dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_24291 | Which of the following is immediate precursor of acetoacetate during ketone body synthesis | [
"Acetone",
"Malonyl CoA",
"HMG CoA",
"Acetoacetyl CoA"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23120 | Blood supply during exercise is increased in: | [
"Cutaneous circulation",
"Hepato-splanchnic circulation",
"Renal circulation",
"Coronary circulation"
] | D i.e Coronary circulationDuring exercise blood is shunted from regions that do not require immediate suppo to areas with increased demands. (e.g. skeletal muscles, hea.) Quiet standingExerciseEffectCardiac output ml/min590024,000/IVBlood flow to:Active skeletal muscle65020,850'11'Hea2501000DIeBrain750750UnchangedSkin500500UnchangedInactive skeletal muscle650300.1,Kidney, Liver, GIT ect.3100600.1.tQ | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40357 | A pt developed haemoperitoneum following A, with BP 90/60 & pulse 140/min which of the following to be done ? | [
"DPL to be done",
"Liver is the MC organ to rupture",
"USG is better than CT Scan",
"X-ray to be taken in supine position"
] | Ans is 'c' i.e. USG is better than CT-Scan The aim of investigations in blunt abd. trauma is to decide whether exploratory laprotomy is to be done or not. In this pt. it's already known that he has hemoperitoneum, so there is no need of DPL. He needs an urgent laprotomy to look for injuries & manage them accordingly. USG is better than CT scan for the evaluation of blunt abd. trauma patients as U/S is easily available and performed bed side. It accurately detects the intrabdominal free fluid and that's all that is needed for the moment. It also simultaneously assesses the pleural and pericardial cavities. Though CT is more sensitive & specific and provides many additional information which cannot be assessed by U/S (like evaluation of retroperitoneum, assessment of renal perfusion) it takes time, pt. has to be shifted to CT unit, needs experienced radiologist, is much more expensive. So it is used in stable patients only for fuher evaluation after an U/S. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18625 | Howe and Poyton (1960) developed a criteria to diagnose the | [
"Relation of long axis of the impacted tooth to the long axis of the second molar",
"Configuration of the roots of the impacted mandibular 3rd molar",
"Relationship of the root apices of impacted 3rd molars to the inferior alveolar canal",
"Position and depth of the impacted mandibular 3rd molar"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36422 | Darling disease is caused by - | [
"Histoplasma",
"Candida",
"Cryptococcus",
"Rhizopus"
] | Histoplasmosis or Darling's disease is caused by dimorphic fungus - Histoplasma capsulatum. It is called Darling's disease because it was found by Samuel Darling in histopathologic specimens about a century ago. Reservoir: Humid and acidic soil containing bird or bat droppings. Clinical Manifestations: Pulmonary histoplasmosis: It is the most common form. Acute form stas as mild flu like illness Chronic form - Cavitary histoplasmosis Disseminated histoplasmosis develops if CMI is very low (as in HIV). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12020 | Afferent of golgi tendon organ arises from ? | [
"Muscle spindle",
"Tendon",
"Periosteum",
"Joint"
] | Ans is 'b' i.e., TendonGolgi tendon reflexo Golgi tendon reflex is a bisynaptic reflex, initiated by the Golgi tendon organ located in muscle tendons,o This organ consists of a net-like (ramified) collection of knobby nerve endings among the fascicles of a tendon,o There are 3-25 muscle fiber per golgi tendon organ.o Golgi tendon organs are also stretch receptors.o However, unlike the muscle spindle which acts as a length detecfer, the Golgi-tendon organ acts as a muscle tension-detector.o This difference in sensory function occurs because muscle spindle is located in parallel to the muscle fibers (extrafusal fibers) while the Golgi tendon organ is located in series to the muscle fibers (extrafusal fibers),o Therefore, Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by both passive stretch and contraction of muscle (in contrast to muscle spindle which is stimulated by passive stretch but is inhibited by active contraction of muscle),o The golgi tendon organ is innervated by Act sensory (afferent) fibers (ty pe lb sensory).o These afferent fibers terminate on an inhibitory interneuron in dorsal horn of grey matter in the spinal cord,o These inhibitory' intemeuron terminates on the a-motor neuron (same a-motor neuron on which la (Act) afferent of stretch reflex terminates) and has inhibitory effect on a-motor neuron,o So, activation of Golgi tendon reflex results in relaxation of muscle. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25487 | Loeffler's syndrome occurs in all except - | [
"Toxocara",
"Strongyloides",
"Ascaris",
"Giardia"
] | Loeffler's syndrome was originally reported as a benign, acute eosinophilic pneumonia of unknown cause characterized by migrating pulmonary infiltrates and minimal clinical manifestations.
It may be secondary to parasites or drugs.
Parasite causing Loeffler's syndrome:
- Ascaris
- Toxocara
- Ancylostoma duodenale
- Nectar americans
- Paragonimus westermani
- Strongyloides stercoralis
- Echinococcus granulosus | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41868 | Dermatophyes affect ? | [
"Keratin",
"Dermis of skin",
"Stratum basal",
"Stratum basal"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Keratin Dermatophytes are keratinophillic fungi, living only on the superficial dead keratin. That is why they infect skin, hair and nail. In skin they infect most superficial layer of the epidermis i.e. stratum corneum. They do not penetrate living tissues. Dermatophytes cause a variety of clinical conditions, collectively known as dermatophytosis, tinea or ringworm. Dermatophytes have been classified into 3 genera :- trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton. Trichophyton affects;- skin, hair, nails Microsporum affects ;- skin, hair (nails are not affected) Epidermophyton affects:- skin, nails (hair are not affected) Deep fungal infections (eg:- maycetoma, chromoblastomycosis, pheohyphomycosis, sporotrichosis, lobomycosis, rhinosporidiosis) involve subcutaneous tissue. Dermatophytosis is itchy and scaly | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22479 | Incidence of infeility isin reproductive age couples ? | [
"0-5 %",
"5-10%",
"10-20 %",
"25-30%"
] | Ans: C. 10-20 %Infeility is defined as the failure to conceive after one year of regular unprotected intercourse.Incidence10-20% of reproductive ages couples. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33829 | Which of the following is not administered by intradermal route? | [
"BCG",
"Drug sensitivity injection",
"Mantoux",
"Insulin"
] | Insulin is given through sub-cutaneous route | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6824 | Prolonged QT interval is not seen in? | [
"Hypokalemia",
"Hypocalcemia",
"Hypomagnesemia",
"Hypercalcemia"
] | Hypercalcemia: The most common ECG findings of hypercalcemia are a sho QT interval secondary to a shoened ST segment. There may also be a widened or flattened T wave; however, significant hypercalcemia can cause ECG changes that mimic an acute myocardial infarction Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1534 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36558 | Tumour most sensitive to radiotherapy is | [
"Osteogenic sarcoma",
"Ewing's sarcoma",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Osteoclastoma"
] | EWING'S SARCOMA: This is highly malignant tumour occurring between the age of 10-20 years, sometimes up to 30 years. This is a highly radiosensitive tumour, melts quickly but recurs. In most cases, distant metastasis has occurred by the time diagnosis is made. Treatment consists of control of local tumour by radiotherapy (6000 rads), and control of metastasis by chemotherapy. Chemotherapy consists of Vincristine, Cyclophosphamide, and Adriamycin in cycles repeated every 3-4 weeks for about 1218 cycles. Reference: Maheshwari; Essential Ohopaedics; Page no: 243 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25835 | A 20-year-old female presents for an infertility workup. She has never had a menstrual period. She is short with a broad chest, webbed neck, and low-set ears. It is demonstrated that she has an abnormal karyotype.The cause of the woman's abnormal karyotype is which one of the following? | [
"Maternal nondisjunction",
"Paternal nondisjunction",
"Both maternal and paternal nondisjunction",
"Either maternal or paternal nondisjunction"
] | Monosomy X (Turner syndrome) can be as a result of either maternal nondisjunction (an egg is created lacking an X chromosome, whereas another egg has two X chromosomes) or paternal nondisjunction (a sperm lacks the X chromosome, whereas another sperm contains both the X and Y chromosomes). Turner syndrome is not caused by translocation events, either reciprocal or Robertsonian (recall that Robertsonian translocations only occur among acrocentric chromosomes, and the X chromosome if not acrocentric). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35920 | Proteins are stored by | [
