dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_40245 | Which of the following is an activator of LCAT ? | [
"Apo B100",
"Apo B 48",
"Apo E",
"Apo A1"
] | LCAT: Lecithin Cholestrol Acyl Transferase This enzyme is involved in HDL for the conversion of Cholestrol to Cholestrol ester by adding one fatty acid in it. This fatty acid is taken from lecithin and is given to cholesterol. The nick name of this Fatty acid is acyl. So, the name of this enzyme is Acyl Transferase. Apo A-I - activate LCAT Apo A-II - inhibits LCAT | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22148 | SLE like syndrome may be produced by all except:- | [
"Sulfonamide",
"Psoralen",
"Hydralazine",
"Procainamide"
] | Drugs causing DLE ( Drug induced Lupus Erythematosus ) can also be asked as drugs undergoing metabolism by liver acetylation. Such drugs are: C- SHIP C-Chlorpromazine S - Sulfonamides H - Hydralazine I - Isoniazid P - Procainamide | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19765 | Which of the following is not an amide: | [
"Lidocaine",
"Procaine",
"Prilocaine",
"Etidocaine"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e. procaineThis one has been repeated so many times beforeAmide linked Local anaestheticsLidocaineBupivacaineDibucainePrilocaineRopivacaineEster linked local anaestheticsCocaineProcaineChlorprocaineTetracaineBenzocaine | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46408 | Post moem staining before death can occur in | [
"Cholera",
"Old age",
"Children",
"Hanging"
] | Postmoem hypostasis is seen before death in cases of cholera, uremia, plague, morphine, etc Ref: researchgate.net | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16056 | Functions of plasmin are all except- | [
"Fibrinolysis",
"Activation of collagenase",
"Destruction of VWF",
"Stabilization of fibrin"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stabilization of fibrin * Plasmin is a proteolytic enzyme which belongs to serine protease family.* Its function are:-i) Fibrinolysis by break down of fibrin - It is the major function.ii) Activation of Collagenaseiii) Break down of matrix proteins (fibrin, fibronectin, thrombospondin, laminin) and von Willebrand factor.* These effects are responsible for role of plasmin in embryogenesis, wound healing, angiogenesis and tumor growth & dissemination.* Plasmin released as zymogen (inactive) form, i.e. plasminogen from liver. In circulation, plasminogen is converted into active plasmin by tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA), Kallikrein and Hageman factor (factor XII). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1353 | The method of presenting data of geographic distribution is: | [
"Histogram",
"Pie chart",
"Frequency polygon",
"Cartogram"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43019 | Hind milk is rich in? | [
"Water",
"Fat",
"Proteins",
"Zinc"
] | Ans. b (Fat) (Ref. OP Ghai Essential Paediatrics 6th ed., 150)HIND MILK comes later towards the end of feed and richer in fat content and provides more energy, and satisfies the baby's hunger. Thus the composition of milk also varies during the phase of feeding. For optimum growth, the baby needs both fore and hind milk. The baby should therefore be allowed to empty one breast before being offered the other breast.COLOSTRUMIt is the milk secreted during the first ten days after delivery. It is yellow and thick.It contains more antibodies and cells and high amounts of vitamin A, D, E and K.TRANSITIONAL MILKIt is the milk secreted during the following two weeks.The immunoglobulin and protein content decreases while the fat and sugar content increases.MATURE MILKIt follows transitional milk.It is thinner and watery but contains all the nutrients essential for optimal growth of the baby.PRETERM MILKThe milk of a mother who delivers prematurely contains more proteins, sodium, iron, Ig and calories as they are needed for the preterm baby.FORE MILKIt is the milk secreted at the start of a feed.It is watery and is rich in proteins, sugar, vitamin, minerals, and water that satisfy the baby's thirst. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_550 | Parvovirus B19 does not cause : | [
"Roseola infantum",
"Aplastic anemia in sickle cell",
"Fetal hydrops",
"Collapsing FSGS"
] | Roseola infantum or exanthem subitum is caused by HHV 6 and HHV-7 (rarely).
Diseases caused by Parvo virus :
Erythema infectiosum
Seronegative arthritis
Aplastic crisis in hemolytic anaemia
Fetal infection leads to non-immunohydrops fetalis
Chronic anaemia in immunocompromised
Hemophagocytic syndrome
Severe anaemia in malarial patients. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18487 | An 18 yrs old woman in the active stage of labour requests an epidural anaesthesia for delivery. Immediately following the epidural injection of 12ml of 2% lidocaine, the pt complains of lip numbness and becomes apprehensive. What is presumptive diagnosis. | [
"Allergy to drug administered",
"Systemic toxicity to drug administered",
"Vasovagal shock",
"Drug entered SA space"
] | systemic toxicity of Local anesthetics Central nervous system toxicity is classically described as a two-stage process. An initial excitatory state is followed by a depressive phase. Early neurological features include perioral tingling, tinnitus, and slurred speech. Light headedness and tremor may also occur, as may a change in mental status with confusion or agitation. However, LAST can occur without these characteristic premonitory signs. The excitatory neurological phase culminates in generalized convulsions. This may lead to the depressive phase of coma and respiratory depression. Cardiovascular system toxicity is classically in three phases. The initial phase includes hypeension and tachycardia. The intermediate phase is associated with myocardial depression and hypotension. The terminal phase includes peripheral vasodilatation, severe hypotension, and a variety of arrhythmias such as sinus bradycardia, conduction blocks, ventricular tachyarrhythmias, and asystole. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23061 | A swelling behind the ear suggest fracture of: | [
"Zygomatic complex",
"Temporal bone",
"Orbital floor fracture",
"Condylar fracture"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42811 | Regarding bone remodelling, all are true except: | [
"Osteoclastic activity at the compression site",
"Osteoclastic activity at the tension site",
"Osteoclastic activity and osteoblastic activity are both needed for bone remodelling in cortical and cancellous bones",
"Osteoblasts transforms into osteocytes"
