dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_53272 | In presence of unusually high outliers, preferred measure of central tendency is: | [
"Mean",
"Mode",
"Median",
"Range"
] | The mean is vitiated due to presence of outliers. Outliers are unusually high or unusually low values that do not go with other values. Whenever such values are present, mean is not a good choice. In such cases, the median is used as it is not really affected by unusually high or low values. Ref: Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 115 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19404 | Anaplasia is a hallmark feature of _________. | [
"Benign tumors",
"Malignant tumors",
"Both 1 & 2",
"Normal cell"
] | Anaplastic cells often display the following morphologic features:
Pleomorphism (i.e. variation in size and shape).
Nuclear abnormalities, consisting of extreme hyperchromatism (dark-staining), variation in nuclear size and shape, or unusually prominent single or multiple nucleoli. Enlargement of nuclei may result in an increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio that approaches 1:1 instead of the normal 1:4 or 1:6. Nucleoli may attain astounding sizes, sometimes approaching the diameter of normal lymphocytes.
Tumor giant cells may be formed.
Atypical mitoses, which may be numerous. Anarchic multiple spindles may produce tripolar or quadripolar mitotic figures.
Loss of polarity.
Reference-Robbins BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th edition pg-193 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46885 | Main extensor of knee: | [
"Gastrocnemius",
"Quadriceps femoris",
"Hamstrings",
"Peroneal muscles"
] | Ans. (b) Quadriceps femorisRef : Maheshwari 5th ed. /145* Quadriceps is a large muscle group that includes the four prevailing muscles on the front of the thigh. It is the great extensor muscle of the knee. It is subdivided into four separate portions or 'heads', which have received distinctive names: Rectus femoris occupies the middle of the thigh, covering most of the other three quadriceps muscles. It originates on the ilium. It is named from its straight course.# The other three lie deep to rectus femoris and originate from the body of the femur, which they cover from the trochanters to the condyles: Vastus lateralis is on the lateral side of the femur (i.e on the outer side of the thigh). Vastus medialis is on the medial side of the femur (i.e. on the inner part thigh). Vastus intermedius lies between vastus lateralis and vastus medialis on the front of the femur (i.e. on the top or front of the thigh), but deep to the rectus femoris. Typically, it cannot be seen without dissection of the rectus femoris.* Quadriceps femoris is the main and only extensor of knee.# It produces locking action as a result of medial rotation of the femur during the last stage of extension.# To reverse this lock popliteus muscle comes into action and does so by the lateral rotation of femur* Remember: Lock is: Quadriceps femoris muscle and,Key is popliteus muscle. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48434 | Ketone bodies are by products of metabolism of? | [
"Carbohydrate",
"Protein",
"Fat",
"All of the above"
] | Free fatty acids are the precursors of ketone bodies in the liver. While an active enzymatic mechanism produces acetoacetate from acetoacetyl-CoA in the liver, acetoacetate once formed cannot be reactivated directly except in the cytosol, where it is used in a much less active pathway as a precursor in cholesterol synthesis. This accounts for the net production of ketone bodies by the liver. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 22. Oxidation of Fatty Acids: Ketogenesis. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18827 | Which of the following condition is associated with meconium ileus? | [
"Fibrocystic disease of pancreas",
"Liver aplasia",
"Cirrhosis of liver",
"Malnutrition"
] | Meconium ileus is a neonatal manifestation of cystic fibrosis (also known as fibrocystic disease of pancreas). In cystic fibrosis there is pancreatic enzyme deficiency and abnormal chloride secretion in the intestine that results in the production of viscous water- poor meconium. Meconium ileus results because of impaction of thick meconium in the ileum. Meconium ileus presents sholy after bih with progressive abdominal distension and failure to pass that meconium with intermittent bilious vomiting. Abdominal X- ray shows Dilated loops of small intestine Air fluid level do not form inspite of complete small intestine obstruction, because the enteric contents are viscous and thick. Small bubbles of gas become entrapped in the inspissated meconium in the distal ileum, where they produce a characteristic 'ground glass' appearance on radiograph. In complicated meconium ileus in which perforation has occurred, intraperitoneal eggshell calcification are noted. Ref: Bailey & Love 25/e, Page 1199; Schwaz 9/e, Page 1429. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48310 | Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis | [
"HMG CoA synthetase",
"HMG CoA lyase",
"HMG CoA reductase",
"Mevalonate synthetase"
] | Repeated question | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17645 | In evaluating the menstrual cycle, which is TRUE? | [
"Estrogen secretion predominates during week prior to menstruation.",
"Ovulation follows a surge in LH.",
"Progesterone predominates the first week after menstruation.",
"FSH is released at midcycle."
] | The proliferative (follicular) phase (estrogen) is between the first days of menstrual bleeding to ovulation. If fertilization does not take place, progesterone release results in the endometrial proliferative phase. FSH stimulates the cycle of follicular proliferation. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9347 | Mechanism of action of Orlistat used to treat obesity is which of the following? | [
"Central reuptake inhibitor of both norepinephrine and serotonin",
"Intestinal lipase inhibitor",
"Central reuptake facilitator of serotonin",
"Intestinal amylase inhibitor"
] | Sibutramine is central reuptake inhibitor of Noradrenaline and serotonin. Orlistat is a intestinal lipase inhibitor. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43480 | Concurrent list does not encompass - | [
"Prevention of extension of communicable disease from one unit to another",
"Prevention of adulteration of food stuffs",
"Regulation and development of medical profession",
"Vital statistics"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Regulation and development of Medical profession Regulation and development of Medical profession is included inthe Union list and not in the Concurrent list. The Union Ministry' of Health and Family Welfare and its Functions. The functions of the Union Health Ministry are set out in the seventh schedule of Aicle 246 of the constitution of India under two lists. a) Union List b) Concurrent List Union list (Function Include) Concurrent list (Functions include) 1) International health relations and adminstration of po quarantine 1) Prevention of extension of 2) Administration of central institues such as the All India Institure of commit Hirable diseases from Hygiene and and Public Health, Kolkata; National Institute of one unit to another Control of Communicable Diseases, Delhi etc. 2) Prevention of adulteration of 3) Promotion of research through research centres and other bodies, foodstuffs. 4) Regulation and development of medical, pharmaceutical, dental and 3) Control of drugs and poisons nursingprofessions 4) Vital statistics 5) Establishment and maintenance of drug standards 5) Labour welfare 6) Census and collection and publication of other statistical data 6) Pos other than major 7) Immigration and emigration 7) Economic and social planning 8) Regulation of labour in the working in mines and oil fields and and 9) Coordination with states and with other ministries for promotion of 8) Population control and Family health. Planning. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38621 | A young patient develops high grade fever with chills and rigors, mild jaundice and acute pain in the upper abdomen following cholecystectomy. On examination, she was jaundiced, toxic, haemodynamically stable and having vague fullness upper abdomen. What is the most probable diagnosis | [