"Golgi bodies",
"Mitochondria",
"Ribosomes",
"Nuclear membrane"
] | Golgi-apparatus is involved in O-glycosylation and processing of oligosaccharide chains of membrane and other N-linked glycoproteins and trans-golgi apparatus is involved in sorting of various proteins prior to their delivery to appropriate intracellular destination. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_228 | Which of the following necrosis occurs characteristically in brain infarcts? | [
"Caseous necrosis",
"Fibrinoid necrosis",
"Coagulative necrosis",
"Liquefactive necrosis"
] | CNS parenchymal infarcts organize an influx of macrophages into the area of necrosis. The macrophages ingest the lipid-rich, necrotic parenchyma, ultimately conveing the area to a fluid-filled cavity (liquefactive necrosis). This process is usually complete by about 6 months after the development of the infarct. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19416 | Vagal stimulation of the hea causes | [
"Increased hea rate",
"Increased R-R interval in ECG",
"Increased force of hea contraction",
"Increased cardiac output"
] | The right and left vagus nerves in the neck region were exposed by dissection, and bipolar, multiturn, helical, silicone leads were wrapped around the vagus nerves. Stimulation was applied by an external device with multivariable settings: frequency 10-100 Hz, pulse duration 100-700 usec; delay 0-0.5 msec; current 0.5-14 mA. Measurements were performed under normal sinus rhythm (RR-interval 501 +- 30 msec) and during isoprenaline-induced tachycardia (RR-interval 284 +- 11 msec). Results. VNS, under optimal pacing conditions (100 Hz; 5 mA; 0.2 msec; 70 msec delay), in an electrocardiogram-triggered (ECG-triggered) pacing mode, increased RR-intervals by approximately 40%, irrespective of the duration of the RR-interval preceding VNS. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48170 | All of the following statements about congenital rubella are true except - | [
"IgG persists for more than 6 months",
"IgM antibody present at bih",
"Most common anomalies are hearing and hea defects",
"Increased risk of congenital malformation if infection occur after 16 weeks."
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Increased risk of congenital malformation if infection occurafter 16 weeks Maternal infection in early pregnancy can lead to fetal infection, with resultant congenital rubella. The classic signs of congenital rubella are cataract, hea disease, deafness, and myriad other defects. o Congenital infection is considered to have occurred if the infant has IgM rubella antibodies sholy after bih or IgG antibodies persists for more than six months by which time maternally derived antibodies would have disappeared. o The most impoant factor in the pathogenicity of rubella virus for the fetus is gestational age at the time of infection. Maternal infection during the first trimester leads to fetal infection in - 50% of cases; maternal infection early in the second trimester leads to fetal infection in about one-third of cases. Fetal malformations not only are more common after maternal infection in the first trimester but also tend to be more severe and to involve more organ systems. Infection in the second trimester may cause deafness, but those infected after 16 weeks suffer no major abnormality. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43517 | Reinke's crystals are found in - | [
"Arrhenoblastoma",
"Granulosa cell tumor",
"Dysgerminoma",
"Hilus cell tumor"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hilus cell tumorReinke's crystal are seen in hilus cell tumor of ovary. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21374 | Live vaccine is - | [
"Salk polio",
"KFD",
"Sabin polio",
"Meningococci"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sabin polioLive attenuatedInactivated or killedImmunoglobulins Bacterial BOG Typhoid oral VTral Oral Polio (Sabin) Yellow fever Measles Rubella Mumps Chicken pox Influenza Rickettsial Epidemic TyphusBacterial Typhoid Cholera Pertussis Meningitis Plague Viral Rabies Injectable polio (Salk) Influenza Hepatitis AJE KFDHuman normal Hepatitis A,B Measles Rabies Tetanus Mumps Human Specific Varicella Diptheria Non-Human (antisera) Diphtheria Tetanus Gas Gangrene Botulism RabiesSubunit Vaccines Hepatitis B Typhoid Vi antigenToxoids Diphtheria TetanusBoth active & passive immunization can be given together Diphtheria Hepatitis B Tetanus Rabies | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36003 | DOC for Chlamydia trachomatis in pregnancy | [
"Amoxicillin",
"Metronidazole",
"Cephazolin",
"Clindamycin"
] | Chlamydial infections during pregnancyThe first line of treatment is erythromycin base 500mg orally, four times a day for 7 days, or amoxicillin 500mg orally three times a day for 7days. Azithromycin is an alternative; it is safe in pregnancy.(Refer: Mudaliar and Menon&;s Clinical Obstetrics, 11th edition, pg no: 253) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39206 | Not a Contraindication for lap cholecystectomy | [
"Acute cholecystitis",
"Cancer Gallbladder",
"Portal Hypertension",
"Bleeding Diathesis"
] | Ans. (a) Acute CholecystitisRef: Blumgart 5th edition Page 514* Acute cholecystitis, the treatment of choice is Lap Cholecystectomy.* In other conditions surgery should be done by Open method.Contraindications to Laparoscopic cholecystectomy Absolute# Unable to tolerate general anesthesia# Refractory coagulopathy# Suspiciion of carcinomaRelative# Previous upper abdominal surgery# Cholangitis# Diffuse peritonitis# Cirrhosis or portal hypertension# Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease# Cholecystenteric fisula# Morbid obesity# Pregnancy | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9827 | A female suffering from psychosis, taking phenothiazines now complains of sudden onset of high grade fever, muscle rigidity and altered sensorium. The diagnosis is - | [
"Malignant hypehermia",
"Neuroleptic malignant syndrome",
"Tardive dyskinesia",
"Akathesia"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Neuroleptic malignant syndrome o History of intake of antipsychotic drugs and high grade fever, muscle rigidity, altered sensorium suggests Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33929 | Blind spot of mariotte: March 2007 | [
"Fovea centralis",
"Optic disc",
"Macula lutea",
"Ors serrata"
] | Ans. B: Optic disc Blind spot/physiological blind spot,/punctum caecum is the place in the visual field that corresponds to the lack of light-detecting photoreceptor cells on the optic disc of the retina where the optic nerve passes through it. The ora serrata is the serrated junction between the retina and the ciliary body. This junction marks the transition from the simple non-photosensitive area of the retina to the complex, multi-layered photosensitive region. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50924 | All of the following are indicators of ovulation except:March 2008 | [
"Increase in cervical mucus",
"Abdominal cramps",
"LH surge",
"Fall in body temperature"
] | Ans. D: Fall in body temperatureFrequent physical signs indicating ovulation are:Increased body temperatureLH surgeIncreased cervical mucus -cervical mucus is most abundant and becomes clear and slippery and stretches like egg whiteChange of position and firmness of cervixAbdominal cramps (Mittelschmerz)Increased libidoTender breasts | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1165 | Intraepidermal lgG deposition is seen in | [
"Pemphigus",
"Bullous pemphigoid",
"Herpes genitalis",
"SLE"
] | Pemphigus | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35299 | A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infections. What is the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Wiskott Aldrich syndrome",
"A beta gammaglobulinemia",
"Chediak higashi syndrome",
"Lazy leukocyte syndrome"
] | Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is an X-linked platelet/immunologic disorder caused by mutations in the WASP gene. The triad of eczema, recurrent infections, and microthrombocytopenia that characterizes WAS only occurs in 27% of the cases. The immunologic defects include low serum concentrations of IgM, while IgA and IgG are normal and IgE is frequently increased. Ref: The Elements of Immunology By Fahim Halim Khan, 2009, Page 413 ; Harrison's 17th ed chapter 310 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30421 | The most effective means of reducing microbes in root canal: | [
"Frequent medication of root canal",
"Complete debridement through instrumentation",
"Systemic antibiotics",
"All of the above"
] | Following measures should be taken to be completely rid of these irritants:
Thorough cleaning and shaping of the root canal system: Thorough cleaning and shaping followed by three-dimensional obturation of the root canals have shown to produce complete healing of periradicular tissue. Complete debridement of canal should be done with adjunctive use of irrigants like sodium hypochlorite, which efficiently removes bacteria as well as their substrate from irregularities of canal system, where instruments cannot reach such as fins, indentations, cul de-sacs, etc.
