dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_1184 | Doctrine of common knowledge is a variant of | [
"Medical maloccurence",
"Res ipsa loquitur",
"Novus actus interveniens",
"Calculated risk doctrine"
] | Doctrine of common knowledge Doctrine of Common Knowledge - It is based on the assumption that the issue of negligence in the paicular case is not related to specialized knowledge or technical matters of the medical profession, but an act involving application of common knowledge. - Expes may not provide evidence regarding matters of 'common knowledge'. - It is a variant of res ipsa loquitur | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22664 | A phenotypically normal woman underwent a karyotype analysis for difficulties in conceiving. She was found to contain three Barr bodies, but no translocations or large deletions. Her karyotype would be best represented by which one of the following? | [
"48 XXXXY",
"46 XX",
"48 XXXX",
"48 XXXY"
] | If the woman is expressing three Barr bodies, then she has four X chromosomes per cell, three of which have been inactivated. This would give her a total of 48 chromosomes, and four of those would be X chromosomes, for a karyotype of 48 XXXX. Any karyotype with a Y chromosome would be a male. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1750 | Which of the following is an anti-pseudomonal drug of penicillin class: March 2013 | [
"Nafcillin",
"Dicloxacillin",
"Piperacillin",
"Cloxacillin"
] | Ans. C i.e. Piperacillin Extended-spectrum penicillin It is a group of antibiotics that has the widest antibacterial spectrum of all penicillins. It is also called antipseudomonal penicillins. This group includes the Aminopenicillins: Amoxicillin Ampicillin Epicillin - Carboxypenicillins: Ticarcillin Carbenicillin Ureidopinicillin Azlocillin Mezlocillin Piperacillin - Mecillinam | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33767 | 'First order 'symptoms of schizophrenias' schizopremia include all except: | [
"Depersonilization",
"Running commentary of ones thoughts",
"Primary delusion",
"Somatic passivity"
] | There are 11 first rank symptoms first three are related to thoughts - thought inseion , withdrawal & broadcasting next three are related to hallucinations -1St person ,2ND person & 3RD person next three are made phenomena remember MADE VOLITION, MADE IMPULSE, MADE AFFECT (mood) Last two are Somatic passivity & Delusional perception | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54635 | In valvular hea disease complicating pregnancy the following statements are true except : | [
"A closed mitral valvotomy can be carried out if symptoms of mitral stenosis are severe",
"Open hea surgery is associated with a reduction in fetal loss",
"Mitral regurgitation is usually well tolerated",
"A maternal moality of 15% has been repoed in women with critical aoic stenosis"
] | Open hea surgery is associated with a reduction in fetal loss | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53955 | Which of the following is seen in eosinophil granules? | [
"Cathepsin",
"Major basic protein",
"Transferrin",
"All of the above"
] | Eosinophils are abundant in immune reactions mediated by IgE and in parasitic infections. A chemokine that is especially impoant for eosinophil recruitment is eotaxin. Eosinophils have granules that contain major basic protein, a highly cationic protein that is toxic to parasites but also causes lysis of mammalian epithelial cells. Ref: Robbins 8th edition, Chapter 2. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47261 | Aschoff cells are - | [
"Fibroblasts",
"Monocytes",
"Neutrophils",
"Lymphocytes"
] | The monocytes migrate to tissues and become part of the tissue (fixed) macrophages.
Blood macrophages → Monocytes
Tissue macrophages → Histiocytes
Tissue macrophages (histiocytes) in different tissue are mentioned below –
Lung: ‘Alveolar macrophages’ or ‘Dust’ cells
Placenta: Hofbauer cells
Brain: Microglia
Kidney: Mesangial cells
Liver: Kupffer cells
Spleen: Littoral cells
Bone: Osteoclasts
Synovium: Type-A lining cells
Skin: Langerhans cells
Spleen: Red pulp sinusoidal lining cells
Connective tissue: Histiocytes (tissue macrophages)
L The lifespan of monocytes in circulation is 1-3 days whereas tissue macrophages have a life span of 3 months to years | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6323 | Anti-TNF alpha drugs are used for the treatment of all of following diseases except - | [
"Systemic lupus erythematosis",
"Seronegative arthritis",
"Psoriatic arthritis",
"Crohn's disease"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Systemic lupus erythematosis The major defect in systemic lupus erythematosis is under expression of TNFa, therefore anti TNF-a have no role in their managementAnti TNF-a drugs may be used in inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis and vasculitis as these diseases are caused by overexpression ofTumour necrosis factor (TNF-a).Use of anti TNF-a have been approved by FDA in these cases.Anti TNF-a drugs *Infliximab - FDA approved for RA and Crohn's diseaseAdalimumab - FDA approved for Rheumatoid arthritisEtanercept - FDA approved for Rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23733 | True statements about asbestosis | [
"Causes Lung Ca",
"Pleural mesothelioma",
"Peritoneal mesothelioma",
"All of the above"
] | Answer is D (All of the above) : Asbestosis may be associated with Bronchogenic carcinoma, Mesotheliomas (pleural and peritoneal) and Pulmonary fibrosis. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18332 | First to come in female pubey: | [
"Thelarche",
"Menses",
"Adrenarche",
"Growth spu"
] | This question may cause a problem in the exam. If growth spu is in the choices then we must mark that s the first option since this is indeed the first event of pubey Pubey specific event which comes in first is Thelarche & then Pubarche, linear growth spu and Menarche In girls, pubeal development typically takes place over 4.5 years). The first sign of pubey is accelerated growth, and breast budding is usually the first recognized pubeal change, followed by the appearance of pubic hair, peak growth velocity, and menarche. The stages initially described by Marshall and Tanner are often used to describe breast and pubic hair development This is from Novaks gynecology and hence we should see what is asked in the question. Mostly the questions are asked for the 'first sign' specific of pubey and breast budding is the answer, but if "Growth spu' is given and the question is non-specific, then that's the option. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42360 | In a completely and adequately immunized child against Diphtheria, the throat swab was collected. It showed the presence of Corynaebacterium diphtheriae like organisms on Albert staining. These orgainisms can have one of the following properties on further laboratory processing - | [
"It can grow on Potassium tellurite medium",
"It would show a positive Elek's gel precipitation test",
"It can be pathogenic to experimental guinea pigs",
"It can produce cytotoxicity in tissue cultures"
] | This child is a carrier for C.diphtheriae.
Adequate vaccination can prevent the disease but not the colonization.
‘Mass immunization might result in disappearance of toxigenic strains from many populations but has no effect on carriage of nontoxigenic strains.’
Since the child is completely vaccinated, antitoxin level in serum can always neutralize the toxin but it can not prevent the colonization of nontoxigenic strain.
So, the organism can be grown on Potassium tellurite medium but since it might be a nontoxigenic strain, so any test to detect the toxigenicity will be negative.