] | (a) Osteoclastic activity at the compression siteThus bone remodelling has both osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity at compression or tension side but the forces on bone decide where remodelling takes place compressile forces compression site and tensile forces tension site and in bone modelling there is osteoclastic activity at tension site and osteoblastic activity at compression site. Thus the best answer here will be (a) but this is with respect to modelling not remodelling. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5934 | Infection with HIV is associated with atrophy in all of the following parts of the brain except: | [
"Anterior cingulate gyrus",
"Globus pallidus",
"Caudate nucleus",
"Lower white matter volume"
] | Ans. a. Anterior cingulate gyrus (Ref: Harrison 19/e p1264, 1265, 18/e p1559, 1560, 3427)AIDS causes subcortical dementia, involves white matter and causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy and main feature is demyelination.Overall cerebral atrophy and prominent caudate region atrophy are important radiographic features of HIV dementia.HIV-associated dementiaHIV encephalopathy: 'subcortical dementia' characterized by defects in short-term memory and executive functionAIDS causes subcortical dementia, involves white matter and causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy and main feature is demyelination.Overall cerebral atrophy and prominent caudate region atrophy are important radiographic features of HIV dementia. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47083 | Which of the following drugs require therapeutic drug monitoring? | [
"Metformin",
"Propranolol",
"Warfarin",
"Phenytoin"
] | * Therapeutic drug monitoring is adjustment of dose of the drug according to its plasma concentration. It is required for A Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin) Drug Digitalis Possessing Phenytoin (anti-epileptics) Low Lithium Therapeutic Tricyclic antidepressants Index Immunomodulators (e.g. cyclosporine) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48051 | Spontaneous subconjuctival haemorrhage is | [
"Benign condition",
"Malignant condition",
"Medical emergency",
"None of the above"
] | Benign condition | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11497 | Clitoris develops from? | [
"Genital tubercle",
"Genital ridge",
"Wolffian duct",
"Mullerian duct"
] | Ans. a (Genital tubercle). (Ref. Williams Obstetrics 22nd /Chapter 2. Pg. 33)CLITORIS# Clitoris develops from genital tubercle.# It is an female erectile organ, homologus with penis and is located near the superior extremity of the vulva.# It is not traversed by urethra.# It projects downward between the branched extremities of the labia minora.# It is composed of a glans, a corpus, and two crura, Corpus spongiosum is absent.# The glans is made up of spindle-shaped cells, and in the body there are two corpora cavernosa, in the walls of which are smooth muscle fibers.# The clitoris rarely exceeds 2 cms in length.# Its free end which is pointed downward and inward toward the vaginal opening is formed by round tubercle called glans clitoris, highly sensitive for sexual response.# The glans is covered by stratified squamous epithelium that is richly supplied with free nerve endings.# Tactile discs are found in abundance in these areas.Additional educational point:# The round ligament corresponds embryologically to the (distal) gubernaculum testis of men. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42246 | DOC of pustular psoriasis | [
"PUVA",
"Methotrexate",
"Steroid",
"Cyclophosphamide"
] | B i.e. Methotrexate | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46241 | Claw sign or pincer sign is seen in | [
"Ischemic colitis",
"Ileocaecal TB",
"Volvulus",
"Intussusception"
] | Other signs in intusucception: Target sign pseudokidney sign coiled spring sign solar eclipse sign | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14195 | All of the following criteria are required for diagnosis of obesity hypoventilation syndrome except- | [
"Hypertension",
"Sleep disorder breathing",
"BMI>30kg/m2",
"PaCO2 >45 mmHg"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypertension o Obesity hyoventilation syndrome (OHS) is defined as the triad of obesity, daytime hypoventilation, and sleep- disordered breathing in the absence of an alternative neuromuscular, mechanical or metabolic explanation for hypoventilation.Obesity hypoventilation syndrome||||ObesityDay time hypoventilationSleep disordered breathingo OHS is defined as daytime hypercapnia and hypoxemia (Paco2 > 45 mm Hg and Pao2 < 70 mm Hg at sea level) in an obese patient (body mass index > 30 kg/m2) with sleep-disordered breathing in the absence of any other cause of hypoventilation. It is important to recognize that OHS is a diagnosis of exclusion and should be distinguished from other conditions that are commonly associated with hypercapnia.Definition of Obesity Hypoventilation SyndromeRequired ConditionsDescriptionObesityo Body mass index > 30 kg/m2Chronic hypoventilationo Awake daytime hypercapnia(PaCo2 > 45 mm Hg and Pao2 < 70 mm Hg)Sleep-disordered breathingo Obstructive sleep apnea (apneahypopnea index > 5 events/h, with or without sleep hypoventilation) present in 90% of caseso Non-obstructive sleep hypoventilation (apnea-hypopnea index 5 events/h) in 10% of casesExclusion of other causes of hypercapniao Severe obstructive airways diseaseo Severe interstitial lung diseaseo Severe chest-wall disorders (eg, kyphoscoliosis)o Severe hypothyroidismo Neuromuscular diseaseo Congenital central hypoventilation syndromeMechanisms bv which obesity can lead to chronic daytime hypercapnia Obesity | | |Leptin resistance Increased mechanical load and weak respiratory muscles Obstructive sleep apnea upper-airway resistance||||| |||| | Acute hypercapnia during sleep | -Decreased Co3 response-------Blunted ventilatory response-Increased serum HCO3- | -Decreased HC03- excretion rate Chronic hypercapnia | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21248 | Buerger's disease is caused by: | [
"Asbestosis",
"Alcohol",
"Cigarette smoking",
"Drug abuse"
] | Buerger's disease is caused by vasculitis of vessels of the hands and feet. This disorder is highest among males aged 20 to 40, who have a history of smoking or chewing tobacco. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39976 | All are risk factor for breast carcinoma except- | [
"OCP",
"Early mensturation",
"Family history",
"Late menopause"
] | First-degree relative with breast cancer Menstrual historyAge at menarche <12 yearsAge at menopause >55 years Other Possible Factors Exogenous estrogens Oral contraceptives Obesity High-fat diet Alcohol consumption Cigarette smoking ref : Robbins Basic Pathology, 9E,page-708 ref img | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28612 | Which of the following is present in males but not in females? | [
"Bulbospongiosus muscle",
"Bulbourethral gland",
"Corpus cavernosum",
"Membranous urethra"