Oxygenating a canal simply by opening it is detrimental to anaerobes. Use of oxygenating agents as glyoxide can be of great help, but care should be taken to avoid the inoculation of these oxygenating agents into periapical tissues.
A tooth with serous or purulent or hemorrhagic exudate should be allowed to drain with rubber dam in place for a time under supervision. An abscess which is a potent irritant, has an elevated osmotic pressure. This attracts more tissue fluid and thus more edema and pain. Drainage by canal or by soft tissues decrease discomfort caused by inflammatory mediators.
Antibiotics should also be considered as adjunctive in severe infections. The choice of antibiotic agent should be done on the knowledge of microorganisms associated with endodontic infections.
Intracanal medicaments play an important role in combating the microorganisms. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42828 | Endolymphatic decompression is done in - | [
"Tinnitus",
"Acoustic neuroma",
"Meniere's disease",
"Endolymphatic fistula"
] | Decompression of endolymphatic sac is done in Meniere’s disease | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23615 | A 25-year-old man is exposed to Ascaris but does not develop clinical signs of infection. Which of the following mechanisms is likely to be responsible for his resistance to infection? | [
"Antibody mediated destruction of worm infected host cells",
"CTL induced apoptosis of worm infected host cells",
"Complement mediated lysis of worm attached to host tissues",
"IgE mediated type I hypersensitivity disrupting worm attachment"
] | Ans. (d)Local inflammatory responses such as that induced by IgE can inhibit attachment of roundworms to the intestinal wall. Ascaris is a large worm and is not damaged by antibodies directed at it or by complement, CTLs or phagocytes. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42996 | Pyridoxal phosphate is needed in: | [
"Glycogenolysis",
"Fatty acid oxidation",
"Glvcogenesis",
"Gluconeogenesis"
] | Ans-A Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry,28th edition Explanation: Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen. Glycogen Phosphorylase catalyzes the phosphorolytic cleavage of the (l-4) glycosidic linkages of glycogen, releasing glucose-1- phosphate as the reaction product. Glycogen (n residues)+ Pi - glycogen (n-1 residues) + glucose-1-phosphate Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), a derivative of vitamin B6. serves as the prosthetic group for Glycogen Phosphorylase. Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) is held at the active site with the e-amino group of a lysine residue. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41813 | A 3.5 year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the following is the best vaccination advice to such a child? | [
"BCG, DPT1 and OPV1. DPT2 and OPV2 after 4 weeks.",
"BCG, DT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A",
"BCG, DPT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A",
"DT1, DT2 and booster after 1 year"
] | BCG, DPT1, OPV1, measles, vitamin A Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive medicine | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7038 | Lithium is not used in the treatment of which of the following | [
"Major depression",
"Vascular headache",
"Neutropenia",
"Generalized anxiety disorder"
] | uses of lithium is impoant it is used in several disorders like vascular headache mania depression drug induced neutropenia suicidal ideas in mania Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 983 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20914 | Least helpful for the diagnosis of spondylolisthesis - | [
"AP x-ray of spine",
"Lateral x-ray of spine",
"MRI",
"CT"
] | All the given radiological investigations are used for spondylolisthesis. However, AP x-ray of spine is least helpful as in low grades of spondylolisthesis it may be normal.
On the other hand lateral x-ray, CT and MRI (sagittal view) diagnose even the mildest degree of spondylolisthesis.
It is worth noting that spondylolysis (not spondylolisthesis) may be missed on lateral x-ray and MRI. CT scanning is more sensitive in diagnosing spondylolysis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25980 | Which of the following is not associated with mucous secretion? | [
"Paneth cell",
"Goblet cell",
"Brunner's glands",
"Crypts of Lieberkuhn"
] | Panthet cells are not associated with mucous secretion, it secretes lysozyme and also has some phagocytic functions. Goblet cells are specialized mucus secreting cells present throughout the intestine. Brunners glands are found in the submucosa of small intestine, they produce viscid, mucoid, alkaline secretion which neutralize acid chyme. Crypts of Lieberkuhn secretes mucus, electrolytes and water. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43861 | Following injury to a blood vessel, immediate haemostasis is achieved by - | [
"Fibrin deposition",
"Vasoconstriction",
"Platelet adhesion",
"Thrombosis"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vasoconstriction Hemostasiso Hemostasis is a physiological process where by bleeding is halted, thus protecting the integrity' of the vascular system after tissue injury.o It is responsible for minimizing blood loss,o It is commonly referred to as stoppage of bleeding,o The hemostatic mechanisms have several functions : -1. Maintain blood in fluid state while circulating within the vascular system.2 Arrest bleeding at the site of injury by formation of hemostatic plug.3. Ensure the removal of hemostatic plug when healing is complete.o The components of normal hemostasis include: -Blood vessels (endothelium)PlateletsPlasma coagulation factors and their inhibitors.Fibrinolytic system.o When a blood vessel is injured, several steps occur in hemostasis at the site of injury': -Vasoconstrictiono After initial injury, there is a brief period arteriolar vasoconstriction, minimizing vessel diameter and stowing bleeding.o This is due to reflex neurogenic mechanism and augmented by a potent endothelium derived vasoconstrictor endothelin.o However this effect is transient, bleeding would resume if there will no activation of platelet and coagulation system.Primary hemostasiso Endothelial injury exposes highly thrombogenic subendothelial extracellular matrix which allows the platelets to bind (adhere) with collegen of ECM.o Binding of platelets activates these cells and platelets release secretory' granules.o These secretory' products (from secretory granules) recruite additional platelets to form primary hemostatic (platelet plug).Secondary hemostasiso Coagulation system is activated and thrombin is generated,o Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.o Ultimately these events forms an ireversibly fused mass of platelets, thrombin RBCs and fibrinogen - Definitive secondary hemostatic plug.Repair of v essels and dissolution of cloto The clot attracts and stimulates the growth of fibroblast and smooth musc le cells within the vessel wall, and begins repair process.o At this stage fibrinolytic system is also activated, resulting in dissolution of the clot. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38615 | Intercalated disc is present in | [
"Cardiac muscle",
"Smooth muscle",
"Skeletal",
"All"
] | CARDIAC MUSCLE - With the light microscope the junctions between adjoining cardiac myocytes are seen as dark staining transverse lines running across the muscle fibre. These lines are called intercalated discs. Sometimes these discs do not run straight across the fibres, but are broken into a number of 'steps' . The discs always lie opposite the I bands. Cardiac muscle is involuntary and is innervated by autonomic fibres (in contrast to skeletal muscle that is innervated by cerebrospinal nerves). Nerve endings terminate near the cardiac myocytes, but motor end plates are not seen. REF : Inderbir Singh's Textbook of Human HistologY, seventh edition, pg.no.,122. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12426 | When compared to traditional antipsychotic medication, atypical antipsychotic medication is more likely to be helpful for which of the following symptoms? | [
"Hallucinations",
"Delusions",
"Agitation",
"Social withdrawal"
