dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_49494 | All are features of Alagille syndrome, EXCEPT: | [
"Posterior embryotoxon",
"Hepatocellular jaundice",
"Peripheral pulmonary stenosis",
"Butterfly veebrae"
] | Syndromic paucity of interlobular bile ducts (Alagille syndrome) is the most common form of familial intrahepatic cholestasis. Chronic cholestasis affects 95% of patients. Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is observed in approximately 90%. Veebral arch defects are seen (e.g., butterfly veebrae, hemiveebrae, and a decrease in the interpedicular distance). Ophthalmologic examination may reveal posterior embryotoxon, retinal pigmentation, and iris strands. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's Gastrointestinal and Liver Disease, 9th Edition, Page 1061 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21371 | One of the following activities is not meditated through beta 2 adrenergic receptor | [
"Stimulation of lipolysis",
"Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis",
"Increased muscle gluconeogenesis",
"Smooth muscle relaxation"
] | Beta-agonist produce smooth muscle relaxation, bronchodilation, vasodilatation and uterine stimulation through beta 2 receptors. Also, Beta 3 receptors are located on adipocytes, not beta 2 beta 1- hea From medical pharmacology Padmaja 4th edition page no 101,105 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8029 | DMPA is an injectible contraceptive given every - | [
"Three weeks",
"Two months",
"Three months",
"Two years"
] | park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *DMPA has been in use since 1960s.The standard dose is an I'M injection of 150 mg every 3 months.It gives protection from pregnancy in 99% of women for at least 3 months. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36932 | Eleven years after undergoing right modified radical mastectomy, a 61-year-old woman develops raised red and purple nodules over the right arm. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Lymphangitis",
"Lymphedema",
"Lymphangiosarcoma",
"Hyperkeratosis"
] | Lymphangiosarcoma is a rare complication of long-standing lymphedema, most frequently described in a patient who has previously undergone radical mastectomy (Stewart-Treves syndrome). It usually presents as blue, red, or purple nodules with satellite lesions. Early metastasis, mainly to the lung, may develop if it is not recognized early and widely excised. Lymphedema is a complication of radical mastectomy and presents as diffuse swelling and nonpitting edema of the limb. Lymphangitis and hyperkeratosis are complications of lymphedema. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12117 | Wrong statement about SGLT (sodium-glucose linked transpoer) | [
"SGLT1 is present in the intestine and kidneys",
"SGLT1 has low capacity and high affinity",
"SGLT2 inhibitors worsen hea failure",
"SGLT2 inhibitors produce weight loss"
] | SGLT2 inhibitors reduce hospitalisation for hea failure as demonstrated by multiple cardiovascular outcome trials of various SGLT2 inhibitors. They produce glycosuria and weight loss. SGLT2 is a high capacity low affinity transpoer in contrast to SGLT1. In kidneys, SGLT2 is present in the proximal pa of the tubules while SGLT1 is present more distally. The low amount of glucose remaining after transpo by the SGLT2 is conserved by SGLT1 located distally as it has high affinity for glucose compared to SGLT2, produce viual absence of glucose in urine. Reference: Mudaliar S, Polidori D, Zambrowicz B, Henry RR. Sodium-glucose cotranspoer inhibitors: effects on renal and intestinal glucose transpo: from bench to bedside. Diabetes care. 2019 Dec 1;38(12):2344-53. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14277 | "Lead time" is, | [
"Time between disease onset and first possible point of diagnosis",
"Time between first possible point of diagnosis and usual time of diagnosis",
"Time between disease onset and final critical diagnosis",
"Time between disease onset and usual time of diagnosis"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7166 | Spur cells and stomatocytes in the peripheral smear is suggestive of: | [
"Alcoholic hepatitis",
"Chronic liver disease",
"Chronic kidney disease",
"Hemolytic uraemic syndrome"
] | A mild hypoproliferative anemia may develop in patients with chronic liver disease. The peripheral blood smear shows spur cells and stomatocytes from the accumulation of excess cholesterol in the membrane due to deficiency of lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 851 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51211 | All are risk factor for postoperative pulmonary complications except ? | [
"ASA class 3 and 4 patients",
"Longer surgeries >2 hr",
"Upper Abdominal surgery",
"Age > 60 years"
] | Risk factor for postoperative pulmonary complications: Patients >=60 years of age COPD Markedly reduced exercise tolerance and functional dependence Hea failure ASA class 3 and 4 Cigarette smoking Longer surgeries (>4 h), Ceain types of surgery Abdominal Thoracic Aoic aneurysm Head and neck Emergency surgery GA (compared with cases in which GA was not used). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15699 | Which of the following is not a feature of rhinosporidiosis- | [
"Bleeding polyp",
"Russel bodies are seen",
"Oral dapsone is useful in treatment",
"Excision with the knife is the treatment"
] | Because the polyps are vascular & friable, they bleed easily upon manipulation. Complete excision of mass is done with diathermy knife & cauterization of base. Dapsone is being tried for treating rhinosporidiosis but with limited success. Russel bodies are not seen in Rhinosporidiosis but are a diagnostic feature of Rhinoscleroma. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8381 | Acetic acid staining of cervix shows the following, except: | [
"Squamous metaplasia",
"Cervical carcinoma in situ",
"Cervical polyp",
"Cervical dysplasia"
] | Cervical polyp is a common benign tumor on the surface of the cervical canal which has tissues much like the smooth muscle cells seen in a fibroid. The polyp does not pick up active staining with aceti acid because it has mosty 'resting' cells Acetic acid used coagulate the proteins - make the area Acetowhite. Biopsy taken from this area. Acetic acid staining of cervix shows Cervical carcinoma in situ Cervical dysplasia Squamous metaplasia | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30994 | A 4 year old female patient complains of decayed teeth. Intra-oral examination reveals occlusal caries with 55. The laser which can be used in this patient? | [
"CO2",
"HeNe",
"Excimer",
"Ho:YAG"
] | Lasers are used primarily for either soft tissue applications or hard tissue surface modification. They generally are not used for tooth preparations because they are inefficient and awkward for removing large amounts of enamel or dentin, and that process with a laser can generate intolerable amounts of heat. Therefore lasers may never replace a high-speed dental handpiece. However, at least one commercial Ho:YAG laser instrument has been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use with hard tissues in primary teeth.
