dataset
string
id
string
question
string
choices
list
rationale
string
answer
string
subject
string
medmcqa
medmcqa_21896
IgA protease in not needed in infection of:
[ "Gonococci", "Meningococci", "S.pneumonia", "H.influenza" ]
Ans: c and d Ref:Ananthanarayan, 7th ed, p. 335,218; Harrison, 16th ed, p. 806, 864Both S. pneumonia and H. influenza do not have IgA protease.Now it is upto you to decide.Bacteria showing antigenic variationBorrelia recurrentisTrypanosoma bruziNeisseriaGroup A streptococci
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8496
Kleptomania is a disorder of
[ "Impulse", "Mood", "Behavior", "None" ]
Impulse
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34354
Cyclothymia is a type of
[ "Bipolar mood disorder", "Major depression", "Dysthymia", "Persistant mood disorder" ]
Persistent mood disorders are characterised by persistent mood symptoms which last for more than 2 years but are not severe enough to be labelled as even hypomania or mild depressive episode. If the symptom consists of persistent inability of mood between mild depression and mild elation, the disorder is called as cyclothymia (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja,7th edition, pg no73)
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51618
A 25-year-old woman develops a sore, red, hot, swollen left knee. She has no history of trauma and no familial history of joint disease. Fluid aspirated from the joint space shows an abundance of segmented neutrophils. Aspirin is effective in relieving symptoms of acute inflammation in the patient because it inhibits which of the following enzymes?
[ "Cyclooxygenase", "Myeloperoxidase", "Phospholipase A2", "Protein kinase C" ]
Cyclooxygenase. Arachidonic acid is metabolized by cyclooxygenases (COX-1, COX-2) and lipoxygenases (5-LOX) to generate prostanoids and leukotrienes, respectively. The early inflammatory prostanoid response is COX-1 dependent. COX-2 becomes the major source of prostanoids as inflammation progresses. Inhibition of COX is one mechanism by which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), including aspirin, indomethacin, and ibuprofen, exert their potent analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects. NSAIDs block COX-2-induced formation of prostaglandins, thereby mitigating pain and inflammation. Myeloperoxidase (choice B) catalyzes the conversion of H2 O2 , in the presence of a halide (e.g., chloride ion) to form hypochlorous acid. This powerful oxidant is a major bactericidal agent produced by phagocytic cells. Superoxide dismutase (choice E) reduces the superoxide radical to H2 O2 .Diagnosis: Gonococcal arthritis
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_39522
Tennis elbow is
[ "Inflammation of lateral epicondyle of humerus", "Inflammation of medial epicondyle of humerus", "Avulsion injury of head of radius", "Avulsion injury of olecranon process" ]
Tennis elbow is a condition characterised by pain and tenderness at the lateral epicondyle of the humerus due to non-specific inflammation at the origin of the extensor muscles of the forearm.Maheswari 5th edition Pg: 302
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_17516
Carcinoma cervix is caused by HPV :
[ "18, 21, 33", "16, 18, 21", "16, 18, 33", "16, 21, 33" ]
16, 18, 33
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3585
Which of the following is more frequently associated with Klebsiella pneumoniae than with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
[ "Aificial ventilation", "Cystic fibrosis", "Diabetes mellitus", "Upper lobe cavitation" ]
Klebsiella pneumoniae is a well-recognized cause of community-acquired lobar pneumonia associated with cavitation. It is found typically in alcoholic males over 40 years of age with underlying diabetes or obstructive lung disease. Klebsiella pneumoniae mimics Streptococcus pneumoniae as a pulmonary pathogen except that Klebsiella has a greater tendency to progress to lung abscess and empyema. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is usually associated with patients on ventilators, paicularly in intensive care units. Immunocompetent patients usually have bilateral bronchopneumonia without cavitary lesions. Aificial ventilation is classically associated with P. aeruginosa infection. The organism thrives in a wet environment such as respirators, cleaning solutions, disinfectants, sinks, vegetables, flowers, endoscopes, and physiotherapy pools. P. aeruginosa is a very impoant pathogen. Mucoid strains of this organism infect the airways in patients with cystic fibrosis, leading to acute exacerbations and chronic progression of lung damage. Both organisms cause disease in association with diabetes. Klebsiella pneumoniae produces pulmonary disease and P. aeruginosa causes necrotic skin ulcers in diabetics. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 15. Enteric Gram-Negative Rods (Enterobacteriaceae). In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1672
The single most powerful predictor of survival in multiple myeloma is -
[ "`M' component production", "Bone marrwo plasmocytosis", "Serum beta 2-microglobulin level", "Serum calcium level" ]
null
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12138
The most unlikely feature Iof HCC is
[ "Hepatomegaly", "Raised AFP levels", "Raised alkaline phosphatase", "Jaundice" ]
Clinical features of HCC Most common symptom is abdominal pain >weight Significant weight loss : <5% in 1 month or 10% in 6 months or 20% in 1 year Usually presents at late stage, symptoms at advanced stage are vague Non-specific symptoms( anorexia, weight loss) and hepatomegaly Paraneoplastic syndromes in HCC - Hypercholestrolemia( most common), hypoglycemia, erythrocytosis, hypercalcemia Vascular bruit (25%), GI bleed (10%), tumor rupture (2-5%), jaundice due to biliary obstruction (10%), Paraneoplastic syndromes (<5%) Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1458-1463
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13050
Inflammatory enlargement of deep lobe of parotidgland is seen in -
[ "Post pharyngeal wall", "Supratonsillar area", "Anterior tonsillar pillar", "Tonsillar fossa/bed" ]
Parotid gland is related to lateral pharyngeal wall and Tonsillar fossa is present in lateral pharyngeal wall.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44681
Seminal stain can be detected by?
[ "Phenolphthalein test", "Reine's test", "Barberio's test", "Paraffin test" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Barberio's test Tests to detect semen are:A. Chemical tests:1) Microchemical tests : Florence test (produces brown crystals of choline periodide), and barberio's test (produces yellow crystals of spermine picrate by picric acid).2) Enzyme tests: Acid phosphatase (concentration > 10 K.A./ml), creatinine phosphokinase (>400 units) and specific glycoproteins (P30 or MHS-5).3) Ammonium molybdate test: It gives deep deep yellow colour, due to presence of phosphorus.B Microscopic examination:o It is done to demonstrate the presence of spermatozoa in the vaginal fluid or in stain.C. Biological examination:1) Precipitin test: To know the species to which semen belongs.2) Blood group can be known from semen.D. UV light:o Invisible, softned and dry semen stains of the clothes can be rendered distinct by the filtered UV light(AIIMS 09), which produces bluish fluorescence.E. Testes for determination of specific protein component (e.g. LDH isoenzyme):o These are immunoelectrophoresis, gel diffusion precipitation, gel electrophoresis, immunodiffusion, isoelectric focussing and TLC (thin layer chromatography).