"Localised collection of bile in peritoneal cavity",
"Iatrogenic ligation of common bile duct",
"Duodenal injury",
"Acute pancreatitis"
] | .Complications which can occur in both types of cholecystectomy are * Infection and subphrenic abscess. * Bleeding from cystic aery, and from liver bed. * Injury to CBD or hepatic duct. * Bile leak and biliary fistula formation. * Biliary stricture formation. * Injuries to colon, duodenum, mesentery ref : SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed,pg no 596 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14452 | What is mechanism of action of curonium drugs as muscle relaxant? | [
"Persistently depolarizing at neuromuscular junction",
"Act competitively on Ach receptors blocking postsynaptically",
"Repetitive stimulation of Ach receptors on muscle end plate",
"Inhibiting the calcium channels on presynaptic membrane"
] | Persistently depolarizing at neuromuscular junction - propey of succinylcholine depolarising eg : succinylcholine 1. MOA - persistent / prolonged depolarising of nicotinic cholinergic receptors 2. fasiculation seen 3. post operative myalgia 4. not reversed by neostigmine 5. train of four response not seen 6. TOF ratio (B/A = 1 ) 7. neuromuscular monitoring not done 8. no post tetanic facilitation non - depolarising 1. MOA - competitive antagonist 2. fasiculation not seen 3. no post operative myalgia 4. reversed by neostigmine 5. train of four response seen 6. TOF ratio (B/A< 1 ) 7. neuromuscular monitoring done 8. post tetanic facilitation seen | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3049 | Patchy and specific lesions in intestinal biopsy is seen in case of: | [
"Whipples disease",
"Abetalipoproteinemia",
"Immune globulin deficiency",
"Intestinal lymphoma"
] | Patchy, Specific lesions in small intestinal biopsy Intestinal lymphoma Malignant cells in lamina propria and submucosa Intestinal lymphangiectasia Dilated lymphatics and clubbed villi Eosinophilic gastroenteritis Eosinophil infiltration of lamina propria and mucosa Amyloidosis Amyloid deposits Crohn's disease Noncaseating granulomas Infection by one or more microorganisms Specific organisms Mastocytosis Mast cell infiltration of lamina propria ALSO NOTE: Diffuse, Specific Whipple's disease Lamina propria contains macrophages containing PAS+ Agammaglobulinemia No plasma cells; either normal or absent villi Abetalipoproteinemia Normal villi / epithelial cells vacuolated with fat Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2468. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37110 | Putting profit ahead of health as a cause of disease is provided by which theory of sociology: | [
"Feminist",
"Parsonian",
"Marxist",
"Foucauldian"
] | THEORIES OF DISEASE CAUSATION IN SOCIOLOGY Marxist theory: Is concerned with the relationship between health and illness and capitalist social organization. Cause of disease is putting profit ahead of health. Feminist theory: Disease occurs d/t role of women enforced by men. Parsonian theory: Disease occur d/t social constraints which arise d/t social demands. Foucauldian theory: Disease occurs, population is segregated into groups, making them easier to control. McKneown theory of TB: Whatever reduction of incidence/ prevalence of TB is only d/t Socio-environmental conditions. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51955 | Bitherinal caloric test tests: | [
"Anterior semicircular canal",
"Horizontal semicircular canal",
"Superior semicircular canal",
"Posterior semicircular canal"
] | In Fitzgerald-Hallpike test/ bithermal caloric test, patient lies supine with head tilted 30deg forward so that horizontal canal is veical. Ears are irrigated for 40 seconds alternatively with water at 30degC and at 44deg C (70 below & above normal temperature) & observed for appearance of nystagmus till its end point | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16391 | A 20-year-old male presented to the OPD with left axillary pain, fever, malaise and myalgias. On examination, there is a swelling in the left axilla which is tender, boggy in consistency and has a hard core. A characteristic lesion was observed on the skin of upper abdominal quadrant. Gram staining of the aspirate was done. What is the drug of choice in the above condition: - | [
"Streptomycin",
"Tetracycline",
"Chloramphenicol",
"Doxycycline"
] | This is a case of Bubonic plague caused due to Yersinia pestis. 1st image shows an eschar in the right upper abdominal quadrant. Gram staining shows the classical bipolar closed safety pin appearance. Bubonic plague Sudden onset Fever, malaise, myalgias Progressive lymphadenitis in regional lymph nodes Lymphadenitis presents as a bubo. Eschar is seen at the site of rat flea bite. Gram negative coccobacilli Closed safety pin appearance Drug of choice - Streptomycin | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23371 | Sperms become motile in: | [
"Prostate",
"Seminal vesicles",
"Epididymis",
"Vas deferens"
] | C i.e. Epidydmis- Spermatogenesis & MeiosisQ occurs in seminiferous tubulesQ. Sperms are stored, matured and gain motility in epididymisQ. Capacitation of sperm occur in female genital tractQ. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23298 | All of the following statements regarding Clostridium tetani are true, except | [
"Spores are resistant to heat",
"Primary immunization consists of three doses",
"Incubation period is 6-10 days",
"Person to person transmission does not occur"
] | The resistance of tetanus spores to heat appears to be subject to strain differences. Most are killed by boiling for 10-15 mins but some resist boiling for up to 3 hrs. Autoclaving at 121degC for 20 mins ensures complete removal of spores. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 265 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50246 | All of the following cause sulfur granules except - | [
"Chromoblastomycosis",
"Botryomycosis",
"Mycetoma",
"Actinomycosis"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6357 | Paul Bunnel test is done for? | [
"HBV",
"EBV",
"CMV",
"HIV"
] | EBV REF: Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology by Parija 2009 Page 504 Heterophil antibodies, which is an antibody against EBV cross reacts with red blood cells of different animal species. This can be used as a rapid screening test for mononucleosis (Monospot test and Paul Bunnell tests) The Paul-Bunnell test uses sheep erythrocytes; the Monospot test, horse red cells.blood cells. In infectious mononucleosis, IgM heterophil antibodies are usually detectable for the first 3 months of infection. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49122 | Nanovalent vaccine offers protection against which type of HPV viruses? | [
"6, 8, 10, 11,31,33, 45, 52, 58",
"6, 11, 16, 18,31,33, 45, 52, 58",
"6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 35, 45, 52, 58",
"6, 11, 16, 18,31,32, 33, 34"
] | ANS. BHPV vaccine:* Cervarix: Bivalent--16 and 18* Gardasil: Quadrivalent: 6, 11, 16 and 18* Nanovalent vaccine: 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58* 3 doses: 0, 2, and 6 months* 0.5 mL given IM.Images in Pap smearThree types of cells in Pap smear:1. Superficial: Red cells--estrogen dependent2. Intermediate: Greenish-blue--progesterone dependent3. Parabasal: Blue--does not respond to estrogen/progesteroneImportant points in Pap smear:1. In menopause, there is excess parabasal cells.2. Basal cells never occur in Pap smear, if present it indicates erosion. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19869 | The major disadvantage of mesenteric angiography in the setting of GI bleeding is: | [
"It does not identify the specific cause of the bleeding",
"Embolization is not possible",
"Vasopressin infusion is not possible",
"Transient ischemic attacks"