] | The bulbourethral glands are paired structures located within the deep perineal pouch, embedded within the sphincter urethrae. Their ducts pass to the spongy urethra. The homologous female structures are the greater vestibular (Baholin's) glands, which are located in the superficial perineal pouch. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27371 | Denominator refers to: | [
"Pa of the presentation which lies over the Internal os",
"Relation of different pas of fetus to one another",
"Bony fixed point of reference on presenting pa",
"Pa of fetus lying in the lower segment of uterus"
] | Denominator : It is an arbitrary bony fixed point on the presenting pa which comes in relation with the various quadrants of maternal pelvis. Denominators in different presentations : Occiput in veex Mentum in chin Frontal eminence in brow Sacrum I'm breech Acromion in shoulder. Ref: Datta Obs 9e pg 70. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53760 | Pulmonary hypeension in COPD is due to - | [
"Constriction of pulm vessels",
"Hypoxia",
"Interstitial fibrosis",
"Bronchoconstriction"
] | pulmonary hypeension in COPD is Category 3. Pulmonary hypeension associated with hypoxemic lung disease Key feature: chronic hypoxia with mild elevation of PAP Includes: * Chronic obstructive lung disease * Interstitial lung disease * Sleep-disordered breathing * Alveolar hypoventilation disorders * Chronic exposure to high altitude * Developmental abnormalities ref:Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 2078 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34714 | Mauriac's syndrome is characterized by the following except - | [
"Diabetes",
"Obesity",
"Dwarfism",
"Cardiomegaly"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cardiomegaly Mauriac syndrome is a rare complication in children and adolescents with diabetes mellitus type 1, characterized by hepatomegaly, growth impairment, and cushingoid features. It can occur as a result of abnormal blood sugar levels and the symptoms tend to rectify with attainment of euglycemia (normal blood sugar levels). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27169 | Thyroid carcinoma - | [
"Is often associated with hypothyroidism",
"Often produces hyperthyroidism",
"Is usually euthyroid",
"Occurs in toxic nodules"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53295 | A 49-year-old woman has a large mass on the pelvic brim. Which of the following structures is most likely compressed by this mass when crossing the pelvic brim? | [
"Ovarian Aery",
"Uterine tube",
"Ovarian ligament",
"Lumbosacral trunk"
] | All of the listed structures do not cross the pelvic brim except the lumbosacral trunk. It arises from L4 and L5, enters the true pelvis by crossing the pelvic brim, and contributes to the formation of the sacral plexus. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29487 | Index ages for the survey are (OR) the age groups recommended in the national pathfinder survey are | [
"5, 15, 25, 35, 65 to 70 years",
"5, 10,15,30,60 to 70 years",
"5, 12, 15, 35 to 44 and 65 to 74 years",
"5 to 10, 15 to 35, 40 to 65 years"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18883 | Killed vaccine is - | [
"Hepatitis A",
"Measles",
"OPV",
"BCG"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hepatitis A o Hepatitis A vaccines are of both typesFormaldehyde inactivated vaccines (killed vaccines)Live attenuated vaccineso All other options are live vaccines,Live'attenuated' vaccinesKilled 'inactivated' vaccinesBCGPertussisOPV (Sabin - Oral polio vaccine)IPV (Salk - Inactivated polio vaccine)Measles vaccineRabies vaccineMumps vaccineCholera vaccineRubella vaccineMeningococcal vaccineYellow fever vaccineHepatitis B vaccineTyphoralTyphim - Vi vaccineHepatitis - AHepatitis - A | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42324 | Multi organ failure is defined as failure of minimum how many organs ? | [
"2",
"3",
"4",
"5"
] | Answer- A. 2Multi organ failure (MOF) or multi organ failure syndrome (MOFS) or multi organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is defined as progressive dysfunction of two or more major organ systems in a critically ill patient that makes it impossible to maintain homeostasis without medical intervention and that is typically a complication of sepsis and is a major factor in predicting moality. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2678 | Which of these statements best completes the following sentence? The ulnar nerve: | [
"Has the ulnar aery as a medial relation at the wrist.",
"Passes deep to the flexor retinaculum at the wrist.",
"Usually innervates the lateral two lumbricals.",
"Innervates adductor pollicis."
] | d. The ulnar nerve supplies (in Hand) Adductor pollicis muscles of the hypothenar eminence interossei muscles lumbricals :digit 4&5 Explanationsa. ulnar aery lies lateral to the ulnar nerve and the radial aery lies medial to the radial nerve.The ulnar and radial aeries lie between their respective nerves at the wrist. b. It enters the hand, with the ulnar aery, by passing through Guyon's canal, which is superficial to the flexor retinaculum. c. The medial two lumbricals are innervated by the ulnar nerve. The lateral two are usually supplied by the median nerve. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1040 | A 43-year-old man with chronic hepatitis and liver cirrhosis is admitted with upper GI bleeding. He has marked ascites and shows multiple telangiectasias, liver palmar erythema, and clubbing. A diagnosis of bleeding esophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension is made. Portal pressure is considered elevated when it is above which of the following? | [
"0.15 mm Hg",
"1.5 mm Hg",
"12 mm Hg",
"40 mm Hg"
] | Portal hypertension is suspected clinically if esophageal varices are detected, hypersplenism occurs, or ascites develop. Normal portal venous pressure is 5-10 mm Hg. Pressure may be measured indirectly by using hepatic venous wedge pressure (occlusive hepatic wedge pressure). About two-thirds of patients with portal hypertension will develop varices of which one-third will bleed. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6302 | Commonest cause of cerebral infarction is | [
"Aerial thrombosis",
"Aeritis",
"Venous thrombosis",
"Embolism"
] | Refer Robbins page no 1263 Infarction is tissue death (necrosis) due to inadequate blood supply to the affected area. It may be caused by aery blockages, rupture, mechanical compression, or vasoconstriction. The resulting lesion is referred to as an infarct (from the Latin infarctus, "stuffed into"). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40309 | The sugar found in RNA is | [
"Ribose",
"Deoxyribose",
"Ribulose",
"Erythrose"
] | Ribose is a constituent of RNA. Ribose is also seen in co-enzymes such as ATP and NAD. Deoxyribose is seen in DNA.