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8978
A substantial increase in maxillary width is usually best obtained by placing:
[ "Lingual arch wire", "A sutural expansion fixed appliance", "Posterior intermaxillary cross elastics", "A face bow with an expanded inner bow" ]
In rapid maxillary expansion appliance, when a rapid heavy force is applied to the teeth, there would not be enough time for tooth movement to take place; hence, the force is directly transmitted to the sutures.  The appliance compresses the periodontal ligament thereby bending the alveolar process, tipping the anchor teeth, and gradually opening the midpalatal suture.  The sutures open with minimal movement of the teeth. There is substantial increase in the maxillary width with fixed appliance than removable appliance.  ​Textbook of ORTHODONTICS Sridhar Premkumar
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51791
Tc labelled RBC's are used in which of the following condition?
[ "Biliary disease", "Renal disease", "Pulmonary embolism", "Splenic disease" ]
Pulmonary embolism is diagnosed by angiography or V/P scans.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40593
In infant most sensitive audiometric screening is
[ "Electrocochleography", "BERA", "Coical evoked response", "Tympanometry" ]
Used as a screening procedure for infants. Other uses of ABR: To determine the threshold of hearing in infants; also in children and adults who do not cooperate and in malingerers. To diagnose retrocochlear pathology paicularly acoustic neuroma. To diagnose brainstem pathology, e.g. multiple sclerosis or pontine tumours. To monitor CN VIII intraoperatively in surgery of acoustic neuromas to preserve the function of the cochlea. Ref: Dhingra; 6th Edition; pg no 27
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3753
Vidian neurectomy is done for -
[ "Allergic rhinitis", "Atrophic rhinitis", "Vasomotor rhinitis", "Chronic hypertrophic rhinitis" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vasomotor rhinitisVasomotor rhinitiso Vasomotor is a nonallergic condition that involves a constant runny nose, sneezing and nasal congestion, i.e., the nose is stuffy or runny for reasons other than allergies and infections. The exact etiology is unknown, but triggers include emotions, odors, poor air quality, spicy foods, and medication side effects. Pathogenesis include:-Parasympathetic overactivityHyperactive nasal mucosa to several non-specific stimuli especially in women of 20-40 years.o Symptoms of vasomotor rhinitis include excessive clear rhinorrhoea, nasal obstruction/congestion, irritation, paroxysmal sneezing and post-nasal drip. Nasal mucosa is hypertrophied & congested; and mucosa of turbinates may give mulberry like appearance and is pale to dusky red in colour, o Complications of vasomotor rhinitis include hypertrophic rhinitis & sinusitis, and nasal polyp.Treatmento Treatment of vasomotor rhinitis includes : - 1) Conservative treatmentAvoidance of physical factors which provoke symptoms.Antihistaminics and oral or nasal decongestants.Topical or systemic steroidsSurgical treatmentNasal obstruction can be relieved by measures which reduce the size of hypertrophied nasal turbinate : - Cryosurgery, submucosal diathermy, Linear cauterization, partial or total turbinectomy, submucosal resection of turbinate.# Excessive rhinorrhoea in vasomotor Rhinitis not corrected by medical therapy and bothersome to the patient, is relieved by sectioning the parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to nose i.e., vidian neurectomy.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24503
True statement about Vi polysaccharide vaccine is-
[ "Has many serious systemic adverse reactions", "Has many serious local side effects", "Has many contraindications", "Can be administered with yellow fever and hepatitis A vaccine" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47983
Which of the following is (uses) an oxygen dependent mechanism of killing/degradation in phagocytosis
[ "H2O2- MPO halide", "BPI (Bactericidal Permeability Increasing Protein)", "Lactoferrin", "Lysozyme" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29813
Smallest muscle in the body is:
[ "Interarytenoid", "Stapedius", "Corrugator supercilli", "Superior oblique" ]
B i.e. Stapedius
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_434
sialorrhea is a side effect of
[ "amisulpride", "olanzapine", "aripiprazole", "clozapine" ]
CLOZAPINE * Impoance * First SGA * TREATMENT FOR TREATMENT RESISTANT SCHIZOPHRENIA * TOC for TD * Anti suicidal * Psychosis in parkinsonian patients * Side effects * Agranulocytosis * Myocarditis * Seizure * Constipation * Weight gain * Metabolic syndrome Sialorrhea Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 935
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_7820
Which one of the following drugs is not a uterine relaxant ?
[ "Isoxsuprine", "Dopamine", "Salbutamol", "Terbutaline" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23529
A pregnant woman causes to OPD for regular ANC checkup. She gives history of previous child diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. What drug is given in this pregnancy to prevent development of CAH in this child?
[ "Hydrocortisone", "Betamethasone", "Dexamethasome", "Hydrocortisone" ]
Mother with pregnancy with previous affected child of CAH are given Dexamethosome as soon as pregnancy is diagnosed. This supresses secretion of steroids by fetal adrenal gland and prevents CAH in this schild.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46406
Screening of prostate Ca commonly done bya) DRE (digital rectal exam)b) USGc) MRId) PSAe) CT scan
[ "b", "ad", "ac", "ab" ]
CSDT 11/e writes - "Even so, the realities of clinical practice are that the combination of digital rectal examination and serum PSA monitoring is the most effective screening protocol." This view of CSDT is supported by Smith's Urology But if we have to choose one investigation, it would be PSA.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15362
All are used for the treatment of pulmonary hypeension EXCEPT:
[ "Endothelin receptor antagonists", "Phosphodiesterase inhibitors", "Calcium channel blockers", "Beta blockers" ]
CCBs, ET antagonists are used in Pul.HTN apa from PGI2 analogues and PDE5 inhibitors No- nitric oxide - only therapeutic use is Pul. HTN in newborn betablockers- no role Ref: KD tripathi 8th ed.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29564
If the hea rate is 70 beats/min, then the cardiac output of this ventricle is closest to
[ "4.55 L/min", "5.25 L/min", "8.00 L/min", "9.85 L/min" ]
Stroke volume is the volume ejected from the ventricle and is represented on the pressure-volume loop as phase 2 - 3; End-diastolic volume is about 140 mL and end-systolic volume is about 65 mL; The difference, or stroke volume, is 75 mL. Cardiac output is calculated as stroke volume x hea rate or 75 mL x 70 beats /min = 5250 mL/min or 5.25 L/min
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_4565
Ouchterlony procedure is a immunodiffusion by
[ "Single diffusion in one dimension", "Double diffusion in one dimension", "Single diffusion in two dimensions", "Double diffusion in two dimensions" ]
Single diffusion in one dimension - Oudin procedure Double diffusion in one dimension - Oakley fulthorpe procedure Single diffusion in two dimensions - Radial immunodiffusion Double diffusion in two dimensions - Ouchterlony procedure
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34054
Affinity of Hemoglobin-F for oxygen is more than Hemoglobin-A for which of the following reason?
