dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_5993 | Which of he following devices doesn’t use the principle of fluorescence in diagnosis of caries | [
"Diagnodent",
"QLF",
"FOTI",
"Soprolife"
] | DIAGNOdent is an instrument designed to facilitate the detection and quantification of dental caries on occlusal and smooth surfaces (Kaltenbach & Voigt GmbH & Co., Biberach/Riss, Germany). It uses a diode laser light source and a fibreoptic cable that transmits the light to a handheld probe with a fibreoptic eye in the tip. The light is absorbed and induces infrared fluorescence by organic and inorganic material. The emitted fluorescence is collected at the probe tip, transmitted through ascending fibres, and processed and presented on a display window as an integer between 0 and 99. Increased fluorescence reflects potential caries-affected tooth substance. The identity of the material responsible that DIAGNOdent is capable of detecting relatively advanced caries lesions, and DIAGNOdent readings show a very good correlation with histologic evidence of caries, but not with the depths of the lesions in dentin.
Conventional clinical caries examinations routinely use transillumination to identify lesions located on the interproximal surfaces of the anterior teeth. For at least 30 years a fibreoptic transillumination (FOTI) instrument has been available for clinical use. It provides an intense light beam that is transmitted through a fibreoptic cable to a specially designed probe to permit the use of transillumination on the proximal surfaces of posterior teeth, Repeated improvements have been made in the instrument so that it may be used on occlusal and proximal tooth surfaces and the instrument is commonly used, often in place of radiographs, in private practices in Europe. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53995 | Veroca.) bodies are seen in: | [
"Meningioma",
"Hemangioma",
"Glioma",
"Schwannoma"
] | Ans. d. Schwannoma | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42202 | According to JJ Act 2000, juvenile is boy and girl respectively less than: NEET 13 | [
"16 and 18",
"18 and 21",
"14 and 16",
"18 and 18"
] | Ans. 18 and 18 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40849 | What is the treatment of choice for myoclonic epilepsy in children - | [
"Phenytoin",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Sodium valproate",
"Ethosuximide"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sodium valporate DOC for myoclonic epilepsy is valproic acid. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3889 | Actions of the lumbricals are- | [
"Flexion at PIP and extension at DIP joints",
"Flexion at metacarpophalangeal and extension at PIP joints",
"Adduction of fingers",
"Abduction of fingers"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Flexion at metacarpophalangeal and extension at PIP joints Action of small muscles in handLumbricalsFlexion at metacarpophalangeal(MCP) and extension at PIP jointsDorsal InterosseiAbduction of fingersPalmar InterosseiAdduction of fingers | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40809 | Thiopentone is contraindicated in ? | [
"Acute intermittant porphyria",
"Electro convulsive therapy",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Diabetic patients"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute intermittant porphyria Thiopentone It is an ultrasho acting barbiturate. It has sho duration of action due to rapid redistribution. It causes fall in BP due to vasodilatation - Cardiovascular collapse may occur if hypovolemia, shock or sepsis are present. It can cause respiratory depression. It has anticonvulsant action - agent of choice for neurosurgical procedures. It is the agent of choice for cerebral protection. because it decreases ICT, and cerebral metabolic rate. Miller 6th/e - 330, 332 .o It is poor analgesic -f painful procedure should not be done.It produces hyperalgesia. It has poor muscle relaxant propey. Extravasation of the solution or inadverent intraerial injection produces intense pain - thrombosis and vasoconstriction can cause necrosis and gangrene. Treatment of this condition includes. Leaving needle insitu Brachial block Heparin injection to - prevent thrombosis Dilution of thiopentol t by injection of saline into the aery. Papaverine injection - to relieve spasm. Urokinase, streptokinase, vasodilators, steroid and lignocaine can also be used. Contraindications Acute intermittant porphyria Cardiovascular instability or shock. Respiratory obstruction No availibility of airway equipments. Status asthmaticus | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31800 | Features of cystinuria are - | [
"Impaired proximal tubular reabsorption of cystin",
"Autosomal recessive",
"Recurrent renal stone",
"All of above"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Cystineuriao Metabolic disorder of autosomal recessive inheritance.o Defect in transport of cystine and some other aminoacid across renal tubular ceil & interstitial cell,o Selective increase renal clearance of cystine and other basic aminoacid in urine.o High urinary cystine leads to radio - opaque hexagonal crystal,o Crystal is soluble in alkali.o Treatment - formation of stone can be reduced by alkalization of urine. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12721 | In Mitral valve prolapse, HPE shows - | [
"Hyaline degeneration",
"Elastic degeneration",
"Myxomatous degeneration",
"Fibrinoid necrosis."