] | Social withdrawal is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. Negative symptoms respond better to atypical antipsychotic medication than to traditional antipsychotics. Hallucinations, delusions, agitation, and over-talkativeness are positive symptoms of schizophrenia. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9440 | Flumazenil false is ? | [
"It is a specific antagonist of BZD",
"It may be used in barbiturate poisoning as it acts on the same receptor GABAA",
"Given intravenously",
"Acts on GABAA receptor"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., It may be used in barbiturate poisoning as it acts on the same receptor GABAA Flumazenil is specfic antagonist of BZDs. i.e., it acts on BZDs binding site of GABAA receptors, which is different from Baributurate binding site. Therefore, flumazenil does not antagonize barbiturates not effective in barbiturates poisoning. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24173 | A 72-year-old man has had poorly controlled hypertension for the past 20 years. Over the past day he has had a severe headache with nausea, followed by confusion, then convulsions. On examination he is afebrile, but his blood pressure is now 260/150 mm Hg. There is bilateral papilledema. Which of the following pathologic lesions is most likely to have developed in his brain during the past day? | [
"Arteriolar fibrinoid necrosis",
"Cortical telangiectasia",
"Lacunar infarction",
"Putaminal hematoma"
] | He developed acute hypertensive encephalopathy from the rapid and marked increase in blood pressure. There is extensive cerebral edema with increased intracranial pressure, but no localizing signs. The arterioles are involved, and like malignant hypertension involving the kidney, there is fibrinoid necrosis and petechial hemorrhages. Telangiectasias may be one form of vascular malformation, typically a localized lesion not related to hypertension. Lacunar infarcts develop with hypertension, but they tend to be small and are often silent, but may cause significant neurologic impairment, though more likely a focal deficit due to focal involvement. Hypertensive hemorrhages may be large, and the basal ganglia region is a common location, but such a lesion could produce a unilateral mass effect with papilledema on one side. Subarachnoid hemorrhages are more likely to occur from ruptured saccular aneurysms. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50660 | 28 years old woman having limited cutaneous scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of shoness of breath for last one month. What is most likely diagnosis in this case? | [
"Interstitial lung disease",
"Pulmonary aery hypeension",
"Congestive hea failure",
"Bronchiectasis"
] | The most likely diagnosis for the above mentioned clinical scenario is interstitial lung disease. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1554-57; R Alagappan, Manual of Practical Medicine, 3rd Edition, Page 243-44. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3991 | Minimum urinary output required to excerete end products of protein metabolism is | [
"200 mL\\/24 hours",
"300 mL\\/24 hours",
"400 mL\\/24 hours",
"500 mL\\/24 hours"
] | The normal urine output is approximately 1500 mL/ day and, provided that the kidneys are healthy . A minimum urine output of 400 mL/day is required to excrete the end products of protein metabolism. Bailey and Love 26th edition Pg : 263 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38604 | Under AFP Surveillance, follow-up examination is done after (For residual paralysis) | [
"15 days of onset of paralysis",
"33 days of onset of paralysis",
"60 days of onset of paralysis",
"90 days of onset of paralysis"
] | Under AFP Surveillance, follow-up examination is done after (For residual paralysis) 60 days of onset of paralysis - Acute flacid paralysis is seen polio myelitis AFP surveillance done at 0-15 yrs. Age group in India done by surveillance medical officer 2 stood specimen collect to suspected person 24 - 48 hr. apa Each simple. 8 gm ( adult thumb size) - Transpoed in reverse cold chain ( +2 to + 8degC) Follow up after 60 days Confirmation of polio by 90 days | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6634 | In a Down's syndrome patient posted for surgery, the necessary preoperative investigation to be done is – | [
"CT Brain",
"Echocardiography",
"Ultrasound Abdomen",
"X-ray cervical spine"
] | Congenital heart disease (especially endocardial cushion defect) is frequently found in Down's syndrome. Echocardiography is therefore considered necessary preoperative investigation. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46497 | A patient after giving inhalational anaestheia developed fulminant hepatitis, patient was exposed to same drug previously. Which is the drug? | [
"Halothane",
"N20",
"Enflurane",
"Isoflurane"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Halothane Halothane It is a volatile liquid with sweet odour, nonirritating and noninflammable. It is a potent anaesthetic with poor analgesic and muscle relaxant propeies. Halothane causes direct depression of myocardial contractility by reducing intracellular Ca+2. It causes fall in BP and CO. Hea rate decreases due to vagal stimulation. It tends to sensitize the hea to arrhythmogenic action of adrenaline --* contraindicated in pheochromocytoma. It causes greater depression of respiration and ventilation perfusion mismatch. It dilates the bronchi --> inhalation agent of choice in asthmatics (intravaneous anaesthetic of choice in asthmatics is ketamine). It is a hepatotoxic drug and can also cause malignant hypehermia (Succinylcholine accentuate it). Recovery is smooth and reasonably quick. It causes postanaesthetic shivering and chills. It inhibits intestinal and uterine contractions --> agent of choice for assisting external or internal version during late pregnancy. Because its uterine relaxant action it is contraindicated during labour. It is paicularly suitable for induction and maintenance in children and as maintenance anaesthetic in adults. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53675 | Conversion of phenylacetic acid into phenol is an example of | [
"Oxidation",
"Reduction",
"Hydrolysis",
"Conjugation"
] | Primary alcohols can be oxidised to make aldehydes, which can then be oxidised to carboxylic acids. Phenols and carboxylic acids can't be oxidised as they don't have a hydrogen atom on the carbon atom to which the OH group is attached. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50454 | Ruptured globe is suspected if there is | [
"Proptosis",
"Subluxation of lens",
"Blow-out fracture",
"Chemosis, haemorrhage, decreased IOP"
] | Globe rupture Globe rupture is a full-thickness wound of the eye wall caused by a blunt object. Globe rupture may occur in two ways: 1. Direct rupture. 2. Indirect rupture It is more common and occurs because of the compression force. The impact results in momentary increase in the intraocular pressure and an inside-out injury at the weakest pa of eyewall, i.e., in the vicinity of canal of Schlemm concentric to the limbus. The superonasal limbus is the most common site of globe rupture (contrecoup effect-- the lower temporal quadrant being most exposed to trauma). Rupture of the globe may be associated with prolapse of uveal tissue, vitreous loss, intraocular haemorrhage, decreased IOP and dislocation of the lens. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-407 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5371 | The most favourable prognosis of the type of root
fracture is seen in | [
"Apical third",
"Middle third",
"Cervical third",
"Junction of middle and cervical third"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22048 | Parinaud's Syndrome is associated with all EXCEPT | [
"Collier's sign may be present",
"Can be caused by hydrocephalus with acquiductal stenosis",
"Light near dissociation of pupil",
"Nuclear gaze palsy"