[ "Decreased secretion of growth hormone by the fetus", "Oxygen dissociation curve for HbF is a rectangular hyperbola", "No 2,3 DPG is synthesized in fetal red blood cells", "2,3 DPG poorly binds to fetal HB" ]
Answer: d) 2,3 DPG poorly binds to fetal HB.* Under physiologic conditions, Hb F has a higher affinity for oxygen than does Hb A, as a result of Hb F binding only weakly to 2,3-BPG.* The y-globin chains of Hb F lack some of the positively charged amino acids that are responsible for binding 2,3-BPG in the P-globin chains.* Because 2,3-BPG serves to reduce the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, the weaker interaction between 2,3-BPG and Hb-F results in a higher oxygen affinity for Hb F relative to Hb A.* In contrast, if both Hb A and Hb F are stripped of their 2,3-BPG, they then have a similar affinity for oxygen.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41690
Inflammation of Meckel diverticulum may produce symptoms resembling:
[ "Appendicitis", "Colitis", "Gastroenteritis", "Intestinal obstruction" ]
Ans: a (Appendicitis) Ref: Bailey, 24th ed, p. 1159As Meckel's diverticulum possesses all three coats of intestinal wall and has its own blood supply, it is vulnerable to infection and obstruction in the same way as appendix and produces clinical pictures similar to appendicitis.Meckel diverticulumSituated in the antimesentric border of the small intestine.Commonly 60 cm from ileocaecal valve.3 - 5 cm long.Rule of two- 2% prevalence- 2 inch in length- 2 feet proximal to ileocaecal valve- Half of those who are symptomatic are younger than 2 yrs of age.True diverticula having all 3 layers.Represents the patent intestinal end of vitellointestinal duct.Male to female ratio 3:1.Approximately 60% contain heterotrophic mucosa of which more than 60% consists of gastric mucosa.Second most common ectopic mucosa is that of pancreas.ComplicationsMost common complication- In children and young adult (< 18 yrs) - bleeding- In adults - intestinal obstruction- Overall - bleedingSymptoms (asymptomatic and complication produces symptoms)1) Severe haemorrhage (most common)2) Intussusception.3) Meckel diverticulitis- Clinical picture is similar to appendicitis.- Diverticulitis may lead to perforation.Points- It should be sought when a normal appendix is found at surgery for suspected appendicitis.- If a silent Meckel's is found incidentally during the course of an operation, it can be left alone provided it is wide mouthed and not thickened.InvestigationSmall bowel barium enema is the most accurate investigation.Technitium- 99 m scanning - May localise heterotrophic gastric mucosa.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23518
Local anaesthetics act by inhibiting -
[ "Influx of K+", "Efflux of K+", "Influx of Na+", "Efflux of Na+" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Influx of Na+ The LAs block nerve conduction by decreasing the entry (influx) of Na+ ions during upstroke of action potential.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15726
What is Dohlman's Procedure in Zenker's Diveiculum
[ "Endoscopic Suturing of Pouch", "Endoscopic Stapling of Septum", "Resection of Pouch", "Laser excision" ]
* Endoscopic Stapling Technique for Pharyngeal Pouch (Zenker's Diveiculum)is known as Dohlman's Procedure. Ref:- Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition; Pg num:- 322
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_64
True regarding presentation of Primary TB is:
[ "Bilateral pleural effusion with negative tuberculin test", "Unilateral hilar lymphadenopathy", "Sustained chronic pyrexia", "B/L pleural effusion with positive tuberculin test" ]
TB in young children is almost invariably accompanied by hilar or paratracheal lymphadenopathy due to the spread of bacilli from the lung parenchyma through lymphatic vessels.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_2347
A 6 year old child has an accident and had elbow, after 4 years presented with tingling and numbness in the ulnar side of finger, fracture is
[ "supra condylar humerus", "lateral condylar humerus", "olecranon", "dislocation of elbow" ]
B i.e. Lateral condyle
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9001
Deficit in weight for height in a 3 years old child indicates-
[ "Acute malnutrition", "Chronic malnutrition", "Concomittant acute and chronic", "Under weight" ]
Reduced Weight for height indicate acute malnutrition. Weight reflect only the present health status. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 502
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29032
Contraceptives contraindicated in HIV positive patient is-
[ "IUCD", "COC pills", "Mint pill", "Barrier methods" ]
Ans-A
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_22137
Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in
[ "Kimura disease", "Kikuchis fujimoto disease", "Hodgkin's lymphoma", "Castelman disease" ]
Ref Harrison 17/e p1011 The other name for kikuchis fujimoto disease is histocytic nercrotizing lymphadenitis. Benign and self-centered disorder in young individuals characterised by cervical lymphadenopathy With tenderness .usually accompanied with mild fever and night sweats,may b viral on ethilogy
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3212
The first gene therapy (somatic enzyme) was successfully done in
[ "SCID", "Phenylketonuria", "Thalassemia", "Cystic fibrosis" ]
Deficiency of adenosine deaminase, a condition that affects lymphocytes paicularly, was the first disease to be treated by gene therapy. Deficiency of adenosine deaminase accounts for 15% of all cases of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)In 1990, Dr. William French Anderson introduced a new copy the gene, carried on a retroviral vector, into a 4-year-old girl suffering from severe combined immunodeficiency (Bubble boy disease).Ref: Harper 30th edition pg: 699
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29596
The most common laser used in laryngeal surgery is
[ "Argon laser", "Nd YAG laser", "CO2 laser", "KTP laser" ]
The LASER is an acronym for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of RadiationDepending upon the lasing medium, various types of lasers with differing wavelength can be created. The lasing medium can be solid (ruby, Nd: YAG or potassium titanyl phosphate); gas (CO2 or Helium-Neon) or liquid (pumped inorganic dye in a glass tube).CO2 laser: Wavelength 10,400 nm, invisible, requires an aiming beam of a helium-neon laser, cannot pass through flexible optical fibers and requires aiculated arm with a series of reflective mirrors to direct the beam to the target area.Clinically it has been used in laryngeal surgery to excise vocal nodules, polyps, cysts, granulomas or juvenile laryngeal papillomas.It cuts precisely and a spot size of 0.3 mm can be achieved; lesion is first delineated and then dissected with microlaryngeal instruments. Microflaps can be raised to treat Reinke's edema. It is also used for leukoplakia, T1 lesion of vocal cord or localized lesions of supraepiglottis and infraepiglottis. Transverse cordotomy and endoscopic paial or complete arytenoidectomy can also be done in bilateral abductor paralysis.CO2 does not penetrate into the deep tissue, hence there is decreased risk of scarring.Ref: Dhingra; 6th edition; Chapter 71; Page no: 357
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54534
A patient of Crohn's Disease, underwent resection anastomosis. Now presents on 7th post-op day with anastomotic site leak from a fistula. Everyday leakage volume adds up to 150-200m1. There is no intra-abdominal collection and the patient is stable without any complaints. What will be the next line of management?
