dataset
string
id
string
question
string
choices
list
rationale
string
answer
string
subject
string
medmcqa
medmcqa_18283
Sternum attached to scapula (FMGE Dec 2018)
[ "Manubrium", "Clavicle", "First rib", "Second rib" ]
By forming sternoclavicular joint & Acromioclavicular joint, clavicle connects sternum (Axial skeleton) to scapula (Appendicular skeleton). Clavicle transmits the weight / force of appendicular skeleton to axial skeleton. acromioclavicular ligament is impoant in this. That's why clavicle is most commonly fractured bone...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51524
Gag gene encodes for -
[ "Reverse transcriptase", "Core antigen", "Envelope", "Gene activation" ]
The Gag gene determines the core and shell of the virus.. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-571
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_17981
A study of women with breast carcinoma is done to determine the presence and amount of estrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) in the carcinoma cells. Large amounts of ER and PR are found in the carcinoma cells of some patients. These receptors are not present in the cells of other patients. The patients ...
[ "Greater immunogenicity", "Greater likelihood of metastases", "Greater risk of familial breast cancer", "Higher response to therapy" ]
The estrogen receptor and progesterone receptor (ER and PR) status help predict whether chemotherapy with antiestrogen compounds such as tamoxifen would be effective; however, the correlation is not perfect. ER and PR do not affect the immunogenicity and are not targets for immunotherapy. In contrast, immunotherapy tar...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_50273
Which of the following nucleus controls the circadian rhythm?
[ "Supraoptic nucleus", "Paraventricular nucleus", "Suprachiasmatic nucleus", "Premamillary nucleus" ]
Hypothalamic control of circadian rhythm: A large number of physiologic rhythms ( body temperature, sleep-wakefulness, coisol secretion among a host of others ) in the body run to a cyclic pattern that is approximately 25 hours long. These rhythms are entrained to 24 hours due to environmental signals such as light and...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47411
Zinc phosphide is –
[ "Rodenticide", "Insecticide", "Larvicide", "All" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9936
Outward displacement of fractured hyoid bone is seen in: UP 10
[ "Manual strangulation", "Ligature strangulation", "Hanging", "Bansdola" ]
Ans. Hanging
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37653
A patient presented with thunder clap headache. Followed by unconsciousness with progressive 3rd cranial nerve palsy
[ "Extradual hemorrhage", "Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage", "Basilar migraine", "Cluster Headache" ]
Harrison's textbook of internal medicine 17th edition . *Sudden transient loss of consciousness may be preceded by brief moment of excruciating head ache ,but most patient first complain of head ache on regain the consciousness . *3rd cranial nerve palsy , associate with pupillary dilatation,loss of ipsilateral light r...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_2366
Which is risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma
[ "Obesity", "Primary sclerosing cholangitis", "Salmonella carrier state", "HBV infection" ]
Risk factors include primary sclerosing cholangitis Congenital fibropolycystic disease of biliary tree Infestation by Clonorchis sinensis or Opisthorchis viverrini HCV infection Exposure to Thorotrast TEXT BOOK OF ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.643
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_38879
Which is the prognostic scoring system for head injury in children?
[ "CCS", "AUDIT", "Injury severity score", "Pediatric Trauma Score" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CCS * Scoring scales such as the Abbreviated Injury Scale (AIS), Injury Severity Score (ISS), Pediatric Trauma Score and Revised Trauma Score are used to predict mortality as well as morbidity in patients sustaining trauma in general.* They use physiological parameters to predict patient outcome.* CCS...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32669
All are false regarding polio virus except:
[ "Most cases are symptomatic", "Inactivated vaccine given IM", "Inactivated polio vaccines are given to child less than 3 years of age", "Only one type exists" ]
Ans. (b) Inactivated vaccine is given IM Inactivated poliovaccine or IPV (salk type) is given subcutaneously or IM. Other options Option L. Most cases of polio are asymptomatic Option c Dose schedule of IPV: First dose when infant is 6 weeks old Additional doses are recommended prior to school entry and then every five...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46674
MC cause of secondary amenorrhoea is: March 2004
[ "Pregnancy", "TB", "Thyrotoxicosis", "None of the above" ]
Ans. A i.e. Pregnancy
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46257
Duroziez’s sign is seen in?
[ "Aortic Regurgitation", "Aortic Stenosis", "Mitral Stenosis", "Mitral Regurgitation" ]
Duroziezs sign is seen in severe aortic regurgitation, gradual pressure over the femoral artery leads to a systolic and diastolic bruit. The systolic murmur is heard best when the proximal femoral artery is compressed and the diastolic when the distal femoral artery is compressed.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_19318
Drug of choice for prophylaxis of TB is?(DNB 2012-section-1)
[ "Rifampicin", "Isoniazid", "Pyrizinamide", "Streptomycin" ]
Ans. (b) IsoniazidRef .KDT 6/e / 740-743
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45619
True about burns -
[ "Hyperglycemia is seen in early burns", "Child with burns should have damp dressing", "Chemical powder burns should be kept dry", "3rd degree burns are painfull" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hyperglycemia is seen in early burns
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_48823
Pleural pressure at the end of respiration is ?
