requires immediate investigation and possible surgery to preserve viable testis. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13291 | Nerve supply of Stapedius is | [
"2nd Cranial Nerve",
"3rd Cranial Nerve",
"5th Cranial Nerve",
"7th Cranial Nerve"
] | (D) 7th Cranial Nerve # The stapedius lies in a bony canal that is related to the posterior wall of the middle ear.> Stapedius is supplied by the facial nerve (VII CN).> It develops from the mesoderm of the second branchial arch.> The stapedius lies in a bony canal that is related to the posterior wall of the middle ear.> The stapedius is supplied by the facial nerve. It develops from the mesoderm of the second branchial arch.# BRANCHES OF THE FACIAL NERVE ARE:> Inside the internal acoustic meatus: Greater petrosal nerve - provides parasympathetic innervation to lacrimal gland, sphenoid sinus, frontal sinus, maxillary sinus, ethmoid sinus, nasal cavity, as well as special sensory taste fibers to the palate via the Vidian nerve. Nerve to stapedius - provides motor innervation for stapedius muscle in middle ear Chorda tympani - innervation to submandibular gland and sublingual gland and special sensory taste fibers for the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. Branch to the tympanic plexus> Outside skull (distal to stylomastoid foramen): Posterior auricular nerve - controls movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear Branch to Posterior belly of Digastric and Stylohyoid muscle# Five major facial branches (in parotid gland) - from top to bottom:1. Temporal (frontal) branch of the facial nerve; 2. Zygomatic branch of the facial nerve; 3. Buccal branch of the facial nerve; 4. Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve; 5. Cervical branch of the facial nerve | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8421 | Kaplan Meier method is used for: | [
"Prevalance",
"Survival",
"Frequency",
"Incidence"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Survival The Kaplan-Meier estimator (also known as the product limit estimator) estimates the survival function from lifetime data. In medical research, it is used to measure the fraction of patients living for a certain amount of time after treatment. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42525 | Drugs which cause both physical and psychological dependence are ? | [
"Opioids",
"Alcohol",
"Nicotine",
"All the above"
] | Ans. is'd' i.e., All the above [Ref Niraj Ahuja 6'h/e p. 37; Essential of clinical psychiatry 4'h/e p. 247) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28753 | The most common location of ventricular septal defect is- | [
"Perimembranous",
"Muscular",
"Doubly-committed subaenal",
"None"
] | The VSD is usually single and situated in the membranous or midmuscular poion of the septum. ( Harrison&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no. 1923) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17535 | Di collar or grease collar is seen in: NEET 13 | [
"Punctured wound by sharp weapon",
"Lacerated wound",
"Firearm entry wound",
"Stab wound"
] | Ans. Firearm entry wound | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36751 | All belong to the hematological manifestations used for the diagnostic criteria of SLE, EXCEPT: | [
"Leukopenia (<4000/L)",
"Lymphopenia (<1500/L)",
"Thrombocytopenia(<100,000/L)",
"Neutropenia (< 1500/L)"
] | Hematologic disorder used as the Diagnostic Criteria for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Hemolytic anemia Leukopenia (<4000/L) Lymphopenia (<1500/L) Thrombocytopenia(<100,000/L) in the absence of offending drugs Neutropenia is not being mentioned in the diagnostic criteria Table 319-3 Diagnostic Criteria for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Malar rash Fixed erythema, flat or raised, over the malar eminences Discoid rash Erythematous circular raised patches with adherent keratotic scaling and follicular plugging; atrophic scarring may occur Photosensitivity Exposure to ultraviolet light causes rash Oral ulcers Includes oral and nasopharyngeal ulcers, observed by physician Ahritis Nonerosive ahritis of two or more peripheral joints, with tenderness, swelling, or effusion Serositis Pleuritis or pericarditis documented by ECG or rub or evidence of effusion Renal disorder Proteinuria >0.5 g/d or 3+, or casts Neurologic disorder Seizures or psychosis without other causes Hematologic disorder Hemolytic anemia or leukopenia (<4000/L) or lymphopenia (<1500/L) or thrombocytopenia(<100,000/L) in the absence of offending drugs Immunologic disorder Anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm, and/or anti-phospholipid Antinuclear antibodies An abnormal titer of ANA by immunofluorescence or an equivalent assay at any point in time in the absence of drugs known to induce ANAs At least 4 of the above is needed to diagnose SLE. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2733. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13269 | An old man has enlarged prostate. Which of the following may be use to suppress his prostatic growth: | [
"Spironolactone",
"Ketoconazole",
"Finasteride",
"Flutamide"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37294 | 'Dennie Morgan' folds are seen in? | [
"Dermatitis herpetiformis",
"Erytrhema multiformie",
"Measles",
"Atopic dermatitis"
] | Ans. D. Atopic dermatitis (Ref. IADVL 2nd/433, 416-427; Rook's 7th/18.1 - 18.30)Dennie Morgan fold is a single or double fold in the lower eyelid, may be due to eyelid edema caused by eyelid dermatitis. It is seen as associated feature in atopic dermatitis.Atopic dermatitis# Is an eczema characterized by intense itching and relapsing course in infants and children with a personal or family h/o atopic disorders.# Coexists with asthma or rhinitis in 80% cases.# 70% of patients have family h/o atopy.# Genetically transmitted# Immunological dysfunction and 80% have raised total IgE.# Itching is the basic symptom.1Infantile phase# Upto 2 yrs.# Appears usually at or after 3 months of age.# Initial lesions are illdefined erythematous patches on the cheeks.# Later spread to scalp, upper trunk and extensor aspect of lower limbs.2Childhood phase# Flexural involvement is characteristic (antecubital and popliteal fossa)# Presence of extensor involvement denotes poor prognosis.3Adolescent phase# Lichenification is main feature# Involvement of face, neck, flexures and upper trunk is characteristic.# Excoriation due to scratching are important manifestation.Perioral pallor, pallor at nose and ears (Head light sign) and dermographism are characteristic of atopic dermatitis.Associated features:# Xerosis,# Ichthyosis# P.alba,# Dennie-Morgan fold0# Periorbital darkening# Cataract# Keratoconus# Lipstick cheilitis# Hand and foot eczema Management:1 First line therapy# Emollients# Topical steroids# Topical antiinfectives# Antihistaminics2 Second line therapy# Systemic steroids# Immunomodulators (azathioprine, cyclosporine, interferons, tacrolimus)# PhototherapyAdditional Educational points:Iris or target lesions= Erythema multiformieBulla spread sign and Nikolsky's sign= Pemphigus vulgaris.Auspitz sign= Plaque Psoriasis.Darrier's sign= Urticaria pigmentosa.White dermographism= Atopic dermatitis.Dimple sign= Dermatofibroma. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6039 | CSF rhinorrhea is most commonly seen in fracture of: | [
"Cribriform plate",
"Temporal bone",
"Nasal bone",
"Occipital bone"
] | CSF rhinorrhea occurs when there is a communication between the intracranial (intradural) and nasal cavities. CSF, rhinorrhea indicates a basal tear of dura mater along with a fracture involving the paranasal sinuses, frontal, ethmoid, or sphenoid bone. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone separates the anterior cranial fossa from the nasal cavity and is the most common site of fracture in CSF rhinorrhea because it is extremely thin. The cerebrospinal fluid has high glucose content, makes a dry hanky stiff, and if mixed with blood it classically produces a halo effect on the white bed clothes. Patients of CSF rhinorrhea are at increased risk of meningitis particularly pneumococcal. Patient should be given prophylactic antibiotic (penicillin) followed by X-ray. Fractures of the middle 1/3rd of the face should be reduced and most of the times CSF rhinorrhea stops. Indications for anterior fossa explorations are persistence of CSF rhinorrhea for> 10 days; presence of a fracture involving the frontal or ethmoidal sinus; aerocele; an attack of meningitis that has been treated. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26485 | In ICD-10 how many volumes are there: | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, 10th revision on January 1, 1993).