] | (D) Nuclear gaze palsy # Parinaud's Syndrome or Dorsal Midbrain Syndrome and vertical gaze palsy, is an inability to move the eyes up or down. It is caused a tumor of the pineal gland which compresses the vertical gaze center at the rostral interstitial nucleus of medial longitudinal fasciculus (riMLF). The eyes lose the ability to move upward.# Parinaud's Syndrome is a cluster of abnormalities of eye movement and pupil dysfunction, characterized by:> Paralysis of upgaze: Downward gaze is usually preserved. This vertical palsy is supranuclear, so Doll's head maneuver should elevate the eyes, but eventually all upward gaze mechanisms fail.> Pseudo-Argyll Robertson pupils: Accommodative paresis ensues, and pupils become mid-dilated and show light-near dissociation.> Convergence-Retraction nystagmus: Attempts at upward gaze often produce this phenomenon. On fast up-gaze, the eyes pull in and the globes retract. The easiest way to bring out this reaction is to ask the patient to follow down-going stripes on an optokinetic drum.> Eyelid retraction (Collier's sign) Conjugate down gaze in the primary position: "setting-sun sign". Neurosurgeons will often see this sign most commonly in patients with failed ventriculoperitoneal shunts. It is also commonly associated with bilateral papilledema. It has less commonly been associated with spasm of accommodation on attempted upward gaze, pseudoabducens palsy (also known as thalamic esotropia) or slower movements of the abducting eye than the adducting eye during horizontal saccades, see-saw nystagmus and associated ocular motility deficits including skew deviation, oculomotor nerve palsy, trochlear nerve palsy and internuclear ophthalmoplegia.> Classically, it has been associated with three major groups: Young patients with brain tumors in the pineal gland or midbrain: pinealoma (intracranial germinomas) are the most common lesion producing this syndrome. Women in their 20s-30s with multiple sclerosis Older patients following stroke of the upper brainstem | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24624 | A lady undergoes radical hysterectomy for stage Ib cancer cervix. It was found that cancer extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of cervix next step of management will be: | [
"Chemotherapy",
"Radiotherapy",
"Chemoradiation",
"Follow-up"
] | Ans. is d, i.e. Follow-upRef: Novak Gynae 14th/ed, p1436, 1426, 1418-1, 1408Postoperatively it was found that carcinoma extends to the lower part of uterus. Now this is a trap because uterine extension has no significance in cancer cervix and does not change the staging. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40255 | "Sleep apnoea", is defined as a temporary pause in breathing during sleep lasting at least? | [
"40 seconds",
"30 seconds",
"20 seconds",
"10 seconds"
] | Answer is D (10 seconds): Sleep Apnea is defined as temporary cessation of breathing for at least 10 seconds (CMDT) Sleep Apnea: Review Sleep Apnea is defined as an intermittent cessation of airflow at the nose and mouth during sleep By definition/convention breath cessation for at least 10 seconds is termed Apnea By convention sleep apnea is defined by breath cessation for at least 10 seconds. Most patients with sleep apneas have cessation for 20-30 seconds. The duration of breath cessation may be as long as 2-3 minutes. Sleep apneas can be central or obstructive Central sleep Apnea Sleep apnea occurs due to transient cessation of neural drive to all respiratory muscles Obstructive sleep Apnea Sleep Apnea occurs due to transient occlusion of the orapharyngeal airway despite continued respiratory drive | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12961 | Decompression sickness is seen in all except | [
"Diver",
"Pilot",
"Diver and pilot",
"Mountaineer"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51707 | Which of the following hormones is elevated in small cell carcinoma of lung | [
"PTH",
"ANF",
"Growth hormone",
"VIP"
] | Hormones produced by small - cell cancer lung are :
ACTH.
AVP.
Calcitonin.
Gastrin releasing peptide. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25838 | A patient got exposed to Hepatitis B infection. Which of the following markers will always be present in the patient even he becomes chronic or recurrent? | [
"Hbs Ag",
"Anti HBs Ab",
"Hbc AB",
"Hbe Ag"
] | Ans. (c) Hbc ABRef: Ananthanarayan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology - 10th ed - page 550* HbcAg - cannot be demonstrable in blood* The earliest antibody marker to be identified is Anti HbcAg -IgM* After six months IgG starts appearing* Question dint mention IgM or IgG (hence that's the answer)HBs AgHBe AgAnti HBcAnti HBsAnti HBeInterpretation++IgM--Acute HBV infection; highly infectious++IgG--Late/chronic HBV infection or carrier state; highly infectious+-IgG-+/-Late/Chronic HBV infection or carrier state; low infectivity-+/-IgM-+/-Seen rarely in early acute HBV infection; infectious--IgG+/-+/-Remote HBV infection; infectivity nil or very low---+-Immunity following HBV vaccine | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26105 | Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except? | [
"Polycystic kidney",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Medullary sponge kidney",
"Renal tubular acidosis"
] | Causes of Nephrocalcinosis Medullary sponge kidney Hyperparathyroidism/ Hypoparathyroidism Renal tubular acidosis Renal tuberculosis Hyperoxaluria Milk-alkali syndrome Sarcoidosis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50976 | Pharyngeal artery is a branch of | [
"First part of maxillary artery",
"Second part of maxillary artery",
"Third part of maxillary artery",
"None"
] | Pharyngeal artery is a branch of third part of maxillary artery. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50230 | Drug of choice for Falciparum Malaria is:- | [
"Chloroquine",
"Mefloquine",
"ACT",
"Proguanil"
] | DOC for Falciparum Malaria - ACT.( Aemisinin based Combination therapy ) In Noh Eastern states:- ACT-AL co-formulated tablet of Aemether-20 mg / Lumefantrine - 120 mg. Primaquine 0.75 mg/ kg Body weight on day 2. 2. In Other States:- ACT-SP -Aesunate 50 mg tablet for 3 days and Sulphadoxine (500mg) - Pyremethamine (25mg) tablets for 1 Day. Primaquine tablets should be given on Day 2. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18123 | Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this computed tomography scan of the male perineum and pelvis. In which structure would ligation of the external iliac artery reduce blood pressure? | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | (a) The external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery immediately after passing the inguinal ligament. Therefore, ligation of the external iliac artery reduces blood pressure in the femoral artery. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51884 | Major stage of death unbend stage renal disease patients on display is which of the following | [
"Cardiovascular disease",
"Infection",
"Uremia",
"Respiratory failure"
] | Principal cause of death in renal transplant patients in decreasing order Hea disease Infection Stroke | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51597 | Most common cause of moebius syndrome in use of which of the following drug in pregnancy | [
"Misoprostol",
"thalidomide",
"Methotrexate",
"Dinoprostone"
] | Moebius syndrome is extremely rare congenital condition characterized by facial paralysis and inability to move the laterally. It results due to paralysis of 6th and 7th cranial nerves impoant causes of this syndrome are Bih trauma Use of misoprostal in mother during pregnancy Use of thalidomide in mother during pregnancy Use of cocaine in mother during pregnancy Refer katzung 11/e p1029 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52330 | Anthropometry is | [
"Measurement of skeletal dimensions on human skeletal remains",
"Measurement of skeletal dimensions on living individuals",
"Measurement of skeletal dimensions on radiographs",
"Measurement of skeletal dimensions on photographs"
] | Anthropometry
Anthropometry is a technique, which involves measuring skeletal dimensions on living individuals. Various landmarks established in the studies of dry skull are measured in living individuals by using soft tissue points overlying these bony landmarks. These measurements can be made on both dry skull as well as living individuals, although in the latter case the thickness of soft tissue will also need to be considered.
Despite this shortcoming the most important advantage is that the study can be longitudinal, wherein the growth of an individual can be followed directly over a period of time with repeated measurement without damaging the subject.