[ "Zero", "More negative", "Positive", "Less negative" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., More negativeDuring quiet breathing, the intrapleural pressure fluctuates between -3 and -6 mm Hg, depending upon the phase of respiration, more negative at the end of inspiration and less negative during expiration.Intrapleural pressure (Pleural pressure)It is the pressure between two pleural surface...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10157
Neurotransmitter employed by rods and cones is
[ "Dopamine", "Serotonin", "Glutamate", "Nitric oxide" ]
null
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16180
CYP 3A4 enzymes are affected by: a) Fexofenadine b) Phenytoin c) Carbamazepine d) Azithromycin e) Penicillin
[ "ab", "bc", "ad", "bd" ]
CYP3A4 cary out biotransformation of large number of drugs. The inhibition of this isoenzyme by erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole etc. is responsible for important drug interactions with terfenadine, astemizole and cisapride. Rifampicin, barbiturates and other anticonvulsants are important induce...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53810
A 30-year-old female presents with a palpable mass in her left breast that has been steadily increasing in size over the past year. On examination it is well-circumscribed and freely mobile and appears to be around 5.7 cm in its greatest dimension. A core needle biopsy is performed and shows the following. What is the ...
[ "Fibroadenoma", "DCIS", "Intraductal papilloma", "Giant fibroadenoma" ]
Fibroadenomas are benign solid tumours composed of stromal and epithelial elements. After carcinoma, fibroadenoma is the second most common tumour in the breast and is the most common tumour in women younger than 30 years. Clinically, they are firm tumours that may increase in size over a period of several months. They...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8504
Which of the following exclusively involve neurons:
[ "Spinocerebellar ataxia", "Supranuclear palsy", "Corticobasilar degeneration", "Multiple system atrophy" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Spinocerebellar ataxia
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_6959
Which drug is not used for acute bronchial asthma ?
[ "Salmeterol", "Formeterol", "Salbutamol", "Coicosteroids" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Salmeterol Bambuterol is a prodrug of terbutaline. It is slowly hydrolysed by pseudocholineterase. Sho acting 132-agonists produce bronchodilatation within 5 min and action lasts for 2-6 hrs --> are used to abo and terminate acute asthma, but are not suitable for prophylaxis. Salmeterol is delayed act...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41487
Following are the drugs used in alcohol dependence to prevent relapse except -
[ "Fluoxetine", "Nalmefene", "Acamprosate", "Topiramate" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fluoxetine
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24319
Most sensitive test for screening of " SLE" is
[ "LE phenomenon", "Rheumatoid ahritis", "Anti_nuclear factor", "Double stranded DNA test" ]
Ref Robbins 9/e p219, 8/e p214 ,7/e p228 Spectrum of Autoantibodies in SLE Antibodies have been identified against a host of nuclear and cytoplasmic components of the cell that are specific to neither organs nor species. Another group of antibodies is directed against surface antigens of blood cells, while yet another ...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40191
Which of the following drugs are believed to be effective in the treatment of post operative shivering?
[ "Ondansetron", "Diclofenac sodium", "Pethidine", "Paracetamol" ]
Ans. (C) Pethidine(Ref: Anesthesiology by Longnecker/1485; KDT 8th/e p503)Pethidine is most effective drug for treatment of post-operative shivering. Other drugs that can be used for this purpose are clonidine, doxapram, ketanserin and alfentanil.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43173
All of the following show compression osteosynthesis except:
[ "Dynamic compression plates.", "Champys mini plates.", "Eccentric compression plates.", "Lag screw." ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47800
Pansystolic murmur is present in all of the following cardiac conditions, EXCEPT:
[ "MR", "MS", "VSD", "TR" ]
Pansystolic murmurs are audible throughout systole from the first to second hea sounds. It is caused by regurgitation through incompetent atrioventricular valves and by ventricular septal defects. Murmur of mitral regurgitation is loudest at the cardiac apex and it radiates to the left axilla. Murmur of tricuspid regur...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_50538
Primary and secondary case are used to define?
[ "Generation time", "Serial interval", "Secondary attack rate", "None" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Serial interval
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40851
A 50 years old man is admitted to the hospital with acute myocardial infarction. After 12 hours he becomes hypotensive and oliguric. He is lying comfoably on his back, B.P. is 90/60 mmHg, hea rate is 60 BPM and JVP is 15 cm H2O. The hea sounds are regular without gallop, murmur or rub and the lungs are clear on auscult...