] | Angiography can be used to diagnose and treat severe bleeding. It can be diagnostic, only when the aerial bleeding rate is at least 0.5 mL/min. The sensitivity is 30% to 50% The specificity is 100%. Advantage It permits therapeutic intra-aerial infusion of vasopressin Transcatheter embolization for hemostasis. Disadvantage: Complications-3% Hematoma formation Femoral aery thrombosis Contrast dye reactions Acute kidney injury Intestinal ischemia Transient ischemic attacks Does not identify the specific cause of bleedin | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23856 | A subtype of Hodgkins which is histogenetically distinct from all others | [
"Lymphocyte predominant",
"Nodular sclerosis",
"Mixed cellularity",
"Lymphocyte depleted"
] | Nodular Lymphocyte-Predominant Hodgkin's Lymphoma It is now recognized as an entity distinct from classical Hodgkin's lymphoma. Asubset of these patients has tumors with nodular growth pattern and a clinical course that varied from that of patients with classical Hodgkin's lymphoma. This is an unusual clinical entity and represents <5% of cases of Hodgkin's lymphoma. It has a number of characteristics that suggest its relationship to non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. These include a clonal proliferation of B cells and a distinctive immunophenotype; tumor cells express J chain and display CD45 and epithelial membrane antigen (EMA) and do not express two markers normally found on Reed-Sternberg cells, CD30 and CD15. This lymphoma tends to have a chronic, relapsing course and sometimes transforms to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.Reference: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Chapter 134 Malignancies of Lymphoid Cells | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44337 | Most reliable method of identification of a person is - | [
"Gustafson method",
"Galton method",
"Anthropometry",
"Scars"
] | Dactylography is study of fingerprint patterns. It is also known as Galton system or dermatoglyphics. It is considered the most reliable method for identification as these patterns are not inherited and remain permanent and distinctive for each person. ref :Dr.K.S.Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 47. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38366 | Neonatal meningitis & Pneumonia may be caused by- | [
"Strep faecalis",
"Group C enterococci",
"Anaerobic Streptococci",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Strep fecalis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48535 | The tick-borne hemorrhagic fever found in Karnataka state is - rpt | [
"Japanese enephalitis",
"Kyasanur forest disease",
"Epidemic nephrosonephritis",
"Lassa fever"
] | KFD- is a febrile disease associated with haemorrhage caused by an antivirus, flavivirus and transmitted to human by bite of infected ticks. KFD was first recognised in 1957 in Shimoga district of Karnataka state in South India. REF:Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2604 | Marker of ovarian reserve, estimated for infeility:- | [
"Antral follicle size",
"LH/FSH ratio",
"Inhibin A",
"Anti-mullerian hormone"
] | Ovarian reserve tests are to assess the quantity as well as the quality of primordial Follicles present in the women's ovary Test for ovarian reserve Serum day 3 FSH levels Serum inhibin B levels Clomiphene citrate challenge test Serum anti mullerian hormone (AMH): It is produced by the granulosa cells of the preantral small follicles Antral follicle count ( AFC) Serum estradiol levels | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2302 | Which of the following is not same in monozygotic twins | [
"Sex",
"Finger prints",
"Blood group",
"Histocompatibilty"
] | Monozygotic twin features: Same sex Same genetic features Acceptance of reciprocal skin graft Similar physical and behavioral features . Ref : Dutta Obs 9e pg 190. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12111 | Patients may experience fatigue, mental status changes, dehydration, or symptoms of nephrolithiasis in humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy , is when the serum calcium level is more than: | [
"14 mg/dl",
"12 mg/dl",
"11 mg/dl",
"10 mg/dl"
] | Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM) Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM) occurs in 20% of cancer. It is commonly seen in cancers of the lung, head and neck, esophagus, breast, genitourinary tract and in multiple myeloma & lymphomas. Caused most commonly by overproduction of PTHrP When the calcium levels are markedly increased >14 mg/dL patients may experience fatigue, mental status changes, dehydration, symptoms of nephrolithiasis. Ref: Harrison,E-18,P-828 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41399 | A patient presents with a severe form of atopic asthma. Which of the following changes would MOST likely to be found in this patient's blood? | [
"Basophilic leukocytosis",
"Eosinophilic leukocytosis",
"Lymphocytosis",
"Monocytosis"
] | An increased number of eosinophils (AKA eosinophilia) occurs in association with several conditions, the most frequent of which are immune-mediated diseases (e.g., asthma, hay fever, and pemphigus vulgaris) and parasitic infestations. This is due to an absolute increase in the number of circulating eosinophils, brought about by IL-5, which stimulates differentiation of eosinophilic precursor cells in the bone marrow.Also know:Basophilic leukocytosis is a rare event that is sometimes observed in association with chronic myelogenous leukemia. It is not seen in patients with asthma. Lymphocytosis may result from a vast array of conditions, but it is not typical of asthma or other allergic diseases. Lymphocytosis may develop in response to a number of infections (e.g., brucellosis, whooping cough, hepatitis, infectious mononucleosis, and tuberculosis) or manifest as pa of chronic lymphocytic leukemia.Monocytosis refers to an increase in number of monocytes, which are circulating macrophages. Chronic infections (e.g., tuberculosis, rickettsiosis, and malaria) and chronic inflammatory conditions (e.g., collagen vascular diseases and inflammatory bowel disease) are the most common underlying causes. Ref: Robbins Basic Pathology, 8th Ed, page 442t | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26773 | Which of the following test is not a test for helicobacter pylori infection? | [
"Fecal antigen test",
"Barium swallow",
"Microbiological culture",
"Rapid rease test"
] | <p>Division&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. *non invasive tests-serology ,urea breath test ,fecal antigen test. Invasive tests-histology,rapid urease test,microbiological culture.</p> | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19764 | Brain death indicated by suppression of reflexes all except- | [
"Oculovestibular",
"Corneal",
"Pharyngeal",
"Patellar tendon"
] | Irreversible coma with abolition of CNS activity in brain death is evidenced by absence of pupillary, corneal,oculovestibular and pharyngeal reflexes | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46959 | Asthma is? | [
"Obstructive lung disease",
"Restrictive lung disease",
"Both",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Obstructive lung disease o Obstructive disease is characterized by an increase in resistance to airflow owing to partial or complete obstruction at any level, from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles. Examples are chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD emphysema, chronic bronchitis), bronchiectasis, and asthmao Restrictive disease is characterized by reduced expansion of lung parenchyma, with decreased total lung capacity. It may occur due to two types of disorders -a) Chest wall disorders in the presence of Normal lungs - Neuromuscular disorders, e.g.polio, severe obesity, pleural disease, kyphoscoliosis.b) Interstitial and infiltrative diseases of lung - Pneumoconiosis, interstitial fibrosis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28074 | An eight year old child has active white spot lesions on his teeth and gives a history of having sugar containing snacks and beverages more than 3 times in between meals. In which category can we classify this child | [