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 76 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41363 | Which of the following is an amphibolic pathway? | [
"Glycolysis",
"Citric acid cycle",
"Gluconeogenesis",
"Glycogenolysis"
] | The citric acid cycle is not only a pathway for oxidation of two carbon units, but is also a major pathway for interconversion of metabolites arising from transamination and deamination of amino acids, and providing the substrates for amino acid synthesis by transamination, as well as for gluconeogenesis and fatty acid synthesis. Because it functions in both oxidative and synthetic processes, it is amphibolic. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 164 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30647 | A pregnant woman who underwent syphilis testing showed positive results for VDRL but negative for specific treponemal tests. Interpret the results | [
"Positive for syphilis",
"Biological false positive",
"False negative",
"Positive for non pathogenic Treponema"
] | Pregnancy can give rise to false-positive VDRL. BFP (biological false positive reactions) is defined as positive reactions obtained in non-specific treponemal tests (RPR, VDRL)with negative results in specific treponemal tests, in the absence of past or present treponemal infections and not caused by technical faults. Chronic Biological False Positive reactions are seen in SLE Leprosy Malaria Relapsing feve r Infectious mononucleosis Hepatitis Tropical eosinophilia Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35326 | Manifestation of ENL includes all of the following except: | [
"Pancreatistis",
"Fever",
"Hepatitis",
"All"
] | A i.e. Pancreatitis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38623 | BRAF gene mutation is seen in- | [
"Breast carcinoma",
"Melanoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Prostate carcinoma"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Melanoma o BRAF mutation is associated with melanoma. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48137 | Amount of free residual chlorine in drinking water: September 2007, March 2010 | [
"0.1 mg/L",
"0.5 mg/L",
"1.0 mg/L",
"1.5 mg/L"
] | Ans. B: 0.5 mg/L Chlorine readily combines with chemicals dissolved in water, microorganisms, small animals, plant material, tastes, odors, and colors. These components "use up" chlorine and comprise the chlorine demand of the treatment system. It is impoant to add sufficient chlorine to the water to meet the chlorine demand and provide residual disinfection. The contact (retention) time in chlorination is that period between introduction of the disinfectant and when the water is used. A long interaction between chlorine and the microorganisms results in an effective disinfection process. Contact time varies with chlorine concentration, the type of pathogens present, pH, and temperature of the water. The chlorine that does not combine with other components in the water is free (residual) chlorine, and the breakpoint is the point at which free chlorine is available for continuous disinfection. An ideal system supplies free chlorine at a concentration of 0.5 mg/1. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39380 | Which is an example of type-HI hypersensitivity | [
"Contact dermatitis",
"Hemolytic anemia",
"Serum sickness",
"Good pasture syndrome"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Serum sickness | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44213 | A 13 year old male patient presents to the clinic for routine dental examination and has a history of frequent snacking and brushes twice a day. Intraoral examination shows multiple pit and fissure caries. Which of the following caries assessment tool is more predictive in this child? | [
"CAMBRA",
"ADA",
"AAPD",
"Cariogram"
] | When discussing caries risk and introducing the “Cariogram,” Petersson repeated the complex nature of dental caries and the difficulties in predicting the development of the disease in any one patient. Over the years these difficulties have not decreased. There are several tools for predicting dental caries development. In 2012 Tellez conducted a systematic review of caries-risk assessment tools and concluded, “There is an urgent need to develop valid and reliable methods for caries risk assessment that are based on best evidence for prediction and disease epidemiology management rather than opinions of experts.” In this review the four most commonly used caries-risk assessment tools were reviewed (Cariogram, Caries Management by Risk Assessment , American Dental Association, and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry) and were found to be of equal value.
The Cariogram has been evaluated and found to be more predictive in permanent teeth than with preschool children.
The “Cariogram” is a computer caries-risk program that records several data points including past caries experience, diet, oral hygiene habits, fluoride exposures, and analysis of saliva. The program then produces the results as a coloured graph. This was well described by Gonzalez and Okunseri in 2010. Cariogram was given by Brathall et al in 1999. It is a method of illustrating the interaction of factor contributing to the development of caries. The different colors are as follows: red for bacteria, dark blue for diet, light blue for susceptibility-related factors, and yellow for circumstances. A pie circle diagram is divided into 5 sectors in following colours : | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16233 | Sequestration lung is best diagnosed by- | [
"CT. scan",
"M.R.I.",
"Barium swallow",
"Angiography"
] | A pulmonary sequestration (bronchopulmonary sequestration)is a medical condition wherein a piece of tissue that ultimately develops into lung tissue is not attached to the pulmonary aerial blood supply.An angiogram/aeriogram has been considered vital in documenting the systemic blood supply,allowing definitive diagnosis as well as preoperative planning. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30919 | Triage means: | [
"First comes first served basis",
"Treating person with better prognosis",
"Labelling the death patients",
"Identifying seriously ill who needs treatment first"
] | Ans: (d) Identifying seriously ill who needs treatment firstRef: Emergency Department Leadership and Management by Stehanie Kayden, Page 203 4.Triage is systemic approach to rapidly identifying patients with urgent or life threatening conditions.Defined as "A system where by a group of casualties or other patients are sorted according to seriousness of their injuries or illness so that treatment priorities can be allocated between them.In emergency situations it is designed to maximize the no. of survivors."First come first treated" is not applicable in mass casualties.Example of Color Coded Triage SystemPriorityColourHighRedMediumYellowAmbulatoryGreenDead or moribundBlack | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21048 | Malignancies that frequently metastasize to the jaws are | [
"Lung",
"Prostate",
"Colorectal",
"All of the above"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23458 | This pathway is occurring in which cell of the body: | [
"RBCs",
"Liver",
"Muscles",
"Brain"
] | This is RL shunt i.e. Rapapo Leubering shunt/ cycle. This occurs only in RBCs, for the production of 2, 3 bisphosphoglycerate.(2,3 BPG) This compound is required in RBCs to release oxygen from HbA at tissue level. In RL shunt, substrate level phosphorylation(SLP) step by phosphoglycerate kinase enzyme does not occur. Net gain of ATP in RL shunt is zero. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22133 | True regarding collagen synthesis is all except | [
"Synthesized in ribisomes as preprocollagen",
"Hydroxylation of proline occurs in Golgi apparatus",
"Hydroxylation of lysine occurs in ER",
"Triple helix assembly occurs in ER"
] | The collagen is synthesized by fibroblasts intracellularly, as a large precursor called procollagen.the extracellular procollagen is cleaved by specific peptidases to form tropocollagen. The hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues of collagen is apost- translational modification taking place intracellularly.Prolyl hydrxylase and lusyl hydroxylase are both di-oxygenases using molecular oxygen. The hydroxylated polypeptides are next glycosylated.The glycosylation occurs only on the hydroxylysine residues. Extracellular maturion of collagen occurs. The collagen is arod like structure.Each of the 3 polypeptide chains is held in a helical conformation by winding around each other. REFERENCE : DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK. SEVENTH EDITION ; PAGE NO:721. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42899 | Which is not true about aspergillosis | [
"Aspergillus niger is the commonest cause of fungal otitis externa",
"It is highly contagious",
"Aspergilloma is common in preexisting TB, or cystic disease",