[ "Intravenous Furosemide", "Intravenous Fluids", "Digoxin & Dopamine", "Norepinephrine and Intraaoic Balloon Pump" ]
This patient probably has an inferior wall myocardial infarction complicated by right ventricular involvement. The Cardiac output is probably depressed because of low left hea filling pressure secondary to right ventricular infarction. The initial treatment should be to administer fluids intravenously.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31396
Which of the following is related to third part of duodenum -
[ "Portal vein", "Head of pancreas", "Hepatic artery", "Superior mesenteric vein" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_21261
A child presents with complaints of oliguria, abdominal distension and diarrhoea. On examination there is deep jaundice. Hepatomegaly was present measuring 4 cm below the costal margin. Conjugated bilirubin in blood was 38 mg/dL, and there was urine urobilinogen and bile pigments. Hemoglobin was 4mg/dL and serum creati...
[ "G-6-PD level in blood", "Serum ceruloplasmin", "Reticulocyte count", "Leptospiral antibody level" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Serum ceruloplasmin level o Serum ceruloplasmin measurement is useful in the diagnosis of Wilson's disease, but Wilson's disease in the above patient can easily be ruled out because in Wilson's disease there is no renal involvement, where as the patient in question is having renal involvement (Serum C...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_35487
Sleep pattern in > 50 years all EXCEPT
[ "High REM", "Low latency of REM", "Less duration of sleep", "Experience earlier wake times" ]
(A) High REM # SLEEP PATTERN WITH AGE: Changes in sleep with age. NOTE: Time (in minutes) for sleep latency, amount of time spent awake after initially falling asleep (WASO), rapid eye movement (REM), non-rapid eye movement (NREM), stages 1, 2, and slow-wave sleep (SWS).> Sleep patterns change as people age.> As shown ...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_18191
Perceptual misinterpretation of a real object is known as:
[ "Illusion", "Delusion", "Hallucination", "Schizophrenia" ]
Illusion refers to a false interpretation of a sensory stimulus. Illusion can occur in delirium, which might be visual, auditory, gustatory, tactile, kinesthetic or visceral. Illusions may also occur in hysteria, depression, and schizophrenia. Hallucination is a false perception that occurs in the waking state in the a...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_7906
A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with di associated with repetitive hand washing. She repos these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the follow...
[ "Exposure and response prevention.", "Systematic desensitization.", "Asseiveness training.", "Sensate focusing." ]
A i.e. Exposure and Response preventionSystematic desensitization is behaviour therapy of choice for specific and social phobiasQ whereas exposure and response prevention is behaviour therapy of choice for obscessive- compulsive disorderQBehavior Therapy (BT)It is a sho duration (6-8 week) therapy based on theories of ...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_7196
In a case of hypersplenism all are true, EXCEPT
[ "Cytopenia", "Hyperplastic bone marrow", "Normal bone marrow", "Splenomegaly absent" ]
(D) Splenomegaly absent # Hypersplenism: The complete blood count may reveal cytopenia of one or more blood cell types, which should suggest hypersplenism.> This condition is characterized by splenomegaly, cytopenia(s), normal or hyperplastic bone marrow & a response to splenectomy.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31342
A 30-year-old G3P2 woman delivered a term baby and staed bleeding after delivery. She was given in fluids but bleeding did not stop. The EMO advised blood transfusion. After how many blood trans! fusions should be given FFP:
[ "1", "2", "3", "4" ]
The most impoant initial resuscitating step of PPH is fluid management Till blood is not available this is done using colloids and crystalloids which replaces the fluid but worsens the existing coagulopathy Blood transfusion should be followed by fresh frozen plasma and platelets This is done after 4 units of blood tra...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15028
The biochemistry of cataract formation is –a) Hydration intumescenceb) Denaturation of lens proteinsc) Slow sclerosisd) All of the above
[ "ac", "ab", "ad", "bc" ]
Marked hydration of lens and coagulation & denaturation of lens proteins are seen in cortical senile cataract. There is intensification of nuclear sclerosis (not slow sclerosis).
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5321
Bilateral germ cell tumour is .
[ "Dysgerminoma", "Immature teratoma", "Embryonal cell carcinoma", "Endodermal sinus tumour" ]
Ans. is c i.e. Embryonal cell carcinoma Friends, this is one of those type of questions where we will derive a correct answer by ruling out other options. Let see, Option 'a' : Dysgerminoma "They are bilateral in about 10% of cases". Option 'b' : Immature teratoma "In a premenopausal patient whose lesion appears to be ...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9046
Which of the following type of pancreatitis is associated with better prognosis ?