Ref: Apurba Sastry’s Essentials of Medical Microbiology 1/e p246 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47514 | Resolution of inflammation caused by - rpt Q32 | [
"TNF Alfa, IL-1 and CRP",
"TNF beta, IL-6 and CRP",
"TNF Alfa, IL 10 and IL 1 receptor antagonist",
"TNF gamma"
] | anti-inflammatory mediators terminate the acute inflammatory reaction when it is no longer needed anti-inflammatory cytokines: IL-10, TGF-beta, IL-4, IL-13 ref robbins basic pathology 9th ed page 48 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29166 | Acro Osteolysis is seen in | [
"Amyloidosis",
"Gout",
"Psoriatic arthropathy",
"Multiple myeloma"
] | Acroosteolysis
Sclerodeima
Hyperparathyoidism
Rheumatomoid arthritis
Raynaud's
Psoriatric arthropathy. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20942 | Mouth-to-mouth respiration provides an oxygen concentration of | [
"16%",
"20%",
"22%",
"24%"
] | The concentration of O2 in the expired air is 16%. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44164 | Punctuate yellow exudates in colon, found on endoscopic examiantion are indicative of | [
"Balantidium coli",
"Ulceratice colitis",
"Antibiotic colitis",
"Gluten induced enteropathy"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17598 | A school teacher gives consent for treating a child who becomes sick during a picnic away from home town. This type of consent is known as? | [
"Paternalism",
"Loco Parentis",
"Vicarious liability",
"Novus Actus Interveniens"
] | Loco Parentis: In an emergency involving children, when parents or guardians are not available, consent is taken from the person in charge of the child. Paternalism: Is an abuse of medical knowledge so as to disto the doctor-patient relationship in such a way that the patient is deprived of his autonomy, or his ability to make a rational choice. Vicarious liability (Liability for act of another): An employer is responsible not only for his own negligence but also for the negligence for his employees. Novus Actus Interveniens: A person is responsible not only for his actions, but also for the logical consequences of those actions. This principle applies to cases of assault and accidental injury. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th Ed Page 45. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51258 | Which of the following is not synthesised from tyrosine? | [
"Nor epinephrine",
"Melatonin",
"Thyroxine",
"Dopamine"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49320 | Treatment of choice for Echinococcus granulosus is? | [
"Albendazole",
"Thio-bendazole",
"Mebendazole",
"Praziquantel"
] | Albendazole REF: 11th edition of Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics p. 710 "Albendazole is the drug of choice for cystic Hydatid disease due to E. granulosus" | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28531 | A 4 year boy is complaining of pain around elbow with the hand held in pronation with extension. X ray of the elbow joint is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Pulled elbow",
"Montegia fracture",
"Cellulitis",
"None of the above"
] | Pulled elbow or Nursemaid elbow or Babysitter's elbow or radial head subluxation is most commonly occurs in children aged 1-4 years. The etiology is slippage of the head of the radius under the annular ligament. The distal attachment of the annular ligament covering the radial head is weaker in children than in adults, allowing it to be more easily torn. As children age, the annular ligament strengthens, making the condition less common. The oval shape of the proximal radius in cross-section contributes to this condition by offering a more acute angle posteriorly and laterally, with less resistance to slippage of the ligament when axial traction is applied to the extended and pronated forearm. The patient resists supination/pronation as well as flexion/extension of the forearm. Axial traction is the most common cause of nursemaid elbow. A fall is the second most common mechanism of injury. Infants have been repoed with nursemaid elbow after rolling over or being assisted to roll over. The Monteggia fracture is a fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the head of the radius. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8224 | Which is the most common syndrome associated with focal seizures with dyscognitive features in adults? | [
"Lennox Gastaut syndrome",
"Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy",
"Rolandic epilepsy",
"Epilepsia Paialis Continua"
] | M/C syndrome associated with focal seizures with dyscognitive features is Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy. * Febrile convulsion * Focal seizures with impaired awareness "Automatism" * EEG - Temporal (U/L or B/L) spikes *MRI - Hippocampal sclerosis * Lennox Gastaut syndrome is seen in children and presents with multiple seizure type. Benign Rolandic epilepsy MC epilepsy in children Focal seizures Peak age of onset: 2-13 yr If a focal seizure continues for hours/days it is known as Epilepsia Paialis Continua. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11226 | A 60-year-old man is brought to a psychiatrist with a 10-year history, that he suspects his neighbors and he feels that whenever he passes by they sneeze and plan against behind his back. He feels that his wife has been replaced by a double and calls police for help. He is quite well-groomed ale, occasionally consumes alcohol, likely diagnosis is: | [
"Paranoid personality",
"Paranoid schizophrenia",
"Alcohol withdrawal",
"Conversion disorder"
] | B i.e. Paranoid schizophreniaProblems of the patient: 1. From 10 years & i.e. staed at the age of 50 years, 2. Feels that neighbors plan against him, 3. The delusion of doubles (wife has been replaced by a double), 4. He consumes alcohol occasionally. But the patient is well-groomed, ale. Approach to this case. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39840 | Which of the following drug is a SERM is useful for treatment of osteoporosis? | [
"Raloxifene",
"Bisphosphonate",
"Strontium",
"Estradiol"
] | Raloxifen has agonistic action on estrogen receptors on bone Raloxifene is a first line drug for prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal females. It prevent bone loss, increases bone mineral density by 0.9 percent. (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 305) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45679 | A man coming from mountain whose wife died 6 months prior says that his wife appeared to him and asked him to join her. The diagnosis is | [
"Normal grief",
"Grief psychosis",
"Berevement reaction",
"Supernatural phenomenon"
] | B i.e. Grief psychosis Bereavement, Grief or Mourning is a psychological reaction of those who survive a significant loss. Differences between normal & abnormal grief: Identifying with deceased person such as taking on ceain admired traits or treasuring ceain possessions is normal; believing that one is the deceased person or is dying of exactly what the deceased person died of (if infact this is untrue) is not normal. - Hearing the fleeting, transient voice of a deceased person may be normal; persistent, intrusive, complex auditory hallucinations are not normalQ. Denial of ceain aspects of the death is normal; denial that includes the belief that the dead person is still alive is not normal. Grief Is a normal response of an individual to the loss of a loved object which presents with: - Various physical & mental symptoms like sighing, crying, chocking, breathing difficulty, weakness etc. - Preoccupation with memory of deceased - Sense of presence of deceased & misinterpretation of voices & faces of others as that of lost. - Seeing person in dreams & fleeting hallucinations. Abnormal Grief Exaggeration of one or more normal symptoms of griefQ - Duration > 6 months.Q Pathological/Morbid Grief Complicated Grief 1 Associated with psychotic or neurotic illness * Chronic Grief * Delayed Grief * Inhibited Grief = * Anniversary Reaction = Duration > 6 monthsQ Onset after 2 weeks of lost (death) Denial of loss Grief reaction on death anniversary Over idealization of deceased. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40402 | Disulfiram and acamprosate are used for: | [
"Alcohol abstinence",
"Cocaine abuse",
"Opium poisoning",
"Atropine over dose"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19951 | True regarding scrum pox is all except | [
"Common in rugby players",
"Caused by varicella zoster virus",
"Acyclovir is treatment",
"Vesicular Lesions and fever seen"
] | Serum pox is caused by HSV - type I. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17865 | Which of the following causes opening of Eustachian tube? | [
"Salpingopharyngeus",
"Levator veli palatini",
"Tensor veli palatini",
"None of the above"
] | The Eustachian tube/auditory tube in the adult is 36 mm in length. (Range 32-38 mm) From its tympanic end, it runs downward forward and medially joining an angle of 45° with horizontal.
In infants, the tube is shorter, wider and is more horizontal.
It has two parts—a pharyngeal cartilaginous part which forms 2/3rd (24 mm) of its length (i.e. inner or medial part) and a tympanic bony part which forms remaining 1/3rd (outer or lateral part) (12 mm). This is just reverse of external auditory canal
The two parts meet at isthmus which is the narrowest part of tube.
The fibers of origin of tensor palati muscles are attached to lateral wall of the tube. Contraction of this muscle during swallowing, yawning and sneezing opens the tube and this helps in maintaining equality of air pressure on both sides of tympanic membrane. Contraction of levator palati muscles which runs below the floor of cartilaginous part also helps in opening the tube.
It is lined by pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium (cartilaginous part contains numerous mucous glands).