Ref: Gurkeerat Singh Textbook of orthodontics 2nd ed page 8 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17451 | In an antemortem burn which is NOT true - | [
"Line of redness",
"Increase in enzymes",
"Vesicle formation",
"Non-albuminous bulla"
] | In ante-mortem burning, bullae are albuminous, i.e. contain albumin.
Postmortem findings in death due to burn
1) Specific signs (which indicate antemortem burning) :
(i) Soot and Carbon particles in respiratory passages,
(ii) Increased carboxy hemoglobin (>5%) in blood,
(iii) Signs of vital reaction,
(iv) Signs of inflammation,
(v) Redline of demarcation,
(vi) True blister (vesicle) containing protein (albumin) and chloride,
(vii) Increased enzyme and sulfhydryl (-SH). group,
(viii) Increased serotonin and histamine, and
(ix) Signs of healing and repair.
2) Non-specific signs (may also occur in postmortem burning) :
(i) Pugilistic attitude,
(ii) Heat hematoma,
(iii) Heat fracture,
(iv) Heat ruptures. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45054 | Most common genital prolapse is: | [
"Cystocoele",
"Procidentia",
"Rectocoele",
"Enterocoele"
] | The first event in a prolapse is the Retroversion of uterus The first and the commonest type of genital prolapse is the Cystocoele. Types of Prolapse. Uterine prolapse, Prolapse of the bladder and Prolapse of the rectum. Uterine Prolapse: Cys | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52822 | Substitution of which one of the following amino acids in place of alanine would increase the absorbance of protein at 280 nm - | [
"Leucine",
"Arginine",
"Tryptophan",
"Prolein"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tryptophan Most Amino acids do not absorb visible light and are thus colourless.However aromatic aminoacids absorb ultraviolet light.This accounts for the characteristic strong absorbance of light by most proteins at a wavelength of 280 nm, a property exploited by researchers in the characterization of proteins;Tryptophan makes the major contribution to the ability of most proteins to absorb light in the region of 280 nmAlso know,Other amino acids which absorb lightTyrosinePhenylalanineMeasurement of light absorption by a spectrophotometer is used to detect and identify molecules and to measure their concentration in solution. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28204 | Which of the following is not a feature Eustachian tube in children | [
"Wider and shoer shoer",
"Flaccid due to less elastin content",
"Ostmann's pad of fat is more in volume",
"Isthmus is straight in children"
] | The Eustachian tube in children is shoer (16-18mm), wider and more horizontal. It is also less taut due to lack of elastin. The above differences make the infant more prone for retrograde reflux of nasopharyngeal secretions and milk while feeding in supine position. Differences between Infant & adult ET INFANT ET ADULT ET Length 16-18 mm 36 mm Angle with horizontal 100 (more horizontal) Normalizes at 7yrs 450 Isthmus Straight Angulated Width Wider bony pa Narrow Cailage Flaccid Rigid Elastin at roof Less dense Very dense Ostmann's pad of fat Less in volume More in volume | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11662 | The angle that tympanic membrane makes with the horizontal plane is ? | [
"15deg",
"25deg",
"45deg",
"55deg"
] | Ans. is `c' i.e., 45degThe tympanic membrane slants downward and inward obliquely, so that it forms an angle of 30 - 45deg with the floor of horizontal canal. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44139 | Cognitive disorders -a) Deliriumb) Depersonalizationc) Dementiad) Secondary gain | [
"ac",
"bc",
"ad",
"b"
] | Three groups of cognitive disorder are delirium, dementia and amnestic disorders. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52043 | Toughest layer of Cornea is | [
"Descement membrane",
"Endothelium",
"Connective tissue stroma",
"Pre descement membrane"
] | Toughest layer of Cornea is Pre descement membrane. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26009 | Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator. Where is it produced from? | [
"Endothelium",
"RBC",
"Platelets",
"Lymphocytes"
] | Nitric oxide, known as the 'endothelium-derived relaxing factor', or 'EDRF'. Endothelial cells contain the constitutive form of nitric oxide synthase, which produces moderate amounts of nitric oxide by metabolizing L-arginine. The endothelium of blood vessels uses nitric oxide to signal the surrounding smooth muscle to relax, thus resulting in vasodilation and increasing blood flow. Functions: Endothelium-derived nitric oxide inhibits contraction and proliferation of the underlying vascular smooth muscle, adhesion of blood cells and platelets, and platelet aggregation. Ref: Hypeension Primer: The Essentials of High Blood Pressure By Joseph L Izzo, Jr, Henry R Black, M.D., Theodore L. Goodfriend, 2003, Page 44; Guyton's physiology, 22nd edition, Page 199 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42180 | The drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is: Al 07 | [
"Atropine",
"Physostigmine",
"Adrenaline",
"Carbachol"
] | Ans. Atropine | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31174 | Pautriers microabscess is seen in - | [
"Psoriasis",
"Mycosis fungoides",
"Lichen planus",
"Leprosy"
] | In mycosis fungoides, T cells characteristically form bandlike aggregates within the superficial dermis and invade the epidermis as single cells and small clusters (Pautrier microabscesses). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54646 | Increased tendency to fall asleep at night without causing CNS depression is a property exhibited by | [
"Pyridoxine",
"Diphenhydramine",
"Melatonin",
"Ethanol"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46206 | In organophosphorus compound poisoning, atropine can reverse all the following signs except - | [
"Lacrimation",
"Diaphoresis",
"Diarrhea",
"Muscle weakness"
] | Atropine given in organophosphorus poisoning has effects on muscarinic manifestations; it has no effect on nicotinic manifestations like muscle weakness, fasciculations, cramps, and areflexia. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37329 | Skeletal derivative of Ist arch ? | [
"Stapes",
"Hyoid",
"Maxilla",
"Laryngeal coilages"
] | Maxilla | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14697 | whice of the following are the The lymphatic drainage of fundus and upper pa of uterus ? | [
"pre and para aoic lymph nodes",
"external iliac lymph nodes",
"superficial inguinal lymph nodes",
"deep inguinal lymph nodes"
] | Lymphatic Drainage of uterus - Lymphatics of the uterus begin at three intercommunicating networks, endometrial, myometrial and subperitoneal. These plexuses drain into lymphatics on the side of the uterus. Of these, the upper lymphatics from the fundus and upper pa of the body drain mainly into the aoic nodes, and only paly to the superficial inguinal nodes along the round ligament of the uterus. The lower lymphatics from the cervix drain into the external iliac, internal iliac and sacral nodes. The middle lymphatics from the lower pa of body drain into the external iliac nodes. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg. no., 422. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49508 | The CSF findings in TB meningitis include: | [
"High sugar + low protein",
"Low sugar + high protein and lymphocytosis",
"High sugar + high chloride",
"Low sugar + high protein and lymphopenia"
] | b. Low sugar + high protein and lymphocytosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2936-2948, Ghai 8/e p 563-565)Lymphocytosis is seen in Tuberculous meningitis, though in early stages, CSF neutrophilia may be seen | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3660 | Dark ground microscopy is used for: | [
"TPI",
"Kahn's test",
"FTA-ABS",
"VDRL"
] | In TPI test , the serum of patient with complement and T.pallidum maintained in a complex medium anaerobically . If the antibodies are present , the treponemes are rendered non motile, when examined under dark ground illumination Kahn test and VDRL test are non specific antigen antibody test ,cardiolipin antigen is used. FTA-ABS is specific antigen antibody test | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49257 | A 54-year-old man with a long history of indigestion after meals and "heaburn" presents with upper abdominal pain. He was treated with proton-pump inhibitors for gastroesophageal reflux 3 years . An endoscopic biopsy of the lower esophagus shows glandular metaplasia. The patient described is at increased risk of developing which of the following diseases of the esophagus? | [
"Achalasia",
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Candidiasis",
"Plummer-Vinson syndrome"
] | - Barrett esophagus carries a serious risk of malignant transformation to adenocarcinoma, risk correlates with length of involved esophagus & degree of dysplasia. - Viually all esophageal adenocarcinomas arise in the background of metaplastic epithelium of Barrett esophagus. - Symptoms & clinical course of adenocarcinoma of esophagus are similar to squamous cell carcinoma which include dysphagia, pain, occasionally bleeding. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48295 | All of the following statement regarding measles are true except -a) Rash appears first on legb) Koplik spot are seen on retinac) Long term complication may be seen in form of SSPEd) Caused by RNA viruse) I-P is 2-3 days | [
"abc",
"bcd",
"cde",
"abe"
] | Measles
Measles is caused by a RNA virus of paramyxovirus.