[ "Alcoholic pancreatitis", "Gall stone pancreatitis", "Post operative pancreatitis", "Idiopathic pancreatitis" ]
Pancreatitis caused by a remediable cause such as cholilithiasis is associated with best prognosis. Eradication of gallsones can prevent fuher attacks of pancreatitis. Gall stone pancreatitis accounts for about 90% of cases of acute pancreatitis. Women are more affected than men. In this, gallstone is typically located...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46358
'Chancre redux' is a clinical feature of:
[ "Early relapsing syphilis", "Late syphilis", "Chancroid", "Recurrent herpes simplex infection" ]
Chancre redux : Recurrence of the primary sore at its original site during the first two years of the disease (Relapsing stage of syphilis). Pseudochancre redux : Gummatous (teiary stage) recurrence at the site of the primary chancre.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_21594
All are true about hyperparathyroidism except?
[ "Solitary adenoma", "Malignant", "Thyroid malignancy", "Parathyroid hyperplasia" ]
Hyperparathyroidism is usually due to a solitary adenoma. It can also be due to MEN Type 1 which accounts for about 90% of parathyroid cancers, which do not include thyroid malignancies in the group of the multiple endocrine neoplasms. Parathyroid hyperplasia can also lead to hyperparathyroidism.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_50463
Features of multiple myeloma are
[ "B cell monoclonal proliferation", "B cell in bone marrow", "B cell in peripheral blood", "Plasma cell secretes immunoglobulin" ]
Multiple myeloma is a malignant proliferation of plasma cells. Normal plasma cells are derived from B cells & prodece immunoglobulins which contain heavy & light chains. Normal immunoglobulins are polyclonal,which means that a variety of heavy chains are produced . In myelona,plasma cells produce immunoglobulin of a si...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3927
On autopsy, fine froth was found in the resp. tract, nose and mouth. Likely cause of death -
[ "Drowning", "Hanging", "Strangulation", "Tooth paste poisoning" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40595
All of the following are anti-Pseudomonal drugs except:-
[ "Piperacillin", "Cefoperazone", "Ceftazidime", "Cefadroxil" ]
DRUGS EFFECTIVE AGAINST PSEUDOMONAS Beta lactam antibiotics Carboxypenicillins i. Carbenicillin ii. Ticarcillin Ureidopenicillin i. Piperacillin ii. Azlocillin iii. Mezlocillin Carbapenems i. Imipenem ii. Doripenem iii. Meropenem Monobactams i. Aztreonam Cephalosporins i. Ceftazidime ii. Cefoperazone iii. Moxalactam iv...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12005
The ureteric bud develops from-
[ "Pronephros", "Mesonephros", "Metanephros", "Cloaca" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mesonephros Development of kidney* Ureteric bud (mesonephros) arise from mesonephric duct and gives rise to collecting system of kidney (renal pelvis, major and minor calyces, collecting tubule) and ureter.* Metanephric mesoderm (blastema or metanephros) arisefrom nephrogenic cord which in turn is der...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_39679
Shortest acting Benzodiazepine -
[ "Diazepam", "Midazolam", "Alprazolam", "Chlordiazepoxide" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Midazolam o Midazolam is the shortest acting benzodiazipine.o It is 3 times more potent than diazepam.o Midazolam is now very commonly used BZD in intraoperative period,o Advantages of midazolam over diazepam are :Water based preparation, so injection is painless.Elimination half life is 2-3 hours, so...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_11032
Most common malignant brain tumor
[ "Astrocytoma", "Glioblastoma multiforme", "Oligodendroglioma", "Ependymoma" ]
Ans. B Glioblastoma multiforme Ref: Sabiston.Page 1371 The following data should be remembered for brain tumors- Most common malignant Brain tumor: Secondaries > Gliomas > Meningiomas > Astrocytomas.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45544
Ciclipirox Oleamine is used in :
[ "Dermatophytosis", "Acne", "Psoriasis", "Lichen Planus" ]
A i.e. Dermatophytosis
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16241
Which is not a beta lactum antibiotic?
[ "Penicillin", "Carbepenem", "Monobactum", "Azithromycin" ]
These are antibiotics having a beta-lactam ring. The two major groups are penicillins and cephalosporins. Monobactams and carbapenems are relatively newer additions. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY page no.716
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_49358
The muscle that acts primarily as an eveor of ankle inseed into the medial cuneiform is which of the following?
[ "Peroneus longus", "Peroneus brevis", "Tibialis anterior", "Tibialis posterior" ]
The peroneus longus and brevis act primarily as eveors, with the peroneus brevis being the stronger of the two. In the question, the eveor inseed to the medial cuneiform, which is peroneus longus. The peroneus brevis inses on the base of the fifth metatarsal and the peroneus longus courses under the cuboid to inse on t...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_2211
Corneal epithelium is composed of -
[ "Stratified keratinized epithelium", "Stratified non- keratinized epithelium", "Columnar epithelium", "Pseudostratified epithelium" ]
Corneal epithelium is of stratified squamous type and continuous with epithelium of bulbar conjunctiva at the limbus.It consists of 5-6 layer of cells Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,6th edition,pg no.95
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_36658
Distribution of weakness in Pyrimidal tract lesions?