"High Risk",
"Moderate Risk",
"Low Risk",
"None"
] | Caries-Risk Assessment Form for Children 6 Years Old or Younger | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42808 | All are documented patterns of glomerular injury in HBV related chronic liver disease, EXCEPT: | [
"Minimal change nephropathy",
"Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis",
"Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis",
"C3 glomerulopathy"
] | The association between chronic HBV infection and glomerular diseases was first described in 1971. The morphological patterns for glomerular lesions are: Membranous nephropathy, Minimal change nephropathy, Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis, Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis IgA nephropathy HBV-associated nephropathy (HBVAN) occurs in childhood and mainly in males The prognosis of HBVAN is more orable in children. Progression to renal failure is rare. Ref: Hepat Mon 2009; 9 (2): 137-145. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23154 | The terminal branch of the basilar aery Is? | [
"Anterior inferior cerebellar aery",
"Anterior spinal aery",
"Posterior cerebral aery",
"Posterior inferior cerebellar aery"
] | The posterior cerebral aery is the terminal branch of the basilar aery. Branches of basilar aery- Anterior inferior cerebellar aery Labryinthine aery(20%) Superior cerebellar aery to cerebellum Posterior cerebral aery Pontine branches | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50149 | The roof of the olfactory region is formed by? | [
"Nasal hone",
"Cribriform plate of ethmoid",
"Sphenoid",
"Temporal bone"
] | Roof of olfactory region of nasal cavity is formed by cribriform plate of ethmoid boneQ.Other bones paicipating in non- olfactory roof formation are body of sphenoid, frontal bone, nasal bone and nasal cailages. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22780 | The complete rockall scoring system in the setting of non-variceal upper GI bleeding correlates well with: | [
"Morbidity",
"Moality",
"Rebleeding",
"Cardiac failure"
] | Scoring tools Identifies patients with nonvariceal UGI bleeding at greatest risk for moality and rebleeding. Pre-endoscopy scoring systems for nonvariceal bleeding Blatchford Score The Clinical Rockall Score Aificial neural network score The most commonly used post endoscopy scoring system is -Complete Rockall Score The Complete Rockall Score includes: The Clinical Rockall Score + endoscopic findings. It correlates well with moality but not with the risk for rebleeding. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, E-9, P-293. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32282 | The amniotic membrane is characterised by all except: | [
"Provides maximum tensile strength",
"Highly vascular",
"It develops after 2 - 7 days of gestation",
"Foetal ectoderm"
] | Ans. is b i.e. Highly vascular Amnion and chorion are fetal membranes. The Amnion : tmpoant points - It is the innermost fetal membrane and is in contact with the amniotic fluid. At term, amnion is tough and tenacious. Almost all of the tensile strength of the fetal membranes is due to amnion.deg It is avasculardeg and plicabledeg. Amnion has 5 separate sublayers. The impoant missing elements of human amnion are : Smooth muscle cells Nerves Lymphatics Blood vessels The amnion and chorion though slightly adherent are never intimately connected and can be separated easily, even at term. Remember -- Earlier it was believed that amnion is derived from trophoblast but now it is generally accepted that epithelial cells of amnion are derived from fetal ectoderm of the embryonic disc. - The human amnion is first identifiable about 7" -- 8" day of embryo development. Function : Amnion is metabolically active and is involved in solute and water transpo to maintain amniotic fluid hemostasis and produce a variety of bioactive compounds including vasoactive peptides. growth factors and cytokines. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1816 | Hea failure cells are: March 2007 | [
"Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells",
"Pigmented hepatocytes",
"Pigmented alveolar macrophages",
"Pigmented cells in pancreas"
] | Ans. C: Pigmented alveolar macrophagesHea failure cells are hemosiderin-containing macrophages in the alveoli.The main causes are left hea failure and chronic pulmonary edema.In left hea failure, the left ventricle cannot keep pace with the incoming blood from the pulmonary veins. The resulting backup causes increased pressure on the alveolar capillaries and red blood cells leak out.Alveolar macrophages ingest the red blood cells, and become engorged with brownish hemosiderin.In pulmonary edema, alveolar septa get thick and fibrous, again increasing pressure on alveolar capillaries and resulting in leakage of red blood cells which undergo phagocvtosis by alveolar macrophages. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43535 | A 68-year-old coal miner with a history of smoking and emphysema develops severe air-flow obstruction and expires. Autopsy reveals a "black lung," with coal-dust nodules scattered throughout the parenchyma and a central area of dense fibrosis. The coal dust entrapped within this miner's lung was sequestered primarily by which of the following cells? | [
"Endothelial cells",
"Fibroblasts",
"Lymphocytes",
"Macrophages"
] | Macrophages. Coal workers' pneumoconiosis reflects the inhalation of carbon particles. The characteristic pulmonary lesions of simple coal worker's pneumoconiosis include nonpalpable coal-dust macules and palpable coal-dust nodules, both of which are typically multiple and scattered throughout the lung as 1- to 4-mm black foci. Nodules consist of dust-laden macrophages associated with a fibrotic stroma. Nodules occur when coal is admixed with fibrogenic dusts such as silica and are more properly classified as anthracosilicosis. Coal-dust macules and nodules appear on a chest radiograph as small nodular densities. The other choices are not phagocytic cells.Diagnosis: Anthracosilicosis, coal workers' pneumoconiosis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_149 | What serves as a precursor of testosterone? | [
"Aldosterone",
"Estrone",
"Methyltestosterone",
"Pregnenolone"
] | Cholestrol is first acted upon by desmolase and 6 carbon unit cleaved off,forming the 21 carbon steriod, pregnenolone It is common precursor for all steriod hormonesRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 664, 665, 666 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9759 | Which of the following is not a component of Rotterdam criteria for diagnosing polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOD) | [
"Multiple cysts in ovaries seen on USG",
"Anovulation",
"Clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism",
"Hyperinsulinism"
] | Hyperinsulinism is not among Rotterdam criteria, although insulin resistance is seen in POCD. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13990 | All are good prognostic factors for neuroblastoma except | [
"Trk-A expression absent",
"Absence of 1 p loss",
"Absence of 17 p gain",
"Absence of 11 q loss"
] | The expression of specific neurotrophin receptors like TrkA are good prognostic factors for Neuroblastoma whereas expression of TrkB like neurotrophin receptors worsens the disease. Refer robbins 9/e 260p | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4628 | Over 60% of the world's Multi Drug Resistant TB cases are seen in which of the following countries? | [
"India, Brazil, Afghanisthan",
"India, China, Russian Federation",
"Africa, China, Brazil",
"India, Africa, Afghanistan"
] | Overall 60% of all MDR-TB cases are in India, China, and the Russian Federation. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1341 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19554 | A patient by name Mahesh whose age is 60 years presented with hypercellulor Bone marrow, Peripheral Blood smear shows pancytopenia and 15 % mycloblast cells. Most likely diagnosis is | [
"Myelodysplastic syndrome",
"Blast Crisis in CML",
"AML",