ICD does uniform classification of diseases which can be used throughout the world to make accurate comparisons of morbidity and mortality data for decision making in prevention, facilitation and management of health care system.
ICD-10 consists of 3 volumes:
Volume-I: contains reports of the international conference of 10th revision, classification of morphology of neoplasms, special tabulation list for mortality and morbidity, definition and nomenclature regulation.
Volume-II: Instruction manual
Volume- III: Alphabetical Index
NOTE: there are 21 major chapters in ICD-10 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38435 | Rope mistaken for a snake, is an example of | [
"Illusion",
"Perception",
"hallucination",
"Synaesthesia"
] | * ILLUSION= altered perception of a real object * Mistaking a rope for a snake there are some specific type of illusions PAREIDOLIC ILLUSION==vague stimulus (like clouds) are perceived as something known to the patient (image of a dog) Ref. kaplon and sadock synopsis of psychiatry | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45070 | A 23 year old male patient complains that his face appears too long. Extra-oral examination reveals a retrognathic mandible, steep mandibular plane angle and a prominent antegonial notch. Which of the following statements regarding this patient's condition is false? | [
"Growth of mandible is more posteriorly",
"Growth of mandible is more anteriorly",
"Rotation is backward",
"Rotation can be given a positive sign"
] | By convention, the rotation of either jaw is considered "forward" and given a negative sign if there is more growth posteriorly than anteriorly. The rotation is "backward" and given a positive direction if it lengthens, anterior dimensions more than posterior ones, bringing the chin downward and backward.
Contemporary orthodontics, William Proffit, 4th edition page 116 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1166 | The amniotic membrane is characterized by all the following Except | [
"Provides maximum tensile strength",
"Highly vascular",
"It developed after 2-7 days of gestation",
"Derived from Foetal ectoderm"
] | AMNIONAt term, amnion is tough and tenacious.It provides almost all of the tensile strength of the fetal membranes.It is avascular and pliable.It is the innermost fetal membrane and is contiguous with the amniotic fluid. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7058 | Max risk of stroke after TIA: | [
"First 48 hours",
"First week",
"First month",
"First year"
] | Ans. a. First 48 hoursTransient ischemic attack (TIA) is sudden, transitory loss of neurologic function that comes on without headache and resolves spontaneously within 24 hours (but usually lasts less than 1 hour), leaving no neurologic sequelae.The specific symptoms depend on the area of the brain affected, which is in turn related to the vessels involved. The most common origin is high-grade stenosis (>=70%) of the internal carotid, or ulcerated plaque at the carotid bifurcation.Stroke may be indistinguishable from a TIA at the time of presentation: Duration of symptoms is the determining difference.Symptoms are transient with a TIA because reperfusion occurs, either because of collateral circulation or because of the breaking up of an embolus.The blockage in blood flow does not last long enough to cause permanent infarction.Once a patient has a TIA, there is a high risk of stroke in 10-15% in the first 3 months, with most events occurring in the first 2 days. The risk of a stroke in a patient with a history of TIA is about 10% per year. TIAs carry a 30% 5-year risk of stroke. Therefore, cardiac risk factors should be closely investigated and, if possible, eliminated in a patient who has had a TIA.Cases may present only with transient loss of vision in one eye, known as amaurosis fugax. This happens during a transient ischemic attack because the first branch of the internal carotid artery is the ophthalmic artery.Note:TIAs are never due to hemorrhage; hemorrhages do not resolve in 24 hours.The importance of TIAs is that they are predictors of stroke, and timely elective carotid endarterectomy may prevent or minimize that possibility.Workup starts with.noninvasive Duplex studies.Carotid endarterectomy is indicated if the lesions are found in the location that explains the neurologic symptoms.Angioplasty and stent can be performed in high risk surgical patients | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35223 | which pa of the brain isstimulated in vagal nerve stimulation | [
"hippocampus",
"amygdala",
"water shed areas of brain",
"locus cereleus"
] | Vagus nerve stimulation * Electrical stimulation of left vagus nerve * Stimulation of raphe nucleus and locus cereleus * Release of norepinephrine and serotonin * Side effects * Voice alteration ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th editio, pg no, 1065 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15660 | The OHI-S index developed by Greene and Vermillion is