[ "Extensors more than flexors in lower limb", "Flexors more than extensors in upper limb", "Antigravity muscles are affected", "Antigravity muscles are spared" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Antigravity muscles are spared The following clinical features characterize a UMN lesion: Increased tone (spasticitv) Initially, UMN weakness may be flaccid, with absent or diminished deep tendon reflexes. There is little understanding of the reasons behind this initial flaccidity and it is often refe...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43668
Which index of obesity does not include height?
[ "BMI", "Ponderal's index", "Broca's index", "Corpulence index" ]
Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 418
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_35996
A defect in the enzyme hexosaminidase causes
[ "Gaucher disease", "Farber disease", "Tay-Sachs disease", "Krabbe disease" ]
DiseaseEnzyme DeficiencyClinical SymptomsTay-Sachs disease Hexosaminidase AMental retardation, blindness, muscular weaknessRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 24 Metabolism of Acylglycerols & Sphingolipids
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_18138
Which of the following bacteria act by increasing CAMP-
[ "Which of the following bacteria act by increasing CAMP-", "Staphyloccus aureus", "E. coli, heat stable toxin", "Salmonella" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vibrio cholerae . V. cholerae and heat labile toxin of E.coli cAMP . Heat stable toxin of E coli --> cGMP
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16447
A vaccine which requires stringent condition for storage is
[ "DPT", "OPV", "BCG", "TT" ]
(Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24thedition, pg no: 222)
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_20933
Which of the following is used to detect mucosa in Meckel's diveiculum: March 2011
[ "Technetium-99 scan", "Barium meal", "CT scan", "MRI scan" ]
Ans. A: Technetium-99 scan Meckel's diveiculum can be very difficult to demonstrate by contrast radiology; small bowel enema would be the most accurate investigation Technetium-99m scanning may be useful in identifying Meckel's diveiculum as a source of gastrointestinal bleeding
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_50264
Sublethal damage to DNA is caused by:
[ "Deterministic effect", "Stochastic effect", "Both", "None" ]
Comparison of Deterministic and Stochastic effects of radiation (Very important and conceptual topic):
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15084
Most efficient larval control method to prevent transmission of urban malaria -
[ "Covering overhead tanks", "Cleaning of drains", "Filling of ditches and cesspools", "Uprooting of plants" ]
Vector of malaria in urban areas breeds largely in man-made containers including overhead tanks and underground water storage tanks, water coolers, cisterns, roof gutters, flower vases, bottles, ornamental ponds.etc which can collect water control of urban malaria lies in the use of larvivorous fish and larvicides in w...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_22062
A child with vesicoureteric reflex of grade 2 comes to OPD. What is the preferred treatment method
[ "Antibiotics", "Observation", "Sting operation", "Ureteric reimplantation" ]
Prophalyctatic antibiotics is given to all vesicoureteric reflex pts.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_4850
Enterokinase is an activator of:
[ "Trypsinogen", "Trypsin", "Chymotrypsin", "Antitrypsin" ]
Ans. A TrypsinogenRef: Ganongy 25th ed. pg 479* Trypsinogen is converted to active enzyme trypsin by enterokinase when the pancreatic juice enters into the duodenum. Enterokinase contains 41% polysaccharide and this high polysaccharide content prevents the enterokinase from getting digested.* The trypsin, chymotrypsin ...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29337
Maximum dose of lignocaine with adrenaline (in mg/kg) -
[ "4", "5", "7", "10" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7 mg/kg o Maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine- 300 mg (4[?]5 mg'kg).o Maximum safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine- 500 mg (7 mg.'kg).
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51162
Disrobing a women comes under
[ "354 D", "354 A", "354 B", "354 C" ]
354 A Sexual assault 354 B Disrobing a woman in a public place 354 C Voyeurism punishment 354 D Stalking punishment
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41561
Best assessment of protein quality is done through:
[ "Net protein utilization", "Protein biological value", "Digestibility coefficient", "Protein energy ratio" ]
Ref: Park s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 22nd edition. Page 588Explanation:Protein Energy Ratio (PER)It assesses the quantity of protein rather than quality.Its percentage of energy provided by protein in diet.PER = Energy from Protein/Total Energy in DietNet Protein Utilization (NPU)The best measure as ...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41860
An 8 year old child is brought to the emergency room with testicular torsion. The parents tell you that he ate sandwich 6 hours ago. Surgeon wants to operate immediately. Your response should be
[ "Wait for 2 more hours, deem it urgent, do rapid-sequence intubation", "Take him to the OT, deem it emergent, do rapid-sequence intubation", "He is adequately fasting, consider elective intubation", "Wait for 2 hours, consider elective intubation" ]
Testicular torsion requires immediate investigation and possible surgery to preserve viable testis.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13291
Nerve supply of Stapedius is
[ "2nd Cranial Nerve", "3rd Cranial Nerve", "5th Cranial Nerve", "7th Cranial Nerve" ]
(D) 7th Cranial Nerve # The stapedius lies in a bony canal that is related to the posterior wall of the middle ear.> Stapedius is supplied by the facial nerve (VII CN).> It develops from the mesoderm of the second branchial arch.> The stapedius lies in a bony canal that is related to the posterior wall of the middle ea...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8421
Kaplan Meier method is used for:
[ "Prevalance", "Survival", "Frequency", "Incidence" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Survival The Kaplan-Meier estimator (also known as the product limit estimator) estimates the survival function from lifetime data. In medical research, it is used to measure the fraction of patients living for a certain amount of time after treatment.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_42525
Drugs which cause both physical and psychological dependence are ?