Measles in also known as rubella
The only source of infection is a case of measles, carriers are not known to occur.
Infective period → 4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash.
Infective material → Secretions of nose, throat and respiratory tract
Age group → 6 month to 3 years.
Immunity → One attack of measles generally confers lifelong immunity.
Transmission →
Droplet infection through respiratory tract
Infection through conjunctiva.
Incubation period →
10 days from exposure to onset of fever.
14 days from exposure to appearance of rash.
7 days for live vaccine of measles.
Clinical manifestations
1) Prodromal stage
Begins 10 days after the infection and lasts until day 14.
Characterized by fever, coryza with sneezing and nasal discharge, redness of the eyes, lacrimation and photophobia.
A day or two before the appearance of rash, Koplik's spots appear on buccal mucosa opposite the 1st and 2nd lower molars.
Koplik's spots are pathognonzonic of measles.
2) Eruptive phase
Maculopapular rash which begins behind the ear and spread rapidly in a few hour over the face and neck extends doWn the body.
3) Post measles stage
Weight loss
Growth retardation
Diarrhea
Cancrum oris
Reactivation of pulmonary TB
Candidiasis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_454 | Topic: Neuromuscular blockers 1. Fastest acting non depolarising blocker is Rocuronium 2. Longest acting neuromuscular blocker is Pancuronium 3. Vagal stimulation is caused by succinylcholine 4. Most potent skeletal muscle relaxant is Doxacurium 5. Shoest acting non depolarising neuromuscular blocker is Mivacurium | [
"1, 2, 3 - True & 4, 5 - False",
"1, 2, 3, 5 - True & 4 - False",
"1, 2 - True & 3, 4, 5 - False",
"1, 2, 3, 4, 5 - True"
] | Among the non depolarising neuromuscular blockers Rocuronium has the fastest onset of action ( 90 seconds). Mivacurium is a sho acting non depolarising muscle relaxant that is rapidly hydrolysed by plasma pseudocholinesterase. Pancuronium is a potent long acting neuromuscular blocking drug with both vagolytic and butyrylcholinesterase inhibitng propeies. Doxacurium is 2.5 to 3 times more potent than pancuronium another long acting non depolarizing agent. Succinylcholine a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker when given repeatedly or as a constant infusion cause vagal stimulation and bradycardia. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30724 | Midgut is supplied by which artery - | [
"Superior mesenteric artery",
"Middle colic artery",
"Celiac trunk",
"Inferior mesenteric artery"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Superior mesenteric artery Part of gutDerivativesArteryForegutPharynxLower respiratory tractEsophagusStomachDuodenum upto the opening of the main pancreatic ductLiverPancreasCeliac trunkMidgutDuodenum distal to the opening of the main pancreatic ductSmall intestineAppendixCecumAscending colonTransverse colon upto th junction of right 2/3 and left 1/3SupermesentericarteryHindgutLeft 1/3 of transverse colonDescending colonSigmoid colonRectumUpper part of anal canalInferior mesentericartery | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_384 | Minimal change disease is/are caused by - | [
"Rifampicin",
"IFN-α",
"Gold",
"All of the above"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52109 | All are true about Air-embolism except | [
"Increased end tidal CO2",
"Acidosis",
"Decreased end tidal O2",
"Decreased residual volume"
] | (D) Decreased residual volume # Venous Air Embolism:> Venous air embolism (VAE), the entry of gas into the peripheral or central vasculature, can occur secondary to iatrogenic complications, trauma, and even certain recreational activities.> Gas emboli are usually composed of air, but they can also occur with medically used gases such as carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, and nitrogen. Although very small volumes of air can lead to severe sequelae, it is generally accepted that more than 50 mL of air can cause hypotension and dysarhythmias and more than 300 mL of air can be lethal.> Laboratory Studies> Arterial blood gases are indicated and usually demonstrate hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and metabolic acidosis.> Mild cases may demonstrate mild hypoxemia and hypocapnia. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16082 | "Incisura" of the aerial pulse corresponds to: | [
"First hea sound",
"Closure of the aoic valve",
"Isovolumetric relaxation",
"Third hea sound"
] | Incisura is the notch seen in the aerial pulse tracing due to closure of the aoic valve. More peripheral aerial pulsations exhibit an analogous notch called "dicrotic notch". At the end of ventricular systole, there is sudden change in the direction of blood ('protodiastole'), followed by closure of the aoic valve. These events are responsible for the notch, a sudden alteration in the aerial tracing. It is followed by a slowly declining pressure wave, indicating the ventricular diastole. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4739 | Chimeric DNA used for: | [
"Paternity test",
"Maternity test",
"Personal identification",
"Organ transplantation"
] | Ans. (d) Organ transplantationRef: Harpers Biochemistry 30th Ed; Page No- 459* Chimeric DNA is known as Recombinant DNA.* Chimeric DNA = DNA to be cloned + Vector DNAMote* Passenger DNA: DNA to be cloned is called Passenger DNA or Foreign DNA.* Procedure to Prepare Chimeric DNA:# Both foreign DNA and Vector DNA is treated with same restriction endonuclease.# This creates sticky or blunt ends.# This is religated using DNA ligase.# Thus chimeric DNA os produced.* Organ transplant will be right answers: for synth of GSM -CSF for stimulating bone marrow after marrow transplants.* So expression vector or chimeric DNA or recombinant DNA technology!* Uses of Recombinant DNA technology:# Predict the risk of genetic defects.# Preparation of Vaccine and Hormones.# Diagnosis of infectious disease.# Gene therapy# Forensic medicine: Reveal a criminal from specimens left on the scene of crime. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19219 | Bone resorption markers are: | [
"Serum propeptide of type I procollagen",
"Osteocalcin",
"Urine total free deoxypyridinoline",
"Free glutamic acid cross linkage."