[ "Do conservative treatment and leave him and hope for the spontaneous resolution", "Perform Laparotomy and check for leakage site and healthy margins", "Perform Laparotomy and completely exteriorize the fistula", "Perform Laparotomy and place lateral drains and leave" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_917
A 20 year old male goes swimming . After a few days he develops itching with rashes over his body diffusely. He ignores it until several weeks later he develops lancinating pain down his legs and all of his toes. Within a few days he develops paraparesis and problems with bowel and bladder control with resultant urinary retention. What is your approach to this patient
[ "Initiate anticoagulation", "Do spinal angiography", "Order an MRI scan", "Perform sensory evoked potential testing" ]
MRI is the best emergent test as it will show compressive lesions as well as infections and vascular lesions  .initiating anticoagulation will cause bleeding in case of AV malformations , so it is excluded.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54376
All are the true regarding hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, except:
[ "Digitalis is useful", "Left ventricular outflow obstruction", "Asymmetrical septal thickness", "Double apical impulse" ]
Answer is A (Digitalis is useful) Repeat Digitalis is contraindicated in hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Digitalis causes an increase in myocardial contractility which increases the degree of obstruction in HOCM and worsens the condition. Drugs Contraindicated in HOCM are Drugs that increase myocardial Contractility DigitalisQ Sympathomimetic aminesQ b agonist Drugs which decrease ventricular volume (preload) NitratesQ DiureticsQ Any increase in myocardial contractility or decrease in ventricular volume (preload) increase the degree of obstruction in HOCMQ
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32904
Following are the drugs used in alcohol dependence to prevent relapse ?
[ "Fluoxetine", "Nalmefene", "Acamprosate", "Topiramate" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fluoxetine
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5915
Most common site of ulcerative colitis is?
[ "Rectum", "Caecum", "Small intestine", "Appendix" ]
ANSWER: (A) RectumREF: Harrison s 18th ed ch: 295UC is a mucosal disease that usually involves the rectum and extends proximally to involve all or part of the colon. About 40-50% of patients have disease limited to the rectum and rectosigmoid, 30-40% have disease extending beyond the sigmoid but not involving the whole colon, and 20% have a total colitis
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_35186
Which among these is not an ideal property of soldering material?
[ "Corrosion resistant", "Non-pitting", "High fusing", "Free flowing" ]
null
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40135
Appendix of testis arise from
[ "Mesonephric duct", "Paramesonephric duct", "Mesonephric tubule", "Genital Tubercle" ]
The paramesonephric ducts remain rudimentary in the male. The greater pa of each duct eventually disappears (Fig. 16.19B). The cranial end of each duct persists as a small rounded body attached to the testis {appendix of testis) which may occasionally give rise to cystsReference: Inderbir Singh Embryology; 10th edition; Page no: 316
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53437
Stapes develop from -
[ "1st arch", "2nd arch", "3rd arch", "4th arch" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2nd archo External auditary canal - First branchial cleft.o Auricle (pinna) - First & second branchial (pharyngeal) arch.o Middle ear cleft (Eustachian tube, tympanic cavity, attic, antrum, mastoid air cells) - 1st & 2nd arch,o Malleus, incus - 1st arch,o Stapes (except footplate) - 2nd arch,o Footplate of stapes and annular ligament - Otic capsule.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23781
Which aery Supplies the deep cerebellar nuclei
[ "Anterior inferior cerebellar aery", "Anterior spinal aery", "Posterior cerebral aery", "Superior cerebellar aery" ]
The superior cerebellar aery supplies the superior surface of the cerebellum and the cerebellar nuclei (dentate nucleus)
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_4706
Most common cause of mobius syndrome is use of which of the following drug in pregnancy?
[ "Misoprostol", "Thalidomide", "Methotrexate", "Dinoprostone" ]
An extremely rare congenital neurological disorder which is characterized by facial paralysis and the inability to move the eyes from side to side. Most people with Mobius syndrome are born with complete facial paralysis and cannot close their eyes or form facial expressions. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29549
True about diabetic nephropathy -
[ "Microalbuminiuria is not an indicator of long term cardiovascular morbidity.", "Strict glycemic control cannot prevent microalbuminuria", "b-islet cell\\/pancreatic transplantation can improve the proteinuria in early stage.", "Angiotensin receptor blockers have no additive advantage over other drugs except ...
Beta islet cell/ pancreatic transplantation can improve proteinuria in early stages.. Strict control of blood glucose retards the progression of any diabetes related complication Early pathological change and albumin excretion abnormalities is reversible with normalization of plasma glucose Administration of ACE inhibitors or ARB&;s, is also effective in slowing progression from Microalbuminuria to ove nephropathy Ref Harrison 17/e p 2287-88
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12498
Hill Sach's lesion is seen in: September 2003
[ "Recurrent dislocation of shoulder", "Recurrent dislocation of patella", "Pehe's disease", "Slipped capital femoral epiphyses" ]
Ans. A i.e. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_19233
Which of the following is not a component of APACHE-II score?
[ "Serum potassium", "Serum sodium", "Serum calcium", "Creatinine" ]
APACHE II: Acute Physiology & Chronic Health Evaluation II. The 12 physiologic variables are BT| at CWG SHOP-2 1.Mean aerial blood pressure 5.Creatinine 9.Hematocrit 2.Temperature 6.WBC count 10.Oxygenation 3.Hea rate 7.Glasgow coma scale 11.Aerial pH 4.Respiratory rate 8.Sodium 12.Serum potassium If >=8 parameters are present, suggests Severe Acute pancreatitis,
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47290
Arrange the Electrophoretic pattern of serum lipoproteins in sequence staing from point of origin: A. Alpha lipoprotein B. Pre-beta lipoprotein C. Chylomicron D. Beta lipoprotein
[ "C - D-B - A", "B - D-A - C", "D - A-B - C", "B - A-C - D" ]
Electrophoretic pattern of serum lipoproteins in sequence staing from point of origin Chylomicron-beta lipoprotein-Pre-beta lipoprotein-alpha lipoprotein
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12710
Oxygen carrying capacity of blood is largely determined by
[ "Hb level", "Amount of CO2! in blood", "Acidosis", "Plasma concentration" ]
The O2 delivery system in the body consists of the lungs and the cardiovascular system. O2 delivery to a paicular tissue depends on the amount of O2 entering the lungs, the adequacy of pulmonary gas exchange, the blood flow to the tissue, and the capacity of the blood to carry O2. The blood flow depends on the degree of constriction of the vascular bed in the tissue and the cardiac output. The amount of O2 in the blood is determined by the amount of dissolved O2, the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, and the affinity of the hemoglobin for O2.Ref: Ganong review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 609
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5247
Which of the following is a vector for Dengue fever?