"Polycythemia vera"
] | Hypercellulor Bone marrow
Peripheral Blood smear shows pancytopenia
15 % myeloblast cells are characteristically seen in MDS
It is common seen in elderly | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7975 | Best investigation for air in peritoneal cavity is - | [
"USG",
"Laparotomy",
"Laparoscopy",
"X-ray abdomen-erect view"
] | Not given in the option but free gas under the diaphragm is best shown on an erect chest x-ray. If the patient is too ill for an erect film, a lateral decubitus film is done. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_578 | Risk of damage of fetus by maternal rubella is maximum if mother gets infected in: | [
"6-12 weeks of pregnancy",
"20-24 weeks of pregnancy",
"24-28 weeks of pregnancy",
"32-36 weeks of pregnancy"
] | Congenital Rubella Syndrome: CRS is said to have occured if Infant has IgM rubella antibodies sholy after bih,, or IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 months. Major determinant of extent of fetal infection in CRS: Gestational age at which fetal transmission occurs, Infections in I trimester: MOST DISASTROUS TIME Aboions Still bihs Skin lesions: blue berry muffin lesions. Triad of Congenital Rubella syndrome: Sensineural deafness Congenital hea defects (MC is PDA Cataract Infection in early pa of II trimester: Deafness (only) Infection after 16 weeks POG: No major abnormalities Risk of fetal damage in CRS: Stage of gestation % of fetuses infected % of fetuses damaged among infected Overall risk of damage <11 weeks 90 100 90 11-16 weeks 55 37 20 17-26 weeks 33 0 0 27-36 weeks 53 0 0 Other manifestations of CRS may include: spleen, liver or bone marrow problems, mental retardation, microcephaly, low bih weight, thrombocytopenic purpura (characteristic &;blue berry muffin&; rash), Hepatomegaly, micrognathia. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 164 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30537 | Onion skin thickening of aeriolar wall is sees in- | [
"Atherosclerosis",
"Median calcific sclerosis",
"Hyaline aeriosclerosis",
"Hyperplastic aeriosclerosis"
] | Hyperplastic aeriosclerosis is more typical of severe hypeension. Vessel exhibit onion skin . Concentric laminated thickening of aeriolar walls and luminal narrowing Robbins 9 th edition page no. 334 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4161 | Defloration means: | [
"Loss of virginity",
"Infeility",
"Rape",
"Virginity"
] | Loss of virginity | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22562 | Which of the following does not act as second messenger ? | [
"Cyclic AMP",
"Inositol trisphosphate",
"Diacylglycerol",
"G proteins"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6916 | The dose of a drug required to produce a specified effect in 50% of the population is | [
"Ld50",
"Td50",
"Md50",
"Ed50"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25532 | Which of the following responses is found in atopic individuals - | [
"IgM production",
"IgE production",
"IgA production",
"Hypogammaglobulinemia"
] | Atopy is typed I hypersensitivity reaction. Type I hypersensitivity reaction is IgE dependent. Cytotoxic IgE antibodies are fixed on the surface of tissue cells ( mast cells and basophils) in sesensitizedndividuals. The antigen combines with the cell fixed antibody, leading to release of a phapharmacologicallytive substance that proproducese clinical reaction. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg: 162 <\p> | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21966 | Investigation of choice for diagnosing downs syndrome at 15 weeks of gestation in a mother with a history of delivering a down syndrome baby is which of the following: | [
"Triple screen test",
"Amniocentesis",
"Chorionic villous biopsy",
"Ultrasonography"
] | Amniocentesis is the investigation of choice for the diagnosis of downs syndrome. It is done between 14-16 weeks of gestation. It is performed in the context of prior history of a child with downs syndrome, advanced maternal age, abnormal triple or quad assay. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 409 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C.Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 107 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38767 | Which of the following drug is not used for prophylaxis of migraine? | [
"Topiramate",
"Propranolol",
"Flunarizine",
"Ethosuximide"
] | Propranolol is the most commonly used drug for prophylaxis of migraine attacks. Timolol, atenolol, metoprolol and nadolol can also be used but the drugs with ISA (e.g. pindolol) are ineffective. Calcium channel blockers like flunarizine (also blocks Na+ channels) is also effective. Diltiazem, verapamil and nimodipine can also be used. Methysergide, cyproheptadine and TCAs like amitriptyline, imipramine and noriptyline can also be used. Clonidine can be used orally for the prophylaxis of migraine attacks. Topiramate (anticonvulsant drug) has recently been approved for prophylaxis of migraine Valproate and gabapentin also possess some prophylactic activity. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4704 | Treatment of choice of cystic hygroma | [
"Percutaneous aspiration",
"Intralesional sclerosant injection",
"En Block resection",
"Surgical excision"
] | Surgical excision is most definitive treatment of cystic hygroma. Other treatments include Sclerotherapy and cautery etc. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52254 | In which of the following, vegetation is friable and easily detachable from the cardiac valves - | [
"Rheumatic fever",
"Rheumatoid heart",
"SLE",
"Infective endocarditis"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44408 | Sebaceous cyst is seen in all of the following sites EXCEPT | [
"Scalp",
"Face",
"Palm & Soles",
"Scrotum"
] | (C) Palm & Soles # Sebaceous Cyst is a cyst of the sebaceous gland due to blockage of the duct of this gland which opens mostly into the hair follicle.> The gland becomes distended by its own secretion.> Obviously it contains sebum.> It is commonly seen in young adults, though no age is exempt.> It may occur any where in body except palm & sole, though it is commonly seen in scalp, face & scrotum | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39171 | A 50-year old male presents with severe refractory hypeension, weakness, muscle cramps and hypokalemia, the most likely diagnosis is - | [
"Hypoaldosteronism",
"Hyperaldosteronism",
"Cushing's syndrome",
"Pheochromocytoma"
] | hypeension due to increased sodium reabsorption and extracellular volume expansion and potassium depletion causes multiple weakness, hypokalemia ( Harrison 17 pg 2260) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34975 | A 25-year-old male with no previous history of jaundice presents with yellowish discoloration of sclera for 3 days along with fatigue and abdominal pain. He has been fasting for the past 3 days due to religious reasons. On examination, abdomen was soft and tender with no evidence of hepatomegaly. Hepatic histology showed a moderate increase in the lipofuscin pigment. Which of the following would be expected in this patient? | [
"Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia",
"Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia",
"Grossly elevated AST/ALT",
"Normal bilirubin"
] | A healthy male presenting with jaundice following a period of fasting raises the suspicion of Gilbe syndrome. It is the most common inherited disorder of glucuronidation characterized by decreased UDP-glucuronosyltransferase activity leading to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (<3 mg/dl) triggered by fasting, stress, physical exeion or a fat-free diet. Typically, liver enzymes are normal. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19679 | Which of the following is not a complication of EALE's disease? | [
"Rubeosis iridis",
"Retinal detachment",
"Neurovascular glaucoma",
"Optic neuritis"
