dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_21369 | In strychnos nux vomica poisoning, patient: NEET 13 | [
"Becomes unconscious immediately",
"Becomes unconscious in 1 h or so",
"Becomes unconscious at end stage",
"Remains conscious throughout"
] | Ans. Remains conscious throughout | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36240 | Which one of the following is not a cause of vitamin B12 deficiency? | [
"Blind-loop syndrome.",
"Dietary deficiency.",
"Intrinsic factor deficiency.",
"Resection of ascending colon."
] | - Vit B12 is absorbed from ileum; hence resection of ascending colon has nothing to do with Vit B12 deficiency - Vit B12 deficiency is caused d/t: | Intake | Absorption - d/t decreased intrinsic factor, pancreatic & ileal diseases, fish tape worm infection | Requirement - as in children, pregnancy, lactation, blind loop syndrome | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53595 | A 12 year adolescent male presents with unilateral mass in nose with recurrent spontaneous bleeding. On examination a pink mass covered with mucosa is found in the nasopharynx. Which of the following is not to be done? | [
"Biopsy is done for diagnosis",
"CECT is done",
"Endoscopy surgery can be done",
"Angioembolization can be per- formed"
] | (a) Biopsy is done for diagnosisRef: Scott Brown, 7th ed., pg, 2438Juvenile Nasal AngiofibromaImportant points to note:* Sex incidence: Generally accepted as a tumor exclusively of males. If diagnosis is made in female, chromatin studies are indicated.* Age Incidence: Varies -7-19 yr with avg of 14 yr* Grossly: Well-circumscribed, lobulated purple red mass.* Covered by intact mucosa on their nasopharyngeal surface* Teenage or young adult male* Recurrent epistaxis&Nasal obstructionStaging system:Radkowski staging: (most universally accepted system)* Stage IA: limited to nose or nasopharynx* Stage IB: extension into at least one paranasal sinus* Stage IIA: minimal extension through thesphenopalatine foramen; includes a minimal part of themedial pterygomaxillary fossa* Stage IIB: full occupation of pterygomaxillary fossa with Holman-Miller sign (bowing of the posterior wall of themaxillary sinus on CT); lateral or anterior displacement of maxillary artery branches; may have superiorextension with orbital bone erosion* Stage IIC: extension through the pterygomaxillary fossa into the cheek, temporal fossa, or posterior to the pterygoids* Stage IIIA: skull-base erosion with minimal intracranialextension* Stage IIIB: skull-base erosion with extensive intracranialextension +- cavernous sinusIn the past, the exact nature of these tumours was suggested by the plain lateral skull radiographic appearance that would show anterior bowing of the posteriorwall of the maxillary sinus.Nowadays, thediagnosis is based on the CT and MR appearances that are sometimes confirmed by angiography.A trans-nasalbiopsy is not necessary and can provoke brisk haemorrhage.The exacc extent or stage of the tumour can only bedetermined by a combination of CT and MR imaging andthis is vital when planning the surgical resection.Juvenile angiofibromas present as well-defined, lobulatedtumours that are covered by nasopharyngeal mucosa. Thetumour consists of proliferating, irregular vascular channels within a fibrous stroma. Tumour blood vesselstypically lack smooth muscle and elastic fibres, this featurecontributing to its reputation for sustained bleeding. Thestromal compartment is made up of plump cells that canbe spindle or stellate in shape and give rise to varying amounts of collagen. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15333 | All the following are fishes used in biological control of vectors except | [
"Gambusia",
"Poccilla",
"Aplochelius",
"Coelomomyces"
] | Example of larvivorous fish (those that feed on immature stages of mosquitoes) are Gambusia, Poecilia, Aplochelius Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 773 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53837 | Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of:- | [
"Potency",
"Safety",
"Efficacy",
"All of these"
] | Therapeutic index (T.I) = LD 50 / ED 50 = Median lethal dose / Median effective dose Median lethal dose: dose at which 50% of animals die after receiving drug. Median effective dose: dose at which 50% of patient see effect after receiving the drug LD50 should be high, i.e. The drug should produce toxicity at high doses. (not at low dose) ED50 should be low, i.e. The drug should produce effects at even low dose (i.e. Potent) :- Ti l/e - Drug potency is a choosing factor in dose of drug & efficacy is for choice of drug. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44190 | Which of the following are lymphomas is associated with HTLV-I virus infection? | [
"Burkitt's lymphoma",
"B-cell lymphoma",
"Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma",
"Hodgkin's disease"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adult T cell leukemia and lymphoma VirusAssociated diseaseHTLV -1 virusAdult T cell lymphoma / leukemia (ATL)Tropical spastic paraparesis (HTLV associated myelopathy or HAM)HTLV - II virus- T cell variant of hairy cell leukemia (not yet conclusively established) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18682 | Pathognomonic of ectopic pregnancy is : | [
"Purple hemorrhagic pregnancy in lower vagina",
"Decidual casts",
"Chadwick sign",
"Postcoital hemorrhage"
] | Decidual casts | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44404 | Perinatal period is defined as - | [
"From 20 week of gestation to bih",
"From 28 week of gestation to bih",
"From 28 week of gestation to one week after bih",
"From bih to one month after bih"
] | Perinatal period is defined as from 28 week of gestation to one week after bih. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 519 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46373 | Nerve supply to the perineum is - | [
"Pudendal nerve",
"Inferior rectal nerve",
"Pelvic splanchnic nerves",
"Hypogastric plexus"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pudendal nerve o Pudendal nerve arises from S2S3S4 and is a mixed nerve (motor + sensory).o It enters the gluteal region through greater sciatic notch and leaves it through lesser sciatic notch to enter pudendal canal.o Pudendal nerve is the chief nerve of perineum and external genitalia. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35331 | A male 45 years old presents to the dental clinic with pain in lower back tooth region. Intraoral examination reveals carious 36. Root canal treatment done and metal ceramic crown has to be placed. Dentist makes an impression. All of the following are the properties of the material except: | [
"Sufficiently fluid to adapt to the oral tissues",
"Viscous enough to be contained in a tray",
"Undergoes distortion or tearing when removed from the mouth",
"Biocompatible"
] | To produce accurate replicas of intra- and extraoral tissues, the impression materials should be:
Sufficiently fluid to adapt to the oral tissues.
Viscous enough to be contained in a tray.
Able to transform (set) into a rubbery or rigid solid in the mouth in a reasonable time (less than 7 min).
Resistant to distortion or tearing when removed from the mouth.
Dimensionally stable long enough to allow one or more casts to be poured.
Biocompatible.
Cost-effective in terms of time as well as the expense of the associated processing equipment.
Key Concept:
The impression material should be resistant to distortion or tearing when removed from the mouth.
