dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_368 | All are true about the newer preparations of 5-ASA to treat inflammatory bowel disease, EXCEPT: | [
"Asacol is an enteric-coated form of mesalamine",
"Pentasa uses ethylcellulose coating to allow water absorption",
"5-ASA agents act within 1 week",
"A once-a-day formulation of mesalamine [Multi-Matrix System is designed to release mesalamine in the colon"
] | Asacol is an enteric coated form of mesalamine. The disintegration of Asacol is variable, with complete breakup of the tablet occurring in many different pas of the gut ranging from the small intestine to the splenic flexure; it has increased gastric residence when taken with a meal. Also know: Pentasa is another mesalamine formulation that uses an ethylcellulose coating to allow water absorption into small bowel. A once-a-day formulation of mesalamine [Multi-Matrix System (MMX) is designed to release mesalamine in the colon. As a general rule, 5-ASA agents act within 2-4 weeks. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-2489 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24857 | A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is -a) Ames testb) Redox testc) Bacteriophaged) Gene splicing | [
"ab",
"a",
"ad",
"bc"
] | 'Ames test is a simple test developed by Bruce Ames that measures the potential of a given chemical compound to promote mutations in a specialized bacterial strain (mutagenic carcinogenesis)'- Lehninger 4th/e p. 967 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17096 | The transition from G2 to M phase is controlled by | [
"Rb gene product",
"P53 protein",
"Cyclin E",
"Cyclin B"
] | The cell cycle is regulated by activators and inhibitors. Cell cycle progression is driven by proteins called cyclins. cyclin D-CDK4, cyclin D-CDK6, and cyclin E-CDK2 regulate the G1-to-S transition by phosphorylating the Rb protein (pRb). Cyclin A-CDK2 and cyclin A-CDK1 are active in the S phase. Cyclin B-CDK1 is essential for the G2-to-M transition.Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 1; The Cell as a Unit of Health and Disease | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20827 | Etanercept used in rheumatoid arthritis act by - | [
"TNF alpha",
"TFG beta",
"IL-2",
"IL-6"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13848 | Sensory neuropathy is caused by all except- | [
"Lead",
"Pyridoxine",
"Cisplatin",
"Paraneoplastic"
] | Harrison's principles of internal medicine * In case of lead ( ninpharmaceutucal toxins) motor involvement and CNS involvement is greater Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41856 | HPV associated with Adenocarcinoma of cervix : | [
"Type 6",
"Type 18",
"Type 11",
"Type 42"
] | HPV High oncogenic risk: Types 16,18, 31, 33, 35, 45, 56 Low oncogenic risk: Types 6,11, 42, 43 Ref: D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY; 6th edition; Pg no:323 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41288 | All are true regarding bleaching powder, except - | [
"Contains about 33% of available chlorine",
"It is stable compound",
"White amorphous compound",
"Strong bleaching agent"
] | Bleaching powder (Chlorinated lime) CaOCl2 It is a white amorphous powder with a pungent smell which contains 33% of available chlorine. It is an UNSTABLE compound. It can be stabilised by mixing with an excess of lime. It should be stored in dark, cool and dry place in a closed container that is resistant to corrosion. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 776 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24643 | Decreased T cell immunity is a feature of - | [
"Digeorge syndrome",
"Hyper lgM syndrome",
"Severe congenital neutropenia",
"Chronic granulomatous diseas"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Di George syndrome Classification of Primary Immune Deficiency DiseasesDeficiencies of the Innate Immune Systemo Phagocytic cells# Impaired production severe congenital neutropenia (SCN)# Asplenia# Impaired adhesion leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)# Impaired killing; chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)o Innate immunity receptors and signal transduction# Defects in Toll-like receptor signaling# Mendelian susceptibility to mycobacterial diseaseo Complement deficiencies# Classical, alternative, and lectin pathways# Lytic phase Deficiencies of the Adaptive Immune Systemo T lymphocyteso impaired developmento Impaired survival, migration, functionSevere combined immunedeficieneies (SOD) DiGeorge syndrome.Severe combined immunodeficiencies.Hyper-lgE syndrome (autosomal dominant).CD401 igand deficiency.Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.Ataxia-telangiectasia and other DNA repair deficiencies.o B lymphocytesy Impaired developmenty Impaired function XL and AR agammaglobulinemiaHyper-IgM syndromeCommon variable immunodeficiencies (CVID)IgA deficiencyRegulatory Defectso Innate immunityAutoinflammatory syndrome (outside the scope of this chapter) Severe colitiso Adaptive immunityHemophagoevtic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)Autoimmune lymphoproliferation syndrome (ALPS)Autoimmunity and inflammatory diseases (IPEX, APECED)Abbreviations: A PEC ED. autoimmune polyendocrinopathv candidiasis ectodermal dysplasia; AR, autosomal recessive,1PEX, immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy X-linked syndrome, XL, X-linked. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43562 | The stain used for demonstrating Auer rods in blasts is - | [
"Periodic Acid Schiff(PAS",
"Myeloperoxidase",
"Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase",
"Non-specific esterase"
] | The cytochemical stain, Myeloperoxidase is positive in immature myeloid cells containing granules and Auer rods Reference textbook of Pathology 7th edition author Harsha Mohan page number 342 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35268 | Which among the following is NOT a neuromuscular blocking agent? | [
"Neostigmine",
"Pipecuronium",
"Gantacurium",
"d-TC"
] | d-Tubocurarine (d-TC), pipecuronium, and gantacurium are neuromuscular blocking agents. Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor which inactivate acetylcholinesterase by reversibly binding to the enzyme. The stability of the bond influences the duration of action. Neostigmine is used to treat myasthenia gravis, urinary bladder atony, and paralytic ileus. Ref: Butterwoh IV J.F., Mackey D.C., Wasnick J.D. (2013). Chapter 12. Cholinesterase Inhibitors & Other Pharmacologic Antagonists to Neuromuscular Blocking Agents. In J.F. Butterwoh IV, D.C. Mackey, J.D. Wasnick (Eds), Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 5e. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9511 | Red infarct is seen in? | [
"Small intestine",
"Kidney",
"Spleen",
"Heart"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Small intestine * Infarcts are of two types:-a) Red infarcts (haemorrhagic infarcts) :- It has well defined hemorrhagic red margins which later becomes brown. It occurs in ovary (venous occlusion due to torsion), lung (loose tissue) and small intestine.b) Pale infarct/white infarct (anemic infarct):- It has ill defined pale margins. It occurs in solid organs like heart, spleen, Liver, kidney and brain. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_321 | The best results in treatment of capillary nevus have been achieved by - | [
"Full thickness skin graft",
"Dermabrasion",
"Tatooing",
"Argon laser treatment"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20735 | Characteristic feature of carcinoma fallopian tube : | [
"Watery discharge P/N",
"Hemorrhage",
"Pain",
"Sepsis"
] | Ans. is a i.e. Watery discharge PN Fallopian Tube Carcinoma accounts for 0.3% of all cancers of female genital tract. *Most common site is the ampulla of the tube Most common type is adenocarcinoma. The fallopian tube is frequently involved in secondary to carcinoma of ovary, endometrium, gastrointestinal tract, breast and peritoneum. Women with mutation in BRCA I and BRCA II have higher risk of developing fallopian tube carcinoma (therefore, a prophylactic surgery in these women should include a complete removal of both tubes along with the ovaries). Most common symptom is Vaginal discharge Went watery vaginal discharge called as Hvdrop, Later due to ulceration - watery discharge becomes blood stained and may take the form of perimenopausal/ postmenopausal bleeding. Always remember : In perimenopausal and postmenopausal women with unusual, unexplained or persistent vaginal discharge, even in absence of bleeding, the clinician should always keep the possibility of occult tubal cancer in mind. Triad of : - Vaginal discharge 1 - Pelvic pain } is seen in 15% of patients - Pelvic mass 1 On examination : pelvic mass may be felt. Spread : Since the fallopian tube is richly supplied by lymphatics, spread to the pelvic and para - aoic nodes occurs early. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6722 | Initiator in developer solution is | [
"Acetic acid",
"Sodium thiosulphate",
"Hydroquinone",
"Potassium bromide"
] | Developer converts exposed silver halide crystals into metallic silver grains. Two developing agents, usually phenidone and hydroquinone, are used in dental radiology.