[ "Opioids", "Alcohol", "Nicotine", "All the above" ]
Ans. is'd' i.e., All the above [Ref Niraj Ahuja 6'h/e p. 37; Essential of clinical psychiatry 4'h/e p. 247)
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28753
The most common location of ventricular septal defect is-
[ "Perimembranous", "Muscular", "Doubly-committed subaenal", "None" ]
The VSD is usually single and situated in the membranous or midmuscular poion of the septum. ( Harrison&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no. 1923)
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_17535
Di collar or grease collar is seen in: NEET 13
[ "Punctured wound by sharp weapon", "Lacerated wound", "Firearm entry wound", "Stab wound" ]
Ans. Firearm entry wound
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_36751
All belong to the hematological manifestations used for the diagnostic criteria of SLE, EXCEPT:
[ "Leukopenia (<4000/L)", "Lymphopenia (<1500/L)", "Thrombocytopenia(<100,000/L)", "Neutropenia (< 1500/L)" ]
Hematologic disorder used as the Diagnostic Criteria for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Hemolytic anemia Leukopenia (<4000/L) Lymphopenia (<1500/L) Thrombocytopenia(<100,000/L) in the absence of offending drugs Neutropenia is not being mentioned in the diagnostic criteria Table 319-3 Diagnostic Criteria for Systemic Lupu...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13269
An old man has enlarged prostate. Which of the following may be use to suppress his prostatic growth:
[ "Spironolactone", "Ketoconazole", "Finasteride", "Flutamide" ]
null
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37294
'Dennie Morgan' folds are seen in?
[ "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "Erytrhema multiformie", "Measles", "Atopic dermatitis" ]
Ans. D. Atopic dermatitis (Ref. IADVL 2nd/433, 416-427; Rook's 7th/18.1 - 18.30)Dennie Morgan fold is a single or double fold in the lower eyelid, may be due to eyelid edema caused by eyelid dermatitis. It is seen as associated feature in atopic dermatitis.Atopic dermatitis# Is an eczema characterized by intense itchin...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_6039
CSF rhinorrhea is most commonly seen in fracture of:
[ "Cribriform plate", "Temporal bone", "Nasal bone", "Occipital bone" ]
CSF rhinorrhea occurs when there is a communication between the intracranial (intradural) and nasal cavities. CSF, rhinorrhea indicates a basal tear of dura mater along with a fracture involving the paranasal sinuses, frontal, ethmoid, or sphenoid bone. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone separates the anterior crania...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26485
In ICD-10 how many volumes are there:
[ "1", "2", "3", "4" ]
ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, 10th revision on January 1, 1993). ICD does uniform classification of diseases which can be used throughout the world to make accurate comparisons of morbidity and mortality data for decision making in prevention, facilitation and management of health care system. ICD-1...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_38435
Rope mistaken for a snake, is an example of
[ "Illusion", "Perception", "hallucination", "Synaesthesia" ]
* ILLUSION= altered perception of a real object * Mistaking a rope for a snake there are some specific type of illusions PAREIDOLIC ILLUSION==vague stimulus (like clouds) are perceived as something known to the patient (image of a dog) Ref. kaplon and sadock synopsis of psychiatry
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45070
A 23 year old male patient complains that his face appears too long. Extra-oral examination reveals a retrognathic mandible, steep mandibular plane angle and a prominent antegonial notch. Which of the following statements regarding this patient's condition is false?