Reference: Phillips’ science of dental materials / Kenneth J. Anusavice, Chiayi Shen, H. Ralph Rawls.—12th ed.Page no 152 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6355 | An ideal subcenter for a rural population should cater a population of- | [
"1000",
"2000",
"5000",
"10000"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5000 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46627 | Soiling index is used for Quaity assessment of:- | [
"Water",
"Air",
"Soil",
"Noise"
] | AIR POLLUTION INDICATORS; CO2, CO, SO2, NO2, Air pollution index Soiling index Coefficient of haze SPM Overall best air pollution indicator/ Overall best chemical indicator is SO2. Best biological indicator of air pollution - LICHENS. Air pollution monitoring - CPCB.(Central pollution control board) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19190 | Niemann Pick disease is due to deficiency of | [
"Galactokinase",
"Galactosidase",
"Sphingomyelinase",
"Hexosaminidase A"
] | (C) Sphinomyelinase EXAMPLES OF SPHINGOLIPIDOSESDiseaseEnzymeDeficiencyLipid AccumulatingClinical SymptomsTay-Sachs diseaseHexosaminidase ACer--Glc--Gal(NeuAc) / GalNAcMental retardation, blindness, muscular weakness. GM2 Ganglioside Fabry's diseasea-GalactosidaseCer--Glc--GalGalSkin rash, kidney failure (full symptoms only in Globotriaosylceramidemales; X-linked recessive).MetachromaticleukodystrophyArylsulfatase ACer--Gal/OSO3Mental retardation and psychologic disturbances in adults; demyelination. 3-SulfogalactosylceramideKrabbe's diseaseb-GalactosidaseCer/ GalMental retardation; myelin almost absent. Galactosylceramide Gaucher's diseaseb-GlucosidaseCer/ GlcEnlarged liver and spleen, erosion of long bones, Glucosylceramidemental retardation in infants.Niemann-Pick diseaseSphingomyelinaseCer/ P--cholineSphingomyelinEnlarged liver and spleen, mental retardation; fatal in early life.Farber's diseaseCeramidaseAcyl/SphingosineHoarseness, dermatitis, skeletal deformation, mental retardation; fatal in early life. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34193 | Blood gas analysis in type I respiratory failure shows - | [
"↑pCO2↓pO2",
"(N) pCO2 .↓pO2",
"↓pCO2 .↓pO2",
"All are the false"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19533 | Suprarenal gland develops from ? | [
"Metanephros",
"Ureteric bud",
"Neural crest",
"Endodern"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neural crest Suprarenal (adrenal) gland consists two pa : i) Superficial coex : Derived from coelomic epithelium (mesodermal). ii) Deepar medulla : Derived from neural crest (ectodermal). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7292 | Anorectal anomalies are commonly associated with | [
"Cardiac anomalies",
"Duodenal atresia",
"CNS malformations",
"Abdominal wall defects"
] | Anorectal anomalies are commonly associated with Cardiac anomalies .Early in embryonic life there is a common chamber - the cloaca - into which the hind gut and the allantois open. This endodermlined chamber is separated from the surface ectoderm of the embryo by the cloacal membrane. The cloaca becomes divided into two pas, dorsal (rectum) and ventral (urogenital sinus), by the downgrowth of a septum. Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1244 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_791 | Study of designing equipment and devices that fit the human body., its movements, and its cognitive abilities is? | [
"Economics",
"Ergonomics",
"Bionomics",
"Socionomics"
] | Ans. is b i.e., Ergonomics o Ergonomics is the scientific discipline that seeks to understand and improve human interactions with products. equipment, environments and system. o It simply means "fitting the job to the worker". | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29604 | The following substance acts as a 'satiety signal' for lipids | [
"Apo-A",
"HCL",
"Fastrine",
"Enterostatin"
] | Enterostatin, a peptide that selectively reduces fat intake. It is formed in the intestine by the cleavage of secreted pancreatic procolipase, the remaining colipase serving as an obligatory cofactor for pancreatic lipase during fat digestion. After feeding, enterostatin appears in the lymph and circulation. Enterostatin will selectively inhibit fat intake during normal feeding and in experimental paradigms that involve dietary choice. Both peripheral and central sites of action have been proposed. The peripheral mechanism involves an afferent vagal signaling pathway to hypothalamic centers. The central responses are mediated through a pathway that includes both serotonergic and opioidergic components. Chronically, enterostatin reduces fat intake, body weight, and body fat. This response may involve multiple metabolic effects of enterostatin, which include a reduction of insulin secretion, an increase in sympathetic drive to brown adipose tissue, and the stimulation of adrenal coicosteroid secretionReference: Enterostatin-a peptide regulating fat intake; Erlanson-Albesson C, York D; Obes Res.1997 Jul;5(4):360-72 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11451 | The main clinical significance of sliding type hiatus hernia is: | [
"Propensity for GERD",
"High risk of barrett's esophagus",
"High chance for dieulafoy's lesion",
"Dysphagia is common"
] | Four types of hiatus hernia are present. Type I, or sliding hiatal hernia comprising at least 95% of total. Pathology is the weakening of the phrenoesophageal ligament attaching the gastroesophageal junction to the diaphragm at the hiatus. Incidence of sliding hernias increases with Age and conceptually, results from wear and tear Intraabdominal pressure Hereditary factors The main significance of sliding hernias is the propensity of affected individuals to have GERD. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P- 2429 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33339 | Which of the following is related to mediastinal pa of right lung ? | [
"Arch of aoa",
"SVC",
"Pulmonary trunk",
"Left ventricle"
] | Ans. is "b.'' i.e., SVC | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5456 | Role of laparoscopy in the diagnosis and treatment of endometriosis, all are true EXCEPT? | [
"Diagnosis of peritoneal endometriosis",
"Management of ovarian endometrioma",
"Differentiating chocolate cyst from hemorrhagic corpus luteal cyst",
"Staging of endometriosis"
] | Role of laparoscopy in endometriosis To detect and diagnose pelvic endometriosis Locate site of endometriosis Staging To take biopsy Surgical treatment by ablation and removal A chocolate ovarian cyst looks similar to a hemorrhagic follicular cyst, corpus luteoma or even a hemorrhagic cystadenoma. Differentiating between these requires histopathological confirmation | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20455 | A patient has hyperphosphatemia with short metacarpals and associated cataract. The diagnosis is - | [