White and Pharoah, pg-69 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32885 | A patient presents with bilateral proptosis, heat intolerance and palpitations. Most unlikely diagnosis here would be | [
"Hashismoto's thyropidittis",
"Thyroid adenoma",
"Diffuse thyroid goitre",
"Reidel,s thyroiditis"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1262 | A 48 year old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 2.7 X 1091 L and total leukocyte count 40 X 109/ L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive for CD 19, CD5, CD20 and CD23 and were negative for CD 79 B and FMC-7. The histopathological examination of the lymph node in this patient will most likely exhibit effacement of lymph node arachitecture by - | [
"A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers",
"A monomorphic lymphoid proliferation with a nodular pattern",
"A predominantly follicular pattern",
"A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate"
] | Ans is 'd' i.e., A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate o Lymphocytes postive for CD 19, CD20, CD23, CD5 suggest the diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphcytic lymphoma. o In CLL/SLL larger lymphocytes show high mitotic activity and form proliferation centre. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL). o CLL and SLL are identical neoplasms/arise due to an abnormal neoplastic proliferation of B cells. o CLL involves primarily bone marrow and blood, while SLL involves lymph nodes Morphology of CLL/SLL o The tumor cells of CLL are small B lymphocytes. o Leukemic cells have the morphological appearance of normal small to medium sized lymphocytes with clumped chromatin, inconspicuous nuclei and a small ring of cytoplasm. o The lymph node architecture is diffusely effaced by these tumor cells. o These cells are mixed with variable numbers of larger cells called prolymphocytes. o In many cases, prolymphyocytes gather together focally to form as proliferation centers, so called because they contain relatively large number of mitotic activity. o When present proliferation centers are pathognomonic for CLL/SLL. o In CLL, the peripheral blood contains increased numbers of small, round lymphocytes with scant frequently disrupted in the process of making smears, producing So called smudge cells.. Markers of CLL tumor cells o CLL is a tumor of mature B-cells, therefore it expresses the B-cell markers such as CD19, CD20 and surface IgM and IgD. o In addition CD23 and CD5 are also present (In contrast to mantle cell lymphoma which is positive for CD5 but negative for CD23). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34649 | Which of the following is not true of the following test: | [
"Induction of nystagmus by thermal stimulation",
"Normally cold water induces nystagmus to opposite side and warm water to same side",
"In canal paresis there is no nystagmus",
"Stimulates posterior semicircular canal"
] | (d) Stimulates Posterior Semicircular Canal(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; page 796)It stimulates horizontal/lateral semicircular canal | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32105 | A child develops non-blanching macules and papules on lower extremities, mild abdominal pain and skin biopsy showed IgA deposition. Most appropriate diagnosis is | [
"Drug induced vasculitis",
"HSP",
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Kawasaki disease"
] | Henoch schonlein purpura : It is one of the most common vasculitic disorder of childhood. Characterised by the presence of nonthrombocytopenic , palpable purpura, transient ahralgia and abdominal symptoms. The illness begins with a rash more prominent over the extensor aspects of lower extremities and buttocks. It may be macular, maculopapular or even uicarial to begin with . Glomerulonephritis seen in one third of cases. Gastrointestinal manifestations usually occur in first 7-10 days if illness. Abdominal pain is intermittent, colicky and periumbilical.vomitingseen , whereas melena and hemetemesis are less common. Rare manifestations include CNS vasculitis, coma, Guillain Barre syndrome, pulmonary hemorrhage, carditis and orchitis. Criteria for childhood HSP:- Palpable purpura in the presence of at least one of the following 4 features: 1. Diffuse abdominal pain. 2. Any deposit showing IgA deposition. 3. Ahritis/Ahralgia. 4. Renal involvement. Investigation: Nonspecific rise in total serum IgA levels. Skin biopsy shows leukocytoclastic vasculitis. On indirect immunofluorescence there are mesangial deposits of IgA andC3 in skin and renal biopsy. Reference: GHAI essential Paediatrics | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54044 | Regarding the use of halothane in obsteric surgery,which is true – | [
"There is increased risk of PPH",
"It has no effect on uterine musculature",
"Best used in caesarean section",
"None is true"
] | As halothane causes uterine relaxation, post-partum hemorrhage can occur. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9449 | Mailgnant otitis externa is due to - | [
"Wax impaction",
"Hypertesion",
"Diabetes",
"None of above"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Diabetes Malignant otitis externao Malignant otitis externa, also called necrotizing external otitis. is a misnomer as it is not a neoplastic condition, rather it is an infectious condition. Malignant otitis externa is a disorder involving inflammation and damage of the bones and cartilage at the base of skull in temporal bone as a result of spread of infection from outer ear. Malignant otitis externa is often caused by difficult to treat bacteria such as pseudomonas aeruginosa. Only rare cases of malignant otitis externa due to S.aureus, Proteus mirabilis and Aspergillus fumigatus have been reported. The infection spreads from the floor of the ear canal to the nearby tissues and into the bones at the base of the skull. The infection and inflammation may damage or destroy the bones. The infection may spread more and affect the cranial nerves, brain, or other parts of the body.Predisposing factors for malignant otitis externao Elderly diabetics (most common predisposing factor)o Individuals with altered immune function (immunodeficiency )o ChemotherapyClinical features of malignant otitis externao Severe pain inside the ear and may get worse when moving head.o Granulation tissue in the external auditory canal, at the junction of bony and cartilagenous part,o Drainage from the ear - yellow, yellow - green, foul smelling, persistent.o Fevero Itching of ear or ear canalo Troubled swallowing & weakness of face.Complicationso Cranial nerve palsies most commonly facial nerve is involved. Other cranial nerves can also be involved (glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory, hypoglossal, abducens, trigeminal),o Jugular venous thrombosiso Cavernous sinus thrombosiso MeningitisTreatment of malignant otitis externao In all cases, the external ear canal is cleansed and a biopsy specimen of the granulation tissue sent for culture. IV antibiotics is directed against the offending organism. For Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the most common pathogen, the regimen involves an antipseudomonalpenicillin or cephalosporin (3rd generation piperacillin or ceftazidime) with an aminoglycoside. A fluoroquinolone antibiotic can be used in place of the aminoglycoside. Ear drops containing antipseudomonal antibiotic e.g. ciproflaxacin plus a glucocorticoid is also used. Early cases can be managed with oral and otic fluoroquinolones only. Extensive surgical debridement once an important part of the treatment is now rarely needed. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11036 | Mallampati score is done for assessing: | [
"Size of the airway",
"Oral cavity of patient for intubation",
"Mobility of neck",
"Size of ET tube"
] | Ans. (b) Oral cavity of patient for intubation* Mallampati score, also known as Mallampati classification is used to assess the oral cavity of patient to predict the ease of intubation.* It is assessed by looking at the anatomy of the oral cavity; specifically, it is based on the visibility of the base of soft palate, uvula, fauces, and pillars.* A high Mallampati score (class 3 or 4) is associated with more difficult intubation as well as a higher incidence of sleep apnea.MODIFIED MALLAMPATI SCORING* Class I: Soft palate, uvula, fauces, pillars visible.* Class II: Soft palate, uvula, fauces visible.* Class III: Soft palate, base of uvula visible.* Class IV: Only hard palate visible | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19263 | Mucosa is involved in – | [
"Psoriasis",
"Lichen planus",
"Alopecia",
"Scabies"
] | Diseases involving oral mucosa :- Lichen plaints, Pemphigus, Infections (Candida, Secondary syphilis, HSV), Leucoplakia, Erythema multiforme, Peutz Jegher syndrome, Aphthous ulcers, Bechet's disease, squamous cell carcinoma | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22362 | Egg has all vitamins except – | [
"B1",
"B6",
"C",
"E"
] | Egg
Egg contains all nutrients except carbohydrate and vitamin C.