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7946 | A young male presented with Hypo anesthetic patch on right forearm. On examination a thickened nerve was palpable. Histopathology shows the following: | [
"TT Leprosy",
"LL Leprosy",
"Lymphoma",
"Histiocytosis"
] | Ans. A. TT LeprosyTuberculoid leprosy (TT):a. One or few, asymmetrically located lesionsb. Well defined, hypo-pigmented, anesthetic macules or plaques, often with active border.c. The lesions show hair loss and impairment of sweatingd. A superficial feeder nerve or single regional nerve is often thickened and may even be nodular.Histopathology:Hard tubercles eroding into epidermis; no clear zoneLepromatous leprosy (LL):A systemic disease characterized by extensive cutaneous, neural and systemic involvementHistopathology:a. Collection of foamy macrophages in dermis separated from epidermis by a clear zoneb. Masses of acid-fast bacilli (globi) can be seen in some of the foamy histiocytes | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23182 | The most common mechanical failure for metal-ceramic restorations is | [
"Debonding of the porcelain from the metal.",
"Shrinkage of the porcelain at mouth temperature.",
"Debonding of the PFM from the tooth.",
"None of the above"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46092 | |An 18-year-old female gymnast is admitted to the hospital with pelvic pain. Physical examination reveals that the patient has a history of primary amenorrhea and an imperforate hymen. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this condition? | [
"Failure of the vaginal plate to canalize",
"Cervical atresia",
"Patent processus vaginalis",
"Androgen insensitivity syndrome"
] | The vaginal plate, which arises from the sinovaginal bulbs, undergoes canalization during embryonic development. Failure of canalization results in a persistent vaginal plate and thus imperforate hymen. The hymen is a fold of mucous membrane that covers the opening of the vaginal canal. It is often torn early in life. The processus vaginalis is a tubelike projection of the peritoneum into the inguinal canal that precedes the descent of the testis or round ligament. Both cervical atresia and androgen insensitivity syndrome would result in amenorrhea; however, neither disorder would present with an imperforate hymen because the vaginal canal would still undergo canalization. The sinovaginal bulbs are responsible for the development of the vaginal plate. Failure of development would result in complete absence of the vagina. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12103 | A chromatographic technique which separates one protein from another based on the difference in their size is | [
"Size exclusion chromatography",
"Ion-exchange chromatography",
"Hydrophobicity",
"Affinity chromatography"
] | Chromatographic techniques separate one protein from another based on the difference in their size (size exclusion chromatography), charge (ion-exchangechromatography), hydrophobicity (hydrophobic interaction chromatography), or ability to bind a specific ligand (affinity chromatography).Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 4; Proteins: Determination of Primary Structure | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36030 | The most common nerve involved in volkmann's ischemic contracture or forearm includes: | [
"Radial",
"Ulnar",
"Median",
"Posterior interosseous"
] | Volkmann's ischemic contracture most commonly involve flexor digitorum profundus muscle and median nerve. Ref: Tachdjian's Pediatric Ohopedics 3/e, Page 2139-77, 2060; Rockwood and Green's Fracture in Children 6/e, Page 543-86; Apley's 8/e, Page 596-99, 563-64; Watson Jones : Fracture and Joint injuries 6/e, Page 591-609. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13355 | Which of the following drug is used for reversal of cerebral vasospasm and infarct following subarachnoid hemorrhage? | [
"Nimodipine",
"Amlodipine",
"Diltiazem",
"Verapamil"
] | Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) These are the drugs that block L-type of voltage gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and hea. Three groups of CCBs include phenylalkylamines (verapamil, nor-verapamil), benzothiazepines (diltiazem) dihydropyridines (nifedipine, nicardipine, nimodipine, nisoldipine, nitrendipine, isradipine, lacidipine, felodipine and amlodipine). By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents result in vasodilation and decreased activity of the hea (decrease hea rate, AV conduction and contractility). Dihydropyridine (DHP) group has little direct cardiac activity and acts mainly on blood vessels, therefore are also called peripherally acting CCBs. Verapamil and diltiazem have strong direct cardiodepressant (verapamil > diltiazem) activity. CCBs tend to cause reflex tachycardia (because of their vasodilatory action), which is nullified by the direct depressant action on the hea (except DHPs). Nicardipine is longest acting parenteral calcium channel blocker and is drug of choice for hypeensive emergencies. It is combined with beta blockers to avoid tachycardia. Nimodipine is a relatively cerebro-selective vasodilator, thus used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid hemorrhage. Verapamil has maximum depressant action on the hea and it causes vasodilation by causing blockade of calcium channel. It is indicated for the treatment of angina, PSVT, hypeension and hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Diltiazem has lesser effect on the hea than verapamil and is also indicated for these conditions. CCBs are especially suitable for elderly patients, patients with low renin hypeension, patients with diseases like asthma, migraine or peripheral vascular disease and in cases of isolated systolic hypeension. DHPs are safe in pregnancy. CCBs (verapamil and diltiazem) should be avoided in conditions involving decreased conductivity of the hea like sick sinus syndrome, CHF and along with beta blockers (both cause myocardial depression). Clevidipine is an ultrasho acting DHP, recently approved for hypeensive emergencies. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5556 | Cryoprecipitate is rich in which of the following clotting factors: | [
"Factor II",
"Factor V",
"Factor VII",
"Factor VIII"
] | Cryoprecipitate is a source of Fibrinogen (factor I), Factor VIII and Von-Willebrand factor.
Treatment of choice for Hemophilia A, von Willebrand disease and hypofibrinogenemic states.
If factor VIII is unavailable, cryoprecipitate may be an alternative, since each unit contains about 80 IU of factor VIII. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47165 | Syln point is related to ? | [
"Squamous pa",
"Petrous pa",
"Tympanic pa",
"Mastoid pa"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Squamous pa The pterion is situated in the floor of temporal fossa. It is an H-shaped suture, where four bones meet each other :? i) Greater wing of sphenoid ii) Squamous temporal iii) Frontal iv) Anterioinferior angle of parietal Central point of pterion is known as Syln point. the cranium is very thin " at this point. Its immediate deep relations are frontal branch of middle meningeal aery, its accompanying vein and stem of lateral sulcus of brain. Fracture at this point may injure middle meningeal aery or/and vein and give rise to extradural hemorrhage. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7939 | Which of these is the most impoant indication for Strassmans Metroplasty done for a bicornuate uterus? | [
"Infeility",
"Menorrhagia",
"Repeated early pregnancy losses",
"Associated vaginal atresia"
] | Habitual aboion is the most impoant indication for surgical treatment of women who have a double uterus. The aboion rate in women who have a double uterus is to three times greater than that of the general population. Best diagnosis of the condition is made by laparohysteroscopy. Strassmans Metroplasty | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8250 | Testosterone production is mainly contributed by - | [
"Leydig cells",
"Sertoli cells",
"Seminiferous tubules",
"Epididymis"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Ley dig cells o Androgens (including testosterone) are produced by ley dig cells (interstitial cells).o Leydig cells have receptors for LH and secrete androgens, i.e. Testosterone, dihydrotestosterone (DHT), androstenedione, and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).o Sertoli cells have receptors for FSH and secrete ABP, inhibin and MIS. sertoli cells also have receptor for testosterone. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41806 | Which of the nerve fiber carry pain: | [
"A-Alpha",
"A-Beta",
"A-Gamma",
"C-fibers"