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, Mosby, 4th Edition, Page No: 327 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2266 | In a certain population, there were 4050 births in the last one year. There were 50 still births. 50 infants died within 7 days whereas 150 died within the first 28 days. What is the neonatal mortality rate? | [
"62.5",
"50",
"12.5",
"49.4"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34074 | A 25-year-old male comes to his physician for a follow up visit with weakness of his right hand. Two months ago, he suffered a motor vehicle accident in which his right hand was affected. On examination, he is unable to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints of the ring and index fingers, and is unable to adduct the same fingers. Which of the following muscles are most likely paralyzed? | [
"Flexor digitorum profundus",
"Palmar interossei",
"Extensor digitorum",
"Dorsal interossei"
] | Answer: b) Palmar interosseiMusclesNerve supplyFunctionFlexor digitorum profundusLateral half by median nerve (anterior interosseous nerve); medial half by ulnar nerve Flexes distal interphalangeal joints of the index, middle, ring, and little fingers; can also flex metacarpophalangeal joints of the same fingers and the wrist jointPalmar interosseiUlnar nerveAdduction of the thumb, index, ring, and little fingers at the metacarpophalangeal jointsDorsal interosseiUlnar nerveAbduction of index, middle, and ring fingers at the metacarpophalangeal jointsExtensor digitorumPosterior interosseous nerve Extends the index, middle, ring, and little fingers; can also extend the wrist | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20016 | A four year old boy was admitted with a history of abdominal pain and fever for two months maculopapular rash for ten days, and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for three days. One examination liver and spleen were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively below the costal margins. His hemoglobin was 10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 x 109/L and total leukocyte count 70 x 109/L, which included 80% eosinophils Bone marrow examination revealed a cellular marrow comprising of 45% blasts and 34% Eosinophils and eosinophilic precursors. The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and non-specific esterase and were positive for CD19, CD10, CD22 and CD20. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Biphenotypic acute leukemia (lymphoid and eosinophil lineage)Acute eosinophilic leukemia)",
"Acute lymphoblastic leukemia with hypereosinophilic syndrome",
"Acute myeloid leukemia with eosinophilia",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acute lymphoblastic leukemia with hypereosinophilic syndrome The cytochemical features of the blast Myeloperoxidases negative Non specific esterase ---> negative Both myeloperoxidaes and nonspecific esterases are positive in cells of myeloid origin and are negative in cellsoflymphoid origin. Remember, myeloid lineage includes eosinophil, neutrophil and basophils . So the blasts found in the bone marrow are of lymphoid origin (not of myeloid) according to cytochemistry Presence of Pan B cell (CD 19, CD I0, CD22) markers also confirm the cell of lymphoid origin (B lymphocytes) Now let us see the options Acute eosinophilic leukemia For the diagnosis of acute eosinophilic leukemia, the blast cells present in the bone marrow should be of eosinophilic lineage (In these case it is of lymphoid lineage.) Acute myeloid leukemia with eosinophilia It can be ruled out because blasts are not of myeloid lineage which is essential for the diagnois of myeloid leukemia. Biphenotypic acute leukemia (lymphoid and eosinophil lineage) o For the diagnosis of biphenotypic leukemia, blast cell of two lineage must be present In this case blast cells of only lymphoid lineages are present So we are left with option 'c' which is the diagnosis in this case. In ALL with hypereosinophilic syndrome, the symptoms of eosinophilia usually preceedes the symptoms of ALL. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19236 | The study of human relationships and of human behavior for better understanding of the pattern of human life, is called: | [
"Anthropology",
"Social Psychology",
"Social epidemiology",
"Sociology"
] | Sociology Sociology can be viewed from two angles: (a) First, it can be seen as the study of relationships between human beings, and how these relationships change or vary in different pas of the world and at different times. The unit of study can be a small group (e.g., family) consisting of parents and children, or the study can extend beyond the family or small groups into the complex society where a greater number of people interact and interdependent in terms of economics, political power, general organization and ways of living. (b) The other pa of sociology is concerned with the study of human behaviour. Human behaviour is determined not merely by biological and physical environmental factors but also by social factors. Every form of human behaviour has a social component. Sociologists are interested in the study of the social determinants of human behaviour. In the final analysis it may be stated that the aim of sociology is to search for the pattern of relationships between people in order to pave the way for the betterment of individuals in relation to society. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24907 | A HIV patient with CD4 count of 160 cells/ul presented with fever, cough and shoness of breath for 3 weeks. Chest X ray is shown below. Based on the x ray findings silver staining of the bronchoalveolar lavage was done and shown below. What is drug of choice for the causative organism? | [
"Azithromycin",
"Vancomycin",
"Gentamycin",
"Cotrimoxazole"
] | Chest X ray depicts bilateral widespread interstitial pneumonia and Gomori Methenamine silver staining shows cysts with crushed ping pong balls appearance and are present in aggregate of 2-8. This is characteristic of Pneumocystis Pneumonia which is typically seen in AIDS patient in which CD4 cell count is below 200cells/ul Treatment:Double strength Cotrimoxazole i.e. Trimethoprim160mg + sulfamethoxazole800mg (continued till CD4 count is more than 200cells/ul.) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14170 | Which of the following is not a sphincter in the female urogenital tract - | [
"Pubovaginalis",
"External urethral sphincter",
"Internal urethral sphincter",
"Bulbospongiosus"
] | Urogenital sphincters in Females
- Vaginal sphincters
Bulbospongiosus
Sphincter urethrovaginalis
External urethral sphincter
Pubovaginalis
- Urinary sphincters
Compressor urethrae
External urethral sphincter
Sphincter urethrovaginalis
Pubourethralis | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25024 | True about sample registration system are all except? | [
"It is same as census",
"It is dual record system",
"It provides reliable estimate of bih rate and death rate",
"Independent retrospective half - yearly"
] | . | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46602 | A child is able to build a tower of 5 cubes . His developmental age is ______ | [
"12 months",
"15 months",
"18 months",
"24 months"
] | By 18 months the child is able to scribble and make a tower of 3 blocks and by 2 yrs he is able to make tower of 6 months Mnemonic 2 yr is 24 months during which child makes tower of 2 +4 blocks that is 6 blocks 3 yr is 36 months during which child makes tower of 3 + 6 blocks that is 9 blocks Ref : OP GHAI - ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS - 8 TH edition page no 50 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16934 | Not an indication for cholecystectomy for gallstones disease | [
"Asymptomatic gallstones with DM",
"Procelain gallbladder",
"Asymptomatic with history of single attack of acute pancreatitis",
"Symptomatic cholecystitis"
] | Indications of prophylactic Cholecystectomy Cardiac transplant recepients Lung transplant recipients Chronic TPN requirements Recepients of biliopancreatic diversion (bariatric patient) Children with hemoglobinopathy (sickle cell, thalassemia and spherocytosis) Asymptomatic gallstone >=3cm Stone associated with the polyp Family history of GB cancer and asymptomatic stones Cholelithiasis encountered during elective abdominal procedures Non functioning GB Typhoid carrier with positive bile culture Trauma to GB Procelain GB Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1494 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27924 | Most common cause of inseional tendonitis of tendoachilles is - | [
"Overuse",
"Improper shoe wear",
"Infections from the ankle joint",
"Steroid injections"
] | ACHILLES TENDINITIS: Athletes, joggers and hikers often develop pain and swelling around the tendo Achillis, due to local irritation of the tendon sheath or the paratenon.Clinical features :The condition may come on gradually, or rapidly following a change in spoing activity (or a change of spos footwear). Less commonly there is a history of direct trauma to the Achilles tendon. The area above the heel may look inflamed and function is inhibited because of pain in the heel-cord, especially at pushoff. The tendon feels thickened in the watershed area about 4 cm above its inseion. In chronic cases an ultrasound scan may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. REF:Apley&;s system of ohopaedics- 9th edn- pg no 613 . | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15485 | Staphylococcus can cause | [
"Pharyngitis",
"Tuberculosis",
"Migraine",
"Dermatitis"