Egg proteins have all essential ammo acids needed by the body in right proportions → Egg protein is the standard against which the quality of other proteins are compared.
NPU of egg is 100.
Egg contains very high amount of cholesterol. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41056 | The electrostatic precipitator are used in the prevention of - | [
"Radiation risks",
"Air pollution emissions",
"Mosquito nuisance",
"Diffuse vibrations"
] | An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) is a filtration device that removes fine paicles, like dust and smoke, from a flowing gas using the force of an induced electrostatic charge minimally impeding the flow of gases through the unit. In contrast to wet scrubbers, which apply energy directly to the flowing fluid medium, an ESP applies energy only to the paiculate matter being collected and therefore is very efficient in its consumption of energy (in the form of electricity) Ref: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electrostatic_precipitator | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43216 | Who is the principal advisor to the Union government in both medical and public health matter? | [
"The central council of Health & Family welfare",
"Medical council of India",
"The Directorate General Health & Family Welfare",
"Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25164 | In Alloimmune thrombocytopenia antigen against which antibody is found? | [
"HPA 1a",
"HPA 1b",
"HPA 2a",
"HPA 2b"
] | Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenic purpura (NATP): - Caused by development of maternal antibodies against antigens present on fetal platelets that are shared from father & recognized as foreign by maternal immune system. - The most common cause is incompatibility for the platelet alloantigen HPA-1a. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43509 | A 65 years old man presenting with complains of chest pain, fever and cough with sputum. On examination of sputum, pus cells with the gram-positive organisms seen. How will you differentiate this from other gram-positive cocci? | [
"Bacitracin",
"Optochin sensitivity",
"Bile solubility",
"Coagulase positive"
] | The pathogen is likely to be streptococcus pneumoniae, which is alpha hemolytic ( greenish discoloration due to incomplete hemolysis ) and gram-positive. Streptococcus pneumoniae is optochin sensitive. Optochin sensitivity: the sensitivity of Streptococcus pneumoniae to optochin is useful in differentiating it from other streptococci. When a disc impregnated with optochin is applied on a plate of blood agar inoculated with Streptococcus pneumoniae, a wide zone of inhibition appears on incubation. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 225 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48611 | During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus.
To determine the antral perforation what to do from the following | [
"Blow air through the nose with nostrils closed",
"Probe the socket to check for perforation",
"Enlarge the orifice to retrieve the root piece",
"All of the above"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13600 | Anti GDla | [
"AIDP",
"ASMAN",
"AMAN",
"Fisher syndrome"
] | Immunopathological studies suggest that the target of immune attack is different in the subtypes of Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). In acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN), the attack appears directed against the axolemma and nodes of Ranvier. In acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP), the attack appears directed against a component of the Schwann cell. However, the nature of the antigenic targets is still not clear. We prospectively studied 138 Chinese GBS patients and found that IgG anti-GD1a antibodies were closely associated with AMAN but not AIDP. With a cutoff titer of greater than 1:100, 60% of AMAN versus 4% of AIDP patients had IgG anti-GD1a antibodies; with a cutoff titer of greater than 1:1,000, 24% of AMAN patients and none of the AIDP patients had IgG anti-GD1a antibodies. In contrast, low levels of IgG anti-GM1 antibodies (> 1:100) were detected in both the AMAN and the AIDP forms (57% vs 35%, NS). High titers of IgG anti-GM1 (>1:1,000) were more common in the AMAN form (24% vs 8%, NS). Serological evidence of recent Campylobacter infection was detected in 81% of AMAN and 50% of AIDP patients, and anti-ganglioside antibodies were common in both Campylobacter-infected and noninfected patients. Our results suggest that IgG anti-GD1a antibodies may be involved in the pathogenesis of AMAN. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19201 | Varocay bodies are present in | [
"Periapical granuloma",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Both",
"None"
] | Verocay bodies
Present only In Schwannoma
Traumatic bone cyst (or) Haemorrhagic bone cyst lies above mandibular canal. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40335 | Bacteriophage was discovered by: | [
"Robert Koch",
"Twort and d'herelle",
"Menkin",
"Metchinkoff"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25670 | All of the following statements about Nasopharyngeal carcinoma are true, except - | [
"Bimodal age distribution",
"Nasopharyngectomy with radical Neck dissection is the treatment of choice",
"IgA antibody to EBV is observed",
"Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common histological subtype"
] | Treatment of choice for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is radiotherapy.
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma has a bimodal age distribution. A small peak is observed in late childhood and a second peak occurs in people aged 50-60 years.
IgA antibodies to different EBV antigens are characteristically elevated in patients with nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Elevated titres of IgA antibodies to EBV viral capsid antigen (VCA) are most consistently observed in patients with nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Squamous cell carcinoma in various grade of its differentiation or its variants as transitional cell carcinoma and lymphoepithelioma, is the most common type of nasopharyngeal carcinoma. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43142 | Pancytopenia with Cellular marrow is seen in all except : | [
"Megaloblastic Anemia",
"Myelodysplasia",
"PNH",
"G6PD Deficiency"
] | Answer is D (G6PD deficiency) PNH, megaloblastic anemia, and Myelodysplasia may all present with pancytopenia and cellular marrow. G6PD deficiency is not associated with Pancytopenia and cellular marrow. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49195 | Gastrointestinal stromal malignancy arises from which of the following | [
"Smooth muscle",
"Nerve cells",
"Vascular endothelium",
"Interstial cells of cajal"
] | Refer Robbins page no Pg P775 Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) may be malignant (cancer) or benign (not cancer). They are most common in the stomach and small intestine but may be found anywhere in or near the GI tract. Some scientists believe that GISTs begin in cells called interstitial cells of Cajal (ICC), in the wall of the GI tract. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52120 | Best Investigation to assess tubal patency : | [
"Rubin's test",
"HSG",
"Laparotomy",
"Laparoscopic chromtubation"
] | Ans. is d i.e. Laparoscopic chromotubation The Gold standard / Best Investigation to assess tubal patency is Laparoscopic chromotubation. Laparoscopy enables to look at the external condition of uterus, tubes and pelvis and at the same time the patency of tubes can be seen . Methylene Blue/Indigo carmine dye is injected through a cannula attached to the cervix to visualize the free spill or absence of spill. It can also demonstrate peritubal adhesions and unsuspected endometriosis. The greatest advantage of laparoscopy is therapeutic procedure can be performed if adhesions or fimbrial block is recognized in one sitting. Also know : Other questions frequently asked on Tuba! patency tests. - Time for performing Tuba! patency tests : Day 6 - Day 11 of cycledeg - No anesthesia is required for tube testingdeg - Obsolete method of testing Tubal patency - Rubins test / Insufflation testdeg - Contraindiactions of tubal Patency tests. HSG should not be performed during and immediately before menstruation and in the post ovulatory period. HSG should not be performed after curettage. In recently active salphingttis. In suspected Tuberculosis of Genital Tract. In infection of the lower Genital tract. Sonosalpingography is a method of assessing Tube Patency. It was popularized by G.Allahabadia and is also called as Sion test : Under USG guidance, a slow and deliberate injection of 200 ml of physiological saline into uterine cavity is accomplished a foley's catheter, the inflated bulb of which lies above the internal os and prevents leakage. It is possible to visualize the flow of saline along the tube and observe it is coming out as a shower at fimbrial end. USG shows the presence of free fluid in pouch of Douglas if tubes are patent. Falloscopy -The interstitial end of the fallopian tubes is visualised by falloscopy. Salpingoscopy-Studies the mucosa of the fallopian tube and helps in deciding whether IVF or tubal microsurgery should be performed. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25423 | Not a treatment for phyllodes tumour | [
"Quadrantectomy",
"Enucleation",
"Wide local excision",