"Aspergillus fumigatus is cause of bronchus aspergillosis"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24536 | One of the following diseases has more than one route of transmission - | [
"Influenza",
"Leprosy",
"Cholera",
"Typhoid fever"
] | <p> Leprosy Mode of transmission includes droplet infection,contact transmission,insect bite, breast feeding... Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:317. <\p> | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18612 | Cobble stoning of conjunctiva is seen in | [
"Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis",
"Simple allergic conjunctivitis",
"Gaint papillary conjuntivitis",
"Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis"
] | Ans. (a) Vernal KeratoconjunctivitisRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. 179CONJUNCTIVITIS* The inflammation of the conjunctiva is characterized by redness associated with watery or mucopurulent discharge.VERNAL KERATO CONJUNCTIVITIS OR SPRING CATARRH* It is a recurrent , bilateral, interstitial, self limiting, allergic inflammation of the conjunctiva seen in children usually in summer months.* Etiology: it is considered a hypersensitivity reaction to some exogenous allergen such as grass pollen etc.* Clinical features: characterized by marked burning and itching sensation which is usually in tolerable.# Lacrimation.# Stringly (ropy) discharge.# Usually upper tarsal conjunctiva of both eyes are involved.# Lesion are characterized as "cobble-stone" or "pavement stone" fashion.# Horner Tranta's spots: Presence of discrete whitish raised dots along the limbus.* Treatment# Mast Cell Stabilizers (Olopatadine)# Sodium ChromoglycateSimple allergic conjunctivitis: Non specific allergic rhinitis associated with hay fever or seasonal/perennial allergic conjunctivitis.GIANT PAPILLARY CONJUNCTIVITIS* Conjunctivitis with formation of large sized papillae in upper tarsal conjunctiva due to localized allergy* Against contact lens /nylon sutures/prosthesis.* Treatment: Removal of offending agent# Mast Cell Stabilizers* Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis: It is also called Apollo conjunctivitis. It is caused by picornavirus (enterovirus type 70).DISCHARGEETIOLOGICAL AGENT* Purulent/ mucopurulent* Watery* Ropy* Mucopurulent* Bacterial conjunctivitis* Viral conjunctivitis* Allergic conjunctivitis* Chlamydial conjuntivitis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41218 | Which is the most common cranial nerve involved in raised ICP? | [
"Abducens",
"Trochlear",
"Trigeminal",
"Facial"
] | A-Abducens= Longest subarachnoid course(so whenever ICP will raise abducens nerve will affect first) B-Trochlear=Longest intracranial route, thinnest, only nerve has dorsal origin C- Trigeminal=Thickest nerve D-Facial= Longest intraosseous route | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5977 | In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled septate hyphae. Which of the following is the likely etiologic agent? | [
"Mucor",
"Candida",
"Aspergillus",
"Histoplasma"
] | Aspergillus is a mould with narrow angled septate hyphae. Asexual conidia are arranged in chain, carried on elongated cells called sterigmata borne on expanded ends of conidiophores. Aspergillus fumigatus is the common cause of aspergillosis. Histoplasma is a dimorphic fungi. Mucor is a broad nonseptate hyphae present in tissues. Candida is characterized by the presence of pseudohyphae. Ref: Essentials of Clinical Mycology By Carol A. Kaufmann, 2nd Edition, Pages 248-53 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33050 | Which among the following is determined by the higher auditory centre? | [
"Sound frequency",
"Loudness",
"Speech discrimination",
"Sound localization"
] | Sound localization refers to auditory systems judgement on the localization of the sound source. It depends on detecting the difference in time between the arrival of the stimulus in the two ears and the consequent difference in phase of the sound waves on the two sides. Neurons in the auditory coex on receiving input from both ears respond maximally or minimally when the time of arrival of a stimulus at one ear is delayed by a fixed period relative to the time of arrival at the other ear. Thus auditory coex is involved in sound localization. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18296 | The local anesthetic with the longest duration of action is | [
"Procaine",
"Chlorprocaine",
"Lignocaine",
"Dibucaine"
] | Longest acting, most potent and most toxic local anesthetic is dibucaine.
Chlorprocaine is the shortest acting local anesthetic. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36029 | Which of the following is a muscle relaxant | [
"Scoline",
"Pentazocine",
"Hyoscin",
"Phenylephrine"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2820 | Which of the following aery gives rise to posterior gastric aery | [
"Splenic aery",
"Left gastric aery",
"Right gastric aery",
"Left gastroepiploic aery"
] | Coelic trunk:Hepatic aery /Left gastric aery and splenic aery .Splenic aery give rise to Post gastric aery ,sho gastric aery and left gastro epiploic aery Posterior gastric aery supplies the posterior wall. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45643 | A patient has a non itchy plaque positive for hyphae,diagnosis is: | [
"T capitis",
"T corporis",
"T incognito",
"T facei"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17532 | All of the following statements are true about replacement conduits after esophagectomy except: | [
"Ideal replacement for the esophagus after esophagectomy is stomach",
"Gastric conduit is based on right gastric and right gastroepiploic aery",
"Colonic conduit is based on left colic aery",
"Anterior mediastinal route is a preferred for conduit"
] | Preferred conduit after esophsgectomy- Gastric conduit / stomach Conduit Based on Gastric conduit / stomach Left colon Jejunum Right gastric aery & right gastric epiploic aery Left colic aery Jejunal aery Preferred route / shoest route for conduit - posterior mediastinum | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26056 | Paralytic ileus is caused by | [
"Peritonitis",
"Hyperkalemia",
"Acute intestinal obstruction",
"Head injury"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32750 | A 28 Years of old lady presented with wrist pain. X-ray wrist us showing lytic eccentric lesion in lower end of radius with soap bubble appaerance, what is the next plan for managemnt | [
"Bone curettage and bone grafting",
"Extended curettage with phenol",
"Biopsy of lesion",
"Extended curettage with phenol and bone grafting"
] | It is a case of giant cell tumor Actually next investingation should be MRI followed by biopsy In bone tumors :x ray ------MRI-----biopsy------treatment ref : maheswari 9th ed | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9183 | Residual volume is best measured by ? | [
"Body plethysmography",
"Helium dilution method",
"Spirometry",
"All of above"
] | Answer- A. Body plethysmographypulmonary plekysmographs are commonly used to measure the functional residual capacity (FRC) of the lungs - the volumein the lungs when the muscles of respiration are relaxed - and total long capacity | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14236 | A most common cause of delayed puberty in males is – | [
"Kallaman syndrome",
"Klienfelter syndrome",
"Constitutional",
"Prader–willi syndrome"
] | Most common cause of delayed puberty is constitutional. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21148 | Saccharolytic reaction in cooked meat broth is produced by | [
"Pseudomonas",
"Clostridium perfringes",
"Clostridium tetani",
"C.diptheriae"
] | CMB also called Robesons cooked meat -contains nutrient broth and cooked meat of ox hea Saccharolytic reaction positive for cl.perfringes Proteolytic reaction positive for cl.tetani Ref: CP Baveja 4th ed Pg:51 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9207 | In direct laryngoscopy which of the following cannot be visualized: | [
"Cricothyroid",
"Lingual surface of epiglottis",
"Arytenoids",
"Pyriform fossa"
] | (a) Cricothyroid(Ref. Dhingra, 6th ed., 422)In Direct laryngoscopy we are visualising the cavity of the larynx from within so cricothyroid muscle or membrane which lie externally cannot be seen. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28568 | Macewan sign' is seen in - | [
"Alcoholic intoxication",
"Organophosphorus poisoning",
"Barbiturate poisoning",
"Dhatura poisoning"
] | Macewan sign is seen is stage of narcosis of acute alcohol intoxication. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54421 | which of the following drugs should be removed by dialysis? | [
"digoxin",
"salicylates",
"benzodiazepines",
"organophosphates"
] | Salicylates stay in blood whereas digoxin,diazepam and organophosphates are distributed widely | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13972 | "Brush heap" structure is found in: | [
"Zinc oxide impression material",
"Agar",
"Condensation silicone",