] | Staphylococcal infections are the most common bacterial infections and range from tril to fatal. The common pyogenic staphylococcal infections are: Skin and soft tissue infections: Folliculitis, furuncle, abscess, wound infections, carbuncle, impetigo, paronychia and less often cellulitis. 2. Musculoskeletal: Osteomyelitis, ahritis, bursitis and pyomyositis. 3. Respiratory: Tonsillitis, pharyngitis, sinusitis, otitis, bronchopneumonia, lung abscess, empyema and rarely pneumonia 4. CNS: Abscess, meningitis and intracranial thrombophlebitis 5. Endovascular: Bacteremia, septicemia, pyemia, endocarditis Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayan and Paniker's; 10th Edition; Page No: 204 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11029 | In which of the following condition is blood osmolality increased: | [
"Diarrhea",
"SIADH",
"Psychogenic polydipsia",
"Cerebral toxoplasmosis"
] | Diarrhea = Loss of water leads to concentration in body SIADH = Dilutional hyponatremia Psychogenic Polydipsia = Dilutional condition Cerebral toxoplasmosis leads to SIADH which again result in dilution | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44447 | Human diseases are due to bad clouds was a pa of which theory? | [
"Supernatural causes",
"\"Miasma\" theory",
"Germ theory",
"Epidemiological triad"
] | "Miasma" theory which postulated that human diseases are due to bad clouds which are more dense at lower altitudes and hence diseases are more common among people who live nearer to the eah or sea level Ref: Textbook on Public Health and Community Medicine pg: 17 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26243 | ORF stands for: | [
"Open reading frame",
"Oncogene removing frequency",
"Oil related fraction",
"Open reduction fracture"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46279 | Disease which shows changes in occurrence (of disease) over a long period of time: March 2013 (a, h) | [
"Cyclic trend",
"Secular trend",
"Seasonal trend",
"Sho term fluctuations"
] | Ans. B i.e. Secular trend Time trends 1. Secular (long-term) trends: Graphing the annual cases or rate of a disease over a period of years (Decades or centuries) shows long-term or secular trends in the occurrence of the disease. We commonly use these trends to suggest or predict the future incidence of a disease. Secular is influenced by population features e.g. - Change of degree of susceptibility e.g. by immunization - Socioeconomic - Environmental sanitation and - Nutritional status of a population. 2. Periodic (cyclic variation) Where disease occurrence for a period then increase again in cyclic pattern e.g. measles in prevaccination era occur every 2 - 3 years. 3. Seasonality By graphing the occurrence of a disease by week or month over the course of a year or more we can show its seasonal pattern. Example: the number of repoed cases of influenza typically increases in winter. Others increase in summer e.g. food poisoning and diarrhea Seasonal patterns may suggest hypotheses about: - How the infection is transmitted. - What behavioral factors increase risk, and - Other possible contributors to the disease or condition. 4. Rapid fluctuation Usually occur in the form of epidemics that appear abruptly and ends abruptly either natural or due to intervention 5. Day of week and time of day: Analysis at these shoer time periods is especially impoant for : Conditions that are potentially related to occupational or environmental exposures, which may occur at regularly scheduled intervals | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13883 | Earliest presentation of Friedrich's ataxia is - | [
"Ataxia",
"Seizures",
"Optic atrophy",
"Stuttering"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42939 | Follicles of 0.5 mm size are typically seen in | [
"Pharyngoconjunctival fever",
"Trachoma",
"Drug induced follicular conjunctivitis",
"Ophthalmia neonatorum"
] | Ans. B. Trachoma. (Ref: Khurana 3rd Edition page 92.).To diagnose active trachoma (esp Trachomatous inflammation-follicular stage), at least >5 follicles each of >0.5 mm diameter must be present on the upper tarsal conjunctiva.TRACHOMA WHO CLASSIFICATIONTrachoma has always been an important blinding disease under consideration of WHOand thus many attempts have been made to streamline is clinical profile. The latest classification suggested by WHO in 1987 (to replace all the previous ones) is as follows:1. Trachomatous inflammation-follicular (TF). It is the stage of active trachoma with predominantly follicular inflammation. To diagnose this stage at least five or more follicles (each 0.5 mm or more indimeter) must be present on the upper tarsal conjunctiva (PL. 1.2). Further, the deep trasal vessels should be visible through the follicles and papillae.2. Trachomatous inflammation-intense (TI). This stage is diagnosed when pronounced inflammatory thickening of more upper tarsal conjunctiva obscures more than half of the normal deep tarsal vessels (PL. 1.3).3. Trachomatous scarring (TS). This stage is diagnosed by the presence of scarring in the tarsal conjuctiva. These scars are easily visible as white, banks or sheets (fibrosis) in the tarsal conjunctiva (PL. 1.4).4. Trachomatous trichiasis(TT). It is labelled when at least one eyelash rubs the eyeball. Evidence of recent removal of inturned eyelashes should also be graded as trachomatous trichiasis (PL. 1.5)/5. Corneal opacity (CO). This stage is labelled when early visible corneal opacity is present over the pupil. This sign ferers to corneal scarring that is do dense that at least part of pupil margin is blurred when seen through the opacity. The definition is intended to detect corneal opacities that cause significant visual impairment (less than 6/18). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53944 | 18 years old male hears voices discussing him in 3rd person has | [
"Obsession",
"Depression",
"Mania",
"Schizophrenia"
] | Voices discussing the person in 3rd person (third person hallucination) is characteristic of schizophrenia. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50563 | Best mode of contraception for a newly married lady with rheumatic hea disease : | [
"Oral pills",
"Norplant",
"IUCD",
"Condom"
] | Ans. is d i.e Condom | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18815 | Carriers for Herpes simplex virus is: March 2009 | [
"Man",
"Monkey",
"Both",
"None"
] | Ans. A: Man Humans are the only natural hosts and the sources of infection are saliva, skin lesions or respiratory secretions. Asymptomatic carriers form the more impoant source of infection, especially in genital infection. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12307 | In facial nerve injury, loss of lacrimation is due to involvement of | [
"Chorda tympani nerve",
"Buccal nerve",
"Greater superficial petrosal nerve",
"Deep petrosal nerve"
] | Secretomotor fibres to lacrimal gland leave at geniculate ganglion greater superficial petrosal nerve Ref: Dhingra 6th edition Pg. 97 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12930 | Tolerance means? | [
"Increase effect of drug on same dose",
"Decrease effect of drug on same dose",
"Same effect on lesser doses",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Decrease effect of drug on same dose * Tolerance means same dose produces markedly diminished effect on continuous use, therefore increased doses are required to produce same effect.* It is seen in alcohol dependent syndrome 8c has been included in its diagnostic criteria. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41541 | Grevious hu comes under section: | [
"319",
"320",
"324",
"326"
] | 320 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52879 | Among the many molecules of high-energy phosphate compounds formed as a result of the functioning of the citric acid cycle, one molecule is synthesized at the substrate level. In which of the following reactions does this occur? | [
"Citrate - a-ketoglutarate",
"a-ketoglutarate - succinate",
"Succinate - fumarate",
"Fumarate - malate"
] | A molecule of guanosine triphosphate is synthesized from guanosine diphosphate and phosphate at the cost of hydrolyzing succinyl CoA to succinate and CoA. This constitutes substrate-level phosphorylation, and, in contrast to oxidative phosphorylation, this is the only reaction in the citric acid cycle that directly yields a high-energy phosphate bond. The sequence of reactions from alpha-ketoglutarate to succinate is catalyzed by the a -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex and succinyl-CoA synthetase, respectively. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22521 | OR is not required in which fracture:? | [
"Patella",
"Outer 1/3 of radius",
"Condyle of humerus",
"Olecranon displaced"
] | B i.e. Outer 1/3rd of radius Treatment Plan of Fracture Head of Radius Undisplaced split Single large displaced Small, displaced non - Comminuted fracture 1 aicular (inner 2/3) aicular (outer 1/3.1) - Fracture dislocation * Immobilization in above elbow fragment fragment POP with cuff & collar sling. 1 1 Excision of radial head & * Aspiration if swelling is marked. OR & herbe screw fixation . Excision of fragmentQ prosthetic replacement | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38798 | Tardy ulnar nerve palsy - | [
"Early onset",
"Late onset",