Ref. Dhingra 6/e, p 57, 5/e, p 63 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40734 | The sputum examination under TP is done when the patient present with -a) Cough of 1-2 weeks durationb) Persistent cough of 1-2 weeks durationc) Hemoptysisd) Chest paine) Intermittent fever | [
"ab",
"bc",
"bd",
"cd"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40098 | Most suitable elevator for both elevation and curetting with minimum trauma is: | [
"Molt's curette no.2-4",
"Molt's curette no.4-6",
"Molt's curette no.1-2",
"Molt's curette no.8-10"
] | Even though several types of elevators are available, the Molts curette no.2-4 is suitable for both elevation and curetting with minimum trauma. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45639 | Bennett's fracture is fracture dislocation of base of which of the following metacarpal? | [
"3rd",
"4th",
"1st",
"2nd"
] | Bennett's fracture dislocation is paial aicular fracture of 1st metacarpal base with trapeziometacarpal dislocation/ subluxation. Also know Rolando's fracture dislocation: It is complete fracture of 1st metacarpal. It involves whole aicular surface with comminuted T or Y intraaicular fracture. Ref: Apley's 8/e, Page 631-32; Watson Jones: fracture & Joint injuries 6/e, Page 760-62; Rockwood & Green's Fracture in Adults 6/e, Page 836-42. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46424 | Which of the following is spared in modified radical mastectomy (MRM)? | [
"Pectoralis major",
"Pectoralis minor",
"Axillary lymph nodes",
"Nipple"
] | Ans. a (Pectoralis major). (Ref. Bailey & Love Surgery, 25th ed., 842)MASTECTOMY is now only strictly indicated for large tumors, central tumor beneath or involving nipple, multifocal disease, and local recurrence or for patient preference.Simple mastectomyRadical mastectomy (Halsted)Modified radical Mastectomy (Patey's)# Only breast & Axillary tail of breast# Breast# Axillary lymph nodes# Pectoralis major# Pectoralis minor# Whole breast# Large portion of skin including nipple# Dissection of axilla# All fat, fascia & lymph nodes of axilla.# Pectoral minor either divided or retracted# Intercostal brachial nerves divided.STRUCTURES SPARED IN MRM1. Pectoralis major2. Axillary vein3. Nerve to serratus anterior & latissimus dorsiEducational points:# Conservative breast cancer surgery is QUART (Quadrantectomy Axillary Dissection & RT).# Sentinel node biopsy localized by radionuclide scan or by injection of patent blue dye.# Reconstruction materials:- Silicone gel,- Musculocutaneous Flaps {TRAM gives best cosmetic results) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37315 | Bird of prey sign is seen in | [
"Gastric volvulus",
"Intussusception",
"Sigmoid volvulus",
"Caecal volvulus"
] | Sigmoid volvulus is a cause of large bowel obstruction and occurs when the sigmoid colon twists on the sigmoid mesocolon. Imaging signs areRadiograph:coffee bean signFrimann Dahl&;s sign - three dense lines converge towards the site of obstructionabsent rectal gas water-soluble contrast enema - the beak sign (or bird beak sign). CTlarge gas-filled loop without haustral markings, forming a closed-loop obstructionwhirl sign: twisting of the mesentery and mesenteric vesselsbeak sign: if rectal contrast has been administered (Ref: Grainger and Allison&;s diagnostic radiology 6th edition, chapter 25) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20997 | True about Dual sex therapy is? | [
"Patient alone is not treated",
"Uses sildenafil",
"It treats sexual perversions",
"It is used for people with dual gender identities"
] | Patient alone is not treated REF: Kaplan and sadock's synopsis in psychiatry 9th ed p. 700The theoretical basis of dual-sex therapy is the concept of the marital unit or dyad as the object of therapy. In dual-sex therapy, treatment is based on a concept that the couple must be treated when a dysfunctional person is in a relationship. Because both are involved in a sexually distressing situation, both must paicipate in the therapy program. Dual sex therapy aka "Master and Johnson therapy"Types:Sensate focusing(i) Used for impotence(ii) Focuses on stimulation of organs other than genitals for sexual arousalSqueeze technique or semen's technique(i) Used for premature ejaculation(ii) Female paner squeezes the coronal ridge at the inevitability of male ejaculation, hence delays ejaculation. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23213 | Neonatal Complication in Diabetes mothers in all EXCEPT | [
"Hypocalcaemia",
"Macrosomia",
"Hypoglycemia",
"Anemia"
] | (Anemia): (284-85-Dutta 7th edition)Neonatal complication of PM* Hypo glycaemia (<37mg/dl)* Respiratory distress syndrome* Hyperbilirubinaemia* Polycythaemia* Hypocalcaemia (< 7mg/dL)* Hypomagnesemia(< 7mg/dL)* CardiomyopathyMAJOR BIRTH DEFECTS IN INTANTS OF DIABLTIC MOTHERS (6 -10TH)CNS and skeletalCardiovascularRenalGastrointestinalOthers* Neural tube defects* VSD, ASD* Renal agenesis* Duodenal atresia* Single umbilical artery* Hydronephrosis* Anorectal atresia* Anencephaly* Coarctalion of aorta* Double ureter* Omphalocoele * Microcephaly * Caudal regression syndrome* Transposition of great vessels * Situs inversus* Polycystic kidneys* Tracheo oesophageal fistula * Sacral agenesis* Fallot's tetralogy | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51290 | Seat belt injury results in: | [
"Injury involving mesentery",
"Splenic laceration",
"Liver laceration",
"Pancreatic laceration"
] | Ans: a (Injury involving mesentery) Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th ed, p. 1147* Sudden deceleration can result in a tom mesentery* If any bruising of abdominal wall or even marks of clothing is impressed into the skin, laparotomy may be indicated* Diagnostic peritoneal lavage may be helpful in this situation* Laceration of mesentery - TransverseHorizontala) Transverse tear often imperils the blood supply of a segment of intestine, making resection necessaryb) Longitudinal tear can be closed by sutureConditions producing mesentery injury* Traumatic tears* Torsion* Embolism/thrombosis* A/c non specific adenitis* Cysts* Neoplasms- benign & malignantAttachments of mesentery (Root of mesentery)15 cm long and is directed obliquely downwards and to the right.It extends from the duodenojejunal flexure on the left side of vertebra L2 to the upper part of right sacroiliac jointRoot of mesentery crosses the following structuresa) Third part of the duodenum where the superior mesenteric vessels enter into itb) The abdominal aortac) The inferior venacavad) The right uretere) The right psoas major | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3164 | Defence mechanism by the bacteria which produce biofilm are all except? | [
"Antibiotics are expelled from the surface",
"They stick to the surface strongly",
"Antibiotics penetration into the biofilm is less",
"They protect from the inflammatory mediators"
] | Biofilms: These are well-organised microcolonies of bacteria enclosed in self-produced extracellular polymer matrices known as glycocalyx. They are separated by water channels that remove water and deliver nutrients. Biofilm is one of the mechanisms of antibiotic resistance. They stick to the surface strongly. Antibiotics penetration into the biofilm is less. They protect from the inflammatory mediators. Efflux pumps- Expulsion of the drug from the cell soon after their entry to prevent intracellular accumulation of the drug. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41336 | Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hyperophy of- | [
"Endothelial cells",
"Collagen fibers",
"Smooth muscle cells",
"Elastic fibers"
] | repeated question Neointimal hyperplasia first develops with damage to the aerial wall, followed by platelet aggregation at site of injury, recruitment of inflammatory cells, proliferation and migration of vascular smooth muscle cells, and collagen deposition.Neointimal hyperplasia Neointimal Hyperplasia refers to proliferation and migration of vascular smooth muscle cells primarily in the tunica intima, resulting in the thickening of aerial walls and decreased aerial lumen space. Neointimal hyperplasia is the major cause of restenosis after percutaneous coronary interventions such as stenting or angioplasty. The term neointima is used because the cells in the hyperplastic regions of the vascular wall have histological characteristics of both intima and normal aery cells. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17470 | The triangular area bounded by clitoris, fourchette and labia minora is | [
"Fossa navicularis",
"Fouchette",
"Vestibule",
"Vulva"
] | Vestibule : It is a triangular area bounded Anteriorly by clitoris Posteriorly by fourchette Either side by labia minora Ref: D.C. Dutta's Textbook of Gynaecology, 6th edition, page no: 2 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16014 | A 40 year old female presents with swelling in the neck. O/E it is a 2x2 cm nodule on the right lobe of thyroid. No palpable cervical nodes. FNAC shows features of papillary carcinoma. Treatment of choice | [
"Total thyroidectomy",
"Right hemithyroidectomy",
"Hartley-Dunhill operation",
"Subtotal thyroidectomy"