[ "Growth of mandible is more posteriorly", "Growth of mandible is more anteriorly", "Rotation is backward", "Rotation can be given a positive sign" ]
By convention, the rotation of either jaw is considered "forward" and given a negative sign if there is more growth posteriorly than anteriorly. The rotation is "backward" and given a positive direction if it lengthens, anterior dimensions more than posterior ones, bringing the chin downward and backward. Contemporary ...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1166
The amniotic membrane is characterized by all the following Except
[ "Provides maximum tensile strength", "Highly vascular", "It developed after 2-7 days of gestation", "Derived from Foetal ectoderm" ]
AMNIONAt term, amnion is tough and tenacious.It provides almost all of the tensile strength of the fetal membranes.It is avascular and pliable.It is the innermost fetal membrane and is contiguous with the amniotic fluid.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_7058
Max risk of stroke after TIA:
[ "First 48 hours", "First week", "First month", "First year" ]
Ans. a. First 48 hoursTransient ischemic attack (TIA) is sudden, transitory loss of neurologic function that comes on without headache and resolves spontaneously within 24 hours (but usually lasts less than 1 hour), leaving no neurologic sequelae.The specific symptoms depend on the area of the brain affected, which is ...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_35223
which pa of the brain isstimulated in vagal nerve stimulation
[ "hippocampus", "amygdala", "water shed areas of brain", "locus cereleus" ]
Vagus nerve stimulation * Electrical stimulation of left vagus nerve * Stimulation of raphe nucleus and locus cereleus * Release of norepinephrine and serotonin * Side effects * Voice alteration ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th editio, pg no, 1065
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15660
The OHI-S index developed by Greene and Vermillion is used to measure
[ "Dental caries", "Gingivitis", "Oral debris and calculus", "Periodontal disease" ]
null
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32874
Functional impression technique can be applied in:
[ "Uniformly firm ridge consistency", "All variety of residual ridges", "Knife edge ridge", "Displaceable alveolar ridge" ]
Functional impression using tissue conditioners is a closed mouth, patient-driven impression technique, indicated for well-formed and firm ridges in patients with good dexterity and neuromuscular control.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_11479
Oroantral fistula is caused by all the following except:
[ "Dental extraction", "Carcinoma of maxilla", "Caldwell luc operation", "Maxillectomy" ]
Oroantral fistula - there is a fistula between oral cavity and maxillary antrum. Causes 1. Dental procedure (extraction)2. Malignancy (because it can lead to perforation)3. Caldwell luc's operation In case of maxillectomy we remove maxilla antrum ,so the fistula will not be there.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44002
All the following wastewater contains human excreta EXCEPT
[ "Sewage", "Sullage", "Faeces", "None" ]
Ans. b (Sullage). (Ref. Park, PSM, 22th/pg. 707)SULLAGEThe term "Sullage" is applied to waste water which does not contain human excreta. E.g. waste water from kitchen and bathrooms.SEWAGESewage is wastewater from community containing solid and liquid excreta, derived from houses, streets and yards, washing, factories ...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26612
A 20-year-old male suffered a trauma to the right leg while playing football. He did not seek doctor's advice initially. The affected area soon turned painful, red and tender. He also complained that from a few days he now has to drag the affected foot and there was loss of eversion on examination. X ray of the affecte...
[ "Muscle B", "Muscle C", "Muscle D", "Muscle A" ]
This is a case of fracture of the neck of fibula. So, the nerve involved is common peroneal nerve. Muscles supplied by common peroneal nerve: The anterior compament of the leg muscles is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (L4-L5) and supplied blood the anterior tibial aery. Tibialis anterior Extensor hallucis longus ...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12906
Split skin grafts in young children should be harvested from: March 2013
[ "Buttcoks", "Thigh", "Trunk", "Upper limb" ]
Ans. B i.e. Thigh Skin grafts Paial thickness skin grafts/ Theirsch graft: Consist of epidermis & variable thickness of dermis Full thickness/ Wolfes graft: Consists of epidermis & all of the dermis Composite grafts: Consist of skin & some underlying tissue (fat, cailage etc.)
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24396
A 35 yr old woman presents with swelling of the small joints of the hands. On examination, swan neck deformity is present. Labs show elevated RA factor levels and high anti-CCP levels. She diagnosed with rheumatoid ahritis and staed on steroids for a sho duration. What is the mechanism by which steroids reduce inflamma...
[ "Inhibition of phospholipase A2", "Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase", "| activity of lipoprotein lipase", "Inhibition of lipogenase" ]
Steroids reduce inflammation by: Inhibiting phopholipase A2, the precursor of arachdonic acid. Arachidonic acid is the precursor for prostagladins and leukotrienes, which inhibits phospholipase A2. Inhibit the production of interleukin-2 (IL-2) and proliferation A2. Inhibit the release of histamine and serotonin from m...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41828
Regarding shick's test which of the following is false-
[ "Erythematous reaction in both arm indicate hypersenstivity", "Positive test means that person is immune to diphtheria", "Diphtheria antitoxin is given intradermally", "Test done to find out immune status against diphtheria" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9708
Methotrexate is used for the management of all of these conditions except
[ "Rheumatoid arthritis", "Psoriasis", "Sickle cell anemia", "Organ transplantation" ]
Methotrexate is used for the management of:
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37325
Multi drug resistant T.B is defined as resistance to
[ "INH and pyrizinamide", "INH and Rifampicin", "Rifampicin and Pyrizinamide", "Resistance to all first line of drugs" ]
multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB)--a form of the disease caused by bacilli resistant at least to isoniazid and rifampin--occurred in 2013. Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1103
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37640
An 8-year-old child presented with a history of respiratory distress, altered sensorium & not passing urine for the last 15 hours. What is the procedure shown below that can be done as a part of emergency management of this child?