[ "Aedes aegypti", "Culex", "Anophelous", "Mansonia" ]
Aedes aegypti:Principle vector of Dengue virusesAlso an efficient vector of the Yellow fever and Chikungunya virusesBreeds near human habitation, using relatively fresh waterUsually inhabits dwellings and bites during the dayRef: Harrison's 17/e p1230
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_42627
The actions of superior oblique muscle is A/E:
[ "Abduction", "Intorsion", "Extorsion", "Depression" ]
C i.e., Extorsion
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_4378
Headache is commonly seen with which anti-anginal drug?
[ "Beta blockers", "Nitrates", "Trimetazidine", "Potassium channel openers" ]
Nitrates produce headache because of vasodilatation of meningeal vessels. Ref katzung 12th ed.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16773
Simple bone cyst is common in
[ "Upper end of Humerus", "Upper end of Radius", "Upper end of Femur", "Lower end of Femur" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45136
Antigen presenting cells are
[ "Langerhans cells", "Macrophages", "Cytotoxic T cells", "Helper T cells" ]
Ref Robbins 7/e p197 ;9/e p210 , macrophages and B lymphocytes is also the answer Professional antigen presenting cells(APCs) are immune cells that specialize in presentingan antigen to a T-cell. The main types of professional APCs are dendritic cells (DC), macrophages, and Bcells, Langerhans cells
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14437
Which one of the following clinical signs is not seen in ophthalmic Grave's disease?
[ "Lid retraction", "Frequent blinking", "Poor convergence", "Upper lid \"lad\" on down gaze" ]
In thyrotoxicosis the increase in sympathetic activity due to increased T3 and T4 leads to contraction of Muller's muscle. Hence these patients would have infrequent blinking and infact some of them might sleep with their eyes open leading to corneal erosions. Lid retraction, causing a staring appearance, can occur in any form of thyrotoxicosis and is the result of sympathetic overactivity. However, Graves' disease is associated with specific eye signs that comprise Graves' ophthalmopathy. The earliest manifestations of ophthalmopathy are usually a sensation of grittiness, eye discomfo, and excess tearing. The most serious manifestation is compression of the optic nerve at the apex of the orbit, leading to papilledema; peripheral field defects; and, if left untreated, permanent loss of vision.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32005
Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrance-
[ "Thyrohyoid", "Cricothyroid", "Cricotracheal", "Crisosternal" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_18146
All are true about anaesthetic implication of obesity except:-
[ "There is high risk of regurgitation", "There is decrease cardiac output", "There is increased risk of perioperative hypoxemia", "There high risk of renal disease" ]
There is no effect on cardiac ouput in obesity. airway may be difficult to secure in obese patient and they are high risk for aspiration. they are at high risk of developing perioperative hypoxemia thus may require BiPAP postoperatively.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_36284
Mydriasis is due to
[ "Relaxation of ciliary muscle", "Relaxation of radial muscle", "Contraction of ciliary muscle", "Contraction of radial muscles" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_21627
Which of the following drugs is hydrolyzed by a plasma esterase that is abnormally low in activity in about 1 in every 2500 humans?
[ "Ethanol", "Rifampicin", "Cimetidine", "Succinylcholine" ]
* SCh is the shoest acting muscle relaxant due to its metabolism by pseudocholinesterase. * Some patients contain an atypical pseudocholinesterase (which has abnormally low activity) and are susceptible to develop apnea with the use of this drug.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14945
Epithelium of the inner surface of the gingival sulcus:
[ "Has no rete pegs", "Has prominent rete pegs", "Is keratinized", "Is para-keratinized" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3682
Which of the following tendons passes below the sustenticulum Tali
[ "Tibialis Anterior", "Tibialis Posterior", "Flexer digitorum longus", "Hexer Hallucis Longus" ]
D i.e. Flexer Hallucis LongusThe tendon of flexor hallucis longus (FHL) passes below the sustentaculum taliQ (of calcaneus bone) along a groove on its undersurface; whereas the tendon of tibialis posterior lies immediately above the sustentaculum tali and pass tendinous slips of attachment to itQ. Mn- FHL passes below and TP inseed above the sustentaculum tali"
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25891
Which of the following karyotyping is done under light microscopy?
[ "C-Banding", "G Banding", "F Banding", "H Banding" ]
Innovative staining techniques have made it possible to identify individual chromosomes in the karyotype. Some of the more commonly used techniques are the following:Q banding: Fixed chromosome spreads are stained without any pretreatment using quinacrine mustard, quinacrine, or other fluorescent dyes and observed with a fluorescence microscope. G banding: Preparations are incubated in a variety of saline solutions using any 1 of several pretreatments and stained with Giemsa's stain, and observed with a light microscope. R banding: Preparations are incubated in buffer solutions at high temperatures or at special pH and stained with Giemsa's stain. This process yields the reverse bands of G banding. C banding: Preparations are either heated in saline to temperatures just below boiling or treated with ceain alkali solutions and then stained with Giemsa's stain. This process causes prominent bands to develop in the region of the centromeres. Ref: Manipalviratn S., Trivax B., Huang A. (2013). Chapter 3. Genetic Disorders & Sex Chromosome Abnormalities. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40289
Drug used in mild hemoplilia is
[ "Coicosteroids", "DDAVP", "Vitamin K", "Tranexamic acid" ]
DDAVP is an analogue of ADH. It acts on V2 receptors to cause increased release of factor VIII and vWF from the endothelium. Due to this propey, it can be used for the treatment of mild hemophilia.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_7929
Which moiety of haemoglobin molecule binds 2,3 BPG at pH 7.0?