] | Answer: a) Total thyroidectomy (SABISTON 19TH ED, P-908)PAPILLARY CARCINOMA (80%)Most common type of thyroid carcinomaMore common in womenMostly in the age group 25 - 50Mutations in RET or BRAF geneAssociated with previous exposure to ionizing radiationHistologyNuclei: optically clear or empty appearance - groundglass or Orphan Annie eye nucleiCrowded nuclei may demonstrate groovingPsammoma bodiesSeldom encapsulatedMultiple foci seenHistologic variants - follicular (mc), tall cell, diffuse sclerosing, insular, columnarSlowly progressive and less aggressive tumorThyroglobulin is used as tumor markerSpread to lymph nodes is common, blood borne metastasis is unusualLymph node status does not alter the prognosisSeen as cold masses on scintiscansClassic papillary carcinoma and follicular variant - Excellent prognosisAll other subtypes - aggressiveDiffuse sclerosing variantOccurs in younger individuals, including childrenExtensive, diffuse fibrosis throughout the thyroid glandOften associated with a prominent lymphocytic infiltrate, simulating Hashimoto thyroiditisLack BRAF mutations, but RET/PTC translocations are found in 50% casesMicrocarcinoma (Occult carcinoma)Papillary cancers less than 1 cmMost commonly come to attention as an incidental finding in patients undergoing surgeryMajority of such tumours never progress to become a clinically significant entityHave a uniformly excellent prognosisFactors associated with worse prognosisMale genderAge > 40 yarsSize > 3 cmTall cell variantAge at diagnosis - most important prognostic factor in well-differentiated thyroid cancer Treatment of differentiated thyroid cancerSolitary intrathyroidal papillary microcarcinoma: no clinically involved cervical lymph nodes, no history of head and neck radiation - unilateral thyroid lobectomy and isthmusectomyTumors > 1 cm with no palpable nodes: Total thyroidectomyTumors > 2 cm with nodal involvement and/or metastases: Total thyroidectomy + node dissection + radioiodine ablation + long term TSH suppressionThyroid cancer > 1 cm or papillary cancer < 1 cm: clinically positive nodal disease, multicentricity, or a history of head and neck radiation - total or near-total thyroidectomy, followed by radioablationTSH suppression: thyroxine 0.1- 0.2 mg daily for all patients after operation for differentiated thyroid carcinoma on the basis that most tumours are TSH dependent. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4919 | 'Y' descent of the IVP is due to: | [
"Atrial relaxation",
"Closure of the right ventricle",
"Opening of the triscuspid valve",
"Opening of the left ventricle"
] | (Opening of the tricuspid valve): Ref: 1306-H, 569-G (1384-HI7th) (512- Ganong 23rd)Jugular venous pulse: (JVP)* Positive presystole 'a wave' is produced by venous distension due to right atrial contraction and is the dominant wave in the JVP.* Large 'a wave' indicates that the right atrium is contracting against an increased resistance (Tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary hypertension or PS)* Large 'a-wave' also occurs during arrhythmias whenever the right atrium contracts while the tricuspid valve is closed by right ventricular systole.* C-wave - produced by the bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during right ventricular isovolumetric systole and by the impact of the carotid artery adjacent to the jugular vein* "X-descent" is due to both to atrial relaxation and to the downward displacement of the tricuspid valve during ventricular systole* "V wave" results from the increasing volume of blood in the right atrium during ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed.* "Y descent" produced mainly by the opening of the tricuspid valve and the subsequent rapid inflow of blood in the right ventricles. (Tricuspid regurgitation) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25358 | Which of the following markers is specific for gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST): | [
"CD 117",
"CD 34",
"CD123",
"S-100"
] | Ans. (a) CD 117(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 775; 8th/pg 789)Most useful diagnostic marker is c-kit (CD117) detectable in 95% of the patients. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7591 | At the end of the year 1990, the population of primary health centre was 30,000 and there were 120 cases of pulmonary tuberculosis. At the end of the year 1991, the population was 30,600 and 30 new cases were detected and 2 cases had died. Based on this data all of the following rates can be calculated except | [
"incidence",
"Prevalence",
"Case fatality",
"Propoional moality"
] | Ref: Parks 23rd edition pg 58 Propoional moality rate from a specific disease = no. of deaths from the specific disease in a yr / total deaths from all causes in that yr x100. Here the denominator is unavailable. So can&;t be calculated. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41204 | About tuberculoid leprosy, false is – | [
"CMI is depressed",
"CMI is increased",
"A single anesthetic patch",
"None"
] | How can cell mediated immunity (CMI) be increased in leprosy infection. It is decreased in leprosy. Tuberculoid leprosy has minimum decrease in CMI (maximally preserved CMI), where as lepromatous leprosy has maximum decrease in CMI. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9468 | Anterior pa of interventricular septum is supplied by - | [
"Right coronary aery",
"Left coronary aery",
"Posterior descending coronary aery",
"None"
] | Anterior 2/3rd of septum is supplied by LCA and posterior 1/3rd is by RCA | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_374 | For satisfactory vision the minimum illumination accepted is – | [
"15 to 20 foot candles",
"30 to 40 candles",
"40 to 50 candles",
"70 to 90 candles"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45076 | Which of the following is not associated with chorioamnionitis? | [
"Preterm labour",
"Endometritis",
"Abruptio placentae",
"Placenta accreta"
] | Ans-D i.e. Placenta accretaComplications of ChorioamnionitisPremature rupture of membrane (M.C.)Premature laborEndometritisParametritisEarly placental separation (Abruptio Placenta)Diagnosis of chorioamnionitisDiagnosis of chorioamnionitis is clinicalIt requires-The presence of Fever >=100deg F or 37.8degC andAt least two of the following conditionsMaternal tachycardia fetal tachycardia uterine tenderness Foul odor of amniotic fluid Maternal LeucocytosisBacterias most frequently associated with chorioamnionitis are;Ureaplasma urealyticum Mycoplasma hominis BacteroidesTreatmentThe mainstay of treatment in vaginal delivery - Vaginal delivery should be done in all cases if obstetrical factors are favorable | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53164 | A 26-yr girl at 31 weeks gestation C/O a 4-week H/O a pustular eruption that developed initially on the periumbilical skin. Subsequently the eruption spread to involve the breasts, back, flexures and proximal limbs. There was cutaneous pain, fever & malaise. O/E the lesions were pustules were arranged in concentric rings while on the breasts there was coalescence of pustules forming lakes of pus. Treatment of choice in this case? | [
"Corticosteroids",
"Methotrexate",
"Topical itraconazole",
"Third generation cephalosporins"
] | Ans. A Corticosteroidsa. The patient is suffering from Generalized pustular psoriasis of pregnancy.b. A widespread pustular eruption occurring in pregnancy, as characterized by this patient, was originally called 'impetigo herpetiformis', but is now generally regarded as generalized pustular psoriasis (GPP) of pregnancy.c. The eruption usually develops in the third trimester and characteristically initially involves the flexures and periumbilical skin. Small sterile pustules appear on areas of acutely inflamed skin that subsequently expand.d. The pattern of concentric rings of pustules developing around the umbilicus, as seen in our patient, has been observed in other reported cases. Severe constitutional upset is common in GPP of pregnancy, with fever, arthralgia and gastrointestinal symptoms being frequently reported.e. Rx of choice is IV steroids. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6647 | Food standards for international food market utilizes? | [
"ISI",
"AGMARK",
"Codex alimentarius",
"Bureau of India standards"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Codex alimentarius Food standard These are :? a) CODEX ALIMENTARIUS: The Codex Alimentarius Commission, which is the principle organ of the joint FAO/WHO Food Standard Programme formulates food standards for international market. The food standard in India are based on the standard of the codex alimentarius. b) PFA STANDARDS: Under the Prevention of Food Adulteration act (1954) : standards have been established which are revised from time to time by the "Central Committee for Food Standards". The purpose of the PFA standards is to obtain a minimum level of quality of foodstuffs attainable under India conditions. c) THE AGMARK STANDARDS : These standards are set by the directorate of marketing and inspection of the Government of India. The Agmark gives the consumer an assurance of quality in accordance with the standards laid down. d) BUREAU OF INDIAN STANDARDS : The ISI mark on any aicle of food is a guarantee of good quality in accordance with the standards prescribed by the Bureau of Indian Standards for that Commodity. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36037 | Antidote for copper poisoning is: March 2009 | [
"D-penicillamine",
"Potassium ferrocyanide",
"BAL",
"Desferrioxamine"
] | Ans. B: Potassium ferrocyanide Treatment of copper poisoning: Stomach wash with 1 percent solution of potassium ferrocyanide which acts as an antidote by forming an insoluble cupric ferrocyanide Emetics are contraindicated Demulcent drinks form insoluble albuminate of copper Castor oil Chelation with penicillamine/ EDTA/ BAL | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46978 | Thistle-tube appearance of pulp chamber is a feature of: | [
"Coronal dentin dysplasia",
"Regional odontodysplasia",
"Dentinogenesis imperfecta",
"Amelogenesis imperfecta"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52832 | The operative treatment in Hirschsprung's disease is only undeaken when child - | [
"Is 2 years of age",
"Is at least 8 kg in weight and thriving",
"Has no distension of abdomen",
"Has failed to respond to conservative treatment"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Is at least 8 kg. in weight and thriving 10 kg is given in both Bailey & Schwaz | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33295 | Osteoporosis is characterized by- | [
"Increased serum alkaline phosphatase",
"Decreased bone density",
"Wasting of muscles",
"Looser's zone seen"
] | *Osteoporosis is characterized by an abnormally low bone mass and defects in bone structure, a combination of which renders the bone unusually fragile and at greater than normal risk of fracture. * Osteoporosis means "porous bones," causes bones to become weak and brittle -- so brittle - that even mild stresses like bending over, lifting a vacuum cleaner or coughing can cause a fracture. * In most cases, bones weaken when low levels of calcium, phosphorus and other minerals in the bones and results as low bone density. * A common result of osteoporosis is fractures of the spine, hip or wrist. * Although it&;s often thought of as a women&;s disease, osteoporosis also affects many men. SYMPTOMS * Back pain, which can be severe if fractured or collapsed veebra_ # Loss of height over time, with an accompanying stooped posture # Fracture of the veebrae, wrists, hips or other bones Ref: Maheshwari 9thth/e p.308 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1229 | Testamentary capacity refers to: AP 10; NEET 15 | [