"Polyether"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53313 | An 18-year-old G2P1L1 with a last menstrual period of May 7 presents for her first OB visit at 10 weeks. The patient had a previous pregnancy complicated by gestational diabetes and delivered a 4.2kg baby boy cesarean section after a long labor. All of the following should be performed at each prenatal visit except | [
"Fetal hea tones by Doppler equipment",
"Real-time ultrasound for estimated fetal weight",
"Maternal blood pressure",
"Urinalysis"
] | (Cunningham, 21/e, pp 227-229.) At every return OB visit, pregnant women should have evaluation of their blood pressure and weight. In addition, fetal hea tones should be checked and a urinalysis should be performed. Ultrasound for estimated fetal weight would only be recommended if fundal height measurements do not correspond with gestational age. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5271 | A 24 year old man presents with multiple small hypopigmented patches around hair follicles on upper chest and back. These macules were with fine scaling which coalesced later. He had received treatment 1 year back for the same type of lesion. Which of the following investigation should be done to diagnose this condition? | [
"KOH preparation of scales",
"Tzanck test",
"Slit Skin Smear",
"Skin biopsy of coalesced lesion"
] | The characteristic lesion seen in this patient is typical of tinea versicolor caused by a nondermatophyte, dimorphic fungus, Malassezia furfur. It is diagnosed by making a KOH preparation from scaling lesions which demonstrate a confluence of sho hyphae and round spores known as "spaghetti and meatballs" appearance. The typical lesion of tinea versicolor consists of oval scaly macules, papules, and patches concentrated on the chest, shoulders, and back, and rarely on the face or distal extremities. In patients with dark skin they are seen as hypopigmented areas, while on light skin, they are slightly erythematous or hyperpigmented. Ref: McCall C.O. (2012). Chapter 52. Eczema, Psoriasis, Cutaneous Infections, Acne, and Other Common Skin Disorders. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds),Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33488 | "Rising sun" appearance is seen in - | [
"ASOM",
"CSOM",
"Glomus tumor",
"Acoustic neuroma"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glomus tumor Clinical features of glomus, tu moro The earliest symptoms of glomus tumour is pulsatile tinnitus (earliest) and hearing loss. Hearing loss is conductive and slowly progressive. These are followed by blood stained otorrhoea and earache.o Before the tympanic membrane (eardrum) is perforated a red swelling is seen to arise from the floor of middle ear, i.e. "Rising sun" appearance. This results in a red reflex through the intact tympanic membrane. Sometimes, eardrum may be bluish and bulging.o Pulsation sign (Brown sign) is positive, i.e. when ear canal pressure is raised with Siegle's speculum, tumor pulsates vigorously and then blanches; reverse happens with release of pressure.o Aquino sign is positive, i.e. blanching of mass with manual compression of ipsilateral carotid artery.o When the tumour perforates the eardrum a polypus will be seen in the meatus and this will bleed profusely if touchedo Cranial nerve palsies is a late feature appearing several years after aural symptoms. IXth to XIIth cranial nerves may be paralysed. This can cause dysphagia and hoarseness, and weakness of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, unilateral paralysis of soft palate, pharynx and vocal cord.o Ausculation with stethoscope over the mastoid may reveal audible systolic bruit.o Some glomus tumours secrete catecholamines and produce symptoms like tachycardia, arrhythmias, sweating, flushing and headache etc.o Facial palsy may be caused by glomus tympanicum type of glomus tumor.o Audiometry shows conductive deafness, However if inner ear is invaded, mixed conductive and sensorineural hearing loss is seen. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8498 | The child , Copies circle at the age of _________ | [
"24 months",
"30 months",
"36 months",
"48 months"
] | Emerging patterns of Adaptive milestones from 1-5years of age 15months Makes a tower of 3 cubes Makes a line with a crayon Inses raisin in a bottle 18months Makes a tower of 4 cubes Imitates scribbling Imitates veical stroke Dumps raisin from a bottle 24months Makes a tower of 7 cubes (6 at 21 mo) Scribbles in a circular pattern Imitates horizontal stroke Folds paper once imitatively 30months Makes a tower of 9 cubes Makes veical and horizontal strokes, but generally will not join them to make cross Imitates circular stroke, forming a closed figure 36months Makes a tower of 10 cubes Imitates construction of "bridge" of 3 cubes Copies circle Imitates cross 48months Copies bridge from model Imitates construction of "gate" of 5 cubes Copies cross and square Draws man with 2-4 pas besides the head Identifies longer of 2 lines 60months Draws a triangle from copy Names heavier of 2 weights Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1686 | Gentian violet colouration of gram positive bacteria is due to - | [
"Peptidoglycan",
"Capsule",
"Cell membrane",
"None of the above"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Peptidoglycan GRAM STAININGo The gram stain differentiates bacteria into two broad groups1. Gram positive - Resist decolourization and retain primary stain, appear violet.2. Gram negative - Decolourised by organic solvents, and therefore, take the counterstain, appearing red.Smear stained with gentian violet (primary stain)|Application of dilute solution of iodine|Decolourisation with organic solvent, e.g., ethanol|Counterstaining by carbol fuchsin|||Retain primary stain (violet)|Gram positiveTake colour of counterstain (red)|Gram negativeWhy do gram-positive organisms retain primary stain, but not gram negative organisms.o In gram-positive bacteria there is a thick layer of peptidoglycan (ceil wall) just outside the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane.o This thick wall traps the primary stain (crystal violet) wrhich is not decolorised by ethanol,o In gram-negative bacteria this peptidoglycan (cell wall) layer is thin and just outside this peptidoglycan layer is outer cell membrane (which is not present in gram positive bacteria),o This outer cell membrane is partially dissolved by ethanol, thus washing out the crystal violet and allowing the counterstain to take. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5138 | McDonald stitch is applied in the following conditions except : | [
"Incompetent os",
"Septate uterus",
"Placenta pre",
"Bad obstetrical history"
] | Placenta pre | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50164 | Which of the following is not seen in a patient with bronchial asthma? | [
"Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum",
"Hyperplasia of submucosal glands",
"Smooth muscle atrophy",
"Viscid mucous plug"
] | In patient with bronchial asthma there is hyper responsive airway which leads to HYPEROPHY of smooth muscles - Microscopic changes in airway - AIR-WAY REMODELLING - Occlusion of bronchi and bronchioles by thick, tenacious mucus plugs, which often contain shed epithelium called Curschmann spirals. - Eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden crystals; composed of an eosinophil protein called galectin-10 are also present. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26397 | Viremia and the presence of rubella virus in the throat of infect persons bear which of the following relationships to the onset of the rube rash? | [
"They precede the rash by 5 to 7 days",
"They precede the rash by 1 to 2 days",
"They occur coincidentally with the rash",
"They occur 1 to 2 days after the rash"
] | Both viremia and the excretion of virus from the throats of persons infected with rubella occur 5 to 7 days before the appearance of the characteristic maculopapular rash. The importance of this relationship is that by the time a pregnant woman first notes the appearance of a rash on one of her children, she has already been exposed to the disease and may, in fact, be infected. If one member of a family develops rubella, all other members who are susceptible to the disease usually become infected. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9115 | Ewing's sarcoma peak incidence: | [
"1st decade",
"2nd decade",
"3rd decade",
"4th decade"
] | The most common bone tumor of 1st decade is Ewing's sarcoma. The most common bone tumor of 2nd decade is osteosarcoma. Both osteosarcoma and Ewing's sarcoma peak in 2nd decade (10-20 years of age). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41884 | Radiological features of the osteosarcoma -a) New bone formationb) Sun ray appearancec) Codman's triangled) Soap bubble appearancee) Onion pool appearance | [
"ab",
"bc",
"abc",
"bcd"
] | X-ray of a patient with osteosarcoma shows following features : -
1)An area of irregular destruction in the metaphysis, sometimes overshadowed by the new bone formation. The cortex overlying the lesion is eroded. There is new bone formation in the matrix of the tumour.