[ "Amino terminal", "Carboxyl terminal", "Sulfhydryl terminal", "Alcoholic terminal" ]
The hemoglobin tetramer binds one molecule of BPG in the central cavity formed by its four subunits. However, the space between the H helices of the chains lining the cavity is sufficiently wide to accommodate BPG only when hemoglobin is in the T state. BPG forms salt bridges with the terminal amino groups of both chains Val NA1 and with Lys EF6 and His H21. BPG therefore stabilizes deoxygenated (T-state) hemoglobin by forming additional salt bridges that must be broken prior to conversion to the R state. Residue H21 of the subunit of HbF is Ser rather than His. Since Ser cannot form a salt bridge, BPG binds more weakly to HbF than to HbA. The lower stabilization afforded to the T state by BPG accounts for HbF having a higher affinity for O2 than HbA. Ref: Kennelly P.J., Rodwell V.W. (2011). Chapter 6. Proteins: Myoglobin & Hemoglobin. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_18947
Primary receptor cells of hearing-
[ "Supporting cell", "Tectorial membrane", "Tunnel of corti", "Hair cell" ]
Hair cells: are important receptor cells of hearing and transduce sound energy into electrical energy.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14896
Conversion of chondrocyte into osteogenic cells is caused by
[ "Insulin", "IGF-1", "Growth hormone", "Thyroxine" ]
Growth hormone (GH) any of several related polypeptide hormones secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that directly influences protein, carbohydrate, and lipid metabolism and controls the rate of skeletal and visceral growth; their secretion is in pa controlled by the hypothalamus.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 327
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_22549
Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hyperophy of:
[ "Endothelial cells", "Collagen fibers", "Smooth muscle cells", "Elastic fibers" ]
The proliferation of smooth muscle cells is a critical event in the neointimal hyperplastic response. Blockade of smooth muscle cell proliferation resulted in preservation of normal vessel phenotype and function, causing the reduction of neointimal hyperplasia and graft failure. Ref: Advances in End-stage Renal Diseases 2005: International Conference on Dialysis By Claudio Ronco, 2005, Page 30 ; Tissue Engineering: From Lab to Clinic By Norbe Pallua, Christoph V. Suscheck, 2011, Page 280
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40697
Binding of oxygen to haemoglobin reduces its affinity for carbon dioxide, which is known as
[ "Haldane effect", "Chloride shift", "Bohr effect", "Anion exchanger 1" ]
Increase in carbon dioxide in the blood causes oxygento be displaced from the hemoglobin (the Bohr effect). The reverse is also true: binding of oxygen with hemoglobin tends to displace carbon dioxidefrom the blood. Indeed, this effect, called the Haldane effect, Ref: Guyton & Hall: Textbook of Medical Physiology page no:946
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16530
Which among the following is a marker for testicular carcinoma?
[ "PSA", "b-HCG", "LH", "FSH" ]
Beta hCG is elevated in 40-60% of cases with testicular cancer. It is seen in choriocarcinoma, embryonal cell carcinoma and pure seminoma.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41554
Nerve least likely to be involved in Herpes Zoster Opthalmicus is:
[ "Chorda Tympani", "Infraorbital", "Nasociliary", "Lacrimal" ]
Chorda Tympani
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53576
La belle indifference is seen in
[ "Conversion Reaction", "Schizophrenia", "Mania", "Depression" ]
A i.e. Conversion reactionLa belle indifferenceQ is in-appropiate attitude of calm or lack of concern about one's disability. It is seen in conversion (dissociative) disorderQ (but not specific), physical illness etc.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41647
Thromboangitis obliterans is associated with
[ "HLA - DR4", "HLA - DR2", "HLA - B5", "HLA - B27" ]
HLA A9 and HLA B5 is associated with increased risk of Thromboangitis obliterans (TAO) HLA-B12 is protective against TAO.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_48809
Contraindication of topical beta blockers
[ "Hypeension", "Asthma", "Tachycardia", "Hypotension" ]
B i.e. Asthma
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47445
Vagabond disease transmitted by
[ "Mite", "Louse", "Tick", "Black Fly" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_38469
Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL):
[ "Hyperdiploidy", "t (9; 22); t (4; 11)", "2-8 years of Age", "WBC count < 50,000" ]
Unourable cytogenetics in ALL are Philadelphia chromosomes t(9;22) & t(4;11) Ref: CMDT 2008 Edition, Page 447
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_33316
A woman with infeility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical twin. What type of graft it is ?
[ "Xenograft", "Autograft", "Allograft", "Isograft" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Isograft . A tissue graft is a medical procedure in which tissue from a donor is used to replace missing or damaged tissue on a patient ( recipient).
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31512
A boy has developed epistaxis. What is the treatment of choice ?
[ "Digital pressure", "Nasal packing", "Cauterization of vessels", "Surgical ligation" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Digital pressure Management of epistaxis Treatment protocol for management of epistaxis include : ? 1. Conservative Most common site of bleeding is Little's area and most of the time bleeding can be controlled by conservative management which includes : - Nasal pinching : - Pinching of all soft pas of the nose together between thumb and index finger for about 5 minutes can control bleeding most of the time. Trotter's method : - Patient is made to sit, leaning a little forward over a basin to spit any blood and breathe quietly from the mouth. Cold compresses : - Cause vasoconstriction Vasoconstrictor medication on a cotton pledget. Treatment of the etiology : - For example antihypeensives in hypeensive patient. 2. Cauterisation Patient who continues to bleed after properly applied nasal pressure, or a patient with recurrent episodes of bleeding over a period of hours or days, deserve a more definitive procedure. If a presumptive source of bleeding is identified chemical cautery by silver nitrate or coagulation with electrocautery should be considered. 3. Anterior nasal pack Continued epistaxis from an anterior site despite cautery requires placement of anterior nasal pack. 4. Posterior nasal pack The persistent appearance of blood in the hypopharynx with no identifiable anterior source or after placement of an anterior nasal pack indicates posterior site of epistaxis and necessitates placement of posterior nasal pack. 5. Ligation of vessels If bleeding is still continued, surgical ligation of vessels is indicated.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_17958
pseudolaminar necrosis is a feature of
[ "Cerebral infarct", "Renal infarct", "Hepatic infarct", "Cardiac infarct" ]
Coical laminar necrosis, also known as pseudolaminar necrosis, is necrosis of neurons in the coex of the brain in situations when the supply of oxygen and glucose is inadequate to meet regional demands Refer robbins 9/e p814
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32055
Which amongst the following is X-linked Recessive Disorder?