"Simple mastectomy"
] | Treatment for Phyllodes tumour is enucleation in young women or wide local excision. Massive tumors, recurrent tumors will require mastectomy. Reference: Bailey & Love, 27th Edition, page no = 870. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10946 | All are true about NSV. except, | [
"Also know as 'key hole vasectomy'",
"Painful procedure",
"Less Invasive",
"Surgical hook used"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44542 | Double bubble sign in seen in – | [
"Duodenal atresia",
"Jejunal atresia",
"Pyloric stenosis",
"Hirschprung disease"
] | Double bubble sign is seen in duodenal atresia, duodenal web, duodenal stenosis, Ladd's band, Annular pancreas, Malrotation of the gut, preduodenal vein. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30640 | Wound contraction is mediated by | [
"Epithelial cells",
"Myofibroblasts",
"Collagen",
"Elastin"
] | ref, Robbins 9/e p105 The chief physiological function of myofibroblasts in mammalian tissues has been in wound healing and specifically in contraction of the wound. Typically there are four overlapping phases of wound healing: Haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodelling | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26529 | All the following are features of premature ventricular complexes except | [
"Wide QRS complex",
"Absent P wave",
"Complete compensatory pause",
"Prolonged PR interval"
] | PR interval does not characterize ventricular premature complexes because AV conduction is not involved Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1499 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14538 | Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause additive anemia and neutropenia if administered to an AIDS patient taking zidovudine? | [
"Acyclovir",
"Amantadine",
"Ganciclovir",
"Stavudine"
] | * Ganciclovir is the drug of choice for CMV infections. * It should not be combined with zidovudine because both have bone marrow suppressant propey. * It is an analogue of acyclovir which is most active against CMV. but also inhibits other herpes viruses viz. H.simplex, H. zoster and EBV. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30480 | All the following drugs action pseudomonas infection EXCEPT | [
"Carbenicilline",
"Azlocilline",
"Peperacilline",
"Azithromycin"
] | (Azithromycin) (730-KDT 6th)Drugs which acts on Pseudomonas* Carbenicilline* Cefoperazone* Tobramycin* Acetic acid* Ticarcilline* Aztreonam* Sisomicin* Silver sulphadiazine* Azlacilline* Imipenem* Amikacin* Tetracyclines* Mezlocilline* Cefotaxime* Nitilmicin* Cefepime* Peperacilline* Ciprofloxacine* Gentamicin * Moxalactam* Norfloxacin* Polymyxin -B * Ceptazidime* Ofloxacin* Mafenide * Pefloxacin Azithromycin - It is more active than other macrolide against H. influenzae* Usefully active against a number of important gram negative organisms It is not active against erythromycin resistant bacteria | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8774 | A specimen of the ovarian mass is showing a lesion which contains hair, dermal appendages, bone and teeth. Which of the following statement is not true? | [
"It is Rokitansky protuberance",
"It is a common site for malignant transformation",
"It is seen in embryonal carcinoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of malginant transformation"
] | Rokitansky protuberance is a hallmark finding in gross specimen of Benign cystic teratoma. (Mature Teratoma) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16941 | The current treatment of antrochoanal polyp in a 30-year-old man is: | [
"Intranasal polypectomy",
"Caldwell-Luc operation",
"Endoscopic sinus surgery",
"Lateral rhinotomy and excision"
] | Antrochoanal polyp originates from within the maxillary antrum, comes out of its accessory ostium into the nose and then grows towards the nasopharynx.Earlier it was removed in adults by Caldwell-Luc operation to excise its antral origin to prevent recurrence. Caldwell-Luc operation is avoided in children so as not to interfere with maxillary growth and roots of the developing teeth. And the only treatment in children was intranasal removal of polyp, though at the expense of recurrence. Nevertheless, these days polyp with its stalk can be removed by endoscopic sinus surgery. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1213 | All may be seen in deep burns except - | [
"Hypehermia",
"Increase vascular permeability",
"Fluid loss by evaporation",
"Vasodilatation"
] | Ans is 'a' i.e., Hypehermia Burns may lead to hypothermia (not hypehermia). Schwaz writes - "Radiant heat loss is increased from the burn wound secondary to increased blood flow and integumentary loss." Heat loss also occurs because of evaporation of water from the burn wounds. This evaporation from wounds cause a significant fluid loss. About option 'b' & 'd', Sabiston writes "Significant burns are associated with massive release of inflammatory mediators, both in the wound and in other tissues. These mediators produce vasoconstriction and vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and edema locally and in distant organs." | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22965 | Cardiovascular causes of digital clubbing include all of the following Except: | [
"Infective Endocarditis",
"Aeriovenous Fistulos",
"Tricuspid Atresia",
"Aoic Dissection"
] | Answer is D (Aoic Dissection) Aoic Dissection is not a known cause for digital clubbing: Digital clubbing results from long standing conditions that take months to develop. It is not associated with acute event like aoic dissection Cardiovascular causes of Digital clubbing (Ultra medicine (2005)/285) Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis(SBE) Cyanotic congenital Hea Disease - Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) - Transposition of Great vessels (TGV) - Total Anomolous pulmonary venous circulation (TAPVC) - Ebstein's Anomaly - Tricuspid Atresia Atrial Myxoma Aerio venous malformations (Brochial aeriovenous fistula) Axillary aery Aneurysms Clubbing is a feature of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE) and is not seen in Acute Bacterial Endocarditis Acute endocarditis is a fitIminant event while clubbing takes months to develop. Acute bacterial endocarditis is not associated with clubbing. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24510 | All are dihydropyradines except | [
"Nifedipine",
"Nimodipine",
"Verapamil",
"Felodipine"
] | Refer kDT 6/e p530 Dihydropyridine (DHP) is a molecule based upon pyridine, and the parent of a class of molecules that have been semi-saturated with two substituents replacing one double bond. They are paicularly well known in pharmacology as L-type calcium channel blockers, used in the treatment of hypeension. Verapamil is a calcium channel blockers | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29868 | Prolactin secretion will be inhibited by: | [
"haloperidol",
"GAB A( Gama aminobutyric acid)",
"Neurophysin",
"Dopamine"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e. dopamine Prolactin is a hormone secreted by anterior pituitary. It is under the inhibitory control of hypothalamus through Prolactin releasing inhibitory hormone (PRIH)PRIH is actually dopamine which acts on pituitary lactotrope D2 receptor.Therefore Dopaminergic agonists decrease plasma prolactin levels while Dopaminergic antagonists increase plasma prolactin levels.* Just go through the list of following dopamine agonists and antagonists. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22617 | All are chest X-Ray features suggestive of VSD in a child, EXCEPT: | [
"Large aoic knob",
"Increased splaying of the carina",
"Cadiomegaly",
"Pulmonary plethora"
] | Chest X-Ray are typically normal in small VSD. In case of large VSD the findings are: 1. Cardiomegaly 2. Pulmonary plethora 3. Increased splaying of the carina with an anlge more than 90 with left main bronchi. 4. Small aoic knob 5. Increased left atrium Ref: Essentials of Pediatric Radiology, Page - 44 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8885 | Fungi with no sexual stage: | [
"Imperfect fungi",
"Phycomycetes",
"Basidiomycetes",
"Ascomycetes"
] | Fungi imperfecti also called as Deuteromycetes or Hyphomycetes is a provisional group of fungi whose sexual stages have not been identified. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1295 | Somatic passivity is a feature of | [
"Depressive illness",
"Paranoid Schizophrenia",
"Hypochondriasis",
"Panic disorder"
] | Somatic Passivity: The patient believes that sensation are being imposed upon his body by an outside force. Pa of Schizophrenia - First-Rank SymptomsSchizophrenia - First-Rank SymptomsDELUSIONAL PERCEPTIONAUDITORY HALLUCINATIONSDELUSIONS OF THOUGHT INTERFERENCEThought inseion (put into your head)Thought withdrawal (taken out of your head)Thought broadcasting (broadcast so that other people know what you are thinking)PASSIVITY PHENOMENON OR DELUSIONS OF CONTROLControl of the Impulses, Actions, Feelings, Sensations by an external force | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54345 | Changes in middle ear after bih are observed in? | [
"Werdin's test",
"Ploucquet's test",
"Fodere's test",
"Breslau's test"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Werdin's test Werdin's test: Before bih middle ear contains gelatinous embryonic tissue which is replaced by air after respiration. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50328 | The angle former is a special type of | [