"Pseudohypoparathyroidism",
"Hypophosphatasia",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Osteomalacia"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17362 | Symptom of hypoglyemia is - | [
"Sweating",
"Bradycardia",
"Chest pain",
"Breathlessness"
] | Ref - Davidsons 23e p739 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51657 | Twin peak sign on obstetric ultrasound indicates the presence of | [
"Dichorionic twins",
"Monochorionic twins",
"Conjoined twins",
"Parasitic twins"
] | (A) Dichorionic twins# TWIN PEAK SIGN indicates the presence of a dichorionic-diamniotic twin gestation. It represents the extension of placental villi into the potential space that is formed from the reflection of apposed amniotic and chorionic layers from each fetus.> By performing an obstetric ultrasound at a gestational age of 10-14 weeks, monochorionic-diamniotic twins are discerned from dichorionic twins.> Presence of a "T-sign" at the inter-twin membrane-placental junction is indicative of monochorionic-diamniotic twins (that is, the junction between the inter-twin membrane and the external rim forms a right angle), whereas dichorionic twins present with a "lambda (I) sign" (that is, the chorion forms a wedge-shaped protrusion into the inter- twin space, creating a rather curved junction).> "Lambda sign" is also called the "twin peak sign". At ultrasound at a gestational age of 16-20 weeks, the "lambda sign" is indicative of dichorionicity but its absence does not exclude it. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27408 | The major lipid of the lipoproteins is: | [
"Oleic acid",
"Palmitic acid",
"Linoleic acid",
"Arachidonic acid"
] | Arachidonic acid | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36223 | The Pearl index indicates the number of accidental pregnancies per - | [
"1000 population",
"100 live births",
"100 women in the age group of 15 to 44 years",
"100 women years"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41117 | The most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula is | [
"Esophageal atresia with out tracheosophageal fistula",
"Esophageal atresia with proximal tracheosophageal fistula",
"Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula",
"Esophageal atresia with proximal and distal tracheosophageal fistula"
] | The most common type of TRACHEO-OESOPHAGEAL FISTULA(TOF) is Atresia with distal TOF constituting 85% of all. It is also known as type C according to Gross classification of TOF. Reference : SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 794. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20128 | Kartagener syndrome includes all of the following except: | [
"Dysphagia",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Sinusitis",
"Dextrocardia"
] | a. Dysphagia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2113-2116)Kartagener syndrome includes situs inversus, chronic sinusitis and otitis, and airway disease leading to bronchiectasis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19129 | Mental Health Act was passed in - | [
"1982",
"1987",
"1971",
"1950"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1987 o The Mental Health Act was passed on 22nd May, 1987. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28788 | Tinel sign is used for depecting ? | [
"To assess the severity of damage of nerve",
"To classify the type of nerve injury",
"To locate the site of nerve injury",
"To assess the recovery"
] | Tinel&;s sign is an impoant sign ,which helps in recording the rate of regeneration of nerve clinically . Procedure: gentle percussion is done along the course of injured nerve . Tingling sensation is experienced by the patient in the distribution of injured nerve rather than the area percussed , & the sensation should persist for several seconds following the stimulation .Positive tinel&;s sign indicate regenerating axonal sprouts have not obtained myelinization .Response fades as myelinization take place . Distal progression of response & rate of progression have been used by some to establish the prognosis ( rate of recovery should be 3cm / month) Presence of this sign is encouraging . Even a few regenerating sensory fibres can result in positive tinel&;s sign . REF:textbook of ohopedics, John ebenezer,4th edition, pg .no. 333 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47289 | There has been an outbreak of food born salmonella gastroenteritis in the community and the stool samples have been received in the laboratory. Which is the enrichment medium of choice- | [
"Cary Blair medium",
"V R medium",
"Selenite",
"Thioglycolate medium"
] | Outbreak of food born salmonella gastroenteritis
For the stool culture, 1st it has to be processed in an enrichment medium followed by streaking in a selective media.
Enrichment medium for Salmonella: Tetrathionate broth, Selenite F broth, Gram-negative broth | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27404 | The test in which weight of lungs is compared with body weight is /are: | [
"Fodere's Test",
"Ploucquet's Test",
"Raygat's Test",
"Wredin Test/Cavette test"
] | B i.e. Ploucquet's test Weight of lung is measured in Fodere's test, where weight of lung is compared with body weightQ in Ploucquet's test. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14701 | All are features of lepromatous leprosy except | [
"Saddle nose",
"Ulcus serpens",
"Gynecomastia",
"Madarosis"
] | Features of lepromatous leprosy bilaterally symmetrical lesion - macules papules,plaques,nodules or nerves glove and stocking aneathesia madarosis-loss of eyebrows and eyelashes leonine fancies nodular lesions over nose and hard palate ,tongue. nasal stuffiness and epistaxis saddle nose autoamputation of fingersand toes septal perforation stridor hoarseness of voice gynecomastia all the features are present except Lucius Serpens in lepromatous leprosy iadvl textbook of dermatology, page 2042 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9673 | Contra-Indications of phenytoin | [
"Hirsutism",
"Hepatotoxicity",
"Osteomalacia",
"All the above"
] | Phenytoin ADRs-hirsutism,gingival hyperplasia,hemolysis-Megaloblastic anemia (folic acid def),hepatotoxic,osteomalacia,hypersensitivity,hyperglycemia,lymphadenopathy-pseudolymphoma Fetal hydantoin syndrome-cleft lip, cleft palate, microcephaly. Rerf: KD TTripathi 8th ed. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4501 | Which is not a poxvirus- | [
"Vaccinia virus",
"Molluscum contagiosum",
"Tanapox virus",