2)Periosteal reaction : - As the tumor lifts the periosteum, it incites an intense periosteal reaction. The periosteal reaction in an osteosarcoma is irregular, unlike in osteomyelitis where it is smooth and in layers.
3)Codman's triangle : - A triangular area of subperiosteal new bone is seen at the tumour host cortex junction at the ends of the tumor.
4)Sun-ray appearance :- As the periosteum is unable to contain the tumour, the tumour grows into the overlying soft tissues. New bone is laid down along the blood vessels within the tumour growing centrifugally, giving rise to a ‘sur-ray appearance' on the X-ray. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10591 | Ponsetti technique failure in children should be managed with | [
"Posteromedial soft tissue release",
"Anterolateral soft tissue release",
"Triple ahrodesis",
"Lateral closing wedge osteotomy of calcaneum"
] | Answer- A. Posteromedial soft tissue releaseIf treatment by manipulation and retention fails, operation should usually be undeaken before 9 months of age, mostly at 4- 6 months.The idea behind early operation is to set the tarsal bones in normal relationship to one another and to remove deforming forces, thus allowing the bones to develop in their normal shape from an early age. The procedure used is soft tissue release, i.e. postero-medial release (PMR). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10707 | Abnormality seen in ADHD is - | [
"Hyperactivity",
"Hallucinations",
"Delusion",
"All of the above"
] | Ans is 'a' i.e. Hyperactivity o Characteristic triad of Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder includei. Hyperactivity,ii. Impulsiveness andiii. Inattention (distractibility or lack of concentration). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51256 | A patient with AIDS had an acute episodes of diarrhea. The stool examination revealed an oval structure (8 to 9u in diameter) that was acid-fast and fluorescent blue under ultraviolet light. The most likely identification of this organism is? | [
"Cryptosporidium",
"Cyclospora",
"Enterocytozoon",
"Giardia"
] | Acid fast structures that autofluoresce under UV light suggests the coccidian protozoa as the cause of the diarrhea. The size of 8-9 microns helps to arrive at the answer of Cyclospora. =Cyclospora, Cystoisospora and Cryptosporidium are coccidian protozoa that cause oppounistic intestinal infections in HIV patients. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52914 | The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulse involved in lacrimation is: | [
"Chorda tympani nerve",
"Deep petrosal nerve",
"Greater petrosal nerve",
"Lesser petrosal nerve"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52436 | IUCD acts as contraceptive through all of the following mechanisms, except : | [
"Impairs implantation of blastocyst",
"Increases tubal motility",
"Inhibits ovulation",
"Releases prostaglandins"
] | Inhibits ovulation | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9807 | An endodontic reamer is least likely to fracture when inserted in a: | [
"Dry, clean canal",
"Wet, clean canal",
"Wet, debris laden canal",
"Dry, debris laden canal"
] | Irrigants perform physical and biologic functions. Dentin shavings get removed from canals by irrigation.
Thus, they do not get packed at the apex of root canal.
Instruments do not work properly in dry canals.
Their efficiency increases by use in wet canals.
Instruments are less likely to break when canal walls are lubricated with irrigation. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38329 | Relaxin during pregnancy is secreted by : | [
"Corpus luteum",
"Decidua",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | It is a peptide hormone structurally related to insulin. The main source of production is the corpus luteum of the ovary but pa of it may be also produced by the placenta and decidua. It has been claimed that relaxin relaxes myometrium, the symphysis and sacroiliac joints during pregnancy and also helps in cervical ripening by its biochemical effect. Reference:textbook of obstetric,Dutta,7nd edition,page no:68 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47645 | The strain which is used for production of BCG vaccine at commercial level is | [
"Danish-1331",
"Tween-80",
"Bacille Calmette Guerin",
"PPD-RT-23"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22747 | True about small cell lung cancer | [
"Bone marrow is uncommonly involved",
"Destruction of alveolar cells",
"Peripheral in location",
"All"
] | Small cell carcinoma is central or hilar in location .It is a highly malignant tumour characterised by the destruction of peribronchial tissue and alveoli.By hematogenous route,distant metastasis is very common to bone,brain,opposite lungs,liver,kidney,adrenals Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 614 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25118 | A female patient presents with reddish vagina and greenish vaginal discharge. What is the MOST probable diagnosis? | [
"Herpes infection",
"Trichomonas vagination",
"Gonococcal infection",
"Candidiasis"
] | This patient is showing features of trichomoniasis caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. Patients with this infection usually presents with malodorous vaginal discharge, vulvar erythema, itching, dysuria and dyspareunia. On examination there is presence of copious frothy yellowish or greenish discharge. There is inflammation of the vaginal walls and cervix with punctate hemorrhages. Diagnosis is typically made by identifying the organism in vaginal or urethral secretions. The treatment of choice is metronidazole or tinidazole. Ref: Rosenthal P.J. (2013). Chapter 35. Protozoal & Helminthic Infections | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26643 | A patient comes to the emergency depament with vomiting, diarrhea, lacrimation abdominal cramps, piloerection. The family members gave history of substance use for the past 1 month. The clinical presentation is due to | [
"opiod intoxication",
"opiod withdrawl",
"cocaine intoxication",
"cocaine withdrawl"
] | In opioid withdrawal ALL ORIFICES BLEED Lacrimation, vomiting, rhinorrhea, diarrhea, mydriasis, kicking the habit, muscle cramps, abdominal cramps, tachycardia, cold turkey Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.660 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38450 | Pathological changes occur in dengue haemorrhagic Fever ( DHF): | [
"Focal haemorrhages and congestion.",
"Coagulopathy with thrombocytopenia.",
"Haemoconcentration.",
"All of the above."