"Ability to make a valid will",
"Criminal liability",
"Right to vote",
"Ability to give evidence"
] | Ans. Ability to make a valid will | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33788 | Morbid jealousy is associated with - | [
"Alcohol",
"Heroin",
"LSD",
"Charas"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alcohol o Morbid jeolousy with delusions of infidelity about wife (othello syndrome) is extremely common in alcoholism. Morbid jealousy can also occur in schizophrenia, manic phase of bipolar illness, OCD, depression or anxiety disorder. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3674 | The following are causes of secretory diarrhoea except-a) Vibrio choleraeb) Inflammatory bowel diseasec) Lactose intoleranced) Gastrinoma | [
"a",
"c",
"ac",
"bc"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5494 | Which is the appropriate age for Repair of Cleft palate | [
"6 month to 1 year",
"12 to 15 month",
"At puberty",
"Just after birth"
] | Ans is 'a' i.e. 6 months to 1 year [Ref: Sabiston 18/e p2138 (17/e, p2188); Schwartz 9/e pl658; Bailey & Love 25/e p661 (24/e, p648; 23rd/e p589)\Timing of Repair of Cleft PalateAccording to Sabiston - before 12 monthsAccording to Schwartz -at 9 to 12 months of ageAccording to Bailey & Love - between 6 and 18 monthsSabiston writes- " The timing of cleft repair is important, and a general recommendation is lip repair at 3 months, palate repair by 12 months, and alveolar bone grafting at about 9 years''Also knowTiming of repair of cleft livAccording to CSDTFollow the 'Rule of Ten' i.e. Surgery is done after 10 wks of age weight > 10 lb (4.5 kg) hemoglobin >10 g/dlAccording to Schwartz -at 3 to 6 months of ageAccording to Sabiston - at 3 months of ageAccording to Bailey - between 3 & 6 months of age | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25714 | Pacemaker regulating the rate of respiration | [
"Pneumotaxic centre",
"Dorpal group of nucleus",
"Apneustic centre",
"Pre-Botzinger complex"
] | The pre-Botzinger complex (preBotC) is a cluster of interneurons in the ventral respiratory group of the medulla of the brainstem. This complex has been proven to be essential for the generation of the respiratory rhythm in mammals Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:370,371,372 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13016 | In recent memory loss, probable lesion is in | [
"Thalamus",
"Temporal lobe",
"Frontal lobe",
"All of the above"
] | The Neuropsychology of Autobiographical Memory The medial temporal lobe memory system includes the hippocampus formation and the adjacent parahippocampal and perirhinal coices. The hippocampus is not the place where the content of memories is stored, but rather appears to contain a set of neural links to the content, which is distributed widely throughout the coex. Memories of an episode in one's life typically contain information from more than one modality: vision, hearing, and even taste, touch, and smell. Each of these components is stored in a unimodal sensory area, for example, the visual components of an episodic memory are stored in the visual coex in the occipital lobe, while the auditory components are stored in the auditory coex in the temporal lobe. These distributed representations are linked to a central index in the hippocampus. When recent episodes are retrieved, the index is reactivated, causing activation to spread to each of the associated unimodal areas. This is more correct of recent episodes, however. Once a representation of an episode has been fully consolidated, activation can spread between the separate features themselves, so that hippocampal activation is no longer needed. We are also beginning to gain an understanding of the brain areas that comprise the frontal components of the medial temporal lobe memory system. Medial temporal and hippocampal regions tend to be more involved in spatial context memory, while the frontocoical region, the diencephalon, and the temporal lobes are involved in temporal context memory. Much has also been learned about the neural bases of sho-term memory systems located in the frontal lobes. Psychologists have had trouble determining whether there is one type of sho-term memory, or several. The time span involved - exactly what 'sho' means - is also not widely agreed upon. In the 1980s, however, neuroscientists began exploring a large area in the dorsolateral poion of the prefrontal lobes. This area seems to be responsible for a so of memory that has been called 'working memory' - a concept that at least overlaps with the psychologist's concept of sho-term memory. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2235 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16101 | CLO test is used for - | [
"H. pylori",
"Brucella",
"Gonorrhoea",
"EBOLA"
] | Answer- A. H. pyloriRapid urease test, also known as the CLO test (Campylobacter-like organism test), is a rapid diagnostic test for diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21737 | Microsbrasion technique of stain removal was given by: | [
"Kroll.",
"McInnis.",
"Nutting.",
"Stewart."
] | KROLL → “MICROABRASION technique“18% HCl.
Indication of microabrasion:
Fluorosis stains/any stains–limited to depth, not more than 0.2 to 0.3 mm. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11401 | Carcinoma of the cheek: | [
"Characteristically is columnar-celled.",
"Has a recognized association with chewing gum",
"Has a recognized association with chewing betel nut",
"Has a recognized association with geographic tongue"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14233 | A 55 year old cardiac patient who wason long term treatment comes for follow up visit.The physician observes the following finding on opthalmologicalexamination.Which drug prescribed by the physician would most probably be responsible for this? | [
"Digoxin",
"Verapamil",
"Amiodarone",
"Propranolol"
] | The image shows “vortex keratopathy”.Here,there is a whorl-like pattern of epithelial deposits in the cornea. - Causes (Ref:Parsons’ 21 s ted)
a) Drugs-
Amiodarone,Chloroquine,Phenothiazines,Indomethacin
b) Fabry’s disease and its carrier state
- The whorl like pattern shows the direction of migration of corneal epithelial cells. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40032 | A man is found comatose in his room, having taken an unknown number of sleeping pills. An aerial blood sample yields the following values: pH 7.10, HCO3 - 12 meq/liter, PaCO2 66 mm Hg. This patient's acid - base status is most accurately described as: | [
"Uncompensated metabolic acidosis",
"Uncompensated respiratory acidosis",
"Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis",
"Respiratory acidosis with paial renal compensation"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8722 | Weil felix reaction is heterophile antibodies reaction due sharing of Rickettsial antigen with | [
"Shigella",
"Proteus",
"Chlamydia",
"Mycoplasma"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proteus Weil felix reaction This reaction is an agglutination test in which sera are tested for agglutinins to 0 antigens of ceain nonmotile proteus strains OX -19, OX - 2 and OX - K. The basis of the test is the sharing of an alkali - stable carbohydrate antigen by some rickettsiae and by ceain strains of proteus, P. vulgaris OX - 19 and OX - 2 and P. mirabilis OX - K. The test is usually done as a tube agglutination, though rapid slide agglutination methods have been employed for screening | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38010 | Which of the following is a plasma expander similar to the albumin, has a molecular weight of 30,000 and causes less hypersensitivity reactions but should be used with caution? | [
"Hydroxy ethyl starch (HES)",
"Dextran",
"Polygeline",
"Polypyrrolidone"
] | Ans. c. Polygeline Polygeline is a plasma expander similar to the albumin, has a molecular weight of 30,000 and causes less hypersensitivity reactions but should be used with caution. Polygeline Polypeptide with average MW 30,000Q Exes oncotic pressure similar to albuminQ Not antigenic, hypersensitivity reactions are rareQ but should be watched for. Does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of bloodQ Remains stable for three years. It is not metabolized in the body; excreted slowly by the kidney. Expansion of plasma volume lasts for 12 hours. It is more expensive than dextran It can also be used for priming of hea-lung and dialysis machines | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40894 | Superficial perineal muscles include | [
"Iliococcygeus",
"Ischiococcygeus",
"Bulbospongiosus",
"Levator ani"
] | The superficial perineal pouch is a compament of perineum.Its inferior border is superficial perineal fascia.Superior border is perineal membrane. Superficial perineal pouch consist of :Ischiocavernous muscle , Bulbospongiosus , Superficial transverse perineal muscle etc Ref - BDC 6e Vol2 pg 350 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5825 | Indicators of bone formation include all of the following except - | [
"Osteocalcin",
"Alkaline phosphatase",
"Hydroxyproline",
"Type 1 procollegen"
] | Markers of bone formation
Bone-specific alkaline phosphatase
Osteocalcin
Serum peptide of type I procollagen / Type I collagen extension peptide | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27762 | GnRH analogue used in hormonal treatment of carcinoma prostate? | [
"Goserelin",
"Nilutamide",
"Cyproterone acetate",
"Finasteride"