"Coxsackie virus"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Coxsackie virus o Poxviruses are the largest viruses with largest genome. o Poxviridae has been classified into two subfamilies -i) Chordopoxvirinae: Poxviruses of vertebrates.ii) Entomopoxvirinae: Poxviruses of insects which do not infect vertebrates, o Chordopoxvirinae are classified into six genera or subgroups -i) Orthopoxvirus: These are mammalian poxviruses that tend to cause generalized infection with rash. Exmples are variola (smallpox virus), vaccinia, cowpox, monnkeypox, rabbitpox, buffalopox, camelpox, mousepox.ii) Parapoxvirus: Viruses of ungulates that may occasionally infact human, eg. Orf (contagious pustular dermatitis) and paravaccinia (milker's node, bovine pupular stomatitis).iii) Copripoxvirus: Viruses of goat and sheeps, eg. sheep-pox, goatpox, lumpy skin disease.iv) Leporipox virus: Viruses of of leporids (rabbits, hares, squirrels), e.g. myxoma and fibromas.v) Avipoxvirus: Virus of birds, eg. fowlpox, turkeypox, pigeonpox, canarypox.vi) Suipoxvirus: Virus of swine, eg. swinepox. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16006 | In Galen's anastomosis, superior laryngeal nerve pierces inferior constrictor of pharynx and unites with | [
"Superior laryngeal nerve of opposite side",
"Descending branch of RLN",
"Ascending branch of RLN",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve"
] | GALEN'S ANASTOMOSIS: Superior laryngeal nerve ends by piercing inferior constrictor of pharynx and unites with ascending branch of recurrent laryngeal nerve. This is called as Galen's anastomosis & is purely sensory. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22935 | An elderly woman suffering from Schizophrenia is on antipsychotic medication. She developed purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of cheeks. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be involved in this side effect? | [
"Haloperidol",
"Clozapine",
"Fluphenazine",
"Loxapine"
] | The history here is suggestive of tardive dyskinesia. TARDIVE DYSKINESIA It is an EPSE of the antipsychotics Occurs months to years after staing antipsychotics Signs and symptoms: Lip smacking or chewing Tongue protrusion Choreiform hand movements Pelvic thrusting Prevalance: 5% of patients per year of antipsychotic exposure Risk factors: elderly females those with affective illness i.e., Bipolar disorder > Schizophrenia those who have had acute EPS early in treatment Clozapine is least likely associated with Tardive dyskinesia booster: Tardive dyskinesia is caused by supersensitivity of dopamine receptors. It can be treated with dopamine depletors like tetrabenazine. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1441 | An infected pancreatic necrosis is treated with | [
"iv Antibiotics",
"Laprotomy and surgical debridement",
"Ultrasound guided drainage",
"TPN"
] | Answer- B. Laprotomy and surgical debridementTreatmentAn infected pancreatic necrosis is managed by laparotomy and surgical ilebridement of the necrotic tissue.Whereas pancreatic abscess are t/t by external drainage.Sterile necrotic pancreatitis is managed conservatively | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32441 | 73. According to the "rule of nine" in burns, what is the percentage of burns if both the upper limbs and lower limbs are involved? | [
"24%",
"6%",
"54%",
"72%"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51811 | Microcornea is defined as: | [
"< 10 mm corneal diameter at bih",
"<13 mm corneal diameter at bih",
"< 10 mm axial length at bih",
"< 20 mm axial length at bih"
] | Microcornea < 10 mm corneal diameter at bih. Megalocornea > 13 mm after 2 yr of age or >11.7 mm before 2 yr of age. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1619 | A 45-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. A hysterectomy is performed and shows a benign tumor of the uterus derived from a smooth muscle cell. What is the appropriate diagnosis? | [
"Angiomyolipoma",
"Leiomyoma",
"Leiomyosarcoma",
"Myxoma"
] | Leiomyoma is the most common benign tumor of the uterus, usually arising in women of reproductive age. It originates from smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. None of the other choices are benign tumors of smooth muscle.Diagnosis: Leiomyoma of uterus | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54835 | Acute liver failure is caused by A/E- | [
"Hepatitis A",
"Hepatitis B",
"Hepatitis E",
"Hepatitis C"
] | The imp pa of type C hepatitis is the chronic illness. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 8TH EDITION PAGE NO-548 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1045 | Spindle Cell Carinoma is a variant of | [
"Pleomorphic Adenoma",
"Adenoid cystic carcinoma",
"Basal cell carcinoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4539 | Period of adolescent growth in boys is: | [
"3 years",
"3.5 years",
"4 years",
"5 years"
] | Key Concept:
The stages of sexual development in boys are more difficult to specifically define than in girls. Puberty begins later and extends over a longer period-about 5 years compared with 3 1/2 years for girls.
Adolescent Growth Stages Versus Secondary Sexual Characteristics:
Girls:
Total Duration of Adolescent Growth: 3 ½ years
Stage 1
Beginning of adolescent growth
Appearance of breast buds, initial pubic hair.
Stage 2 (About 12 months later)
Peak velocity in height
Noticeable breast development, axillary hair, darker and more abundant pubic hair.
Stage 3 (12-18 months later)
Growth spurt ending
Menses, broadening of hips with adult fat distribution, breasts completed.
Boys:
Total Duration of Adolescent Growth: 5 years
Stage 1
Beginning of adolescent growth
“Fat spurt” weight gain, feminine fat distribution.
Stage 2 (About 12 months later)
Height spurt beginning
Redistribution and reduction in fat, pubic hair, growth of penis.
Stage 3 (8-12 months later)
Peak velocity in height
Facial hair appears on upper lip only, axillary hair, muscular growth with harder, more angular body form.
Stage 4 (15-24 months later)
Growth spurt ending
Facial hair on chin and lip, adult distribution and color of public and axillary hair, adult body form.
Ref: Contemporary orthodontics Proffit 6th ed page 150 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51472 | A grand multipara is a women who has given bih to bihs: | [
">2",
">3",
">4",
">=5"
] | Grand multigravida - >= 5 times pregnant Problems related : Malpresentation Meconium stained liquor Placenta pre Abruption ' PPH Umbilical cord prolapse Low apgar score | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39635 | A person gets infected in a hospital and clinical manifestation appear after he is discharged this is called - | [
"Nosocomial infection",
"Opportunistic infection",
"Epizootic infection",
"Physician induced"
] | The term hospital infection, hospital - acquired infection or nosocomial infection are applied to infections developing in hospitalized patients, not present or in incubation at the time of their admission.