] | Ans. D C-fibersRef: Gationg, 25th ed. pg. 94; Guyton Physiology, 11th ed. pg. 576-577* Pain is carried by A d and C fibres* General classification of Nerve Fibers# In the general classification, the fibers are divided into types A, B and C. Type A fibers are further subdivided into abg and d fibers.# Type A fibers are the typical large and medium-sizec myelinated fibers of spinal nerves.# Type B fibres are Myelinated, Pre-ganglionc autonomic# Type C fibers are the small unmyelinated nerve fiber: that conduct impulses at low velocities.Nerve Fibre Type and FunctionFiber typeFunctionA fiber aProprioception; Somatic motorbTouch, pressure, motorgMotor to muscle spindledPain, cold, touchB fiberPreganglionic AutonomicC fiber Dorsal rootPain, temperature, reflex responsesSympathetic rootPostganglionic sympathetic | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16891 | A man dies after 5 days of suffering a myocardial infarction. What will the hea biopsy show? | [
"Liquifactive necrosis",
"Caseous necrosis",
"Coagulative necrosis",
"Fibrinoid necrosis"
] | Coagulative necrosis is a form of necrosis in which the underlying tissue architecture is preserved for at least several days. The affected tissues take on a firm texture. Presumably the injury denatures not only structural proteins but also enzymes, thereby blocking the proteolysis of the dead cells; as a result, eosinophilic, anucleate cells may persist for days or weeks. Coagulative necrosis is characteristic of infarcts (areas of ischemic necrosis) in all of the solid organs except the brain.( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th edition, page 10 ) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28334 | EKG finding of ventricular premature beats- | [
"Fusion beat",
"Narrow QRS complex",
"AV Dissociation",
"Wide QRS complex"
] | PVCs are characterized by premature and bizarrely shaped QRS complexes that are unusually long (typically >120 msec) and appear wide on the electrocardiogram (ECG). These complexes are not preceded by a P wave, and the T wave is usually large and oriented in a direction opposite the major deflection of the QRS. pvc is followed by a compensatory pause Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1435 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42129 | Nodular scabies is found in – | [
"Web space of finger",
"Axilla",
"Abdomen",
"Scrotum"
] | Nodular scabies is an atypical form of scabies that presents as itchy nodules over scrotum & penis. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36499 | Good-pasture syndrome is characterized by - | [
"Anti GBM antibody",
"Crescents",
"Diffuse alveolar damage",
"All of the above"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52071 | Which is not an indication for walking bleach: | [
"Discolouration of the pulp chamber.",
"Defective enamel formation.",
"Dentin discolouration.",
"None."
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21632 | A 40 years old female presents with fever, fatigue, diffuse painful swelling in the midline of the neck. FNAC revealed epitheloid cells & giant cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Acute thyroiditis",
"Subacute thyroiditis",
"Tubercular lymphadenitis",
"Hashimoto's thyroiditis"
] | Subacute Thyroiditis Aka DE QUERVAIN'S thyroiditis Aka Viral thyroiditis Aka Granulomatous thyroiditis Aka Giant cell thyroiditis Characterized byUpper respiratory tract infection caused by virus| leading to Granulomatous inflammation | leading toFollicular destruction & giant cell formation Associated with HLA B-35 NSAIDS to control inflammation | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44229 | Treatment option for keratoconus includes: | [
"Spectacles",
"Contact lens",
"Kerotoplasty",
"ALL"
] | A. i.e. Spectacles; B. i.e. Contact lens; C. i.e. Keratoplasty | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52655 | Which of the following organism, when isolated in the blood, requires the synergistic activity of penicillin + amino glycoside for appropriate therapy : | [
"Enterococcus faecalis",
"Staph. aureus",
"Streptococcus pneumoniae",
"Bacteriodes fragilis"
] | See the following line.
“Unlike streptococci, enterococci are not reliably killed by penicillin or ampicillin alone. Because in vitro testing has shown evidence of synergistic killing by combination of penicillin or ampicillin with an amminoglycoside, combined therapy is recommended for enterococcal endocarditis and meningitis.”