] | Ans. a (Goserelin) (Ref. KDT 6th/pg. 239)Many analogues of GnRH, e.g. Buserelin, Goserelin, Leuprolide, Nafarelin, Triptorelin, have been developed: are 15-150 times more potent than natural Gn RH and longer acting. The superactive GnRH agonists are used as nasal spray or injected s.c. Long-acting preparations for once a month s.c. injection have been produced (triptorelin depot). The resulting reversible pharmacological oophorectomy /orchiectomy is being used in precocious puberty, prostatic carcinoma, endometriosis, premenopausal breast cancer, uterine leiomyoma, PCOD and to assist induced ovulation. It also has potential to be used as contraceptive for both males and females.# Goserelin is a drug often used in prostate carcinoma. Goserelin can cause gynecomastia as a side effect.# Anastrozole is a selective nonsteroidal inhibitor of aromatase. It is presently approved for first-line treatment of postmenopausal women with metastatic breast cancer that is ER-positive.# Letrozole is a nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor of aromatase that is significantly more potent than aminoglutethimide and acts in the same way as anastrozole. It is also indicated for first-line treatment of postmenopausal women with hormone receptor-positive metastatic breast cancer.# Exemestane is a steroidal hormonal agent that binds to and irreversibly inactivates aromatase. It is indicated for the treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women whose disease has progressed on tamoxifen therapy.1.BicalutamideNonsteroidal anti-androgens2.Finasteride5-alpha reductase inhibitor3.OxybutyninMuscarinic receptor antagonists4.GoserelinLHRH analogue5.SildenafilPDE5 inhibitor6.Cyproterone acetateSteroidal anti-androgens7.TamsulosinAlpha blocker# Prostate cancer is classically treated with diethylstilbesterol (DES) acting as an estrogen at the level of the hypothalamus to downregulate hypothalamic luteinizing hormone (LH) production, resulting in decreased elaboration of testosterone by the testicle. For this reason, orchiectomy is equally as effective as moderate-dose DES.# In the event that orchiectomy is not accepted by the patient, testicular androgen suppression can also be effected by luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists such as leuprolide and goserelin. These agents cause tonic stimulation of the LHRH receptor, with the loss of its normal pulsatile activation resulting in its desensitization and decreased output of LH by the anterior pituitary. Therefore, as primary hormonal manipulation in prostate cancer one can choose orchiectomy or leuprolide, not both.# The addition of actual antagonists of androgens acting at the androgen receptor, including flutamide or bicalutamide, is of uncertain additional benefit in extending overall response duration, but it clearly prevents the activation of androgen receptors by adrenal androgens, and the combined use of orchiectomy or leuprolide plus flutamide is referred to as "total androgen blockade." | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10414 | Treatment of choice in a postmenopausal lady with atypical endometrial hyperplasia is ; | [
"Estrogens",
"Hysterectomy",
"Progestogens",
"Radiotherapy"
] | Hysterectomy | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15819 | Complication of blood transfusion can be all except - | [
"Hyperkalemia",
"Citrate toxicity",
"Metabolic acidosis",
"Hypothermia"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Metabolic acidosis The question is most probably about complications of massive blood transfusion.Massive Blood Transfusion * Massive blood transfusion is generally defined as transfusion of one to two volumes of patient's own blood volumes (For most adults that is equivalent to 10-20 units.)Complications of Massive Blood TransfusionCoagulopathyThe most common cause of bleeding following massive blood transfusion is dilutional thrombocytopeniaClinically significant dilution of the coagulation factors is unusual in previously normal individuals.Citrate ToxicityCitrate is used as an anticoagulant in the stored blood.Citrate has a property to bind calcium, this calcium binding by the citrate preservative can become significant following transfusion of large volumes of blood or blood products.Hypocalcemia results in some patients after massive transfusion, to prevent this, the transfusion rate should not exceed 1 unit every 5 minutes.Citrate also has an affinity for magnesium ion and the occurrence of hypomagnesemia in the setting of massive transfusion is seen (rarely).HypothermiaBlood is stored at a temperature of 2degC-6degC. So massive blood transfusion can result in hypothermia.Massive blood transfusion is an absolute indication for warming all blood products and intravenous fluids to normal body temperature.Hypothermia due to massive transfusion can result in ventricular arrhythmia.Acid-Base BalanceThe stored blood is acidic for two reasons.Due to the citric acid (the anticoagulants) Due to release of metabolic products by the anaerobic glycolysis of red cells (CO2 and Lactate).Despite the Stored Blood Being Acidic, Significant metabolic acidosis due to transfusion is not common.- Once the resuscitation is complete and normal perfusion is restored, any metabolic acidosis present, typically resolves, and progressive metabolic alkalosis supervenes as citrate and lactate contained in transfusion and resuscitation fluids are converted to bicarbonate by the liver. The most consistent acid base abnormality after massive blood transfusion is postoperative metabolic alkalosis.Serum Potassium ConcentrationThe extracellular concentration of Potassium in stored blood steadily increases with time due to lysis of RBC's.The amount of extracellular potassium transfused with each unit is typically less than 4m Eq per unit. Hyperkalemia can develop regardless of the age of the blood when transfusion rate exceeded 100ml/min.Oxygen Affinity Changes * 2, 3 DPG is greatly reduced in RBC's after about 3 weeks of storage, this increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and adversely affects oxygen delivery to tissues.Acute Respiration? Distress SyndromeCoagulation Factor Depletion | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17433 | Vaccines at PHC are stored in - | [
"Ice box",
"ILR",
"Deep freezer",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., ILR [Ref: Park 22nd/ep. 102)o At PHC levelDeep freezer (small) - For preparation of ice packsIce-lined refrigerators: ILR (small) - For storage of vaccinesCold Chain Components (equipments) & Levels in IndiaLevelComponentTemperatureStorage durationState/Regional levelWalk-in-cold rooms (WIC)+2degCto+8,:,C3 monthsWalk-in-freezers (WIF)-20deg C to -40" CDistrict levelLarge ILRs (Ice-lined refrigerator)+2degCto +8degC1 monthsLarge DFs (Deep freezers)-20PCto-40degCPHC levelSmall ILRs+2degCto+8degC1 month2Small DFs-2Cf'Cto -40" CSub-centre levelVaccine carriers+29Cto +8degC48 -72 hrs.Day carriersSession levelFully frozen icepack+2nCto+8degC1 - 3 hrs. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23514 | Maximum postprandial motility is seen in | [
"Ascending colon",
"Transverse colon",
"Descending colon",
"Sigmoid colon"
] | Nonpropagating colonic motor activity increased in all colonic segments immediately after eating the meal (p less than 0.05). The increase in motility was significantly greater in the descending colon than in the transverse and sigmoid colon (p less than 0.05). In one-half of the subjects propagating contractions occurred postprandially. The movement of the intraluminal tracer occurred during both types of motility. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:442,443,444 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37540 | Which of the following is a non - selective MAO inhibitor? | [
"Moclobemide",
"Rasagiline",
"Selegiline",
"Isocarboxazid"
] | Reversible inhibitors of MAO - A : Moclobemide.
Selective inhibitors of MAO - B : Selegiline, Rasagiline.
Non - selective inhibitors of MAO : Isocarboxazid, Phenelzine. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41375 | Analysis done for expenditure of large proportion for small number and vice versa - | [
"ABC analysis",
"SUS analysis",
"HML analysis",
"VED analysis"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22750 | The regulator proteins are | [
"Troponin",
"Tropomyosine",
"Both",
"None"
] | Both troponin and tropomyosine are the regulator proteins for muscle contraction Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition ,pag number:86,87 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44221 | Which of the following enzyme does not catalyze the irreversible step in glycolysis - | [
"Hexokinase",
"Phosphoglycerate kinase",
"Pyruvate kinase",
"Phosphofructo kinase"
] | Ans- B Glycolysis (Embden Meyerh of Pathway) Definition: Glycolysis is a process by which glucose molecules are metabolized through a series of enzymatic reactions into 2 molecules of pyruvate. Site Of GlycolysisCytosol Purpose: Aerobic glycolysis produces 7 moles of ATP per mole of glucose and 2 moles of pyruvate (Ref: Harper 28th edition, pg 155) Anaerobic glycolysis produces 2 moles of ATP per mole of glucose and 2 moles of lactate. Tissues Dependent On Glycolysis: Erythrocytes, cornea, lens, kidney medulla. Irreversible Reactions Of Glycolysis are: Hexokinase and Glucokinase Have Different Properties Four different isoenzymes of hexokinase (I, II, III, and IV) are expressed in a tissue - specific manner in the body. The hexokinase isoenzymes found in most tissues (I, II, and III) have a low Km, for glucose (<0.1 mM) relative to its concentration in blood (~ 5 mM) and are strongly inhibited by the product glucose 6-phosphate (G6P). The latter is important as it prevents hexokinase from tying up all of the inorganic phosphate of a cell in the form of phosphorylated hexoses. Although the hexokinase reaction is not at equilibrium because of the inhibition imposed by G6P, the level at which hexokinase is expressed in cells can have a major impact on the rate of glycolysis in cells. Liver parenchymal cells and b cells of pancreas are unique in that they contain hexokinase isoenzyme IV, usually called glucokinase, which has strikingly different kinetic properties. Glucokinase catalyzes ATP-dependent phosphorylation of glucose like other hexokinase, but its S0.5 (Substrate concentration that gives enzyme activity of one half maximum velocity) for glucose is considerably higher than the Km for glucose of the other hexokinases. Furthermore, glucokinase is much less sensitive to product inhibition by G6P, and its glucose saturation curve is sigmoidal, which is indicative of cooperativity. Important Enzymes Of Glycolysis are: Difference between Hexokinase and Glucokinase: Hexokinase Glucokinase 1. Site 2. Substrate 3. Induction 4. Km for glucose 5. Inhibition by glucose-6-phosphate 6. Effect of feeding and insulin All tissues except liver Glucose, fructose or galactose. Non inducible Low Inhibited No change in activity Only in liver Only glucose Inducible High Not inhibited Increased rate. Hexokinase II And Cancer As a rule rapidly growing cancers metabolize glucose faster than normal cells, at least in part because overexpression of hexokinase II gives cancer cells greater enzymatic capacity for glucose phosphorylation. On top of this, tight binding of hexokinase II to the mitochondrial outer membrane provides the enzyme with first dibs for the ATP produced by oxidative phosphorylation. Phosphofructokinase: Major regulatory enzyme of glycolysis Activators of PFK: AMP; F6P; F2,6-BP; Inhibitors of PFK: ATP, citrate Enolase: Enzyme is inhibited by sodium fluoride Embden-Meyerhof pathway Fructose 2,6-Bisphosphate Plays a Unique Role in the Regulation of Glycolysis & Gluconeogenesis in Liver. Comment Energetics of Glycolysis During glycolysis 2 ATP are utilized and 4 ATP are produced at substrate level. 