Such infections may become evident during their stay in hospital or, sometimes, only after their discharge. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27564 | Heavy smoker for elective hernia repair, Smoking should be stopped before how much period | [
"4 days",
"10 days",
"3-4 week",
"6-8 week"
] | Cessation of smoking : 12hrs : reduces CO-Hb,hence increases oxygen carrying capacity 2days : CVS : aboloshes nicotine effect on sympathetic system stimulation, hence HR & BP normalises RS : Improves mucociliary function 2weeks : Sputum volume is reduced 2months : Relieves bronchospasm,decreases bronchial secretions,Chronic broncitis is reduced,Improves lung function,immune function returns to normal,hepatic enzymes returns to normal. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_860 | Which of the following predisposes to testicular germ cell tumors? | [
"Kleinfelter syndrome",
"Testicular carcinoma in sibling",
"Cryptorchidism",
"All the above"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above * Predisposing factors for testicular Germ Cell Tumors are:a) Cryptorchidismb) Testicular feminization syndromec) GCT of one testis is a risk factor for the other testisd) Testicular Ca in a siblinge) Klienfelter syndrome - is associated with mediastinal GCTf) Administration of estrogens (eg DES) to the mother during pregnancy is associated with increased incidence of testicular Ca in male offspring. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28108 | Progesterone is added to estrogen HRT in - | [
"Post menopausal lady with uterus",
"TFS/AIS syndrome",
"Post menopausal patient after hysterectomy",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Post menopausal lady with uterus * Based on the results of Women's Health Initiative (WHI) trial, the following are now the accepted indications for HRT:1) Menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, vaginal dryness, mood swings, irritability, etc2) Prevention and treatment of osteoporosis3) Decreased libidoEstrogen (E) and progesterone (P) combination:* As unopposed estrogen is a risk factor for endometrial hyperplasia and cancer; in women with intact uterus both E + P should be given. In hysterectomized women, only E can be given.* The most commonly prescribed oral estrogen is conjugated equine estrogen (CEE).* The most common progestin is medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA).* Options B & C do not have a uterus & hence progesterone is not needed. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12913 | A 30-year-old male had severely itchy papulo–vesicular lesions on extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for one year. Immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermo-epidermal junction. The most probable diagnosis is – | [
"Pemphigus vulgaris",
"Bullous pemphigoid",
"Dermatitis herpetiforms",
"Nummular eczema"
] | Itchy papulovesicular lesions on extensor surfaces and deposition of IgA at DEJ suggests the diagnosis of dermatitis herpatiformis, which is associated with Coeliac disease | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47681 | All of the following are the Sporicidal agents among the following except - | [
"Bleaching powder and ethylene oxide",
"Ethyl and isopropyl alcohol",
"Iodine and chlorine compounds",
"Hydrogen peroxide and bleaching powder"
] | Ethyl and isopropyl alcohol are potent bactericidal, fungicidal, virucidal and tuberculocidal, but does not destroy bacterialspores . Chlorine and chlorine compounds : They are potent bactericidal, fungicidal, sporicidal, tuberculocidal and virucidal. Iodine is bactericidal, fungicidal, virucidal and lethal to spore-bearing organisms. Hydrogen peroxide is bactericidal, virucidal, sporicidal and fungicidal. Ethylene oxide which kills bacteria, spores and viruses. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47947 | Crown Height Space (CHS) for implant dentistry is measure from | [
"prosthetic platform",
"junctional epithelium",
"crest of the bone",
"gingival margin"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12187 | Most appropriate management of advanced stage rectal carcinoma | [
"Anterior resection",
"Abdominoperineal resection",
"Proximal colostomy",
"Ileostomy"
] | (B) Abdominoperineal resection # 'RECTAL CARCINOMA' located at 5 cm from the anal verge lies in the lower rectum.> Considering the conventional methods of treatments Anterior resection is possible for tumors of upper 2/3rd of rectum Abdominoperineal resection is indicated for tumors of lower 1/3rd of rectum> General site specific plan> Upper Rectum (> 11 cm) Anterior Resection , Mid Rectum (6-11 cm) Low Anterior resection , Lower Rectum (< 6 cm) Abdominal- perineal resection> Note: Length of rectum is about 12 to 15 cm and the anal canal is about 4 cm, any tumor 5 cm from anal verge would thus lie at lower rectum.> General considerations for tumors in lower Rectum: Abdominoperineal Resection (APR) is the gold standard for the treatment of distal rectal cancer. 'APR' involves complete excision of rectum and anus, by concomitant dissection through abdomen and perineum, with permanent closure of perineal rafe and creation of an end colostomy. The most significant disadvantage of this procedure is that it sacrifices the sphincter mechanism and hence now focus is shifting towards a number of sphincter sparing procedures.> It is important however to note here that the information provided is too limited to comment upon the possibility of performing sphincter saving procedures such as local resection or a posterior proctotomy.> Sphincter sparing procedures may be carried out for Young patients who have a favourable body habitus Patients with good preoperative sphincter function Lack of sphincter involvement by tumor Limited extension of tumor into rectal wall (T1 or T2 lesions) Low grade tumors> Sphincter sparing procedures include: Colonal anastomosis Local excision Transanal excision Trans sphincteric excision Posterior proctotomy (Kraske procedure) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25142 | Present "General feility rates" ? | [
"84",
"118",
"128",
"138"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 84 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15765 | High spinal anaesthesia is characterized by: | [
"Hypertension, tachycardia",
"Hypertension, bradycardia",
"Hypotension, tachycardia",
"Hypotension, bradycardia"
] | Ans. (d) Hypotension, bradycardiaRef : KDT 6th ed. / 360Systemic Effects (Physiological Alterations) of Central Neu- ralxial BlocksCARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEMThe most prominent effect is hypotension which is because of the following factors:* Venodilatation which is because of sympathetic block which maintains the venous tone.* Dilatation of post arteriolar capillaries which is again because of loss of sympathetic tone.* Decreased cardiac output which is because of:# Decreased venous return: Due to blood pooling in veins of lower limb and lower abdomen.# Bradycardia: Bradycardia can occur as a result of: Decreased atrial pressure because of decrease venous return (Bainbridge reflex) and Direct inhibition of cardioaccelerator fibres (T1 to T4).* Paralysis of nerve supply to adrenal glands with consequently decreased catecholamine release.* Direct absorption of drug into systemic circulation.* Compression of inferior vena cava and aorta by pregnant uterus, abdominal tumors (supine hypotension syndrome).NERVOUS SYSTEM* Autonomic fibres (mediated by C fibres) are most sensitive and they are blocked earliest followed by sensory and then motor fibres. So, sequence of block is Autonomic - Sensory - Motor. The recovery occurs in reverse order although number of studies have suggested return of autonomic activity before sensory. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24738 | Which is the most common type of primary CNS lymphoma in AIDS Positive patients? | [
"Centroblastic large cell lymphoma",
"Immunoblastic Large cell lymphoma",
"Anaplastic B- Cell Lymphoma",
"Lymphoplasmacytic Lymphoma"
] | Primary CNS lymphoma -Immunocompetent patients is diffuse large B cell Lymphoma(DLBCL) -Immune deficient patients with HIV infected or organ transplant recipients on immunosuppression is Immunoblastic Large cell lymphoma(ILCL) Immunoblastic lymphoma is one of 3 morphologic variants of diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL): Centroblastic lymphoma Anaplastic B-cell lymphoma. Immunoblastic Large cell lymphoma | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39683 | Aldosterone antagonists are not useful in the treatment of : | [
"Hypertension",
"Congestive heart failure",
"Gynaecomastia",
"Hirsutism"
] | Aldosterone antagonists cause gynaecomastia as an adverse effect. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38396 | which of the following is false regarding SPARE RECEPTOR ? | [
"they are needed for binding drug to achieve the maximum effect",
"they respond to agonists only",
"they do not alter maximal efficacy",
"can be detected by finding that EC 50 < Kd for the agonist"
] | SPARE RECEPTORS they are NOT needed for binding drug to achieve the maximum effect they respond to agonists only they do not alter maximal efficacy can be detected by finding that EC 50 < Kd for the agonist REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42282 | The formation of primordial follicles in human fetus is completed by : | [
"4 weeks",
"8 weeks",
"13 weeks",
"18 weeks"