"Caused by shoulder dislocation",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Late onsetTardy ulnar nerve palsyo Tardy ulnar nerve palsy as a late complication of the lateral condylar physis is well known, especially after the development of cubitus valgus from malunion or nonunion. Due to cubitus valgus there is chronic stretching of ulnar nerve. However, you should keep in mind that, cubitus valgus is not the only cause of tardy ulnar nerve palsy. There are many other causes.o Tardy means occuring late, i.e.. late onset ulnar nerve palsy.o Causes of tardy ulnar nerve palsy are : -i) Malunited lateral condyle humerus fracture (cubitus valgus)ii) Displaced medial epicondyle humerus fractureiii) Cubitus varus deformity (due to supracondylar fracture humerus)iv) Elbow dislocationContusions of ulnar nerveShallow ulnar grooveHypoplasia of humeral trochleaJoint deformity after prolonged arthritis of elbowClinical featureso Weakness of grip, tingling numbness of little finger,o Positive card test & ffoments sign.o Full flexion of elbow aggravates pain and paresthesia along ulnar nerve distribution.Treatmento Conservative : - Elbow extension splint to be worn at night,o Surgery : - Anterior transposition of ulnar nerve. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29988 | Which of the following is detected in peripheral blood smear -a) Malariab) Toxoplasmac) Babesiad) Brucellae) Filaria | [
"acd",
"bde",
"cde",
"abce"
] | Parasites detectable in blood smear
Plasmodium spp in RBCs
Toxoplasma- Tachyzoites
Filarial microfilaria
Trypanosoma spp.: Trypomastigotes
Leishmania amastigotes in macrophages
Babesia- in RBC | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23165 | Lignocaine is useful for the treatment of : | [
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia",
"Digitalis induced ventricular extrasystoles",
"All of the above"
] | (Ref: KDT 6/e p502) Lignocaine is used only for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias, it has no role in atrial arrhythmia. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43745 | A 80 year old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Rx of choice is: | [
"Hemi mandibulectomy",
"Commando operation",
"Segmental mandiblectomy",
"Marginal mandibulectomy"
] | Segmental mandibulectomy recommended for alveolar lesions, tumors adherent to the mandible, or for radiographic evidence of bone involvement. Ref: Craniomaxillofacial Reconstructive and Corrective Bone Surgery: Principles of Internal Fixation By Alex M. Greenberg, Joachim Prein, 2002, page 411. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32406 | A man was diagnosed to have myositis ossificans progressiva at the age of 20 years. He died five years later. What is the most probable cause of his death- | [
"Starvation and chest infection",
"Myocarditis",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hyperphosphatemia"
] | Ans is option 1.. Starvation and chest infection. Myositis ossificans progressiva It is a congenital condition characterized by the formation of masses of bone in the soft tissues with consequent progressive impairment of movement of the underlying joint or joints All joint motion is finally lost and the patient dies of intercurrent infection. No effective treatment is known Ref Harrison 17/e p2416 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34625 | Diabetic retinopathy, most likely present with – | [
"IDDM with 2 years duration",
"NIDDM with 2 years duration",
"Juvenile diabetes",
"Gestational diabetes"
] | "Vision - threatening retinopathy is rare in type 1 diabetic patients in the first 3-5 years of diabetes or before puberty. During the next two decades, nearly all type 1 diabetic patients develop retinopathy. Up to 21% of patients with type 2 DM have retinopathy at the time of first diagnosis of diabetes and most develop some degree of retinopathy over time". — Diabetic retinopathy : the Essentials | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38041 | A 35 - year old male who had chronic duodenal ulcer for the last six years presents with worsening of symtomps loss of periodicity of symptoms, pain on rising in the morning sense of epigastric bloating and post - prandial vomiting. The most likely cause of the worsening of his symptoms is the development of ? | [
"Posterior penetration",
"Gastric outlet obstruction",
"Carcinoma",
"Pancreatitis"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gastric outlet obstruction | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34979 | Ergonomics is a discipline that deals with:- | [
"Human relationship in the specific context of production",
"Study of working environment",
"Study of the system of laws and institutions",
"Fitting the job to the workers"
] | ERGONOMICS: Definition: Is the application of scientific information concerning objects, systems and environment for human use. Pre-placement examination: Fitting job to workers. Right man in Right job. Post-placement examination- Regular periodic examination: Annual - most occupational exposures. Every 2 months - Radiation exposure. Monthly - lead, dye, radium exposures. Daily - dichromates. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51345 | A young child of 7 years age is seen with indurated ulcers, lymphadenopathy and fever. The likely treatment is: | [
"Symptomatic treatment",
"Systemic antibiotics",
"Excise the lesion",
"I.v. Fluids"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30508 | Bleuler's Critaria for Schzophrenia includes all except ? | [
"Ambivalence",
"Loosening of association",
"Automatism",
"Inappropriate Affect"
] | C i.e. Automatism | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52584 | A paitent met an accident with a car and has been in `deep coma' for the last 15 days. The most suitable route for the administration of protein and calories is by | [
"Jejunostomy tube feeding",
"Gagstrotomy tube feeding",
"Nasogastric tube feeding",
"Central venous hyperalimentation"
] | Unless the gastrointestinal tract is non-functional, its use for nutritional suppo is preferable to the use of either the central or a peripheral venous route. However, in a patient who is comatose either nasogastric feeding or feedings through a gastrostomy tube may lead to vomiting and aspiration. This problem can be avoided by using a nasoenteric tube with the tip placed in the jejunum under fluoroscopic or endoscopic control. Alternatively, a catheter may be placed directly into the proximal jejunum through a small upper abdominal incision | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31871 | A 40 year old male patient is suffering from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should not be used in such patients | [
"Lisinopril",
"Hydrochlorthiazide",
"Losartan",
"Trandolopril"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5653 | Bronchial mucosa secretes all except? | [
"Bombesin",
"Calcitonin",
"Serotonin",
"Bradykinin"
] | Ans. (d) Bradykinin(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 669-670)Bronchial mucosa contains neuroendocrine cells that have neurosecretory-type granules releasing: serotonin Q, calcitonin Q, and gastrin-releasing peptide (bombesin) Q | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45276 | Which of the following is not an immediate cause of death? | [
"Thromboembolism",
"Shock",
"Septicemia",
"Ventricular fibrillation"
] | ANSWER: (C) SepticemiaREF: Harrisons 18:h edchapter 233, 270, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SepsisApproximately 20-35% of patients with severe sepsis and 40-60% of patients with septic shock die within 30 days. Others die within the ensuing 6 monthsVentricular fibrillation can lead to sudden cardiac deathAcute hemmorrhagic shock, neurogenic shock can lead to immediate deathThromboembolism leading to stroke or pulmonary dysfunction, or a large embolus causing MI can lead to sudden cardiac death. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53872 | Loading dose is given for which of the following drug | [
"Diazepam",
"Propranolol",
"Chloroquine",
"Aspirin"
] | Chloroquine is a drug having maximum Volume of Distribution (Vd >1300 L). This means it is mostly distributed in the tissues whereas the main site of its pharmacological action is RBCs. Therefore, it is given as a loading dose to attain steady state plasma concentration quickly. Chloroquine is a synthetic 4-aminoquinoline that has been the mainstay of antimalarial therapy, is the drug of choice in the treatment of erythrocytic P. falciparum malaria, except in resistant strains. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41484 | All are true about dumping syndrome except: | [
"Treatment consists of small meal at short interval",
"PP1 is very useful in treatment",
"Watery & carbohydrate rich food are precipitating factors",
"May occur after gastrectomy or vagotomy and drainage operations"
] | Ans: B (PPI is...) Early and late dumping L & B 26th/1039-40Although considered together because the symptoms are similar, early and late dumping have different aetiologies. A common feature, however, is early rapid gastric emptying.Many patients have both early and late dumping.Early dumping L&B26th/1039# It consists of abdominal and vasomotor symptoms that are found in about 10 per cent of patients following gastrectomy or vagotomy and drainage.The small bowel is filled wdth foodstuffs from the stomach, which have a high osmotic load, and this leads to the sequestration of fluid from the circulation into the gastrointestinal tract. This can be observed by the rise in the packed cell volume while the symptoms are present.The principal treatment is dietary manipulation. Small, dry meals are best, and avoiding fluids with a high carbohydrate content also helps.Fortunately, following operation, the syndrome tends to improve with time. For some reason, however, there is a group of patients who suffer intractable dumping regardless of any of these measures.The somatostatin analogue octreotide given before meals has been shown to be useful in some individuals and the long-acting preparation may also be useful.Revisions! surgery may be occasionally required.Late dumpingl&b26th/1039This is reactive hypoglycaemia. The carbohydrate load in the small bowel causes a rise in the plasma glucose, which, in turn, causes insulin levels to rise, causing a secondary' hypoglycaemia.This can be easily demonstrated by serial measurements of blood glucose in a patient following a test meal.