2 reducing equalents NADH+ are produced and reoxidized by electron transport chain, to generate 5 ATP molecules (2.5 ATP per NADH+ molecule). Thus total 9 ATP molecules are produced and 2 are utilized, i.e., There is net gain of 7 ATP molecules in aerobic glycolysis. In anaerobic conditions, the reoxidation of NADH by electron transport chain is prevented and NADH gets reoxidized by conversion of pyruvate to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase. Thus, in anaerobic glycolysis only 4 ATP are produced at substrate level. Therefore, there is net gain of 2 ATP molecules in anaerobic glycolysis. Note: - Previous calculations were made assuming that NADH produces 3 ATPs and FADH2 generates 2 ATPs. This will amount to a net generation of 8ATPs per glucose molecule during glycolysis. Recent experiments show that these old values are overestimates and NADH produces 2.5 ATPs and FADH2 produces 1.5 ATPs. Thus, net generation is only 7 ATPs during glycolysis. Reaction Enzyme No of ATPs gained (new calculation) No of ATPs gained (old calculations) Glucose - Glucose-6-phosphate Hexokinase, glucokinase - 1 - 1 Fructose-6-p -Fructose -1,6-bisphosphate Hexokinase, glucokinase - 1 - 1 Glyceraldehyde-3-P - 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate Glyceraldehyde-3-P, dehydrogenase + 5 (2.5 X 2 NADH) +6 (3.0 X 2 NADH) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate - 3-phosphoglycerate Phosphoenol pyruvate - Pyruvate Phosphoglycerate mutase +2 +2 +2 +2 o Net generation in aerobic glycolysis Pyruvate kinase 9 - 2 = 7 10 - 2 = 8 Comment Important Points The most potent positive allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibitor of fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase in liver is fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. It relieves inhibition of phosphofructokinase-1 by ATP and increases the affinity for fructose 6-phosphate. It inhibits fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase by increasing the Km for fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. Its concentration is under both substrate (allosteric) and hormonal control (covalent modification) Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate is formed by phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate by phosphofructokinase-2. The same enzyme protein is also responsible for its breakdown, since it has fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase activity. This bifunctional enzyme is under the allosteric control of fructose 6-phosphate, which stimulates the kinase and inhibits the phosphatase. When there is an abundant supply of glucose, the concentration of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate increases, stimulating glycolysis by activating phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibiting fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase. In the fasting state, glucagon stimulates the production of cAMP, activating cAMP-dependent protein kinase, which in turn inactivates phosphofructokinase-2 and activates fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase by phosphorylation. Hence, gluconeogenesis is stimulated by a decrease in the concentration of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate, which inactivates phosphofructokinase-1 and relieves the inhibition of fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32705 | Which of the following is true regarding non-competitive enzyme inhibition? | [
"Vmax increases",
"Vmax decreases",
"Km increases",
"Km decreases"
] | In case of non-competitive enzyme inhibition Vmax decreases and Km remains the same. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47880 | The simplest alloy is a | [
"Solid solution",
"Eutectic alloy",
"Peritectic alloy",
"Ternary alloy"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12739 | The following are components of Kawasaki disease, except: | [
"Purulent conjunctivitis",
"Pedal edema",
"Truncal rash",
"Pharyngeal congestion"
] | Kawasaki disease is associated with bilateral non purulent conjunctival injection. Pedal edema, Truncal rash and Pharyngeal congestion are all features of Kawasaki disease. Ref: Nelson's Book of Pediatrics 17th Edition, Page 824; Essential Pediatrics, O.P.Ghai, 6th edition, Chapter 21, Page 586. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48695 | All are true about spermatocytic seminoma except: | [
"Three types are there",
"Seen in 65 years of age group",
"Slow growing tumour",
"Clinically and histologically not related to seminoma"
] | Ans: a (3 types are there) Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 1042Spermatocytic seminoma is a non seminomatous slow growing testicular tumour seen in old age. It does not have three types.Spermatocytic seminoma* Both clinically & histologically distinct from seminoma* Variant of germ cell tumour that do not arise from an intratubular germ cell neoplasia (other being teratoma in children)* Uncommon tumour 1 - 2% of all testicular germ cell neoplasms* Affected individuals over 65 yrs of age* S low growing tumour that rarely produces metastases* Excellent prognosis* Grossly spermatocytic seminoma tends to be larger than classic seminoma and presents with a pale grey soft cut surface, sometimes with mucoid cysts* Microscopy - 3 cell population all intermixedPathologic classification of common testicular tumoursGerm cell tumours (~ 95%)Nonseminomas* Spermatocytic seminoma* Embryonal carcinoma* Yolk sac (endodermal sinus) tumour* Choriocarcinoma* TeratomaSeminomaOthers (5%)Sex cord / gonadal stromal tumorsTumors containing both germ cell & sexcord/ gonadal stromal elementsLymphoid & Haematopoeitic tumorsMiscellaneousLeydig cell tumorsGonadoblastomaLymphomaCarcinoidSertoli cell tumour LeukemiaAdenomaGranulosa cell tumour PlasmacytomaCarcinomaThecoma / fibroma Most of the germ cell neoplasm arise from intratubular germ cell neoplasia; exceptions are spermatocytic seminoma, dermoid cyst, epidermoid cyst, paediatric tumours like yolk sac tumour and teratoma (pgi june 2007) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4875 | Treatment of chronic dacrocystitis - | [
"Dacrocystorhinostomy",
"Antibiotics",
"Probing",
"All of the above"
] | Conservative treatment by probing and lacrimal syringing, Dacrocystorhinostomy, Antibiotics are used. Ref : ak khurana 6th edition page no 394 REF IMG | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15176 | The cresecent forming glomerulonephritis is - | [
"RPGN",
"Acute GN",
"Membranous GN",
"Membrano proliferative GN"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53710 | Amacrine cells are seen in: | [
"Retina",
"Skin in the axilla",
"Inner ear",
"Blood"
] | Ans. A. Retinaa. A special category of micro-neurons, lacking an obvious axon, consists of amacrine cells.b. In these cells nervous conduction is apparently possible in either direction along their dendrite-like processes.c. Amacrine cells have long been known in the retina where they lie in synaptic contact with ganglion and other cells but their presence is also indicated in other parts of the central nervous system, including the olfactory bulbs (granule cells) and possibly, the lateral geniculate body. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46766 | Syncitiotrophoblast is seen in: | [
"Partial mole",
"Complete mole",
"Choriocarcinoma",
"Placental site of trophoplastoma"
] | Ans. (c) ChoriocarcinomaRef: Shaws 15th ed. 1424CHORIOCARCINOMA* Generally, choriocarcinoma is a part of a mixed germ cell tumour. Its origin as a teratoma can be confirmed in prepubertal girls, when the possibility of its gestational origin can be definitely excluded. The tumours are very vascular.* Histologically the tumor shows adimorphic population of syncytiotrophoblasts and cyto-trophoblasts. It secretes large quantities of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone, which forms an ideal tumour marker in the diagnosis and management of the tumour. The tumour is highly malignant, and metastasizes by bloodstream to the lungs, brain, bones and other organs. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17919 | Which of the following condition is associated with giant 'v' waves in a JVP? | [
"VSD",
"TR",
"Complete hea block",
"AF"
] | Giant v waves are seen in tricuspid regurgitation and VSD. v wave in a JVP represents atrial filling and occur during ventricular systole. In tricuspid regurgitation there is an accentuated v wave followed by a rapid y descend. In progressive TR, v wave merges with the c wave and the right atrial and juglar vein waveforms become ventricularised. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18th edition chapter 227. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14087 | Best management of contaminated wound with necrotic material: | [
"Debridement",
"Tetanus toxoid",
"Gas gangrene serum",
"Broad spectrum antibiotics"