[ "Duchenne muscular dystrophy", "Achondroplasia", "Marfan's syndrome", "Sickle cell disease" ]
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. It is one of nine types of muscular dystrophy. Duchene muscular dystrophy is a X linked recessive disorder most commonly seen in men , females act as carriers having one normal gene and other dystrophin gene. Examples of Autosomal recessive conditions Sickle Cell disease Cystic fibrosis Batten Disease Congenital deafness Phenylketonuria (PKU) Spinal muscular atrophy Recessive blindness Maple syrup urine disease Examples of Autosomal Dominant Condition Huntington disease Neurofibromatosis type 1 Marfan syndrome Familial hypercholesterolemia Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) Prader-willi Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24264
Estrogen is secreted by -
[ "Granulosa cells", "Theca luteal cells", "Thecainterna", "Thecaexterna" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Granulosa cells o Ovarian follicle contains two types of cells in preovulatory phase Gramdosa cells :- Secrete mainly estrogen and very minimal amount of progesterone. Theca cells (interna & externa) :- Theca interna cells provide androgen and pregnenolone to granulosa cells to convert them into estrogen and progesterone respectively. o After ovulation, corpus luteum contain two types of cell Granulosa luteal ceils (formed by luteinization of granulosa cells) Produce mainly estrogen and minimal progesterone. Theca luteal cells (formed by luteinization of theca interna cells) Produce mainly progesterone.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34969
A 69-year-old man has numbness in the middle three digits of his right hand and finds it difficult to grasp objects with that hand. He states that he retired 9 years earlier, after working as a carpenter for 50 years. He has atrophy of the thenar eminence. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of the problems in his hand?
[ "Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel", "Formation of the osteophytes that compress the ulnar nerve at the medial epicondyle", "Hypertrophy of the triceps muscle compressing the brachial plexus", "Osteoarthritis of the cervical spine" ]
(a) Source: GAS 764, 788; GA 406 The median nerve supplies sensory innervation to the thumb, index, and middle fingers and also to the lateral half of the ring finger. The median nerve also provides motor innervation to muscles of the thenar eminence. Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel explains these deficits in conjunction with normal functioning of the flexor compartment of the forearm because these muscles are innervated by the median nerve proximal to the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve is not implicated in these symptoms. It does not provide sensation to digits 1 to 3. Compression of the brachial plexus could not be attributed to pressure from the triceps because this muscle is located distal to the plexus. In addition, brachial plexus symptoms would include other upper limb deficits, rather than the focal symptoms described in this case. Osteoarthritis of the cervical spine would also lead to increasing complexity of symptoms.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_6731
Which antiemetic drug selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its anti-Parkinsonian action?
[ "Metoclopramide", "Cisapride", "Domperidone", "Ondansetron" ]
LevodopaLev alone- Is less potent- As peripheral dopamine decarboxylase effective than central.Therefore, efficacy of drug decreases. As L-DOPA - Dopamine conveed in periphery > central - DA causes peripheral side effects D1 + - Hypotension B1 + - Arrhythmias a1 + - Hypeension CTZ + - Vomiting Antiemetic drugs: D2 antagonist : Metoclopramide Domperidone Cross BBB Can cause dystonia Do not cross BBB Do not cause dystonia DOC for levodopa induced vomiting 5HT3 5HT4 + No other action As domperidone do not cross BBB, it blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking it's anti - parkinsonism effect.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_7987
What is the primary toxicity of busulfan
[ "Lung fibrosis", "Severe myeloidsupression", "Cystitis", "Hyperuricaemia" ]
Busulfan It is highly specific for myeloid elements( doses myelosupression occurs); granulocyte precursors being the most sensitive, followed by those of platelets and RBC. It produces little effect on lymphoid tissue and g.i.t. Side effects:- Hyperuricaemia is common; pulmonary fibrosis and skin pigmentation are the specific adverse effects. Sterility also occurs. Uses It is the drug of choice for chronic myeloid leukaemia. Ref:-kd tripathi; pg num:-861
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24949
All of the following are seen in MEN IIB except?
[ "Hyperparathyroidism", "Neuromas", "Medullary carcinoma", "Pheochromocytoma" ]
Hyperparathyroidism
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3483
The following Rosette cataract is seen with:
[ "Steroid induced cataract", "Traumatic cataract", "Syndermatotic cataract", "Rose thorn injury to lens" ]
Ans. (b) Traumatic cataract.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8037
18 year old female presents with an ovarian mass, her serum LDH & placental alkaline phosphate are found to be elevated. What is the treatment of choice in this condition?
[ "B/L oophorectomy & post op radiotherapy", "Oophorectomy on the involved side", "Only chemotherapy", "Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingopherectomy" ]
The given scenario suggests the diagnosis of Dysgerminoma Most common germ cell malignancy High risk: dysgenetic gonads, testicular feminisation syndrome Tumour markers: LDH, PLAP, (hcg may be raised in some but AFP is normal) In Dysgerminoma, conservative surgery (U/L Salphingo-Oophorectomy) recommended as most patient are Young girls Post operative Chemotherapy gives 90% success NOTE: bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is not done here in order to conserve ovarian function and feility unless mentioned that the presentation is bilateral.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29626
Lower border of pharynx is at the level of (Extent of pharynx is upto) ?
[ "C2", "C3", "C4", "C6" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., C6 Pharynx is a musculomembranous tube that extands from the base of skull to the level of the sixth cervical veebra, where it is continuous with esophagus. Pharynx is subdivided into :? I) Nasopharynx :- Pa of the pharynx above the soft palate, i.e. from the base of skull to the soft palate? 2) Oropharynx :- Extends from the soft palate superiorly to the level of hyoid inferiorly. 3) Hypopharynx :- The hypopharynx includes that poion of the pharynx below the level of the hyoid.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54032
A 7 year old boy with boggy swelling of the scalp with multiple discharging sinuses with cervical lymphadenopathy with easily pluckable hair. What would be done for diagnosis?
[ "Pus for culture", "KOH mount", "Biopsy", "None of the above" ]
KOH mount The patient gives classic presentation of Kerion (Tinea capitis). Tinea capitis It is an infection caused by dermatophyte fungi usually species of the genera (microsporum and Trichophyton)) of scalp hair follicles and the surrounding skin. It is predominantly a disease of preadolescent children. The main pathogens are anthrophilic organisms with Trichophyton Tonsurans accounting for > 90% cases. There are two patterns of the disease : Endothrix --> Spores (anthroconidia) within the hair shaft Ectothrix --> Hyphae and anthrocondia outside the hair shaft Investigation needed in cases of Tinea capitis Microscopy Potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mounts Microscopy provides the most rapid diagnosis. Samples are taken from the site of infection and are demonstrated using 10% (KOH). - KOH dissolves the keratin and the fungus is easily demonstrated using the low power objective. - The slide is examined for fungal hyphae and spores Cultures - Cultures need to be done when KOH mount is negative or when it is necessary to identify the .fungal species. - Fungi are cultured on sabroud's dextrose agar. - Culture is more sensitive than microscopy and the result may be positive even when microscopy is negative. Wood's ultraviolet light - When wood's ultraviolet light is shown on hairs they produce green fluorescence with microspora infection but will .fail to identify Trichophyton tonsurans.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31643
Cantrell pentalogy is associated with:
[ "Omphalocele", "Ileal atresia", "Gastroschisis", "None of the above" ]
Omphalocele refers to a congenital defect of the abdominal wall in which the bowel and solid viscera are covered by peritoneum and amniotic membrane. It occurs in association with special syndromes such as exstrophy of the cloaca (vesicointestinal fissure), the Beckwith-Wiedemann constellation of anomalies (macroglossia, macrosomia, hypoglycemia, visceromegaly, and omphalocele) and the Cantrell pentalogy (lower thoracic wall malformations such as cleft sternum, ectopia cordis, epigastric omphalocele, anterior midline diaphragmatic hernia, and cardiac anomalies). The defect may be very small or large enough that it contains most of the abdominal viscera. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8290
In a patient suspected to be suffering from vesicoureteric reflex, which one of the following radiological investigations may confirm the diagnosis?