# The treatment is essentially the same as for early dumping. Octreotide is very effective in dealing with this problem.Table( L & B 26th/1039): Features of early and late dumping EarlyLateIncidenceRelation to meals5-10%Almost immediate5%Second hour after mealDurations of attackReliefAggravated by Precipitating factor30-40 minutes lying downMore foodFood, especially carbohydrate-rich and wetFoodExerciseAs early dumpingMajor symptomsEpigastric fullness, sweating light headedness, tachyoardia, colic sometimes diarrheaTremor, faintness prostrationEarly form of dumping syndrome SaA/ston 19th/l203The early form of dumping syndrome usually occurs within 20 to 30 minutes after ingestion of a meal and is accompanied by both Gl and cardiovascular symptoms.The symptoms characteristically occur while the patient is seated at the table eating or shortly after eating.Although the exact sequence of events responsible for this syndrome remains to be fully defined, it is generally agreed that it occurs because of the rapid passage offood of high osmolarity from the stomach into the small intestine.Most patients subjected to gastric surgery7 complain of some dumping-like symptoms after surgery7. Most, however, experience spontaneous relief and require no specific therapy.In those situations in which symptoms are prolonged, dietary measures are usually sufficient. These dietary measures include avoiding foods containing large amounts of sugar, frequent feeding of small meals rich in protein and fat, and separating liquids from solids during a meal.Late Dumping Sabiston I9th/1203The syndrome of late dumping appears 2 to 3 hours after a meal and is far less common than early dumping. The basic defect in this order is also rapid gastric emptying; however, it is related specifically to carbohydrates being delivered rapidly into the proximal intestine.These patients should be advised to ingest frequent small meals and to reduce their carbohydrate intake. Some patients have found benefit with pectin either alone or in combination with acarbose, an a-glucoside hydrolase inhibitor that delays carbohydrate absorption through impairment of intraluminal starch and sucrose digestion. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37006 | Which of the following is the first to improve after surgery for GH producing adenoma? | [
"Impaired glucose tolerance",
"Hypeension",
"Cardiomegaly",
"Soft tissue swelling"
] | Trans-sphenoidal surgery is the preferred primary treatment for management of micro and macro-adenomas leading to acromegaly. The first symptom to improve is Soft tissue Swelling. Soft tissue swelling manifests as increased Heel pad thickness, increased shoe and glove size, ring tightening, coarse facies and large fleshy nose. GH hormones levels normalise in First hour and IGF levels normalise in 3-4 days. Also note that in case of prolactin producing macro-adenoma first line treatment is medical treatment. In case of resistance surgery is done. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47888 | Drug implicated for prolongation of QT interval in a premature baby is - | [
"Domperidone",
"Metoclopramide",
"Cisapride",
"Omeprazole"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cisapride Cisapride inhibits the delayed rectifying IC- channels in hea and can cause prolongation of QT interval. o Drugs inhibiting CYP3A4 enzyme can precipitate Torsaes DePointes, Caused by cisapride eg; clarithromycin, erythromycin, cyclosporine, fluconazole, itraconazole, ketoconazole, Nefazodone, Ritonavir, Fluvoxamine. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11110 | Which of the following is single most impoant indicator of likilihoodness of progression of hepatitis to liver cirrhosis | [
"Etiology",
"Associated serological findings",
"Presence of bridging necrosis",
"Presence of mallary hyaline"
] | etiology is tje single most impoant indicator of liklihoodness of progression of hepatitis to cirrhosis HARSH MOHAN SIXTH EDITION PAGE.604-612 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52978 | Which of the following is not supplied by secretomotor fibre of facial nerve? | [
"Lacrimal gland",
"Parotid gland",
"Submandibular gland",
"Nasal glands"
] | General visceral efferent fibres of the facial nerve are preganglionic parasympathetic fibres that arise from lacrimatory and superior salivatory nuclei in the brainstem.They supply the secretomotor fibres to lacrimal, submandibular and sublingual glands. Secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland are the auriculotemporal nerve. Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head, neck and brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.341,142 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51303 | Ondansetron acts by: | [
"Action on CTZ",
"5-HT3 antagonism",
"D1 and D2 receptor antagonism",
"Increasing GIT motility"
] | Ondansetron blocks the depolarizing action of serotonin through 5-HT3 receptors on vagal afferents in the gut as well as in NTS and CTZ. It donot block dopamine receptors or ACH receptors.( ref KDT 6/e p646) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38298 | Tzank smear is done for all except | [
"Varicella",
"Herpes",
"Pemphigus",
"Psoriasis"
] | Tzanck smear is a bedside test. It enables cytodiagnosis in vesicular and bullous lesions to demonstrate acantholytic or multinucleated cells. Acantholytic cells are keratinocytes which are large round cells with a dark central nucleus and peripheral condensed pink cytoplasm. These cells may be singular or in groups and are seen in the pemphigus group of disorders. Herpes simplex, herpes zoster and varicella show multinucleated giant cells because of the intercellular septum of the keratinocytes. For the test, smear is taken from the floor of the bulla preferably a new lesion and stained with Giemsa or Leishman stain. Smear examined under microscope for the presence of acantholytic cells and multinucleated giant cells. tzank smear is negative in psoriasis Page no.110 Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50713 | A 7 month old infant presents with stridor since the tenth day of life. What is the Most likely cause ? | [
"Laryngotracheobronchitis",
"Tracheosophageal fistula",
"Laryngomalacia",
"Eventration of the diaphragm"
] | Laryngomalacia (Laryngeal Stridor) Laryngomalacia (LAYR inn go mah LAY shah) is also called laryngeal stridor. It results from a weakness of pas of the voice box (larynx) that is present at bih. This condition can cause a high-pitched sound called stridor (STRI der). You may hear this sound when your child breathes in. Cause of Laryngomalacia Laryngomalacia means "soft larynx." It is caused by floppiness of the tissue above the vocal cords (called the supraglottic larynx). When a person breathes in (inspiration), these tissues fall in towards the airway and cause the airway to be paly blocked. This blockage at the area of the voice box creates noisy breathing (called stridor). Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of noisy breathing in infants. More than half of infants have noisy breathing during the first week of life. Most other babies have it within 2 to 4 weeks of bih. It is rare, but laryngomalacia can happen in older children or adults, usually those with other medical problems. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27799 | Organism identified by interferons: | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Leptospira",
"Campylobactor",
"M. tuberculosis"
] | Ans. is. 'd' i. e., M. tuberculosis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36332 | Cobble stoning of intestine with string sign of lean tor is seen in: | [
"Crohn's disease",
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Ischemic colitis",
"Amoebic colitis"
] | Ans. (a) Crohn's disease* Cobble stone mucosa is appearance of the intestinal mucosa in Crohn's disease to the endoscopist,. Cobblestoning refers to the uniform nodules-due to the sub-mucosal fibrosis.* String sign of Kantor is due to involvement of the terminal ileum in Crohn's disease.* It is caused by severe spasm due to irritability of the loop producing the appearance of a frayed cotton string.* Subsequently the wall of the ileum may become fibrotic and the lumen fixed in diameter. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12505 | Nonoligouric kidney failure occurs with administration of which of the following drug/s? | [
"Gentamycin",
"Cisplatin",
"Ifosfamide",
"All the above"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above * ARF with urine output > 600 ml/day is defined as non-oliguric renal failure-* Important drugs cousing non-oliguric renal failure are -i) Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamycin)iv) Ifosfomideii) Amphotericin Bv) Radiocontrast agentsiii) Cisplatinvi) Cyclosporine | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31372 | Mutton fat keratic precipitates are seen in | [
"Granuloma uveitis",
"Non granulomatous uveitis",
"Choroiditis",
"Posterior staphyloma"
] | Ans. (a) Granuloma uveitis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20941 | Nerve supply of scalpa) Auriculotemporal nerveb) Zygomatic nervec) Occipital nerved) Infratrochlear nerve | [
"ab",
"abc",
"acd",
"bcd"
] | Nerves of the scalp and superficial temporal region
In Front of auricle
Behind th auricle
Sensory nerves
Sensory nerves
1.
Supratrochlear branch of the frontal (ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve)
1.
Posterior division of great auricular nerve (C2, C3) from cervical plexus
2.
Supraorbital, branch of frontal (ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve)
2.
Lesser occipital nerve (C2), from cervical plexus
3.
Zygomaticotemporal, branch of zygomatic nerve (maxillary division of trigerninal nerve)
3.
Greater occipital nerve (C2, dorsal ramus)
4.