used to measure | [
"Dental caries",
"Gingivitis",
"Oral debris and calculus",
"Periodontal disease"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32874 | Functional impression technique can be applied in: | [
"Uniformly firm ridge consistency",
"All variety of residual ridges",
"Knife edge ridge",
"Displaceable alveolar ridge"
] | Functional impression using tissue conditioners is a closed mouth, patient-driven impression technique, indicated for well-formed and firm ridges in patients with good dexterity and neuromuscular control. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11479 | Oroantral fistula is caused by all the following except: | [
"Dental extraction",
"Carcinoma of maxilla",
"Caldwell luc operation",
"Maxillectomy"
] | Oroantral fistula - there is a fistula between oral cavity and maxillary antrum. Causes 1. Dental procedure (extraction)2. Malignancy (because it can lead to perforation)3. Caldwell luc's operation In case of maxillectomy we remove maxilla antrum ,so the fistula will not be there. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44002 | All the following wastewater contains human excreta EXCEPT | [
"Sewage",
"Sullage",
"Faeces",
"None"
] | Ans. b (Sullage). (Ref. Park, PSM, 22th/pg. 707)SULLAGEThe term "Sullage" is applied to waste water which does not contain human excreta. E.g. waste water from kitchen and bathrooms.SEWAGESewage is wastewater from community containing solid and liquid excreta, derived from houses, streets and yards, washing, factories and industries. It resembles dirt water with unpleasant smell. # The average amount of sewage, which flows through sewage system in 24 hours, is called "dry weather flow". # Composition of sewage is 99.9% water.# Strength of sewage is expressed in terms of BOD, COE, suspended solids.Also remember:# Average adult person excretes daily some 100 gm of faeces.# It is estimated that 1 gram of faeces may contain about 1,000 million of E. coli, 10-100 million of faecal streptococci, and 1-10 million spores of Cl. Perfringens besides several others. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26612 | A 20-year-old male suffered a trauma to the right leg while playing football. He did not seek doctor's advice initially. The affected area soon turned painful, red and tender. He also complained that from a few days he now has to drag the affected foot and there was loss of eversion on examination. X ray of the affected pa was done. Which of the following muscles is most likely affected: - | [
"Muscle B",
"Muscle C",
"Muscle D",
"Muscle A"
] | This is a case of fracture of the neck of fibula. So, the nerve involved is common peroneal nerve. Muscles supplied by common peroneal nerve: The anterior compament of the leg muscles is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (L4-L5) and supplied blood the anterior tibial aery. Tibialis anterior Extensor hallucis longus Extensor digitorum longus Peroneus teius The lateral compament of the leg muscles is; peroneal longus and brevis. The common function of the peroneal muscles is eversion. Both muscles are innervated by the superficial fibular nerve. Peroneus longus Peroneus brevis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12906 | Split skin grafts in young children should be harvested from: March 2013 | [
"Buttcoks",
"Thigh",
"Trunk",
"Upper limb"
] | Ans. B i.e. Thigh Skin grafts Paial thickness skin grafts/ Theirsch graft: Consist of epidermis & variable thickness of dermis Full thickness/ Wolfes graft: Consists of epidermis & all of the dermis Composite grafts: Consist of skin & some underlying tissue (fat, cailage etc.) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24396 | A 35 yr old woman presents with swelling of the small joints of the hands. On examination, swan neck deformity is present. Labs show elevated RA factor levels and high anti-CCP levels. She diagnosed with rheumatoid ahritis and staed on steroids for a sho duration. What is the mechanism by which steroids reduce inflammation? | [
"Inhibition of phospholipase A2",
"Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase",
"| activity of lipoprotein lipase",
"Inhibition of lipogenase"
] | Steroids reduce inflammation by: Inhibiting phopholipase A2, the precursor of arachdonic acid. Arachidonic acid is the precursor for prostagladins and leukotrienes, which inhibits phospholipase A2. Inhibit the production of interleukin-2 (IL-2) and proliferation A2. Inhibit the release of histamine and serotonin from mast cells and platelets. Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 975 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41828 | Regarding shick's test which of the following is false- | [
"Erythematous reaction in both arm indicate hypersenstivity",