] | C. i.e. Urine total free deoxypyridindine | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17572 | Drug of choice in Zollinger Ellison syndrome is : | [
"Ranitidine",
"Omeprazole",
"Antacids",
"B-blocker"
] | Ans. is 'b' Omeprazole (Ref. Harrison, 17/e, p 1869 & 16/e, p 1759 (15/e, p 1662)). Treatment of choice for Zollinger Ellison syndrome is - Proton pump inhibitors (Omeprazole or lansoprazole). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13545 | All are true regarding axillary lymph nodes except | [
"Posterior group lies along subscapular vessels",
"Lateral group lies along lateral thoracic vessels",
"Apical group lies along axillary vessels",
"Apical group is terminal lymphnodes"
] | AXILLARY LYMPH NODES: The axillary lymph nodes are scattered in the fibrofatty tissue of the axilla. They are divided into 5 groups. 1)The nodes of the anterior {pectoral} group lie along the lateral thoracic vessels, i.e along the lower border of the pectoralis minor. They receive lymph from the major pa of the breast. 2)The nodes of the posterior {scapular}group lie along the subscapularis vessels, on the posterior fold of the axilla. They receive lymph from the posterior wall of the upper half of the trunk, and from the axillary tail of the breast. 3)The nodes of the lateral group lie along the upper pa of the humerus, medial to the axillary vein. They receive lymph from the upper limb. 4)The nodes of the central group lie in the fat of the upper axilla. They receive lymph from the preceding groups and drain into the apical group. They receive some direct vessels from the floor of the axilla. The intercostobrachial nerve is closely related to them. 5)The nodes of the apical or infraclavicular group lie deep to the clavipectoral fascia, along the axillary vessels. They receive lymph from the central group, from the upper pa of the breast, and from the thumb and its web. The lymphatics from the thumb accompany the cephalic vein. REF: BD Chaurasia 7th edition page no:55 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17771 | All are aeriolar dilators except ? | [
"Hydralazine",
"Minoxidil",
"Nitrates",
"Nifedipine"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nitrates | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43235 | All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT: | [
"Cycloxygenase I is an inducible enzyme",
"Cycloyegenase II is induced by cytokines at sites of inflammation",
"PG's and leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid",
"Leukotrienes cause smooth muscle constriction"
] | Cycloxgenase enzyme exist in two isoforms COX 1 and COX2. Cycloxygenase 1 is not an inducible enzyme, it has physiological house keeping functions. Cycloxygenase 2 is normally present only in minute quantities. It is an inducible enzyme, it is induced by cytokines and other signal molecules at the site of inflammation leading to the generation of prostaglandins which mediate inflammatory changes. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 168. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5952 | Replacement resorption is characterized by: | [
"Lamina dura is lost",
"Moth eaten appearance",
"Metallic sound on percussion",
"All of the above"
] | Complications
When a tooth is avulsed, the attachment apparatus of the tooth is damaged and blood vessels at the apex are severed. If the cemental layer is intact, it acts as a physical barrier that prevents the toxins from the pulp from reaching the periodontal ligament. After avulsion, if the protective cemental layer is damaged, the insulating quality is lost. If the pulp becomes infected, the toxins can now pass through the dentinal tubules and stimulate inflammatory root resorption. The denuded root surface is resorbed by multi-nucleated giant cells and is continued until the stimulus is removed. Radiographically, inflammatory resorption is observed as progressive radiolucent areas.
On the other hand, ankylosis can occur. Ankylosis is termed as replacement resorption. Radiographically, a traceable lamina dura is lost and a moth-eaten appearance results. Clinically, lack of mobility and metallic sound to percussion of the tooth is pathognomonic. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51562 | Which among the following is TRUE regarding paneth cells? | [
"Absence of lysosomes",
"High concentration of zinc",
"No role in innate immunity",
"Abundant in esophagus and stomach"
] | Paneth cells, located in the basal poion of the intestinal crypts below the stem cells, are exocrine cells with large, eosinophilic secretory granules in their apical cytoplasm. The granules contain the bactericidal enzyme lysozyme, an arginine-rich protein, and zinc. Paneth cell granules undergo exocytosis to release lysozyme, phospholipase A2, and hydrophobic peptides called defensins, all of which bind and breakdown membranes of microorganisms and bacterial walls. Paneth cells have an impoant role in innate immunity and in regulating the microenvironment of the intestinal crypts. Ref: Mescher A.L. (2010). Chapter 15. Digestive Tract. In A.L. Mescher (Ed), Junqueira's Basic Histology: Text & Atlas, 12e. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42578 | Major metabolite of noradrenaline in urine is: | [
"VMA",
"HVA",
"Normetanephrine",
"Metanephrine"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42449 | All of the following are seen in inflammatory polyahritis, except | [
"New bone formation",
"Erythema",
"Increased ESR",
"Morning stiffness more than one hour"
] | Answer is A (New bone formation) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19643 | A 9 month old infant presents with a 2- day history of fever, cough and breathlessness following an upper respiratory infection. She is febrile and has a respiratory rate of 80/min. Intercostal and subcostal retractions and extensive rhonchi on auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals a hyperinflated chest - | [
"Bronchial asthma",
"Foreign body aspiration",
"Bacterial pneumonia",
"Bronchiolitis"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bronchiolitis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37993 | Myelination in peripheral nervous system is done by | [
"Astrocytes",
"Oligodendrocyte",
"Ependymal cells",
"Schwann cells"
] | In PNS myelination is done by schwann cells In CNS myelination is done by oligodendrocytes Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:671,672,673 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18549 | A 30 year old male patient complains of food lodgment and pain in lower right back teeth region. RCT was done with 46 and 45 was missing. Cast metal restoration with gold alloy was planned for 46. The patient is not happy with the color of the prosthesis. The reasons for the color of the prosthesis may be all except: | [
"Investment breakdown at elevated temperatures",
"High Sulphur content of the torch flame",
"Interaction of molten alloy with sulphur",
"Coarse silica used in investment"
] | Surface discoloration and roughness can result from sulfur contamination. This effect may be seen either from investment breakdown at elevated temperatures or from a high sulfur content of the torch flame. The interaction of the molten alloy with sulfur produces a black or gray layer on the surface of gold alloys that is brittle and does not clean readily during pickling.
Philips’ Dental Material, pg- 224 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10095 | The treatment of choice in annular pancreas is which of the following? | [
"Whipple's operation",
"Duodeno-jejunostomy",
"Gastro-jejunostomy",
"Jejuno-cystostomy"
] | Duodeno-Duodenostomy is also done in treatment of annular pancreas. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29312 | Not true about Antro choanal polyp | [
"Best examined with Anterior Rhinoscopy",
"Less recurrence rate",
"Seen in young individuals",
"Usually unilateral"
] | Best examined with posterior Rhinoscopy. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40752 | Restriction enzyme Type II | [
"Methylates specific DNA sequences",
"Cleaves specific palindromic DNA sequences",
"Helps in protein digestion",
"Helps in keeping the nascent protein unfolded"
] | Restriction enzyme type II identifies the palindromic sequences on the DNA and cuts the DNA strand at a ceain specific site. Types of Restriction EnzymesRestriction enzymes are traditionally classified into four types on the basis of subunit composition, cleavage position, sequence specificity and cofactor requirements. Type I enzymes are complex, multisubunit, combination restriction-and-modification enzymes that cut DNA at random far from their recognition sequences.Type II enzymes cut DNA at defined positions close to or within their recognition sequences. They produce discrete restriction fragments and distinct gel banding patterns, and they are the only class used in the laboratory for DNA analysis and gene cloning. Type III enzymes are also large combination restriction-and-modification enzymes. They cleave outside of their recognition sequences and require two such sequences in opposite orientations within the same DNA molecule to accomplish cleavage; they rarely give complete digests.Type IV enzymes recognize modified, typically methylated DNA and are exemplified by the McrBC and Mrr systems of E. coli. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7464 | Which of the following will have maximum conductive hearing loss? | [
"Partial stapes fixation",
"Tympanic membrane perforation with intact ossicular chain",
"Tympanic membrane perforation with ossicular discontinuity",
"Intact tympanic membrane with ossicular discontinuity"
] | (Refer: PL Dhingra, Textbook of Ear, Nose, Throat, 6th edition, pg no: 34)
Hearing loss in conduction apparatus | D | null |
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