Auriculotemporal branch of mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
4.
Third occipital nerve (C3, dorsal ramus
Motor nerve
Motor nerve
1.
Temporal branch of facial nerve
1.
Posterior auricular barnch of facial nerve | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45031 | Samogyi effect is - | [
"Morning hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance",
"Morning hyperglycemia due to large dose of exogenous insulin",
"Morning hypoglycemia due to large dose of exogenous insulin",
"Evening hypoglycemia due to insulin resistance"
] | Answer- B. Morning hyperglycemia due to large dose of exogenous insulinRebound hyperglycemia, results from excess xogenous insulin, which causes hypoglycemia overnight and stimulates the release to counter regulatory hormones that in turn increase blood glucose levels. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21511 | Which of the following drugs is used for Narcoanalysis? | [
"Atropine",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Scopolamine",
"Pethidine"
] | For the purpose of investigation, the application of forensic medicine plays a vital role. Nacro analysis is one of the methods used for lie detection. Scopolamine is one of the drugs used in Narcoanalysis. The truth serum drugs used in narcoanalysis are : 1. Scopolamine 2. Sodium Pentathal 3. Sodium Amytal 4. Sodium Seconal Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 435-436. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10364 | Which of the following is not done in W.P.W? | [
"Treadmill test",
"Electrophysiological studies",
"Oral beta blocker",
"Procainamide"
] | C/I of treadmill test: 1) severe AS 2) DVT 3) Charcot's joint 4) WPW 5) MI in first 48 hours 6) Unstable angina during attack 7) Buerger's disease 8) Bilateral osteoahritis of knee | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54360 | What is the type of Goldman tonometry? | [
"Applanation Tonometry",
"Dynamic countour tonometry",
"Rebound tonometry",
"Impression tonometry"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Applanation Tonometry Measurement of intraocular pressure (IOP)* Measurement of IOP is done byA) Manometry It is the only direct measure of IOP.B) TonometryIt is an indirect method of measurement of IOP. Following types of tonometers are therei) Indentation (impression) tonometerThese are the most commonly used tonometers. Example is Schiotz tonometer.ii) Applanation tonometerGoldmann applanation tonometer is the most accurate tonometer. Other types of applanation tonometers are perkins tonometer, pneumatic tonometer; air-puff tonometer, Pulse air tonometer, Tono pen. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22825 | A 57-year-old boy has been diagnosed to have posterior superior retraction pocket cholesteatoma. All would constitute part of the management, except - | [
"Audiometry",
"Mastoid exploration",
"Tympanoplasty",
"Myringoplasty"
] | Ans-DMyringoplasty consists of closing a 'central perforation' in the tympanic membrane in the 'tubotympanic type' or 'safe type' of chronic suppurative otitis media. It is not indicated in the unsafe or dangerous type of otitis media with posterosuperior attic perforation.The patient in question is a case of the dangerous or unsafe type of CSOM as Signified by the presence of posterosuperior retraction pocket cholesteatoma.The mainstay in the treatment of this type of CSOM is surgery.- The primary aim is to remove the disease and render the ear safe.A secondary aim is to preserve or reconstruct hearing, but never at the cost of the primary aim.(Mastoid exploration) is the operation of choice.Tympanoplasty: forms part of the secondary aim to reconstruct hearing after a primary mastoid exploration.- Dangerous type CSOM is associated with a perforation in the attic or posterosuperior region of T.M. along with the variable extent of destruction of ossicles and other middle ear contents. Reconstruction of hearing in this type of CSOM thus requires the variable extent of ossicular reconstruction besides closure of perforation.Audiometry forms an important step in the evaluation of disease process preoperatively.Although myringoplasty also forms a type of tympanoplasty its use is limited to closure of a perforation in the parts tensa of tympanic membrane which is seen in safe type CSOM. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16679 | Flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is- | [
"Serratus anterior",
"TRAM",
"Flap from arm",
"Delto pectoral flap"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10188 | In which of the following condition, flat capnogram is NOT seen? | [
"Apnea",
"Complete laryngospasm",
"Foreign body obstructing the upper airway",
"None of the above"
] | Capnography is a valuable monitor of the pulmonary, cardiovascular, and anesthetic breathing systems. Capnographs in common use rely on the absorption of infrared light by CO2. A value commonly repoed on the capnography device is the end-tidal CO2 (the maximum CO2 concentration at the end of each tidal breath, or ETCO2). A flat-line capnogram can be due to either apnea, upper airway obstruction, or complete laryngospasm. Ref: Miner J.R. (2011). Chapter 41. Procedural Sedation and Analgesia. In J.E. Tintinalli, J.S. Stapczynski, D.M. Cline, O.J. Ma, R.K. Cydulka, G.D. Meckler (Eds), Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide, 7e. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24184 | True about papilloma is all except: | [
"Solitary is more common in adults and most common presentation is change in voice",
"Solitary type is more aggressive, prognosis is bad and malignant transformation is common",
"Multiple type is more common in children and most common presentation is hoarse cry",
"Early treatment leads to better results in m... | (b) Solitary type is more aggressive, prognosis is bad and malignant transformation is common(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 923)Solitary type which is more common in adults is less aggressive (no stridor) and malignant transformation is rare.Early treatment will prevent stridor and therefore better results in multiple type in children. Rest are true. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45172 | In submandibular gland excision all of the following nerves may be affected except | [
"Lingual nerve",
"Hypoglossal nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve"
] | Ans. (c) Glossopharyngeal nerveRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition Page 780The following nerves are at risk during Submandibular surgery:2 Superficial nerves:* Marginal Mandibular branch of Facial nerve* Rarely Cervical Branch of Facial nerve* 2 Deep Cranial nerves:* Lingual Nerve* Hypoglossal nerve | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39755 | Glucose transpoer in myocyte stimulated by insulin in- | [
"a) GLUT-1",
"b) GLUT-2",
"c) GLUT-3",
"d) GLUT-4"
] | GLUT- 4 is present in Hea, skeletal muscle, adipose tissue. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13467 | Treatment of choice for carcinoma LarynxT1 NOMO stage: | [
"External beam radiotherapy",
"Radioactive implants",
"Surgery",
"Surgery and radiotherapy"
] | Treatment for stage I of cancer larynx (glottic cancer) is either microlaryngoscopic surgery or Radiotherapy. External Bean Radiation or Brachytherapy External bean radiation is most often used to treat laryngeal and hypopharyngeal cancer. Brachytherapy is rarely used to treat laryngeal or hypopharyngeal cancer. Radiation given as the primary treatment for larynx cancer or as an adjuvant treatment after surgery is most often done using an external beam technique, a dose of 6000-7000 cGy is admistered to the primary site. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33833 | For diatoms test, the best site for taking a sample is - | [
"Lungs",
"Bone marrow in Ulna",
"Bone marrow in femur",
"Muscle"
] | Diatoms can be demonstrated in all the given options.
"The current technique for isolation of diatoms involve acid digestion of tissue-commonly bone marrow, lung, blood or kidneys with subsequent centrifugation and washing." - Parikh
"Bone marrow of long bone (e.g. femur) is examined for diatoms. Kidney, lung, liver or brain is also washed and 1 x1 cm, pieces from the deeper tissue." - Reddy
But, the examiner is specifically asking for ideal tissue, which is bone marrow of long bones:
"The bone marrow is highly suitable and reliable. The bone marrow of long bones, such as femur, tibia, and humerus or sternum is examined for diatoms" - Reddy | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53203 | Most accurate treatment for erectile dysfunction is | [
"Sildenafil",
"Master and Johnson technique",
"Beta blockers",
"Papaverine"
] | Sildenafil citrate has been used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. Rapidly absorbed after oral administration, the maximum plasma concentration is reached in 30-120 minutes. It is metabolised in liver (mainly by cytochrome P450 3A4) and is conveed to an active metabolite. Sildenafil has a terminal half-life of about 4 hours. It is highly bound to plasma proteins and is not dialyzable. It is a competitive and selective inhibitor of cGMP (cyclic guanosine monophosphate)-specific PDE-5 (phosphodiesterase type 5). It prevents the rate of breakdown of cGMP causing enhanced relaxation of cavernosal smooth muscle, increase in aerial flow into corpus cavernosa, compression of subtunical veins, and hence penile erection. The typical dose is 50 mg (25-100 mg), 1 hour before sexual activity. The maximum recommended dosing frequency is once a day. The adverse effects include a transient and mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, and nasal congestion. Caution needs to be exercised in patients with known history of hypersensitivity, Other similar drugs include tadalafil and vardenafil. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 132 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30175 | True statement regarding ileum is - | [
"Tongue shaped villi in the lumen",
"Lymphatic patch along antimesenteric border",
"Supplied by inferior mesenteric vessels",
"Joins caecum at anterior surface"
] | Lymphatic patches (peyer's patches) are placed lengthwise along the antimesenteric border of the intestine.