] | Ans. a. Debridement (Ref: Sabiston 19/e p2011; Bailey 25/e p26, 39-40)Best management of contaminated wound with necrotic material is debridement.'Managing the acute wound: After assessment, a thorough debridement is essential. A wound should be explored and debrided to the limit of blood staining. Devitalised tissue must he excised until bleeding occurs with the obvious exception of nerves, vessels and tendons.'- Bailey 25/e p26.Necrotizing FasciitisNecrotizing fasciitis is a rapidly progressive bacterial infection characterized by involvement and necrosis of the subcutaneous tissue and fascia, with typical sparing of the underlying muscleQ.MC site of infection: Lower extremitiesQMay involve trunk, perineum (Fournier's gangrene) or head and neck and any other site.Etiological AgentsMC single etiological agents: Group A beta hemolytic StreptococciQMore commonly, necrotizing fasciitis results from a polymicrobial synergistic infectionMicroorganism responsible: Group A beta hemolytic Streptococci + Staphylococcus, E. coli, Pseudomonas, Proteus, Bacteroides/Clostridium (Anaerobes)Risk Factors for Necrotizing Fasciitis* DiabetesQ* Pressure sores* Immunocompromised statesQ* SmokingQ* Penetrating traumaQ* ObesityQ* IV drug abuseQ* Peripheral vascular diseaseQ* Skin infection' damageQ (abrasions, bites, boils)Clinical Presentation:Pain is the most important presenting symptomPain is disproportionately greaterQ than that expected from degree of cellulites presentWithout treatment pain may decrease due to thrombosis of small blood vessels and destruction of peripheral nerves (an ominous signQ)Skin Features: Edema, erythemaQ (Infected area is red, hot, shiny, swollen and exquisitely tender)Woody hard texture to subcutaneous tissueInability to distinguish fascial planes and muscle groups on palpationSkin vesicles/cutaneous bullae, soft tissue crepitus due to gas productionQ may be seen when necrotizing fasciitis is caused due to mixed flora but not due to group A StreptococcusSystemic features: Fever, hypotension, tachycardia, progression to septic shock. DIC or multiple organ failureQManagement:This is a surgical emergency and surgical debridement is mandatoryQTreatment: Urgent surgical debridement + IV fluids + Broad spectrum IV antibiotics + Supportive treatmentQMortality rate is nearly 100% without surgical debridementQHlyperbaric oxygen helps in wound healingQ | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23493 | Dopamine acts on D2 receptors that have an inhibitory effect on prolactin secretion. Now if D2 receptors are blocked, which of the following effects will not be seen: | [
"Visual disturbance",
"Gonadal dysfunction",
"Headache",
"Excessive lactation"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41557 | Localised langerhans cells histiocytosis affecting head & neck is - | [
"Letterer-siwe disease",
"Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis",
"Hand-schuller-christian disease",
"Eosinophilic granuloma"
] | Unifocal and multifocal unisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis(eosinophilic granuloma)is characterised by proliferation of Langerhans cells admixed with variable number of eosinophils , lymphocytes , plasma cell, and neutrophils .Eosinophils are usually , but not always a prominent component of the infiltrate .It typically arises within the medullary cavities of bones, most commonly the calvarium, ribs and femur. ref: Robbins pathologic basis of disease ; 8th edition ; pg 632 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28119 | Mallory hyaline changes seen in all except? | [
"Wilson's disease",
"Indian childhood cirrhosis",
"Primary biliary cirrhosis",
"Hepatitis E"
] | Mallory Hyaline changes- globular red hyaline material visualized within hepatocytes in: Intestinal bypass Wilson's disease Biliary cirrhosis Indian childhood cirrhosis Cholestatic jaundice Focal nodular hyperplasia Hepatocellular carcinoma N.A.S.H | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30382 | A child who bleeds from gums and has swollen knee–probably due to – | [
"Hemophilia",
"ITP",
"Scurvy",
"Trauma"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18202 | Accoustomed way of doing things | [
"Belief",
"Opinions",
"Habits",
"Attitude"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26241 | Bleeding spots seen on removal of scales in psoriasis is called as: | [
"Auspitz sign",
"Punctuate hemorrhage",
"Nikolyski's sign",
"Darriersign"
] | A. (Auspita sign) On removal of scales bleeding spot is called auspitz sign Punctate haemorrahage is also found in psoriasis - Neena Khanna 3rd/ 40PsoriasisAuspitz sign a characterstic finding of plaque psoriasis in which removal of scales leads to pinpoint bleedingCharacteristically presents with silvery mica scaleTypical lesions are erythematious (salmon pink/red), raised, scaly, well demarcated plaques on extensor aspect of trunk&limbs preferentially; the knees, elbows & scalp areespecially affected, although the mucosa seem to be spared.Micro-munro abscess: collection of polymorphs in stratum corneumGrattage Test- on scratching scales appearKoebner's/ Isomorphic phenomenon Psoriasis appears at the site of minor injury such as scratch or graze. It is characterstic of psoriasis , but is also seen in Lichen planus , & discoid lupus erythematosus Wornoff Ring- White hypopigmented halo around erythematous plaque Candle grease sign & BurkleyJs membraneLiching is very uncommonAlopecia, Mucosal involvement & CNS involvement is not seen.Psoriatic arthropathy is uncommon (5%) ; and involves distal interphalyngeal joint, a characteristic features which differentiates it from rheumatoid arthritisIn In nails* Onycholysis (seperation of nail plate from naibed)* Thimble-pitting of nail plate* Brown black discoloration | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52392 | Isolation is required to break the transmission of all the following diseases, except: | [
"Swine flue",
"Tetanus",
"Mumps",
"Measles"
] | Tetanus is not transmitted from person to person. Its spores or bacteria enters the body through abrasions, wounds or umbilical stump. In presence of an anaerobic environment, it grows and relaeses the toxin and cause the disease. Mumps, measles and swine flu are spread through respiratory droplets and require isolation to prevent transmission. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36605 | Which of the following true about burns? | [
"4th degree burns should not be washed with water",
"Early skin grafting gives better results",
"Face burns should never be left open",
"Silver sulfadiazine is painful on application"
] | Burns always should be washed.
Face burns can left open with Silver sulfadiazine application.
Mafenide acetate is painful on application. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49894 | Antipsychotic drug with least extra pyramidal side effect is: | [
"Triflupromazine",
"Thioridazine",
"Pimozide",
"Trifluoperazine"
] | Extrapyramidal motor disturbances ) are intimately linked to the antipsychotic effect, but are more prominent in the high potency compounds and least in thioridazine, clozapine and other atypical antipsychotics. A predominance of lower frequency waves occurs in EEG and arousal response is dampened. However, no consistent effect on sleep architecture has been noted. The disturbed sleep pattern in a psychotic is normalize Ref: KD Tripati 8th ed. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13288 | Fatty liver in Kwashiorkor occurs due to | [
"High carbohydrate content in the diet",
"High fat content in the diet",
"Lack of substrates for protein synthesis in liver",
"Lack of substrates for gluconeogenesis in liver"
] | Fatty liver is seen in some cases of kwashiorkor, but not in marasmus. Fatty liver is due to decreased lipoprotein synthesis.Ref: DM Vasudevan, page no: 440 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31255 | In which leukemia, autoimmune hemolytic anemia is most common - | [
"ALL",
"AML",
"CML",
"CLL"
] | <p>Autoimmune hemolytic anemia may occur as a complication of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.About 20% of cases of CLL develop a coomb&;s positive autoimmune hemolytic anemia.This is due to the presence of warm antibodies (Ig G) that coat RBC&;s that are reactive at room temperature .Red cells coated with Ig G along with C3 on its surface fuher promote red cell-leucocyte interaction ,accounting for more severe hemolysis.</p><p>Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 312.</p> | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51309 | In a very tall patient with arm span > height the thumb projects beyond palm when flexed. This sign is known as? | [
"Arachnodactyly",
"Finger sign",
"Steinberg's sign",
"Wrist sign"
] | Ans. (c) Steinberg's sign. * The image shows Thumb sign seen in Marfan syndrome where the hand is clenched without assistance, the entire thumbnail projects beyond the border of the hand (Steinberg's sign) * Other skeletal findings in Marfan's syndrome are 1. Dolichostenomelia (long, thin limbs) 2. Arm span substantially exceeds the height (> 1.05 times height). 3. Long, thin fingers (arachnodactyly) that are hyperextensible. 4. The thumb may be adducted across the narrow palm and may appreciably overlap the 5th finger when encircling the wrist (wrist sign) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2238 | Chest radiographs of children with foreign body aspiration | [
"Are always abnormal",
"May show over inflation of the involved lung",
"Always show the foreign body",
"Commonly show pneumothorax"
] | In foreign body aspiration a radiograph is vital as the object may be radio opaque. often its not radio opaque or is obscured by the cardiac shadow or the inflammatory response. over inflation of affectedlung due to inflammatory response. Ref : BAILEY AND LOVE&;S SHO PRACTICE OF SURGERY,24 th edition ,PG NO:852 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9241 | Which of the following releases single wavelength of energy? | [
"QTH",
"PAC",
"LED",
"Argon lasers"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15371 | Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: | [
"Numbness and tingling of circumoral region",
"Hyperactive tendon reflexes",
"Shoening of Q-T interval in ECG",
"Carpopedal spasm"
] | Hypocalcemia is characterised by prolongation of Q-T interval in ECG. Moderate to severe hypocalcemia is associated with paresthesias, usually of the fingers, toes, and circumoral regions. On physical examination, a Chvostek's sign (twitching of the circumoral muscles in response to gentle tapping of the facial nerve just anterior to the ear) may be elicited, Carpal spasm may be induced by inflation of a blood pressure cuff to 20 mmHg above the patient's systolic blood pressure for 3 min (Trousseau's sign). Severe hypocalcemia can induce seizures, carpopedal spasm, bronchospasm, laryngospasm, and prolongation of the QT interval. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 362 | C | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.