] | Eale's diseaseis a nonspecific inflammation of veins of the peripheral retina. Optic neuritis does not occur as a complication of Eale's disease. Common eye manifestations includes retinal hemorrhage, vitreous hemorrhage, retinal detachment, rubeosis iridis, complicated cataract and neovascular glaucoma. Reference: Textbook of Ophthalmology By H V Nema, 6e page 311. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13968 | All except one are true regarding Idiopathic pulmonary Fibrosis | [
"Smoking is pre - disposing factor.",
"Non - Granulomatous condition",
"Bronchoalveolar Lavage shows eosinophils",
"Subpleural Fibrosis"
] | Bronchoalveolar Lavage in Idiopathic pulmon fibrosis shows neutrophils. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7529 | Which of the following is not component of acinus? | [
"Pulmonary lobule",
"Respiratory bronchioles",
"Alveolar ducts",
"Alveolar sac"
] | Ans. is `a' i.e., Pulmonary lobule o Pulmonary lobule is not a component of acinus, rather cluster of 3-5 terminal bronchioles with acinus form pulmonary lobule. Respiratory tract anatomy o Progressive branching of bronchi forms bronchioles. o Fuher branching of bronchioles leads to terminal bronchioles. o Terminal bronchiole emnate into respiratory bronchioles. o Respiratory bronchioles proceed into the alveolar ducts, wich immediately branch into alveolar sacs (alveoli). o The pa of lung distal to the terminal bronchiole is called acinus, i.e., respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct and alveolar sac. o A cluster of three to five terminal bronchioles, each with its appended acinus, is usually referred to as pulmonary lobule. o So, pulmonary lobules include cluster of three to five terminal bronchioles with its respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30305 | Minimally invasive video-assisted thyroidectomy can be done in all except | [
"Benign solitary nodule",
"Thyroid volume <25mL",
"Prior neck surgery",
"Follicular neoplasm"
] | Minimally invasive video-assisted thyroidectomy involves the use of a 1.5- to 2-cm anterior cervical incision, an endoscopic camera placed into the wound for visualization, self-retaining retractors, and dedicated surgical instruments. This technique is most commonly applied to lobectomy for benign disease, but it has been applied to total thyroidectomy including for malignancy. Prior neck surgery, a large-volume thyroid (>25 mL), a large lesion, and lymphatic metastasis are considered contraindications to this technique. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26236 | Cause of myringosclerosis ? | [
"Genetic",
"Grommet inseion",
"Otosclerosis",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Grommet inseion Tvmpanosclerosis Tympanosclerosis is a condition in which there is calcification of tissue in the eardrum (tympanic membrane) and middle ear. Tympanosclerosis may be classified as : - Myringosclerosis : - Involving only the tympanic membrane. Intratympanic tympanosclerosis : - Involving other middle ear sites : ossicular chain or, rarely, the mastoid cavity. Exact etiology of tympanosclerosis is not known. It may be an abnormal healing process and most commonly occurs in cases of serous otitis media as a complication of ventilation tube (gourmet) inseion. Characteristic chalky white patches are seen on inspection of the eardrum. It is woh noting that cholesteatoma may look similar but the whiteness appears behind, rather than in/on the tympanum. Otherwise tympanosclerosis is asymptomatic. Conductive hearing loss may occur in some cases. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31625 | Diagnosis of ABO incompatiability can be from all of the following except? | [
"Sweat",
"Saliva",
"Semen",
"CSF"
] | Ans (d) CSF Ref Reddy , p 378 ABO group specific substances are found in high concentration in saliva, semen, vaginal secretion and gastric juice while in low concentration in sweat, tears and urine, so it is possible to determine blood group from an examination of these secretions. So for this question it can be said that, they are present in all tissues except CSF. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53660 | In which O2 therapy is used - | [
"Hypoxic hypoxia",
"Anemic hypoxia",
"Histotoxic",
"Stagnant"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypoxic hypoxia | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16166 | A 65-year-old man with diabetes, on an oral hypoglycemic, presents to the ER with a spos- related right shoulder injury. His hea rate was noted to be irregular and the following ECG was obtained. The best immediate therapy is | [
"Atropine",
"Observation",
"Pacemaker",
"Electrical cardioversion"
] | This ECG shows Mobitz type I second-degree AV block, also known as Wenckebachphenomenon, characterized by progressive PR interval prolongation prior to block of an atrial impulse. This rhythm generally does not require therapy. It may be seen in normal individuals; other causes include inferior MI and drug intoxications such as from digoxin, beta blockers, or calcium channel blockers. Even in the post-MI setting, it is usually stable, although it has the potential to progress to higher-degree AV block with consequent need for pacemaker. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33033 | Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by? | [
"Chief cells",
"Mucous cells",
"Parietal cells",
"p cells"
] | Intrinsic factor, a mucoprotein secreted by the parietal cells, binds with vitamin B12 of dietary origin and greatly enhances absorption of the vitamin. Absorption occurs by an active process in the terminal ileum. Intrinsic factor secretion is enhanced by stimuli that evoke H+ output from parietal cells. Pernicious anemia is characterized by atrophy of the parietal cell mucosa, deficiency in intrinsic factor, and anemia. Subclinical deficiencies in vitamin B12 have been described after operations that reduce gastric acid secretion, and abnormal Schilling tests in these patients can be corrected by the administration of intrinsic factor. Ref: Dohey G.M., Way L.W. (2010). Chapter 23. Stomach & Duodenum. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3642 | In clinical practice, most common psychiatric illness seen is: | [
"Maniac disorder",
"Schizophrenia",
"Depressive disorder",
"Bipolar disorder"
] | Ans. (c) Depressive disorderRef. Kaplan synopsis 10thed./ 528-30* Most common psychiatric disorder in India and worldwide: Major depression* Female is most commonly affected as compared to males* Depression is the most common psychiatric disorder associated with severe medical illness like hypothyroidism, cancer, AIDS, post MI etc. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38458 | Presbycusis is | [
"Loss of accommodation power",
"Hearing loss due to ageing",
"Noise induced hearing loss",
"Congenital deafness"
] | Presbycusis is a sensorineural hearing loss associated with ageing. Manifests at the age of 65years (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6143 | Which is the earliest site that get affected by Alzheimer's disease? | [
"Amygdala",
"Nucleus basalis of mayernet",
"Red nucleus",
"Posterior commissurie"
] | Nucleus basalis of mayernet is the largest collection of cholinergic neuron in the brain.It is the earliest site to get affected by Alzheimer's disease. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2970 | National institute of Homeopathy is located in: | [
"Delhi",
"Kolkata",
"Chennai",
"Mumbai"
] | The government of india has established a national institute of Ayurveda in Jaipur and a national institute of homeopathy in Kolkata. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 849. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5193 | Beta2 adrenergic receptors are not found on:September 2010 | [
"Aerioles",
"Veins",
"Adipose Tissue",
"Uterus"
] | Ans. C: Adipose TissueBeta receptors:Beta 1 - Hea, JG cells in kidney.Beta 2 - Bronchi, blood vessels, uterus, liver, g.i.t, urinary tract, eyeBeta 3 - adipose tissue | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49811 | Two years ago, a 30-year old lady had undergone near total thyroidectomy for papillary carcinoma. During the follow up visits, she was found to have multiple, discrete, mobile, left, deep cervical lymph nodes measuring 1 to 1.5 cms in size. the ideal treatment for this lady would be - | [