] | 18 weeks | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4775 | Deficiency of which vitamin causes glossitis, dementia, roughed keratotic areas on skin and gastrointestinal symptoms? | [
"Riboflavin",
"Pyridoxine",
"Niacin",
"Pantothenic acid"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18453 | Bulbourethral glands open into which pa of the urethra | [
"Membranous",
"Spongy",
"Prostatic",
"Intramural"
] | Bulbourethral glands are located posterior and lateral to the membranous poion of the urethra at the base of the penis, between the two layers of the fascia of the urogenital diaphragm, in the deep perineal pouch. They are enclosed by transverse fibers of the sphincter urethrae membranaceae muscle. Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg376 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6314 | Feature of scurvy in children include: | [
"Bleeding gums",
"Tibial edema",
"Costochondral junctions become angular",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. D. All of the aboveThere may be extreme pain and tenderness in extremities which affected children keeping their limbs in frog legged position, The body is both wasted and edematous, and petechiae and ecchymoses are commonly present. Hyperkeratosis, corkscrew hair, and sicca syndrome are known. Ocular features include those of Sjogren syndrome, subconjunctival hemorrhage, and bleeding within the optic nerve sheath. Perifollicular hyperkeratotic papules, perifollicular hemorrhages, purpura, and ecchymoses are seen most commonly on the legs and buttocks. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48868 | A biopsy taken from a granulomatous lesion of nose revealed Mikulicz's cells and eosinophilic structures in the cytoplasm of the plasma cells, the likely diagnosis is: | [
"Mucormycosis",
"Rhinosporidiosis",
"Rhinoscleroma",
"Nasal leprosy"
] | Mikulicz's cells are foamy histiocytes teaming with gram-negative coccobacilli in the cytoplasm.Eosinophilic structures seen in the cytoplasm of plasma cells are called Russell bodies. Both these structures are characteristics of rhinoscleroma. Diagnosis of rhinoscleroma is made on biopsy and culture of tissues for causative bacilli. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8011 | A viral infection causes damage to both hippocampi in a patient. This damage would cause the patient to exhibit functional deficits in | [
"Recalling an old declarative memory",
"Recalling an old procedural memory",
"Forming a new sho-term memory",
"Forming a new long-term memory"
] | The hippocampus is crucial for the formation of long-term (declarative) memory. Without the hippocampus, sho-term memory is intact but the conversion to long-term does not take place.The retrieval of stored declarative memory does not require the hippocampus. The hippocampus is not needed for the retrieval of procedural memory.Ref: Guyton; 13th edition | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24665 | Vision 2020 "The right to sight" includes all except – | [
"Trachoma",
"Epidemic conjunctivitis",
"Cataract",
"Onchocerciasis"
] | Vision 2020 : The Right to Sight : Global Initiative for Elimination of Avoidable blindness
After the realization that unless blindness control efforts are intensified, the prevalence of blindness will double by 2020 AD, the WHO along with an International Partnership committee launched the Vision 2020 Initiative in 1995.
Three essential elements of a global plan were set out as follows.
Setting up strategies and targets for disease control.
Planning human resource needs and development.
Addressing infrastructure needs and development.
Under the global initiative for the elimination of all avoidable blindness by 2020 AD, all countries are commited to a minimum programme. Countries can include other problems than those identified under the minimum programme based on their local situation and needs.
The diseases identified for global elimination include : -
Cataract blindness
Trachoma blindness and transmission
Onchorerciasis
Avoidable causes of childhood blindness
Refractive errors and low vision
Targets have been set up for each of the component diseases for the next 20 years.
Above 5 diseases were for global vision 2020. Indian vision 2020 includes following seven diseases.
Cataract blindness
Trachoma blindness and transmission
Childhood blindness
Refractive errors and low vision
Glaucoma
Diabetic retinopathy
Corneal blindness | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_632 | Drug used for post-operative shivering - | [
"Atropine",
"Pethidine",
"Thiopenone",
"Suxamethonium"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pethidine Post-anaesthesia shivering (PAS)o Post anaesthesia (post operative) shivering occurs in 40% of patients recovering from general anaesthesia,o Some time it is preceded by central hypothermia and peripheral vasoconstriction, indicating that it is a thermoregulatory mechanism.o Pethidine is most effective drug for treatment of PAS.o Other drugs used are -clonidine, doxapram, ketanserin, alfentonil, butorphanol, chlorpromazine. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_505 | Fracture of the proximal humerus in an elderly patient is best treated by | [
"K-wire fixation",
"Open reduction internal fixation",
"Cuff and sling only",
"Manual reduction and Slab application"
] | (Refer: Watson Jones Textbook of Ohopedics & Trauma, 6thedition,pg no: 536-538) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23808 | Which of the following statements best describes long-acting nitrate preparations? | [
"Tolerance often develops",
"Their effect can be blocked by high doses of beta selective inhibitors",
"Trasdermal patches are more likely to be associated with headaches than are sublingual nitrates",
"Oral preparations are more effective than sublingual ones"
] | Nitrates are generalized smooth-muscle dilators whose direct effect on the vasculature cannot be blocked by any currently available agents. Long-acting preparations of nitroglycerin may be completely degraded by the liver in some patients and thus are generally less effective than sublingual forms. Because individual variability in metabolism is considerable, doses should be titrated against side effects and should not conform to a rigidly standardized regimen. Tolerance is common and must be considered if a patient fails to respond to a previously efficacious dose. Long-acting preparations such as transdermal patches are less likely to produce the nitrate-associated side effects of headaches and dizziness that are the more rapidly acting sublingual forms. Ref: katzung 12th ed. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23833 | Strongest flexor of the hip joint is: | [
"Saorius",
"Gluteus maximus",
"Iliopsoas",
"Pectineus"
] | Iliopsoas is the chief Flexor at hip joint, assisted by Saorius and Pectineus as the accessory muscles. Gluteus Maximus is the chief Extensor at hip joint, assisted by hamstrings as the accessory muscles. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7513 | In hydatidiform mole, blood cells does not develop because of defect in | [
"Primary ectoderm",
"Mesoderm",
"Endoderm",
"Trophoblast"
] | As organs form, a process called organogenesis, mesoderm interacts with endoderm and ectoderm to give rise to the digestive tract, the hea and skeletal muscles, red blood cells, and the tubules of the kidneys, as well as a type of connective tissue called mesenchyme. Ref:Human embryology Inderber singh | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54771 | 17 hydroxylase dificiency causes - increase production of | [
"Aldosterone",
"Coisol",
"Androstene",
"All of above"
] | Deficiency of 17 alpha hydroxylase leads to increased production of aldosterone. Progesterone synthesised from cholestrole is normally acted upon by 21 alpha hydroxylase which is fuher conveed to coicosterone and aldosterone . Some amount of progesterone is channeled to production of coisol and estradiol by the action of 17 alpha hydroxylase through a separate pathway. So in the absence of 17 alpha hydroxylase progesterone is entirely channeled to the production of aldosterone by the action of 21 alpha hydroxylase Reference: Ghai TB of pediatrics 8th edition pg 527 fig 17.11 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43944 | Best contraceptive for a Newly married healthy couple:- | [
"Barrier method",
"IUCD",
"Oral contraceptive pills",
"Natural methods"
] | Contraceptive choices for a newly married healthy couple Oral contraceptive pills - Low failure rate - Ideal method of choice for newly married healthy couple. Barrier method - Has a high failure rate; only consistent use for 2 years. - Has advantage of HIV/STI protection but a 'healthy' couple may not need it. IUCD - Is not a method of first choice for nulliparous female. Natural methods - Has a high failure rate. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18705 | Which diuretic be considered appropriate for combining with ACE inhibitors? | [
"Spironolactone",
"Eplerenone",
"Hydrochlorothiazide",
"Amiloride"
] | Thiazides, loop diuretics produce hypokalemia which can be compensated with hyperkalemia produced by ACE inhibitors Potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone, eplerenone, amiloride - produce hyperkalemia- so not to be used with ACE inhibitors ( Essentials of medical pharmacology, K.D Tripathi, 6 th edition, page 568 ) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52787 | Most common film size used in dentistry: | [
"0&1",
"0&2",
"0&3",
"All of the above."