Vili in ileum is finger-like.
The ileum is a midgut derivative and is therefore supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
Ileum joins the caecum on posterior-medial aspect of coecum. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54162 | A 27-year-old woman complains of double vision and fatigue at the end of the day. Further history reveals difficulty in chewing food, and some weakness in climbing stairs. She has stopped running because of easy leg fatigue and leg weakness. The symptoms improve with resting. On examination, there is weakness of the eyelids, masticatory muscles, and thigh flexors. Her handgrip decreases with repetitive action. There is no sensory abnormality, and reflexes are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"hypercalcemia",
"myasthenia gravis",
"multiple sclerosis",
"thyroid storm"
] | The most common presenting symptoms relate to weakness of eye muscles, causing ptosis or diplopia. Difficulty in chewing, dysarthria, and dysphagia are also common. The differential diagnosis includes all diseases that cause weakness of oropharyngeal or limb muscles. These include the muscular dystrophies, ALS, and progressive bulbar palsies, among others. Most other conditions do not improve after injection of edrophonium or neostigmine. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50223 | In Kwashiorkor, which immunoglobulin is most affected - | [
"IgD",
"lgA",
"IgE",
"IgM"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgA In malnourished subjects, secretory IgA is generally reduced. Therefore infections tend to be severe and recovery delayed. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38222 | Which of the following is coding RNA | [
"sn RNA",
"mRNA",
"Both sn RNA and mRNA",
"mi RNA"
] | rRNA, Lnc RNA, sn RNA, mi RNA, tRNA are all non coding RNA.
Only mRNA is coding RNA. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36834 | Regarding prion which of the following statements is true? | [
"It is protein product coded in viral DNA",
"It catalyzes abnormal folding of other protein",
"It protects disulfide bond from oxidation",
"It cleaves normal proteins"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., It catalyzes abnormal folding of other protein Prions are small protein-containing infectious particles with no detectable nucleic acid. They were suspected to be viruses but otherwise do not conform to the standard definition of viruses. They differ from the viruses in their many properties. The prions show following characteristics:1. Prions like viruses are filterable.2. They apparently lack any virion structure or genome.3. Unlike viruses, they are unusually resistant to inactivation by heat, disinfectants and radiation.4. They do not elicit any specific immune response in the infected host. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43126 | Which one of the tissues putrefies late | [
"Brain",
"Prostate",
"Liver",
"Stomach"
] | B i.e. Prostate | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14078 | A newborn presents with an early onset of dyspnea with chest retractions, expiratory grunting and cyanosis following an uneventful normal preterm labor. On examination no cardiac murmurs are heard and the lungs appear clear. On a plain X-ray there is evidence of prominent pulmonary vascular markings and fluid lines in the fissures. The cyanosis improves with minimal oxygen. The most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Meconium aspiration syndrome",
"Fetal aspiration syndrome",
"Transient tachypnea of the newborn",
"Hyaline membrane disease"
] | Transient tachypnea of the newborn * The clinical case given above indicates the likely diagnosis of transient tachynea of the newborn, which is otherwise called Respiratory distress syndrome type II. * It is characterized by the early onset of dyspnea with chest retractions, expiratory grunting and cyanosis. Neonates usually recover within 3 days. * The syndrome is believed to be secondary to slow absorption of fetal lung fluid resulting in decreased pulmonary compliance and tidal volume. * The distinctive feature of transient tachypnea of the newborn from hyaline membrane disease is sudden recovery of the infants and the absence of a radiographic reticulogranular pattern on CXR. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51948 | Features of Binder's syndrome: | [
"Maxillonasal dysplasia",
"Class 3 profile",
"Hypoplasia of nasal septum and premaxilla",
"All of the above"
] | Binder’s Syndrome
Maxillo - nasal dysplasia
Hypoplasia of nasal septum & premaxilla
Absent ANS
Class 3 profile | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18406 | Medical adrenalectomy can be done by: September 2012 | [
"Vincristine",
"Vinblastine",
"Mitotane",
"Methotrexate"
] | Ans. C i.e. Mitotane | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19768 | A 65-year-old man worked in a shipyard for 10 years, and then he worked for 5 years for a company that installed fire retardant insulation. He experienced increasing dyspnea for 11 years with progressive respiratory failure and hypoxemia. A CT scan of his chest now shows a large mass encasing the left lung. Which of the following findings is most likely to be seen on a chest radiograph in this patient? | [
"Bilateral fluffy perihilar infiltrates",
"Bilateral upper lobe cavitation",
"Diaphragmatic pleural calcified plaques",
"Endobronchial mass with atelectasis"
] | This patient has an occupational risk of asbestos exposure. The inhaled asbestos fibers become encrusted with iron and appear as the characteristic ferruginous bodies with iron stain. The firm, tan mass encasing the pleura is most likely a malignant mesothelioma. Asbestosis more commonly gives rise to pleural fibrosis and interstitial lung disease, similar to other pneumoconioses. This is seen grossly as a dense pleural plaque, which often is calcified. Asbestosis can give rise to bronchogenic carcinoma, especially in smokers. Fluffy infiltrates suggest an infectious process. Upper lobe cavitation suggests secondary tuberculosis. An endobronchial mass could be a carcinoid tumor, which is not related to asbestosis. The pleural mass likely leads to obliteration of the pleural space, with no effusion. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29079 | All are associated with malignancy except : | [
"Down's syndrome",
"Fragile X syndrome",
"Bloom syndrome",
"Fanconi's anaemia"
] | Has been explained (see factors predisposing to childhood leukemia). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6710 | In Fracture acetabulum, late complication is - | [
"Osteoarthritis",
"Tardy sciatic nerve palsy",
"Recurrent Dislocation",
"None of the above"
] | In the longer term, the common problem is the development of hip osteoarthritis. Other possible problems include AVN of femoral head and heterotopic ossification (bone formation). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29937 | Type II Mirizzi's syndrome | [
"Obstruction of common duct by external compression only(no erosion)",
"Erosion of one-thirds circumference of common duct",
"Erosion of upto two-third circumference of common duct",
"Total /near total circumferential of common duct"
] | Classification of Mirizzi's Syndrome (Csendes classification) Type I Obstruction of common duct by external compression only(no erosion) Type II Erosion of less than one-third circumference of common duct Type III Erosion of upto two-third circumference of common duct Type IV Total/near total circumferential destruction of common duct Type V Erosion of GB in common duct with cholecystoenteric fistula Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1520 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40741 | Lower 1/3 of vagina is formed by | [
"Mesonephric duct",
"Paramesonephric duct",
"Sinovaginal bulb",
"Mesoderm of mullerian duct"
] | Lower 2/3rd of vagina formed from sinovaginal bulb which comes from endoderm of urogenital sinus. Upper 1/3rd of vagina is derived from fused paramesonephric duct. Mesonephric duct forms the collecting pa or ductular pa of male reproductive system. Mesoderm of Mullerian duct is basically paramesonephric duct. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36657 | Tigroid white matter on MR spectroscopy seen in:- | [
"Pantothenate kinase deficiency",
"Pelizaeus-merzbacher disease",
"Neuroferritinopathy",
"Aceruloplasminemia"