"Iodine 131 ablation",
"External irradiation to the neck",
"Thyroxine therapy",
"Modified redical neck dissection"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3987 | All are causes of chronic granulomatous uveitis EXCEPT: | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Tuberculosis",
"Brucellosis",
"Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis"
] | (Fuch's heterochromic iridocyclitis) (220-Parson 20th)* Causes of chronic granulomatous uveitis - Sarcoidosis, Herpes simplex, herpes zoster, varicella, syphilis,Tuberculosis, leprosy, brucellosis phacoanaphylactic* Causes chronic - non granulomatous uveitis - Juvenile, chronic arthritis, chronic iridocyclitis of children,Fuch's heterochromic iridocyclitis. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_220 | The dose of radiation for point A for early and locally advancing cervical cancer during brachytherapy according to ABS guidelines is: | [
"70-75Gy- 75-80Gy",
"75-75Gy- 80-85Gy",
"80-85Gy- 85-90Gy",
"85-90Gy- 90-95Gy"
] | (Refer: John Hopkins’ Manual of Obstetrics & Gynecology, 4th edition, pg no: 554)
Brachytherapy of CA Cervix | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45632 | In antibiotic associated colitis, organism involved is - | [
"Clostridium difficile",
"Pseudomonas",
"Staphylococcus",
"Enterococcus"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Clostridium difficile Antibiotic - associated (or clostridium difficile associated) colitis o It is an example of superinfection. o It is caused by alteration of normal bowel flora, which allows multiplication of clostridium difficle which releases several toxins that damage the mucosa of the bowel and promote excretion of fluid. o It takes the form of an acute, nonspecific colitis, i.e. pseudomembranous colitis. o Almost any antimicrobial may initiate this condition, but the drugs most commonly repoed today are injectable cephalosporins and amoxi/ampicillin -- Laurence 9th/e 212 o Clindamycin, not commonly used in routine practice today, had an even greater propensity. o Metronidazole is the DOC for pseudomembranous colitis and vancomycin is an alternative. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40067 | Acanthosis means ? | [
"Loss of intracellular connections",
"Abnormal premature keralinization",
"Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia",
"Thickening of stratum corneum"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia DEFINITIONS OF MICROSCOPIC TERMS Hyperkeratosis Thickening of the stratum corneum, often associated with a qualitative abnormality of the keratin. Parakeratosis Modes of keratinization characterized by the retention of the nuclei in the stratum corneum. On mucous membranes, parakeratosis is normal. Hypergranulosis Hyperplasia of the stratum granulosum, often due to intense rubbing. Acanthosis Diffuse epidermal hyperplasia. Papillomatosis Surface elevation caused by hyperplasia and enlargement of contiguous dermal papillae. Dyskeratosis Abnormal keratinization occurring prematurely within individual cells or groups of cells below the stratum granulosum. Acantholysis Loss of intercellular connections resulting in loss of cohesion between keratinocytes. Spongiosis Intercellular edema of the epidermis. Hydropic swelling (ballooning) Intracellular edema of kerantinocytes, often seen in viral infections Exocytosis infiltration of the epidermis by inflammatory or circulating blood cells. Erosion Discontinuity of the skin exhibiting incomplete loss of the epidermis. Ulceration Discontinuity of the skin exhibiting complete loss of the epidermis and often of poions of the dermis and even subcutaneous fat. Vacuolization Formation of vacuoles within or adjacent to cells; often refers to basal cell-basement membrane zone area. Lentiginous Referring to a linear pattern of melanocyte proliferation within the epidermal basal cell layer. Lentiginous melanocytic hyperplasia can occur as a reactive change or as pa of a neoplasm of melanocytes. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7155 | Which acts on intracellular receptor: | [
"TSH",
"FSH",
"Glucagon",
"Epinephrine"
] | Ans. A TSHReceptors for Hormones* Membrane receptor: They mainly bind peptide hormones and catecholamines* Nuclear receptor: Bind small molecules that can diffuse across the cell membrane, such as steroids and vitamin D.Note:* Guyton states: "Amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones interact with cell surface membrane receptors."* Steroids, thyroid hormones, vitamin D and retinoids are lipid soluble and interact with intracellular nuclear receptors.Receptors and their respective hormonesNuclear receptorsThyroxine(Mn: TOAD)EstrogenVitamin AVitamin DCytoplasmic receptorsAll steroids except EstrogenCell membrane via G protein stimulationAll others like ACTH, LH, FSH, GH | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12355 | What is the treatment of choice in duodenal ulcer without any complication of hemorrhage? | [
"Highly selective vagotomy",
"Trunkal vagotomy",
"Proton pump inhibitors",
"None"
] | Proton pump inhibitors like Omeprazole can produce relief in patients with duodenal ulcer. Perforation complicates duodenal ulcer about half as often as bleeding and most perforated ulcers are on the anterior surface of the duodenum. The patient population tends to be elderly (mean age 60-70), chronically, ill patients often (40-50%) taking ulcerogenic medication. Helicobacter pylori is implicated in 70-92% of all perforated duodenal ulcers even if those secondary to Non-Steroidal Antiinflammatory Drugs are included. The second most common cause of perforated duodenal ulcer is the ingestion of Non-Steroidal Antiinflammatory drugs. The traditional management of a perforated duodenal ulcer has been a Graham Omental Patch and a thorough abdominal lavage. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39395 | All causes metabolic acidosis, except: Kerala 07 | [
"Methanol",
"Ethanol",
"Salicylate",
"Isopropanol"
] | Ans. Isopropanol | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18130 | Most common fixative used in electron microscopy: | [
"Glutaraldehyde",
"Formalin",
"Picric acid",
"Absolute alcohol"
] | Ans. a. Glutaraldehyde | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41198 | Feathery appearance in jejunum is due to – | [
"Valvulae conniventes",
"Haustrations",
"Luminal gas",
"Vascular network"
] | The nervous and villous coat of the jejunum are extensive and are thrown into folds, called Valvulae conniventes which give feathery appearance in the jejunum. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4363 | False about anthrax is | [
"Caused by Gram positive bacilli",
"Soil reservoir",
"Spore formation takes place",
"More common in carnivorous than herbivores"
] | The anthrax bacillus is one of the largest of pathogenic bacteria which is gram-positive and non-acid fast. it is present in soil, it does form spores, infection of animals is spores from the soil. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker&;s; 10th edition; Page no: 248 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41760 | Jamais vu is - | [
"Illusion that what one is hearing, one has heard previously",
"A unfamiliar thought regarded as repetition of a previous thought",
"Unfamiliar situations or events feel strangely familiar",
"Feeling of strangeness to familiar situation"
] | Ans. D. Feeling of strangeness to familiar situationfamais vu :- A feeling of strangeness to familiar situations or events. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16738 | Ingested lead is mainly eliminated through: | [
"Stool",
"Urine",
"Sweat",
"Almost 100% lymphatics in gut"
] | The elimination of the ingested lead is mainly through the feces, reflecting the poor gastrointestinal absorption rate. Ref : | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19879 | Trichomoniasis is | [
"Viral sexually transmitted disease.",
"Marker of high-risk sexual behaviour.",
"No evidence of vertical transmission.",
"Incidence decreases with patient age."