Enterococci are resistant to all cephalosporins | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11544 | Measurements of intravacular pressure by a pulmonary aery catheter should be done: | [
"At end expiration",
"At peak of inspiration",
"During mid inspiration",
"During mid expiration"
] | Answer is A (At end expiration): The changes in intrathoracic pressure that occur during different phases of respiration influence measurement of intravascular pressure. These changes are minimal at end expiration which therefore is the best phase for measurement of intravascular pressure. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14866 | Fetal middle cerebral artery Doppler is most useful in the evaluation of - | [
"intrauterine growth restriction",
"Preeclampsia",
"Fetal anemia",
"Fetal metabolic disorders"
] | Ans-CMCA - PSA for fetal anemia in Rh- pregnancy. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17802 | How many axes in DSM 4 | [
"2",
"3",
"4",
"5"
] | ICD ICD mentions International classification of mental and behavioural disorders this was given by WHO( World health Organisation) ICD is used all over the world except America latest edition of ICD is ICD11 ICD 11 was released in 2018 DSM DSM mentions Diagnostic and Statistical manual of mental disorders this was given by APA( American Psychiatric Assosiation) DSM is used in America latest edition of DSM is DSM 5 DSM 5 was released in 2018 according to DSM IV TR there is an multi axial system for diagnosis AXIS I====== major psychiatric disorders AXISII======personality patterns and mental retardation AXIS III=====general medical condition AXIS IV=====psycho social stressors AXIS V=====GAF( Global Assesment of Functioning) Reference: A sho textbook of psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja, seventh edition, page 4. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52537 | A 10 years child has unilateral nasal obstruction epistaxis, swelling over cheek, the diagnosis is - | [
"Nasal polyp",
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Angiofibroma",
"Foreign bodies"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37048 | The appropriate media culture for a gram negative coccobacilli arranged in a school of fish , that causes STD with genital ulcers is | [
"Thayer Main media",
"Blood agar with X and V factors",
"Chocolate agar with isovitale X",
"Tellurite blood agar"
] | Chocolate agar enriched with 1%isovitalex is used to grow H.ducreyi. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4629 | The drug of choice for the treatment of Thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is: | [
"Carbimazole",
"Iodine therapy",
"Propyl thiouracil",
"Metimazole"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e. propylthiouracilRef.: K.D. T. 5th/e p 232, 4th/e p 259, 260This question has been repeated several times before, remember these important pointsAll antithyroid drugs can cross placenta so risk of fetal hypothyroidism and goitre is always thereBoth carbimazole and propylthiouracil can be used during pregnancy, but propylthiouracil is the drug of choice because its greater protein binding allows low doses of propylthiouracil to be transferred across the placenta and therefore less chance of hypothyroidism.The lowest effective dose of propyl thiouracil should be given and it is often possible to stop treatment in the last trimester since TSH Receptor antibodies tend to decline in pregnancy.Radioactive iodine is C/I during pregnancyIt can destroy the fetal thyroid tissue resulting in cretinismCarbimazole and methimazole have been associated with rare cases of foetal aplasia cutis. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9458 | Displaced transverse patella, Rx is: | [
"Patellectomy",
"Tension band wiring",
"POP cast",
"Non operative"
] | B i.e. Tension band wiring Fracture Patella The mechanical function of patella is to hold the entire extensor strap away from the centre of rotation of knee, there by lengthening the anterior lever arm and increasing the efficiency of the quadriceps. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47866 | A 63-year-old man developed a transient episode of vertigo, slurred speech, diplopia, and paresthesia. He is symptom-free now, and clinical examination is entirely normal. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and dyslipidemia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for symptoms? | [
"posterior circulation transient ischemic attack (TIA)",
"anterior communicating artery aneurysm",
"hypertensive encephalopathy",
"pseudobulbar palsy"
] | Posterior circulation TIA is suggested by the transient episodes. The basilar artery is formed by the two vertebral arteries and supplies the pons, the midbrain, and the cerebellum. With vertebrobasilar TIAs, tinnitus, vertigo, diplopia, ataxia, hemiparesis, and bilateral visual impairment are common findings. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11821 | Propofol is used as the drug of choice for inducing anesthesia in which of the following situation? | [
"Neurosurgery",
"Day care surgery",
"Cardiac surgery",
"In neonates"