"Chisel",
"Excavator",
"Hatchet",
"Rotary instrument"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49793 | Angle between FH plane & occlusal plane is | [
"1°",
"10°",
"27°",
"Parallel to each other"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51752 | pegloticase is used for treatment of:- | [
"Ankylosing spondylosis",
"CPPD",
"Chronic tophaceous gout",
"Refractory Rheumatoid ahritis"
] | Drugs used inchronic goutby increasing uric acid metabolism arePEGLOTICASEand RASBURICASE. Pseudogout is caused by calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals (CPPD). And though the two have similar symptoms, treatment is somewhat different. Drugs to treat pseudogout include: Anti-inflammatory painkiller drugs, also called (NSAIDs). Drugs used in Rheumatoid ahritis synthetic DMARDs, Coicosteroids and Biological DMARDs. Drugs used in Ankylosing spondylosis Adalimumab, Ceolizumab pegol, Etanercept. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43351 | All except one are true regarding Barret's esophagus? | [
"More incidence of sq. cell ca",
"Metaplasia",
"Columnar epithelium",
"Involves lower oesophagus"
] | Ans. is 'a' ie More incidence of sq.cell ca There is increased incidence of adenocarcinoma in Barret's esophagus. o Barrett's esophagus is a premalignant condition with increased incidence of adenocarcinoma of esophagus. o Also remember Barrett's esophgus is the single most impoant risk factor for adenocarcinoma of esophagus . The adenocarcinoma develops at the squamo -Columnamr junction (-85%) or within 2cm of the junction. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21313 | Boerhaave&;s syndrome is due to | [
"Drug induced esophagus perforation",
"Corrosive injury",
"Spontaneous perforation",
"Gastro-esophageal reflux disease"
] | BOERHAAVE&;S syndrome is a tear in the lower third of oesophagus which occurs when a person vomits against a closed glottis, causing leaks into the mediastinum, pleural cavity, and peritoneum.site of perforation is about 2-10 cm of posterolateral pa of the lower oesophagus.investigations include chest Xray, MRI/CT, and total count.treatment includes feeding by jejunostomy, surgery with resection. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,5th ed, pg no 802 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11910 | The commonest intrabronchial cause of haemopysis is | [
"Carcinoma lung",
"Adenoma lung",
"Emphysema",
"Bronchiectasis"
] | Answer is A (Carcinoma lung): The two most common causes for hemoptysis are bronchitis and bronchogenic carcinoma. Bronchitis is not provided amongst the options and hence bronchogenic carcinoma is the single best answer of choice. Although the relative frequency of the different etiologies of hemoptysis varies from series to series, most recent studies indicate that bronchitis and bronchogenic carcinoma are the two most common causes (in the United States)'- Harrisons Facts to Remember The most common cause of Hemoptysis Bronchitis and Bronchogenic CAe (Bronchitis > Bronchogenic CA)Q The most common causes of Hemoptysis in India TuberculosisQ The most common cause of Massive Haemoptysis Bronchectasis (World wide)e Tuberculosis (India)Q | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35355 | Methemoglobinemia may be caused by following agents, EXCEPT: | [
"Sulfonamides",
"Phenytoin",
"Phenacetin",
"Phenazopyridine"
] | Drugs Commonly Implicated in Patients with Methemoglobinemia: Analgesics Phenazopyridine Phenacetin Antimicrobials Antimalarials Dapsone Local anesthetics Benzocaine Lidocaine Prilocaine Dibucaine Nitrates/nitrites Amyl nitrite Isobutyl nitrite Sodium nitrite Ammonium nitrate Silver nitrate Sulfonamides Ref: Farmer B.M., Nelson L.S. (2011). Chapter 201. Dyshemoglobinemias. In J.E. Tintinalli, J.S. Stapczynski, D.M. Cline, O.J. Ma, R.K. Cydulka, G.D. Meckler (Eds), Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide, 7e. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48756 | All of the following aeries are branches of the splenic aery, EXCEPT? | [
"Right gastric aery",
"Sho gastric aery",
"Pancreatic branches",
"Left gastroepiploic aery"
] | Right gastric aery is a branch of hepatic aery not splenic aery. Branches of splenic aery are sho gastric aery, pancreatic branches and left gastroepiploic aery. Branches of the hepatic aery are:Right gastric aeryGastroduodenal aery gives rise to right gastroepiploic aery and superior pancreaticoduodenal aery.Right and left hepatic aeries | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50354 | Treatment for parathyroid hyperplasia is | [
"Removal of 3 1/2 glands",
"Removal of all four glands",
"Calcium",
"Enlarged glands to be removed"
] | Treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism Initial correction of hypercalcemia (Rapid IV NaCl with Furosemide)* Neck exploration is done and t/t done accordingly | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1972 | Which of the following is not a feature of tuberculous pleural effusion? | [
"LDH > 60% serum LDH",
"Adenosine deaminase",
"WBC count 5000 - 10000",
"Increased mesothelial cells"
] | The effusion caused by post primary tuberculosis (TB) represents a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to spillage of organisms into the pleural space. The pleural fluid has the qualities of an exudates. The glucose concentration may be low (<60 mg/dL). pH of tuberculous effusion is below 7.2. Lymphocytes predominate and will be >50%. Mesothelial cells are scarce (<2%). The white cell count averages 5,000 to 2,000/mL. Adenosin deaminase levels are higher ( > 45 IU/L) for tuberculosis. Pleural fluid gamma-interferon (> 140 pg/mL) is also elevated. Positive polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is seen. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29098 | Surgical treatment of parotid tuimor nvolving the deep lobe is ? | [
"Total parotidectomy with facial nerve preservation",
"Total parotidectomy with facial nerve sacrifise",
"Sub total parotidectomy",
"Subtotal parotidectomy with facial nerve sacrifise"
] | Surgical treatment of Salivary malignancies The primary treatment of salivary malignancies is surgical excision. In this setting, basic surgical principles include the en bloc removal of the involved gland with preservation of all nerves unless directly invaded by tumor. For parotid tumors that arise in the lateral lobe, superficial parotidectomy with preservation of CN VII is indicated. If the tumor extends into the deep lobe of the parotid, a total parotidectomy with nerve preservation is performed. Although malignant tumors may abut the facial nerve, if a plane of dissection can be developed without leaving gross tumor, it is preferable to preserve the nerve. If the nerve is encased by tumor (or is noted to be nonfunctional preoperatively) and preservation would result leaving gross residual disease, nerve sacrifice should be considered. The removal of submandibular malignancies includes en bloc resection of the gland and submental and submandibular lymph nodes. Radical resection is indicated with tumors that invade the mandible, tongue, or floor of mouth. Therapeutic removal of the regional lymphatics is indicated for clinical adenopathy or when the risk of occult regional metastasis exceeds 20%. High-grade mucoepidermoid carcinomas, for example, have a high risk of regional disease and require elective treatment of the regional lymphatics. When gross nerve invasion is found (lingual or hypoglossal), sacrifice of the nerve is indicated with retrograde frozen section biopsies to determine the extent of involvement. If the nerve is invaded at the level of the skull base foramina, a surgical clip may be left in place to mark the area for inclusion in postoperative radiation fields. The presence of skip metastases in the nerve with adenoid cystic carcinoma makes recurrence common with this pathology. Postoperative radiation treatment plays an impoant role in the treatment of salivary malignancies. The presence of extraglandular disease, perineural invasion, direct invasion of regional structures, regional metastasis, and high-grade histology are all indications for radiation treatment. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20598 | Immediate transient type of increase vascular permeability in acute inflammation - | [
"Venules",
"Capillaries",
"Aerioles",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Venules Formation of endothelial gaps in venules is the most common mechanism of vascular lekage | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36726 | The above milestone comes at approximately:- | [
"6 months",
"8 months",
"9 months",
"12 months"
] | The given picture shows sitting with suppo at 6 months. (Tripod position) Sitting without suppo comes at 8 month ross Motor Visual Motor Language Social adaptive 4 mo SSHolds head steadily* SS Suppos on forearms in prone SSRollsfromprone to supine* SS Reaches with both arms together SS Hands to midline SSBidextrous grasp (4-5 mo) SS Laugh aloud SS Likes to look around 6 mo SS Sits with suppo (tripod) SSFeet in mouthin supine SSUnilateral reach* SSTransfers object* SS Babbles SSMonosyllables* SS Recognizes stranger SSMirror play* 7 mo SSRollsfromsupine to prone* SSPivoting in Prone* SS Maycrawl* SSSitting without suppo* SSUnidextrous /Palmargrasp* SSStranger anxiety* | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22151 | Side effects of phenytoin are all except : | [
"Osteomalacia",