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17714 | All are viral causes of PUO except: | [
"EBV",
"CMV",
"HIV",
"Leptospirosis"
] | Ans: d (Leptospirosis) Ref: Harrison, 16 ed, p. 116, 17th ed, p. 132A quite straight forward question. The answer is leptospirosis because it is not a viral cause of PUOPUO: (Pyrexia of unknown origin)Definition:Temperature >38.3(IC on several occasionsOrA duration of fever of >3 weeksOrFailure to reach a diagnosis despite I week of inpatient investigationClassic PUOFever with 3 outpatient visitsOr3 days in the hospital without elucidation of a causeOr1 week of intelligent and invasive work upNosocomial PUOA temperature of more than or equal to 38.3degC develops on several occasions in a hospitalized patient who is receiving acute care and in whom infection was not manifest or incubating on admission.Neutropenic PUOTemperature more than or equal to 38.3degC on several occasions in a patient whose neutrophil count is <500/ml or is expected to fall to that level in 1 or 2 days.HIV associated PUOTemperature more than or equal to 38.3ftC on several occasions over a period of >4 weeks for outpatients or > 3 days for hospitalized patients with HIV infection. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47216 | Atheromatous plaque do not contain | [
"Platelets",
"Neutrophils",
"Smooth muscle fibres",
"Monoctyes"
] | Atherosclerotic plaque have 3 principal components: 1. Cells including smooth muscle cells,macrophages and T cells 2. Extra cellular matrix including collagen,elasticfibers,proteoglycans 3. Intracellular and extracellular lipid Robbins 9th edition page no. 341 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17092 | Which of the following trace element cannot be completely supplemented by diet in pregnancy - | [
"Fe",
"Ca++",
"Zn",
"Manganese"
] | Iron in pregnancy Iron requirement per day in Non-pregnant woman: 1.6 mg per day Iron intake (suggested) per day in Non-pregnant woman: 21 mg per day Iron requirement per day in pregnant woman : 2.8 mg per day Iron intake (suggested) per day in pregnant woman: 35 mg per day. Iron content of IFA tablets in pregnancy : 100 mg per day. Total iron requirement in pregnancy : 1000mg Even if total iron is supplemented there is hemodilution and and loss of blood during pregnancy resulting in decreased fe content in body Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 674 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12531 | A 25 years lady presented to doctor with pregnancy of 6 weeks. Of the following, all are signs of an early pregnancy except ? | [
"Goodell'sign",
"Hegar's sign",
"Cullen sign",
"Palmer's sign"
] | Goodell's sign- Cervix becomes soft as early as 6th week. Hegar's sign - On a P/V, abdominal & vaginal fingers seems to oppose below the body of uterus seen from 6 weeks Palmer sign - Rhythmic uterine contraction felt in early pregnancy at 8 weeks Cullen sign - Dark bluish discoloration around the umbilicus , if found , suggest intra peritoneal hemorrhage | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23300 | A 12-year-old child with Renal tubular acidosis type 1 is having muscle cramps and weakness. ECG shows all except? | [
"T wave inversion with U waves",
"ST depression",
"Heart rate of 75 beats per minute",
"Absent P waves"
] | Ans. (d) Absent P waves.In hypokalemia, the ECG shows1. Increased amplitude and width of the P wave2. Prolongation of the PR interval3. T wave flattening and inversion4. ST depression5. Prominent U waves (best seen in the precordial leads)6. Apparent long QT interval due to fusion of the T and U waves = long QU interval. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19534 | Fastest acting receptor/transduction mechanism is: | [
"Adenylyl cyclase – cyclic AMP pathway",
"Phospholipase C–IP3 : DAG pathway",
"Intrinsic ion channel operation",
"Nuclear receptors"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18789 | A 3-year-old child presented to the OPD for the first time with complaints of abdominal mass, polyuria and polydipsia. The child was born at 39 weeks gestation spontaneous vaginal delivery outside the hospital. IVP reveals streaky appearance of the kidneys. USG and CT abdomen were done. The gene involved in the above condition is present on which chromosome: - | [
"6p",
"6q",
"14p",
"14q"
] | This is a case of autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease. Both the USG and CT reveal multiple cysts in the kidney. CT scan also shows caroli's disease in liver. Results from a mutation in the PKHD1 (polycystic kidney and hepatic disease) gene location on chromosome 6p.T The age of presentation is variable and is divided into perinatal, neonatal, infantile and juvenile forms. On imaging, it usually presents on ultrasound with enlarged echogenic kidneys with multiple small cysts. Liver involvement with coarse echotexture, biliary tract cystic changes, and poal hypeension may be evident, depending on the age and stage of hepatic fibrosis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17437 | Multiple sinuses and induration of chest wall is likely due to | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Atypical mycobacterial infection",
"HIV-AIDS patient with tuberculosis",
"Pulmonary actinomycosis"
] | Pulmonary Actinomycosis. Lung and pleura get infected by direct spread from pharynx or by aspiration. Empyema develops. Later chest wall nodules appear leading to sinuses with discharge(20%). Fascio-cervical type is the most common Reference : SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 54. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50418 | Following is true about medullobastoma- | [
"It is seen mainly in over 50 age group",
"It is radiosensitive tumour",
"Only treatment is surgery",
"Seen in anterior cranial fossa"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48561 | Which of the following statements about the prognosis of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma is true? | [
"rapidly downhill",
"determined by the type of medical care",
"rarely fatal",
"remissions and exacerbations, but with eventual progression to a fatal outcome"
] | The typical course of mycosis fungoides is an initial erythematous stage (which might become diffuse and cause an exfoliative dermatitis as in this case), a plaque stage, and a tumor stage. The course is usually progressive through these stages, but all stages can be bypassed. The early stages may progress slowly with remissions or exacerbations. The disease can be rapidly progressive, particularly when the tumor stage is reached. The disease is invariably fatal. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33812 | Stellate wound is seen in? | [
"Contact shot",
"Close shot",
"Distant shot",
"All of the above"