"Positive test means that person is immune to diphtheria",
"Diphtheria antitoxin is given intradermally",
"Test done to find out immune status against diphtheria"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9708 | Methotrexate is used for the management of all of these conditions except | [
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Psoriasis",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Organ transplantation"
] | Methotrexate is used for the management of: | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37325 | Multi drug resistant T.B is defined as resistance to | [
"INH and pyrizinamide",
"INH and Rifampicin",
"Rifampicin and Pyrizinamide",
"Resistance to all first line of drugs"
] | multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB)--a form of the disease caused by bacilli resistant at least to isoniazid and rifampin--occurred in 2013. Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1103 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37640 | An 8-year-old child presented with a history of respiratory distress, altered sensorium & not passing urine for the last 15 hours. What is the procedure shown below that can be done as a part of emergency management of this child? | [
"Hemodialysis",
"Peritoneal dialysis",
"Kidney biopsy",
"Hydration therapy"
] | Ans. b. Peritoneal dialysisThis child presented with a history suggestive of acute kidney injury; The given picture shows a stiff catheter inserted into the abdomen for peritoneal dialysis; | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25887 | Whipple's disease is characterized by? | [
"Foamy macrophages",
"AFB positive",
"Papillary projections",
"Villous atrophy"
] | Whipple's Disease (Intestinal Lipodystrophy) This is an uncommon bacterial disease involving not only the intestines but also various other systems such as central nervous system, hea, blood vessels, skin, joints, lungs, liver, spleen and kidneys. The disease is more common in males in 4th to 5th decades of life. Patients may present with features of malabsorption or may have atypical presentation in the form of migratory polyahritis, neurological disturbances and focal hyperpigmentation of the skin. Histologically, the affected tissues show presence of characteristic macrophages containing PAS-positive granules and rod-shaped micro-organisms (Whipple's bacilli). These macrophages are predominantly present in the lamina propria of the small intestine and mesenteric lymph nodes. Patients respond very well to oral antibiotic therapy. TEXT BOOK OF HARSH MOHAN SIXTH EDITION PAGE 576 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18173 | True about personality disorder: | [
"It arises during childhood",
"It matures during adulthood",
"Suspiciousness is seen in paranoid personality disorder.",
"All"
] | A. i.e. It arises during childhood; B. i.e. It matures during adult; C i.e. Suspiciousness is seen in paranoid personality disorder | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13607 | After an accident a teenager developed a different breathing pattern. After neurological evaluation, transection at mid pons level is diagnosed. This lesion will result in: | [
"Asphyxia",
"Hyperventilation",
"Rapid and shallow breathing",
"Apneusis"
] | If the brainstem is transected in the midpons, a breathing pattern called apneusis results if the vagus nerves have also been transected. Apneustic breathing consists of prolonged inspiratory effos interrupted by occasional expirations. Apneusis is probably caused by a sustained discharge of medullary inspiratory neurons. Ref: Levitzky M.G. (2007). Chapter 9. The Control of Breathing. In M.G. Levitzky (Ed), Pulmonary Physiology, 7e. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46343 | All of the following are features of poliomyelitis except- | [
"Acute onset",
"Progressive course",
"Intact sensation",
"Febrile onset"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Progressive course | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14530 | Which is not a feature of lungs in salt water drowning | [
"Ballooned and heavy lungs",
"Tend to flatten out on removing",
"Crepitus is heard on sectioning",
"Shape of sectioned poion is not retained"
] | Lungs in salt water drowning : Ballooned and heavy lungs Weighs upto 2 kg Purplish or bluish in colour Sodden and jelly like in consistency Tend to flatten out on removing Crepitus is not heard on sectioning Shape of sectioned poion is not retained In fresh water drowning : Size and weight: Ballooned, but light Color: Pinkish Consistency: Emphysematous Shape after removal from body: Retained, do not collapse On cut section: Crepitus is heard, little froth and no fluid | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13597 | Involucrum means - | [
"Dead bone",
"New living bone",
"Previous living bone",
"None of the above"
] | In osteomyelitis:-
Sequestrum → The Dead piece of bone.