] | Ans. (b) Pelizaeus-merzbacher diseaseRef: Harrisons Principle of Internal Medicine 20th Ed; Page No- 3049* The Tigroid pattern or stripe sign is also known as leopard skin sign results from dark-spots or stripes (spared perivascular white matter) within bright demyelinated periventricular white matter on T2W images.* It is most commonly seen in:# Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease (PMD) The human neural stem cells have both neurogenic and gliogenic potential, and when delivered to white matter regions in experimental animals most persisting cells had become oligodendrocytes. This supported use of the cells to promote myelin formation in conditions such as PMD.# Metachromatic leukodystrophy# Autosomal recessive spastic ataxia of Charlevoix | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6454 | 10 year old boy complaints of pain in right arm near the shoulder, x-ray shows expansile lytic lesion in upper third of humerus, what is the likely diagnosis. | [
"Aneurysmal Bone cyst",
"Simple bone cyst",
"Giant cell tumor",
"Osteosarcoma"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17632 | Which of the following vessels is involved in extradural haematoma? | [
"Middle meningeal artery",
"Venous sinuses",
"Bridging veins",
"Middle cerebral artery"
] | Ans. a (Middle meningeal artery). (Ref: B & L, Surgery, 25th/ 303).Extradural haematoma (EDH)# It is a neurosurgical emergency. An EDH is nearly always associated with a skull fracture and is more common in young male patients. The skull fracture is asso- ciated with tearing of a meningeal artery and a haematoma accumulates in the space between bone and dura. The most common site is temporal, as the pterion is not only the thinnest part of the skull but also overlies the largest meningeal artery - the middle meningeal.# An EDH may also occur in other regions such as frontal as well as in the posterior fossa. They are not always arte- rial: disruption of a major dural venous sinus can result in an EDH. The force required to sustain a skull fracture can be surprisingly small - a fall from standing or a single blow to the head.# The classical presentation of an EDH, occurring in less than one-third of cases, is initial injury followed by a lucid interval when the patient complains of a headache but is fully alert and orientated with no focal deficit. After minutes or hours a rapid deterioration occurs, with contralateral hemiparesis, reduced conscious level and ipsilateral pupillary dilatation as a result of brain compression and herniation.FEATUREEDH (EXTRADURAL HEMATOMA)SDH (SUBDURAL HEMATOMA)Incidence1-4%10-20%EtiologyLacerated middle meningeal artery/ dural sinus in 70 to 85% cases.Stretching, tearing of bridging cortical veins.AgeAnyOlder peoplefractureSeen in 85-95% cases-LocationBetween skull & dura.95% supratentorialCrosses dural attachments but not sutures.Between dura & arachnoid95% supratentorialCrosses suture but not dural attachmentBilateral5%15%CT- Biconvex (lentiform shape)- 2/3 hyperdense (- 1/3 mixed density)- Displace greywhite interfacea) Acute SDH: Crescentic & hyperdenseb) Subacute SDH: May be nearly isodense with cortex neo-membrane, underlying vessels may enhance.c) Chronic SDH: Hypodense with enhancing membrane. About 1-2% of very old SDH calcify | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16619 | Delirium is distinguished from dementia by the presence of: | [
"Impaired judgment",
"Impaired memory",
"Clouding of consciousness",
"Thought disorder"
] | The hallmark of delirium is fluctuation in level of consciousness. Periods of lucency may be interspersed with periods of marked unresponsiveness. Another distinguishing feature is that the onset of delirium usually occurs within hours or days, whereas the onset of dementia may be insidious throughout a period of weeks to months. Ref: Johnston B., Yaffe K. (2008). Chapter 27. Dementia & Delirium. In M.D. Feldman, J.F. Christensen (Eds), Behavioral Medicine: A Guide for Clinical Practice, 3e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25673 | Tinel's sign is positive in | [
"Peripheral nerve regeneration",
"Tendon injury",
"Tenosynovitis",
"Rheumatoid arthritis"
] | (A) Peripheral nerve regeneration # Tinel s sign: Tinel's sign is elicited as follows:> Tap the injured nerve along its course starting peripherally.> The point at which the patient feels tingling sensation along the course of the nerve indicates that recovery has started and has reached that point.> Also seen in comparision of nerve either by neuromas or entrapment. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51172 | Emmetropia is associated with | [
"Myopia",
"Astigmatism",
"Hypermetropia",
"Absence of refractive error"
] | Emmetropia (optically normal eye) is a state of refraction when the parallel rays of light coming from infinity are focused at the sensitive layer of the retina with accommodation at rest. At bih, the eyeball is relatively sho and thus most infants are born with +2 to +3 D hypermetropia. This is gradually reduced and by the age of 5 to 7 years usually, the eye becomes emmetropic in a person with absent refractive error. Ametropia (a condition of refractive error), is defined as a state of refraction when the parallel rays of light coming from infinity (with accommodation at rest), are focused either in front or behind the sensitive layer of the retina, in one or both the meridians. The ametropia includes myopia, hypermetropia, and astigmatism. Emmetropia is the state of vision in which a faraway object at infinity is in sharp focus with the eye lens in a neutral or relaxed state. That condition of the normal eye is achieved when the refractive power of the cornea and the axial length of the eye balance out, which focuses rays exactly on the retina, resulting in perfect vision. A human eye in a state of emmetropia requires no corrective lenses; the vision scores well on a visual acuity test (such as an eye cha test). For example, on a Snellen cha test, emmetropic eyes score at "6/6"(m) or "20/20"(ft) vision, meaning that at a distance of 20 ft (the first number) they see as well as a normal eye at a distance of 20 ft (the second number). Either myopic (near-sighted) eyes or hyperopic (far-sighted) eyes would score worse, e.g. 20/40 (visual acuity roughly half normal). Exceptionally acute vision (excellent cornea and lens and better than standard retina) might be 20/15 Emmetropia is the state of the eye in which no refractive error is present, there is no need for glasses or contact lenses. In emmetropia, the curvature of the cornea, the shape of the lens and their distances from each other all work together to focus the rays of light to create a sharp image on the retina Reference : Khurana comprehensive ophthalmology; 4th edition; P: 28,29 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41729 | Double-Bubble" sign in X-ray is seen in: | [
"Colon carcinoma",
"Duodenal atresia",
"Acute pancreatitis",
"Perforation"
] | Duodenal atresia | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6005 | Reticulocytosis is seen in all except: | [
"P.N.H",
"Hemolysis",
"Nutritional anemia",
"Dyserythropoietic syndrome"
] | Answer is both C and D (Nutritional Anemia and Congenital dyserythropoeitic anemia) Nutritional anemia is associated with normal/Low Retriculocyte count. Increased reticulocyte count (Reticulocytosis) is not a feature ,,f nutritional anemias. Nutritional Anemia Anemia resulting from deficiency of impoant nutrients in diet is called Nutritional anemia. Nutritional anemia is most commonly seen secondary to deficiency of Iron (Iron deficiency anemia) and vitamin B12 and Folic acid (Megaloblastic anemia). Both iron deficiency anemia and megaloblastic anemia are associated with low reticulocyte count. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anemia(CDA's) (Essential Hematology by Moss 0/97) Congenital dyserythropoetic anemias are a group of hereditary refractory anemias characterized by ineffective erythropoesis. The reticulocyte count in these disorders in characteristically low (to normal for the degree of anemia). Paroxysmal Nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria is associated with Intravascular hemolysis and is a known cause for elevated Reticulocyte count. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21751 | Amount of fat is maximum in which milk: | [
"Cow",
"Buffalo",
"Human",
"Goat"
] | Amount per 100 ml Cow's milk Human milk Buffalo milk Goat milk Fat 4.1 g 3.4 g 6.5 g 4.5 g Protein 3.3 g 1.1 g 4.3 g 3.3 g Lactose 4.4 g 7.4 g 5.1 g 4.6 g Ref: Park, 22nd edition pg: 584 | B | null |
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