[ "Intravenous urography", "Micturating cystourethrography", "Pelvic ultrasound", "Antegrade pyelography" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26876
Commonest cause for acute sinusitis is:
[ "Swimming/Diving", "Acute rhinitis", "Nasal tumours", "Deviated nasal septum" ]
All of the above can cause frontal sinusitis by obstructing the frontal sinus drainage and ventilation but acute rhinitis is most common.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47908
Optic nerve fibres once cut, do not regenerate because they are not covered by
[ "Myelin sheath", "Neurilemma", "Both of the above", "None of the above" ]
Optic nerve It is a continuation of the nerve fibre layer of the retina, which consists of the axons originating from the ganglion cells. It also contains the afferent fibres of the pupillary light reflex. Morphologically and embryologically, the optic nerve is comparable to a sensory tract. Unlike peripheral nerves it is not covered by neurilemma (so it does not regenerate when cut). Reference :- A K KHURANA; pg num:-287
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_35845
A 22-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease is noted to have a "string sign" in the ileal area on barium enema. In which of the following conditions is this sign most often seen?
[ "in the stenotic or nonstenotic phase of the disease", "in the stenotic phase only", "as a rigid, nondistensible phenomenon", "with gastric involvement" ]
(a) Source: (Kasper, p. 1781) The string sign represents long areas of circumferential inflammation and fibrosis. It is seen in the stenotic and nonstenotic phase of Crohn's disease. In addition to the string sign, abnormal puddling of barium and fistulous tracts are other helpful x-ray signs of ileitis. Other radiologic findings in Crohn's disease include skip lesions, rectal sparing, small ulcerations, and fistulas.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43698
Anti-helicobacter pylori drugs are all of the following except:-
[ "Clarithromycin", "Amoxicillin", "Metronidazole", "Ofloxacin" ]
Antimicrobials effective against H. pylori are :- Metronidazole/tinidazole Amoxicillin Clarithromycin Tetracycline Colloidal bismuth subcitrate
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_21903
The major vitamin deficiency in Wernicke's encephalopathy is :
[ "B1", "B2", "B6", "B12" ]
Wernicke's disease is a common and preventable disorder due to a deficiency of thiamine. Alcoholics account for most cases, but patients with malnutrition due to hyperemesis, starvation, renal dialysis, cancer, AIDS, or rarely gastric surgery are also at risk. The characteristic clinical triad is that of ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and global confusion. However, only one-third of patients with acute Wernicke's disease present with the classic clinical triad. Most patients are profoundly disoriented, indifferent, and inattentive, although rarely they have an agitated delirium related to ethanol withdrawal. Ref: Hemphill, III J.C., Gress D.R. (2012). Chapter 275. Neurologic Critical Care, Including Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy, and Subarachnoid Hemorrhage. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16398
Most common cause of bone malignancy
[ "Secondaries", "Osteosarcoma", "Ewings sarcoma", "Osteoclastoma" ]
Metastatic bone disease is the most commonest malignancy of bones and is much more than primary bone tumors Metastatic Bone Diseases(MBD) Cancer that begins in an organ, such as the lungs. breast, or prostate, and then spreads to bone is called metastatic bone disease (MBD). More than 1.2 million new cancer cases are diagnosed each year. Approximately 50% of these tumours can spread (metastasize) to the skeleton. With improved medical treatment of many cancers --especially breast. lung, and prostate -- patients are living longer. However, the primary cancers in more of these patients are spreading to bone. The tumours that result are called bone metastases. Organs involved in MBD * The most common cancers that arise from organs and spread to bone include: * Breast * Lung * Thyroid * Kidney * Prostate Pathophysiology of MBD : MBD causes pain in the area of spread. damages and weakens bone, and puts the patient at a greater risk for broken bones. It can make it hard to paicipate in daily activities. The biggest concern for patients with MBD is the general loss in quality of life. How much of an effect MBD has on a patient will vary and is associated with how much the cancer has spread. which bones are affected, and how severe the bone damage is. There are a range of treatment options, however. that can help patients manage pain and maintain their independence and activity levels. After the lung and the liver, the skeleton is the most common site of spread of cancers that begin in organs. Metastases to the lung and liver are often not detected until late in the course of disease because patients experience no symptoms. In contrast. bone metastases are generally painful when they occur. Cancer most commonly spreads to these sites in the skeleton: Spine Pelvis Ribs Skull Upper arm Symptoms Pain. The most common symptom of MBD is pain. Patients may have pain in the spine, pelvis, or extremities because the bone has been weakened by the tumour. Fractures. Weakened bones break more easily. A fracture from a minor injury is another possible sign of MBD. Anaemia. The most common sites of spread -- spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, upper arm, and long bones of the leg --correspond to areas of bone marrow that produce high levels of red blood cells, the cells responsible for carrying oxygen to tissues in the body. Anaemia (decreased red blood cell production) is a common blood abnormality in patients with MBD. A cancer patient who experiences any pain, especially in the back, legs, and arms, should notify his or her doctor immediately. Pain that occurs without activity (i.e., walking or lifting an object) is paicularly concerning. Refer Apleys 9th/e p 216
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9994
Scrub typhus caused by R-tsutsugamushi is transmitted by?
[ "Flea", "Chigger", "Tick", "Mosquito" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., ChiggerScrub typhus is the most widespread Rickettsial disease.It is caused by R. tsutsugamushi (orientia tsutsugamushi) and the vector of its transmission is trombiculid mite (Leptotrombidium delinese and L. akamushi).
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54085
Staphylococcus aureus differs from staphylococcus epidermidis by -
[ "Is coagulase positive", "Forms white colonies", "A common cause of UTI", "Causes endocarditis in drug addicts" ]
null
A
null