] | Stellate wound is seen only in contact shot. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35763 | EEG pattern in REM sleep is | [
"High amplitude, slow waves",
"Low amplitude, rapid waves",
"High amplitude, rapid waves",
"Low amplitude, slow waves"
] | (A) High amplitude, slow waves # SLEEP PATTERNS:> There are two different kinds of sleep: rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and non-REM (NREM), or slow wave, sleep.> NREM sleep is divided into four stages. A person falling asleep first enters stage 1, which is characterized by low-amplitude, high-frequency EEG activity> Stage 2 is marked by appearance of sleep spindles.> These are bursts of alpha-like, 10-14-Hz, 50-pV waves.> In stage 3, the pattern is one of lower frequency and increased amplitude of the EEG waves.> Maximum slowing with large waves is seen in stage 4.> Thus, the characteristic of deep sleep is a pattern of rhythmic slow waves, indicating marked synchronization.# REM Sleep:> The high-amplitude slow waves seen in the EEG during sleep are sometimes replaced by rapid, low- voltage EEG activity, which in primates, including humans, resembles that seen in stage 1 sleep.> However, sleep is not interrupted; indeed, the threshold for arousal by sensory stimuli and by stimulation of the reticular formation is elevated.> This condition is sometimes called paradoxical sleep, since the EEG activity is rapid.> Rapid, roving movements of the eyes occur during paradoxical sleep, and it is for this reason that it is also called REM sleep.> No such movements are present in slow-wave sleep, which consequently is often called NREM sleep.> Another characteristic of REM sleep is the occurrence of large phasic potentials, in groups of three to five, that originate in the pons and pass rapidly to the lateral geniculate body and from there to the occipital cortex.> For this reason, they are called pontogeniculo-occipital (PGO) spikes. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19372 | The function of a root canal sealer is: | [
"To fill the gap between the tooth and the filling",
"As an antiseptic",
"Aids in healing",
"Provide strength"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19946 | The quantity of globin chain synthesis is reduced in | [
"HbS",
"Thalassemia",
"HbC",
"HbF"
] | Heme Synthesis. Heme is synthesized in a complex series of steps involving enzymes in the mitochondrion and in the cytosol of the cell (Figure 1). The first step in hemesynthesis takes place in the mitochondrion, with the condensation of succinyl CoA and glycine by ALA synthase to form 5-aminolevulic acid (ALA) Ref Robbins 9/e pg 413 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52645 | All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, EXCEPT: | [
"Melanocyte",
"Adrenal medulla",
"Sympathetic ganglia",
"Cauda equina"
] | D i.e. Cauda equine | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38627 | which of the following is a Bone resorption marker is ? | [
"Serum propeptide of type I procollagen",
"Osteocalcin",
"Urine total free deoxypyridinoline",
"Free glutamic acid cross linkage"
] | Deoxypyridinoline (DPD) in urine, which reflects systemic bone resorption, is considered most useful for assessing the effects of osteoporosis treatment. <a href=" osteocalcin, Serum type 1 procollagen</a> are bone formation markers ref : maheswari book of ohopedics 9th ed | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12079 | Which of the following enzyme is associated with the conversion of androgen to oestrogen in a growing ovarian follicle is: | [
"Aromatase",
"5 alpha reductase",
"Desmolase",
"Isomerase"
] | Aromatase enzyme: In a normal ovary, LH acts on the theca interstitial stromal cells, whereas FSH acts on granulosa cells. In response to LH the thecal cells secretes androgen, and the produced androsendione is conveed in the granulosa cells to estrogen by the action of aromatase enzyme. Ref: Physiology By James N. Pasley 2nd Edition, Page 145 ; Androgens in health and disease By William J. Bremne Page 84 ; Pade approximation and its applications: Diagnosis and management of PCOS, Issue 765, By Luc Wuytack, Page 107 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44167 | Acid fastness of tubercle bacilli is attributed to - | [
"Presence of mycolic acid",
"Integrity of cell wall",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54440 | The skeletal classification of malocclusion is given by | [
"Calvin case",
"Martin Dewey",
"Paul Simon",
"E.H. Angle"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42209 | 33 years old alcoholic on ATT presents with increased serum iron & increased transferrin saturation. Diagnosis ? | [
"Iron deficiency anemia",
"Sideroblastic anemia",
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Anemia of chronic disease"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sideroblastic anemia This patient is taking anti-tubercular treatment (ATT) which includes INH. o INH can cause pyridoxine deficiency which can result in sideroblastic anemia. o In sideroblastic anemia, serum ferritin, serum iron and transferrin saturation are increased. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3080 | In defining "Effective literacy rate", the denominator is | [
"Total literate population",
"Population aged 7 yrs and above in a given year",
"Total mid-year population",
"Number of literate persons aged 7yrs and above"
] | Effective literacy rate = Number of literate persons aged 7 and above* 100 / Population aged 7 and above in a given year.Ref:- Park. 23rd ed. Page no 486 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50048 | Adverse effect of losaan are all except ? | [
"Fetopathic",
"Cough",
"Hyperkalemia",
"Headache"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cough | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49012 | The simplest form of pulp therapy is | [
"Apicocectomy",
"Pulp capping",
"Pulpectomy",
"Pulpotomy"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35432 | All of the following drugs are associated with pure red cell aplasia except | [
"Phenytoin",
"Azathioprine",
"Chloramphenicol",
"Ethambutol"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16857 | Tinea versicolor is caused by: | [
"Malassezia furfurCandida",
"Candida",
"Trichophyton rubra",
"Trichophyton mentagrophyte"
] | Malassezia furfur | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54176 | Delayed hypersensitivity involves - | [
"Neutrophils",
"Monocytes",
"Eosinophils",
"Lymphocytes"
] | Delayed or cell-mediated hypersensitivity is a cell-mediated response. The antigen activates specifically ssensitizedCD4 & CD8 T lymphocytes leading to the secretion of lymphokines and phagocyte accumulation. Reference:nathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 162 <\p> | D | null |
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