[ "Hemodialysis", "Peritoneal dialysis", "Kidney biopsy", "Hydration therapy" ]
Ans. b. Peritoneal dialysisThis child presented with a history suggestive of acute kidney injury; The given picture shows a stiff catheter inserted into the abdomen for peritoneal dialysis;
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25887
Whipple's disease is characterized by?
[ "Foamy macrophages", "AFB positive", "Papillary projections", "Villous atrophy" ]
Whipple's Disease (Intestinal Lipodystrophy) This is an uncommon bacterial disease involving not only the intestines but also various other systems such as central nervous system, hea, blood vessels, skin, joints, lungs, liver, spleen and kidneys. The disease is more common in males in 4th to 5th decades of life. Patie...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_18173
True about personality disorder:
[ "It arises during childhood", "It matures during adulthood", "Suspiciousness is seen in paranoid personality disorder.", "All" ]
A. i.e. It arises during childhood; B. i.e. It matures during adult; C i.e. Suspiciousness is seen in paranoid personality disorder
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13607
After an accident a teenager developed a different breathing pattern. After neurological evaluation, transection at mid pons level is diagnosed. This lesion will result in:
[ "Asphyxia", "Hyperventilation", "Rapid and shallow breathing", "Apneusis" ]
If the brainstem is transected in the midpons, a breathing pattern called apneusis results if the vagus nerves have also been transected. Apneustic breathing consists of prolonged inspiratory effos interrupted by occasional expirations. Apneusis is probably caused by a sustained discharge of medullary inspiratory neuro...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46343
All of the following are features of poliomyelitis except-
[ "Acute onset", "Progressive course", "Intact sensation", "Febrile onset" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Progressive course
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14530
Which is not a feature of lungs in salt water drowning
[ "Ballooned and heavy lungs", "Tend to flatten out on removing", "Crepitus is heard on sectioning", "Shape of sectioned poion is not retained" ]
Lungs in salt water drowning : Ballooned and heavy lungs Weighs upto 2 kg Purplish or bluish in colour Sodden and jelly like in consistency Tend to flatten out on removing Crepitus is not heard on sectioning Shape of sectioned poion is not retained In fresh water drowning : Size and weight: Ballooned, but light Color: ...
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13597
Involucrum means -
[ "Dead bone", "New living bone", "Previous living bone", "None of the above" ]
In osteomyelitis:- Sequestrum → The Dead piece of bone. Involucrum Reactive woven or lamellar bone around sequestrum.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14535
Which of the following is a primary ketone body that is formed from leucine, lysine, phenylalanine and tyrosine?
[ "Acetoacetate", "Acetone", "Beta hydroxy butyrate", "All of the above" ]
Acetoacetate is a primary ketone body. Beta hydroxy butyrate and acetone are secondary ketone bodies. Acetoacetate can be formed from acetyl CoA, it can also be formed by the degradation of carbon skeleton of ketogenic amino acids like leucine, lysine, phenylalanine and tyrosine. Acetone is formed by the degradation of...
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_18134
Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction due to -
[ "Irreversible pulmonary vasocontriction hypoxia", "Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia", "Direct blood to poorly ventilated areas", "Occurs hours after pulmonary vasoconstriction" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxiaPulmonary hypoxic vasoconstrictiono Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) is an adaptive vasomotor response to alveolar hypoxia which redistributes blood to optimally ventilated lung segments by an active process of vasoconstriction, particularly ...
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24016
What is the cut off for anaemia in adult male as per WHO?
[ "13 g/ dl", "12g/dl", "11g/dl", "10g/dl" ]
Hemoglobin in g/dl Adult male 13 Adult female 12 Adult female, pregnant 11 Children 6 month to 6 years 11 Children 6 to 14 years 12 Ref: Park 21st edition, page 575.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34443
. Which of the following is not true about ineization?
[ "Relatively inexpensiv", "It is done for pharmaceutical waste", "It involves mixing the waste with cement before disposal", "It causes water pollution" ]
Ans. d. It causes water pollution The process of `ineization' involves mixing waste with cement and other substances before disposal, in order to minimize the risk of toxic substances contained in the wastes migrating into the surface water or ground water. It doesn't cause water pollution. Ineization The process of `i...
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25090
Vanilloid receptors are activated by
[ "Pain", "Vibration", "Touch", "Pressure" ]
Vanilloid receptors are VR 1 and VRL 1 for painful temperature.
A
null