"Maculopapular rash",
"Sedation",
"Megaloblastic anaemia"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3898 | Eustachian tube opens due to contraction of which of the following muscles | [
"Buccinator",
"Levator palati",
"Stylohyoid",
"Stylopharyngeus"
] | Three muscles are related to the eustachian tube: tensor veli palatini, levator veli palatini and salpingopharyngeus. The medial fibres of the tensor veli palatini are attached to the lateral lamina of the tube and when they contract help to open the tubal lumen. These fibres have also been called dilator tubae muscle. The exact role of the levator veli palatini and the salpingopharyngeus muscles to open the tube is unceain. Dhingra 6e pg: 57 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47614 | Blackening of urine on exposure to atmosphere is observed in: | [
"Phenylketonuria",
"Maple syrup urine disease",
"Hanup disease",
"Alkaptonuria"
] | Alkaptonuria/Black urine disease/AlcaptonuriaIt is a rare inherited genetic disorder of phenylalanine and tyrosine metabolism.This is an autosomal recessive condition that is due to a defect in the enzyme homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase, which paicipates in the degradation of tyrosine.As a result, homogentisic acid and its oxide, called alkapton, accumulate in the blood and are excreted in urine in large amounts (hence -uria).Excessive homogentisic acid causes damage to cailage (ochronosis, leading to osteoahritis) and hea valves as well as precipitating as kidney stones.Treatment with nitisinone, which suppresses homogentisic acid production, is being studied | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17228 | All of the following are associated with insulin resistance except - | [
"Acanthosis nigricans",
"Lipodystrophy",
"Gout",
"Calcific aoic valve disease"
] | Ref - semantischolar.org | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3829 | Malignant tumour of skeletal muscle is | [
"Rhabdomyoma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Leiomyoma",
"Leiomyosarcoma"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_725 | Treatment of choice for annular pancreas is - | [
"Division of pancreas",
"Duodeno-duodenostomy",
"Duodeno-jejunostomy",
"Roux-en-Y loop"
] | Ans B Reference Sabiston Textbook of Surgery. 20th edition. Annular pancreas results from aberrant migration of the ventral pancreas bud which leads to circumferential or near-circumferential pancreas tissue surrounding the second portion of the duodenum This abnormality may be associated with other congenital defects, including Down syndrome, malrotation, intestinal atresia, and cardiac malformations If symptoms of obstruction occur surgical bypass through duodenojejunostomy is performed Axial image from an abdominal CT scan showing the annulus encircling the duodenum (arrow). Courtesy- | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12183 | The process of removal of supporting bone to produce a positive gingival or osseous architecture is called as: | [
"Spheroidizing",
"Scribing",
"Osteoplasty",
"None"
] | Scribing: It is an osseous resection technique, where high speed rotary instruments outline the radicular bone, which has to be removed by hand instrumentation.
Spheroidizing (or parabolizing): It is the removal of supporting bone to produce a positive gingival or osseous architecture. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5916 | Bone pearl appearance is seen in ? | [
"Electrical burns",
"Hydrocution",
"Strangulation",
"Throttling"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Electrical burns Electric burns Electric burns are at times, also referred to as joule burns. Technically, joule burn is an endogenous burn, i.e. burns produced due to release of heat from the body, on application of electric current. Electric burns may be of following types :? 1) Contact burns : Due to contact with live wire. 2) Spark burns : Due to sparking of current, e.g. in loose electrical fitting. 3) Flash burns : Caused on being near the main power line, without actual contact. Burns result due to arcing of current from these lines. Characteristic features of electric burns are :? 1) There may be holes in clothes or shoes. 2) There is a wound of entry and wound of exit of electric current :- Entry wound : It is non-bleeding, thick, leathery, greyish white, depressed, hard and cauliflower like, known as crater formation. High voltage current may cause burns over large areas of skin, i.e. crocodile skin lesions. The skin may get coloured due to metallic pigment : green (in brass electrode), black (in iron electrode), blue (in copper electrode) and grey (in aluminium electrode). Exit wound : It is like a laceration and is bleeding. 3) Metals from electrode may melt and as small balls (current pearls) may be carried to tissue. Calcium phosphate of bones may also melt and is radiologically seen as bone pearls (wax dripping). 4) Muscles show Zenker's degeneration. Causes of death Commonest cause of death is ventricular fibrillation. Other causes include shock, cardiopulmonary arrest, cerebral anoxia, paralysis of respiratory muscles, and mechanical injuries due to fall. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24611 | Antidote for oxalic acid poisoning: | [
"BAL",
"Animal charcoal",
"Calcium gluconate",
"Magnesium"
] | C i.e. Calcium gluconate | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46474 | A 50 year old diabetic patient had Labarotary and clinical findings indicating liver cirrhosis. He also developed hyper - pigmentation of the skin. Which of the following can be the probable diagnosis | [
"Wilson's disease",
"Hemochromatosis",
"PBC",
"PSC"
] | Hemochromatosis can present as "Bronze Diabetes". A classic triad of Cirrhosis, Diabetes mellitus and hyperpigmentation. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34660 | The best alternative storage medium for avulsed teeth in
case culture media are not available is | [
"Milk",
"Water",
"Saline",
"Blood"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48520 | "Potter's syndrome" is associated with | [
"Renal anomalies",
"Severe oligohydramnio's",
"Flattened nose",
"All of the above"
] | JCDR - Potter's Syndrome, oligohydramnios, Potter's facies, pulmonary hypoplasia. Potter's Syndrome is a rare congenital disorder which is diagnosed at birth. It refers to a group of findings which are associated with the lack of amniotic fluid due to renal failure in an unborn infant. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38992 | Allantoin is the end product of metabolism of ? | [
"Glycogen",
"Purine",
"Pyrimidine",
"Histidine"
] | In non-primate mammals, end product of purine metabolism is allantoin due to presence of enzyme uricase. Uricase convees uric acid to allantoin. Humans lack the enzyme uricase. Therefore, end product of purine catabolism in humans is uric acid REF: Lippincott book of biochemistry 6th ed. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11543 | Folic acid supplementation reduces the risk of : | [
"Neural tube defect",
"Toxaemia of pregnancy",
"Down's syndrome",
"Placenta pre"
] | Ans. is a i.e. Neural tube defect | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28526 | All of the following are features of Hemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis (HLH), except: | [
"Fever",
"Splenomegaly",
"Hyperferritinemia",
"Hyperfibrinogenemia"
] | Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is a reactive condition marked by cytopenias and signs and symptoms of systemic inflammation related to macrophage activation. For this reason, it is also sometimes referred to as macrophage activation syndrome. Some forms are familial and may appear early in life, even in infants, while other forms are sporadic and may affect people of any age. The common feature of all forms of HLH is systemic activation of macrophages and CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. Primary HLH (Mendelian inherited conditions leading to HLH) Defects in the cytolytic function of cytotoxic T cells and/or NK cells Defects in inflammasome regulation Secondary HLH (apparently non-Mendelian HLH) Infections (mainly viruses, such as EBV, HIV, and CMV, but also bacteria, parasites, and fungi) Malignancies (mainly malignant lymphoma) Macrophage activation syndrome in autoinflammatory or autoimmune disorders Other causes (organ or stem cell transplantation; metabolic,traumatic, iatrogenic causes; and, rarely, pregnancy) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31005 | Leber cells are most commonly seen in | [
"Vernal keratoconjunctivitis",
"Phlyctenular conjunctivitis",
"Ophthalmianeonatorum",
"Trachoma"
] | Leber cells are mainly seen in trachoma Follicles: * Conjunctival follicles multiple discrete resembling grains of rice , blood vessels run across or around. * Subepithelial lymphoid germinal centres with histiocytes, monocytes and large nucleated cells called leber cells with immature lymphocytes centrally and mature cells peripherally. * Leber cells and necrosis is mainly seen in trachoma. * Causes: Viral & chlamydial conjunctivitis PseudoMembrane * Adenoviral * Gonococcal * Ligneous * Steven jhonson Pappilla * IN PALPEBRAL CONJUNCTIVA &Limbal bulbar conjunctiva * Vascular core is present * Hyperplastic conjunctival epithelium with vascular core * Bacterial conjunctivitis , allergic conjunctivitis, marginal conjunctivitis, contact lens wear | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8847 | If the head of the femur is dislocated postero-medially, compression of which nerve is likely to be a result? | [