] | PATHOLOGIC CHANGES The predominant organ Changes in DHF are due to:
Focal haemorrhages and congestion;
Increased vascular permeability resulting in oedema in different organs;
Coagulopathy with thrombocytopenia; and
Haemoconcentration. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18622 | In ceramic restoration, which can be used | [
"1.23% APF",
"8% SnF2",
"6% SnF2",
"2% NaF"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8757 | An intern while doing venesection at lower limb could injure ? | [
"Sural nerve",
"Saphenous nerve",
"Common peroneal nerve",
"Tibial nerve"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Saphenous nerveVenesection of lower limb is usually done in great saphenous vein, which is accompanied by saphenous nerve. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39060 | Which of the following microorganisms are commonly present in large percentage of root canal treated teeth that present with persistent periradicular lesions indicative of failed treatment? | [
"Porphyromonasgingivalis",
"Tannerella forsythia",
"Dialisterinvisus",
"Enterococcus faecalis"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1753 | Rice watery stools are Characteristic of | [
"Staphylococus",
"Vibrio cholera",
"E.coli",
"Shigella"
] | About 50% of infections with classic V cholerae are asymptomatic, as are about 75% of infections with the El Tor biotype. The incubation period is 12 hours-3 days. There is a sudden onset of nausea and vomiting and profuse diarrhea with abdominal cramps. Stools, which resemble "rice water," contain mucus, epithelial cells, and large numbers of vibrios. There is a rapid loss of fluid and electrolytes, which leads to profound dehydration, circulatory collapse, and anuria. The moality rate without treatment is between 25% and 50%.Ref: Jawetz; 27th edition; Page no: 255 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35474 | Glucocorticoids act in inflammation by: | [
"↓Lipocortin",
"↑ IL-2",
"↑Lipocortin",
"↑ CRP"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35293 | The rate-limiting enzyme in the synthesis of dopamine is which of the following? | [
"Tyrosine hydroxylase",
"Dopa decarboxylase",
"Homovanillic acid",
"Dopamine beta-hydroxylase"
] | The first step in the chemical synthesis of dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine is the conversion of L-tyrosine to L-hydroxyphenylalanine, which is catalyzed by tyrosine hydroxylase. This is the rate-limiting step. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3519 | A 4.2 kgs baby born to uncontrolled diabetic mother. The following condition will not occur in the baby: | [
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hypoglycemia",
"Hyperbilirubinemia",
"Polycythaemia"
] | Ans. (A) HypercalcemiaNeonatal Complication :HypoglycaemiaRespiratorydistress syndromeHyperbilirubinemiaHypocalcemiaHypomagnesemia .PolycythemiaCardiomyopathy | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32388 | A female at 37 weeks of gestation has mild labour pains for 10 hours and cervix is pessistently 1 cm dilated but non effaced. What will be the next appropriate management? | [
"Sedation and wait",
"Augmentation with oxytocin",
"Cesarean section",
"Amniotomy"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2326 | Which of the following gland is known as a master of endocrine gland orchestra: | [
"Pituitary gland.",
"Hypothalamus",
"Thyroid gland.",
"Adrenal gland."
] | It is so called because, it controls thyroid, mammary glands, adrenal cortex and gonads etc. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15413 | All drugs are metabolized by acetylation EXCEPT: | [
"Phenytoin",
"Isoniazid",
"Procainamide",
"Hydralazine"
] | Ans. (a) PhenytoinRef. KDT 125; katzung 11th ed. /80ACETYLATION* Compounds having amino or hydralazine residues are conjugated with the help of N-Acetyl transferase enzyme.# If acetylation is slow- its toxic# Fast acetylation- not effective or effectiveness decreases# Normal acetylation- effective* These drugs are remembered as SHIP drugs:# Sulfonamides (dapsone)# Hydralazine (anti HTN)# Isoniazid (anti TB)# Procainamide (anti-arrhythmic)* NOTE- phenytoin is an anti epileptic drug, which is always confused with procainamide in SHIP drugs. Phenytoin doesn't come under SHIP drugs.* Phenytoin hydroxylation in liver is carried out by cytochrome P 450.* SHIP drugs causes SLE. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39902 | A 4 month old boy with fever and cough for 3 days. The child O/E has rhonchi; RR 48/min. no chest indrawing. Which of the following is false? | [
"Treatment for wheeze",
"Antibiotics should not be given",
"Child has pneumonia",
"Fever should be treated"
] | Ans. C. Child has pneumoniaBreathing difficulty can be a prominent sign of pneumonia. Up to 2 months, RR >60/min is considered as breathing difficulty. In age group 2-12 months, RR >50 is considered as breathing difficulty. So in 4 month old child, RR-48/min is not breathing difficulty or pneumonia | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48934 | Battle's sign is seen ina) Fracture middle cranial fossab) Fracture base of skullc) Fracture anterior cranial fossad) All of the above | [
"ac",
"a",
"ab",
"bc"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38670 | All of the following dietary goals are reeommended for patients with high riskof coronary hea disease, Except | [
"LDL choIesterol <100mg\\/dl",
"Saturated A < 7% of total calories",
"Salt restriction < 6 gm\\/day",
"Avoid Alcohol"
] | Ref: R.Alagappan Manual for Medicine 4th Edition pg no:182 Risk Factors Category I (For which interventions have been proved to lower CVD risks) 1. Raised LDL cholesterol 2. Reduced HDL cholesterol 3. Atherogenic diet 4. Cigarette smoking 5. Hypeension 6. LVH 7. Thrombogenic factors Category II (For which interventions are likely to lower CVD risks) 1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Physical inactivity 3. Increased triglycerides 4. Small dense LDL 5. Obesity Category III (Associated with increased CVD risk that, if modified, might lower risk) 1. Psychosocial factors 2. Increased Lipoprotein a (normal level--0-3 mg/dl) 3. Hyperhomocysteinemias 4. No alcohol consumption 5. Oxidative stress 6. Post-menopausal status Category IV (Associated with increased CVD risk which cannot be modified) 1. Age 2. Male gender 3. Low socio-economic status 4. Family history of early onset CVD | D | null |
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