] | Trichomoniasis is non viral sexually transmitted disease. Vertical transmission during birth is possible. It's incidence increases with patient age. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34953 | Which of the following is used for isolation for chlamydia - | [
"Microimmunofluorescence",
"Yolk sac inoculation",
"ELISA",
"Immunofluorescence"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54541 | Drug transport mechanisms include: a) Active transport b) Passive transport c) Lipid solubility d) Bioavailability e) Distribution | [
"ab",
"ae",
"ad",
"bc"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1721 | Most common age group effected in rubella is: | [
"Infants",
"Adolscents",
"Pregnant females",
"Women of child bearing age"
] | Women of child bearing age | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9212 | What is Dohlman's Procedure in Zenker's Diverticulum? | [
"Endoscopic Stapling of Septum",
"Endoscopic Suturing of Pouch",
"Resection of Pouch",
"Laser excision"
] | Ans. (a) Endoscopic Stapling of septumRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition Page 322* Endoscopic Stapling Technique for Pharyngeal Pouch (Zenker's Diverticulum) is known as Dohlman's Procedure. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44544 | Which of the following statements about indirect pulp caps is false? | [
"Some leathery caries may be left in the preparation.",
"A liner is generally recommended in the excavation.",
"The operator should wait at least 6 to 8 weeks before re-entry (if then).",
"The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is poorer than that of direct pulp caps."
] | When doing an indirect pulp cap some caries may be left, a liner is usually placed over the excavated area, and the area may be assessed 6 to 8 weeks later. Regardless, the indirect pulp cap prognosis is better than the prognosis for direct pulp caps. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46471 | Which of the following is not a clinical feature of post-traumatic stress disorder ? | [
"Flashbacks",
"Hyperarousal",
"Hallucinations",
"Emotional numbing"
] | PTSD is characterised by recurrent and intrusive recollections of the stressful event, either in flashbacks (images, thoughts, or perceptions) and/or in dreams. There is an associated sense of re-experiencing of the stressful event. There is marked avoidance of the events or situations that arouse recollections of the stressful event, along with marked symptoms of anxiety and increased arousal. The other impoant clinical features of PTSD include paial amnesia for some aspects of the stressful event, feeling of numbness, and anhedonia (inability to experience pleasure). Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no.112 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6932 | All are seen in albinism except: | [
"Glaucoma",
"Photophobia",
"Refractive error",
"Nystagmus"
] | Ans. Glaucoma | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15933 | Keratoderma is a feature of – | [
"Pityriasis rubra pilaris",
"Pemphigus",
"Pityriasis rosea",
"Psoriasis"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44178 | What is the color of normal amniotic fluid during term delivery? | [
"Milky to yellowish green with mucus flakes",
"Dark brown",
"Straw colored",
"Golden color"
] | Color of Amniotic fluid Seen in : Clear fluid Early pregnancy Straw colored/ turbid At Term Green Meconium stained Red Antepaum hemorrhage(abruption) Yellowish green Post term pregnancy Tobacco juice IUD Golden yellow Rh isoimmunization | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49640 | Stasis as a cause of thrombosis is important in: | [
"Sickle cell Anemia",
"Venous circulation",
"Polycythemia",
"All of the above"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42032 | Mitochondria gene (True statement)a) Paternal transmissionb) Maternal transmissionc) Mendelian inheritanced) Mitochondrial myopathy | [
"c",
"bd",
"ab",
"ac"
] | Mitochondrial DNA is always maternally inherited.
Important mitochondrial diseases are mitochondrial encephalomyopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes (MELAS), Leber hereditary optic neuropathy, myoclonic epilepsy with ragged-red fibers, Leigh syndrome, Pearson syndrome, keams-sajre syndrome, chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia and NARP (neurogenic weakness with ataxia & retinitis pigmentosa). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17613 | BCG is the only widely used live bacterial vaccine. Which of the following statements is TRUE about BCG vaccination? | [
"Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG vaccine",
"The site for injection should be cleaned thoroughly with spirit",
"Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination",
"WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production"
] | The WHO has recommended the "Danish 1331" strain for the production of BCG vaccine. Normal saline is recommended as a diluent for reconstitution of the vaccine, as distilled water may cause irritation. If alcohol is used to swab the skin, it must be allowed to evaporate before the vaccine is given. Normally the individual becomes Mantoux-positive after a period of 8 weeks has elapsed, but sometimes about 14 weeks are needed. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 19th edition, Page 160-161. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33557 | Which is not true about hallucination - | [
"It is as vivid as normal stimulus",
"It occurs in inner subjective space",
"It is independent of will of observer",
"It occurs in absence of perceptual stimuli"
] | Characteristics of Hallucinations:-
The absence of corresponding external perceptual stimuli
Vividness, force and the real value of normal perception.
The experience occurs spontaneously
It cannot be produced or terminated at will by subject (not in conscious or voluntary control).
Perceived as being in external objective space.
Have relative permanency (i.e. remain constant and unchanged).
Hallucinations are usually experienced alongside and simultaneously with normal perception. | B | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.