"Femoral",
"Lumbosacral trunk",
"Obturator",
"Sciatic"
] | The sciatic nerve is closely related to the posterior hip joint, which makes this nerve very vulnerable in cases where the femur is dislocated postero-medially. If the sciatic nerve was completely paralyzed, the compaments innervated by its two branches: the common fibular and tibial nerves, would lose function. This would mean that the hamstrings and all the muscles of below the knee would lose their innervation. (Luckily, complete paralysis of the sciatic nerve is very rare). The hip joint is very stable, so it is difficult to dislocate the femur. Most dislocations occur when the hip is flexed and the thigh is adducted. In flexion, the joint capsule is lax, and the femoral head tends to dislocate posteriorly when forces drive the femur posteriorly. This means that the sciatic nerve will be very vulnerable when the femur is dislocated!The other nerves listed in the question are not closely related to the hip joint. The femoral nerve innervates the quadriceps and is on the anterior of the thigh. The lumbosacral trunk is located in the pelvis. The obturator nerve innervates the adductor compament, and is on the anteromedial side of the thigh. Although the superior gluteal nerve innervates muscles near the hip socket (gluteus medius, minimus, and tensor fasciae latae), it would not be damaged by a dislocated hip. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25551 | Dapoxetine is specifically developed for? | [
"Depression",
"Psychosis",
"Premature ejaculation",
"Anxiety disorder"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Premature ejaculation Dapoxetine Dapoxetine is the first compound developed specially for the treatment of premature ejaculation (PE) in men 18-64 years old. Dapoxetine works by inhibiting the serotonin transpoer, increasing serotonin's action at the post synaptic cleft, and as a consequence promoting ejaculatory delay. As a member of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) family, dapoxetine was initially created as an antidepressant. However, unlike other SSRIs, dapoxetine is absorbed and eliminated rapidly in the body. Its fast-acting propey makes it suitable for the treatment of PE but not as an antidepressant. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17737 | Hypercalcemia is seen in all, except- | [
"Acute pancreatitis",
"Hypervitaminosis D",
"Addison's disease",
"Hyperparathyroidism"
] | <p>Primary hyperparathyroidism is a generalized disorder of calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism due to an increased secretion of PTH. The elevation of circulating hormone usually leads to hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. There is great variation in the manifestations. Patients may present with multiple signs and symptoms, including recurrent nephrolithiasis, peptic ulcers, mental changes, and, less frequently, extensive bone resorptionHypercalcemia in vitamin D intoxication is due to an excessive biologic action of the vitamin, perhaps the consequence of increased levels of 25(OH)D rather than merely increased levels of the active metabolite 1,25(OH) 2 D (the latter may not be elevated in vitamin D intoxication). 25(OH)D has definite, if low, biologic activity in the intestine and bone. The production of 25(OH)D is less tightly regulated than is the production of 1,25(OH) 2 D. Hence concentrations of 25(OH)D are elevated severalfold in patients with excess vitamin D intake.In secondary adrenal insufficiency, only glucocoicoid deficiency is present, as the adrenal itself is intact and thus still amenable to regulation by the RAA system. Adrenal androgen secretion is disrupted in both primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency . Hypothalamic-pituitary disease can lead to additional clinical manifestations due to involvement of other endocrine axes (thyroid, gonads, growth hormone, prolactin) Causes of Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency Diagnosis Gene Associated Features Pituitary tumors (endocrine active and inactive adenomas, very rare: carcinoma)(harrison 18 pg 2956)</p> | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25892 | PCR is used in: | [
"Medicolegal cases",
"Amplification of gene",
"Identification of organism",
"All of the above"
] | Ans: d (All the above) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p. 443; 5th ed, p. 458Clinical applications of PCR-->> Diagnosis of bacterial and viral diaseases, medico-legal cases, diagnosis of genetic diseases, cancer detection, paleontological studies.Polymorphic markers and linkage analysis:* A pre requisite for successful linkage analysis is the availability of a large number of highly polymorphic markers dispersed through out the genome.* Polymorphism is a clinically harmless DNA variation that does not affect the phenotype. Mutation is a potentially harmful genomic variation.* There are highly repitative sequences in DNA usually found in non-coding spacer DNA.Major types of markers are:RFLP - Restriction fragment length polymorphism tire polymorphisms in which, presence or absence of mutations at restriction site produces fragment of varying length that can be visualized on southern blot.VNTR - Variable number of tandem repeats or mini satellite* Repeated units ranges from 20 - 70 bp.* The repeat is Hanked on both side by a restriction site and variation in the number of repeats produces restriction fragments of varying size.STRP - Short tandem repeat polymorphism or micro satellite repeats.* They are amplified through PCR.* Variation in the number of repeats produces PCR products of varying size - visualised on agarose gel.Single nucleotide polymorphism - These are single base polymorphisms that can be assayed by DNA sequencing or through DNA chips.VNTR: Mini satellite - 20 - 70 bpSTRP: Micro satellite - 2-6 bpSingle nucleotide polymorphism - single bp | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53693 | Which of the following is not evaluated using 99mm Tc- DMSA scintigraphy? | [
"Renal anomalies",
"Renal pseudomass",
"Renal scarring",
"Renal artery stenosis"
] | Ans DDMSA scan is used to study renal morphology thus out of given options only renal artery stenosis is not a renal morphological defect. Renal artery stenosis is studied by Captopril-DTPA scan | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8746 | Gold Standard investigation for pulmonary Thromboembolism? | [
"V/Q SCAN",
"CECT",
"Angiography",
"MRI"
] | *Gold standard is Pulmonary Angiography. *IOC - CT Angio. CE pulmonary angiogram showing hypodense thrombus in left main pulmonary aery. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24171 | Frig causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is | [
"Zidovudine",
"Lamivudine",
"Stavudine",
"Didanosine"
] | Refer WHO recommendations to treat adult and adolescent HIV/76 Stavudine b has maximum incidence of peripheral neuropathy whereas didanosine is associated with maximum risk of acute pancreatitis | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13112 | Fetus was found to have a congenital hea block (CHB), what should be evaluated in the mother? | [
"SLE",
"APLA",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Haemolytic anemia"
] | SLE is Pregnancy- SLE - causes - multi organ damage in the mother and antibodies against the antigens blood circulation enter the fetus causing multiple problems to the fetus mainly congenital hea block CHB is the most serious complication of neonatal lupus erythematosus. Transplacental transfer of maternal anti - SSA/RO or anti- SSB/LA antibodies is associated with development of CHB. CHB is mostly diagnosed between 18 -24th weeks of gestation. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7322 | Which of the following Angiotensin II receptor blocker shows Antiplatelet action? | [
"Losartan",
"Valsartan",
"Irbesartan",
"Candesartan"
] | ANSWER: (A) LosartanREF: KDT 6th edition page 488Losartan It is a competitive antagonist and inverse agonist of A-II, 10,000 times more selective for ATI than AT2 receptor does not block any other receptor or ion channel, except thromboxane A2 receptor (has some platelet antiaggregatory property). It blocks all overt actions of A-II, viz. vasoconstriction, central and peripheral sympathetic stimulation, release of aldosterone and Adr from adrenals, renal actions promoting salt and water reabsorption, central actions like thirst, vasopressin release and growth-promoting actions on heart and blood vessels. No inhibition of ACE has been noted. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16823 | A six year old child is posted for elective urology surgery under general anesthesia. He refuses to allow the anaesthesiologist an I.V. access. The best inhalational agent of choice for induction of anesthesia is: | [
"Sevoflurane",
"Methoxyflurane",
"Desflurane",
"Isoflurane"
] | A i.e. Sevoflurane | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53562 | True about multiple myeloma except - | [
"↑ Uric acid",
"↑ Urea",
"↑ Ca++",
"↑ Alkaline phosphatase"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19134 | Adverse effect of tocolytic agonist in pregnancy:a) HTNb) ↓ glucosec)↓K+d) Arrythmiae) Pulmonary edema | [
"cde",
"acd",
"bde",
"ade"
] | Friends I am listing down the side effect of various tocolytics, just go through them. Amongst them, most important are side effects of betamimetics.