Involucrum Reactive woven or lamellar bone around sequestrum. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14535 | Which of the following is a primary ketone body that is formed from leucine, lysine, phenylalanine and tyrosine? | [
"Acetoacetate",
"Acetone",
"Beta hydroxy butyrate",
"All of the above"
] | Acetoacetate is a primary ketone body. Beta hydroxy butyrate and acetone are secondary ketone bodies. Acetoacetate can be formed from acetyl CoA, it can also be formed by the degradation of carbon skeleton of ketogenic amino acids like leucine, lysine, phenylalanine and tyrosine. Acetone is formed by the degradation of carbon skeleton of acetoacetate. Beta hydroxy butyrate is formed by the reduction of acetoacetate Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Page 131 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18134 | Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction due to - | [
"Irreversible pulmonary vasocontriction hypoxia",
"Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia",
"Direct blood to poorly ventilated areas",
"Occurs hours after pulmonary vasoconstriction"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxiaPulmonary hypoxic vasoconstrictiono Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) is an adaptive vasomotor response to alveolar hypoxia which redistributes blood to optimally ventilated lung segments by an active process of vasoconstriction, particularly involving the small muscular resistance pulmonary arteries (PA).o HPV is intrinsic to the lung and the mechanism involves redox based O2 sensor.o Alveolar hypoxia triggers the pulmonary vessels to constrict.# Alveolar hypoxia triggers the pulmonary vessels to constrict, directing blood away from poorly/nonventilated areas to better ventilated segments thereby improving ventilation/perfusion matching.o Clinically HPV is proportional to the degree of local hypoxia and is triggered primarily in response to an alveolar oxygen partial pressure (PAO2 less than 100 mmHg.o HPV onsets within seconds of moderate hypoxia and reverses quickly on restoration of normoxic ventilation.o HPV shunts bloodfrom poorly oxygenated areas to better ventilated lung segments, thereby optimizing ventilation perfusion matching, reducing shunt fraction and optimizing O2 delivery in conditions such as atelactasis and pneumonia.The onset of HPV occurs in two phase:-# Initial rapid onset phase (minutes)# Delayed phase (hours) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24016 | What is the cut off for anaemia in adult male as per WHO? | [
"13 g/ dl",
"12g/dl",
"11g/dl",
"10g/dl"
] | Hemoglobin in g/dl Adult male 13 Adult female 12 Adult female, pregnant 11 Children 6 month to 6 years 11 Children 6 to 14 years 12 Ref: Park 21st edition, page 575. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34443 | . Which of the following is not true about ineization? | [
"Relatively inexpensiv",
"It is done for pharmaceutical waste",
"It involves mixing the waste with cement before disposal",
"It causes water pollution"
] | Ans. d. It causes water pollution The process of `ineization' involves mixing waste with cement and other substances before disposal, in order to minimize the risk of toxic substances contained in the wastes migrating into the surface water or ground water. It doesn't cause water pollution. Ineization The process of `ineization' involves mixing waste with cement and other substances before disposal, in order to minimize the risk of toxic substances contained in the wastes migrating into the surface water or ground water. A typical propoion of the mixture is: 65 per cent pharmaceutical waste, 15 per cent lime, 15 per cent cement and 5 per cent water. A homogeneous mass is formed and cubes or pellets are produced on site and then transpoed to suitable storage sites Advantage Disadvantage Relatively inexpensive Not applicable to infectious waste | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25090 | Vanilloid receptors are activated by | [
"Pain",
"Vibration",
"Touch",
"Pressure"
] | Vanilloid receptors are VR 1 and VRL 1 for painful temperature. | A | null |
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