Commonly used tocolytics | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34334 | Which of the following statement is true about NetProtein Utilization? | [
"It is the ratio of energy from protein to total energy in diet",
"It is the ratio of total nitrogen retained by total nitrogen intake multiplied by 100",
"It is the amount of one amino acid per gram of a protein divided by the amount of same amino acid per gram of egg protein",
"If the NPU is high the amount... | It is the ratio of total nitrogen retained by total nitrogen intake multiplied by 100/Ref. Park 20/e, p 549 (19/e p503)1 Repeat from Nov 08 Net Protein Utilization (NPU): NPU is a method of assessing protein quality. It is the ratio of amino acid conveed to proteins to the ratio of amino acids supplied. Experimentally, this value can be determined by determining dietary protein intake and then measuring nitrogen excretion. One formula for NPU is: NPU = Nitrogen retained by the body/ Nitrogen intake X 100 As a value, NPU can range from 1 to 0, with a value of 1 indicating 100% utilization of dietary nitrogen as protein and a value of 0 an indication that none of the nitrogen supplied was conveed to protein. Ceain foodstuffs, such as eggs or milk, rate as I on an NPU cha. The NPU gives a more complete expression of protein quality than the amino acid score. The protein requirement varies with the NPU of dietary protein. If NPU is high, the protein requirement is low and vice versa. Amino acid score: Other method of assessing protein quality is amino acid score. Amino acid score is a measure of the concentration of each essential amino acid in the test protein expressed as a percentage of that amino acid in the reference protein (usually egg protein) Amino acid score Number of mg of one amino acid per g of protein/Number of mg of the same amino acid per g of egg protein X 100 Also Know Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS): Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score is a method of evaluating the protein quality based on the amino acid requirements of humans. It has been adopted by FAO/WHO as the preferred method for the measurement of the protein quality in human nutrition. The method is based on comparison of the concentration of the first limiting essential amino acid in the test protein with the concentration of that amino acid in a reference (scoring) pattern. This scoring pattern is derived from the essential amino acid requirements of the preschool-age child. The chemical score obtained in this way is corrected for true fecal digestibility of the test protein. A PDCAAS value of 1 is the highest, and 0 the lowest as the table demonstrates the ratings of common foods below. - whey 1.0 - egg white 1.0 - asein 1.0 - milk 1.0 The Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS) is superior to other methods for evaluating the protein quality of food proteins for humans because it measures the quality of a protein based on the amino acid requirements of a 2- to 5-year old child (the most demanding age group), adjusted for digestibility. PDCAAS is based on a food protein's amino acid content, its true digestibility, and its ability to supply indispensable amino acids in amounts adequate to meet the amino acid requirements of a 2- to 5-year old child, the age group used as the standard | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52306 | A patient with a pheochromocytoma is secreting large amounts of norepinephrine into the bloodstream. In a normal individual, this compound is usually released from the adrenal medulla in response to which of the following? | [
"Acetylcholine",
"Epinephrine",
"Metanephrine",
"Normetanephrine"
] | In the normal individual, release of the catecholamine norepinephrine is under neuroendocrine control, with acetylcholine serving as the local neurotransmitter that triggers its release. This normal control is disrupted in patients with pheochromocytoma. The catecholamine epinephrine is also secreted by the adrenal medulla, but does not regulate norepinephrine secretion. Metanephrine, normetanephrine, and vanillylmandelic acid are all catecholamine degradative products that may become elevated if catecholamine production is increased by a pheochromocytoma. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22402 | Cryptomenorrhoea is most commonly seen with: | [
"Imperforate hymen",
"Asherman syndrome",
"PCOD",
"Vaginal agenesis"
] | Ans: a (Imperforate hymen) Ref: Shaw, 13th ed,p.280In women with cryptomenorrhoea presenting as primary amenorrhoea the commonest cause is a intact hymen.Imperforate hymenClinical features1deg amenorrhoeaUrinary retentionPeriodic lower abdominal painSign: Visualization of tense bluish bulging membrane on separation of labia.Newborn - Mucocolpos (with in one week of birth)Diagnosis: USG pelvisTreatment of imperforate hymen: Cruciate incision on hymen(Commonest site at which hymen ruptures during intercourse - postero lateral area) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17500 | Minimum Alveolar concentration of halothane is | [
"0.74%",
"1-2%",
"6%",
"2%"
] | Halothane is a potent anesthetic with a MAC of 0.74%. Its blood/gas partition coefficient of 2.4 makes it an agent with moderate
induction and recovery time. It is not a good analgesic and its muscle relaxation effect is moderate. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3201 | Basic Pathophysiology in Potter syndrome: | [
"Maternal diabetes",
"Pulmonary hypoplasia",
"Bilateral renal agenesis",
"Oligohydramnios"
] | Potter syndrome- Primary defect- B/L renal agenesis Features- Pulmonary hypoplasia (MCC of death) Oligohydramnios Wrinkled skin Potter Facies- Widely separated eyes with epicanthic folds, low set ears, flat nose & receding chin | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44966 | Cocket & Dodd's operation is performed for which one of the following ? | [
"Sapheno femoral flush ligation",
"Subfascial ligation",
"Deep vein thrombosis",
"Diabetic foot"
] | Ref: BMJ 97 p314 Cockett and Dodd operation : Sub-fascial ligation of perforators Ref: www.ncbi.nlm.gov/pubmed/4855162 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5057 | Most common cause of acute compament syndrome in children is ? | [
"Fracture supracondylar humerus",
"Transphysealhumerus fracture",
"Fracture radius /ulna",
"Fracture shaft humerus"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fracture supracondylar humerus Compament syndrome is most commonly caused by extremity fractures :- Supracondylar fracture of humerus is the most common cause is children. Crush injuries to forearm are the most common cause in adults. Other injuries are fracture both bones forearm, elbow dislocation. | A | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.