] | It is the induction agent of choice in day care surgery. The half life is 100 minutes, but the clinical effects of a single dose of propofol lasts only for 10 minutes due to its rapid redistribution. It has minimal residual impairment, anti emetic and anti pruritic propey, making it a suitable drug for day care surgery. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 343 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23633 | A newborn child is presenting with regurgitation of all feeds and, develops coughing and cyanosis with feeding. Most probable diagnosis is | [
"CHPS",
"Esophageal atresia",
"Hirschsprug disease",
"Achalasia"
] | Answer-B. Esophageal atresiaEsophageal atresia is the most common congenital anamoly of the esophagus.More than goT are associated with tracheo esophageal fistula.The most common variety is the one where upper pa of esophagus ends blindly and the lower pa is connected to trachea by a fistula, TEF should be suspected in all cases of hydroamnion.There may be associated anomalies + VACTERL (veebral, anorectal, cardiac, tracheal, esophageal, renal, radial, limb) syndrome. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32236 | Sequence of amino acid in collagen ? | [
"Ala-X-Y",
"Lys-X-Y",
"Gly-X-Y",
"His-X-Y"
] | In order to form a triple-helix, a polypeptide chain (a-chain) must contain glycine as every third residue in the sequence.This is because only the glycine is small enough to be accommodated in the limited space available down the central core of the triple helix.Each turn of polypeptide chain (a-chain) contains three amino acid residues, and glycine (Gly) is present at every third position.Thus glycine constitutes 33% of the total amino acid residues.The repeating amino acid residues, represented as (Gly-X-Y)n, is an absolute requirement for formation of triple helix.X and Y can be any amino acids, but most of the time X is proline (10% of the total amino acid residues) and most of the time Y is hydroxyproline.Other impoant amino acids found in collagen are lysine and hydroxylysine. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37064 | In Bell's palsy, neurological lesion is seen in | [
"Upper pa of face",
"Upper and lower pa of one half of face",
"Lower pa of one-half of face",
"Upper and lower pa of opposite side of face"
] | C/f of Bell's Palsy : Onset is sudden. Patient is unable to close his eye. Neurological lesion is seen in Upper and lower pa of one half of face On attempting to close the eye, eyeball turns up and out (Bell's phenomenon). Saliva dribbles from the angle of mouth. Face becomes asymmetrical Tears flow down from the eye (epiphora). Pain in the ear may precede or accompany the nerve paralysis. Some complain of noise intolerance (stapedial paralysis) or loss of taste (involvement of chorda tympani). Paralysis may be complete or incomplete. Bell's palsy is recurrent in 3-10% of patients. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48550 | Which of the following parasite does not enter into the body by skin penetration - | [
"Dracunculus",
"Necatar americanus",
"Ancylostoma duodenale",
"Stronglyoides"
] | Human becomes infected by drinking unfiltered water containing infective cyclops The third stage larvae is infective form and is present in the haemocoele of these infected cyclops. When infective cyclops are digested by gastric acidity and the larvae are released (refer pgno:175 baveja 3 rd edition) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7106 | The process underflying differences in expression of a gene, according to which parent has transmitted, is called | [
"Anticipation",
"Mosiacism",
"Non-penetrance",
"Genomic imprinting"
] | Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon that causes genes to be expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_842 | Best endometrial reaction In ectopic pregnancy is : | [
"Arias stella reaction",
"Secretory phase",
"Decidual reaction without chorionic villi",
"Decidual reaction with chorionic villi"
] | Decidual reaction without chorionic villi | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31859 | Most prominent spinous process is of which vertebra? | [
"C6",
"C7",
"L1",
"T12"
] | Ans. b (C7). (Ref. BD Chaurasia, Anatomy, Vol 3, 2nd/pg.35)Importance of certain cervical vertebral levelCs-C6Most common disc space reduced in cervical spondylosis.C6has prominent bony tubercle called Chassaignae's tubercle at the level of cricoid cartilage (a level where trachea ends).C7is also known as vertebra prominence as it has most prominent and long spinous process among the all-cervical vertebrae, and the tip of which can be felt on palpation just below the nape of the neck.C7 spinous process tip give attachment to following structures:- Ligamentum nuchae- Rhomboidus minor- Serratus posterior- Semispinalis, and- Trapezius- Interspinalis- Splenius capitis- Spinalis cervicis | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35602 | Frankel behaviour rating system does not include
following behaviour: | [
"Definitely positive",
"Definitely negative",
"Positive",
"Indifferent"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50733 | "Poers of Infection" are - | [
"Anopheles",
"Housefly",
"Aedes",
"Cockroaches"
] | Houseflies are commonest and familiar insects which live close to man. House flies are exceptionally efficient mechanical spreaders of disease. They transpo microorganisms on their feet and hairy leg. Pathogenic organisms, ova, and cysts have been recovered from bodies of the housefly. House flies are called 'poers of infection'. Most impoant are: Musca domestica,M.vicinia,M.nebulo,M.sorbens. REFERENCE: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 834 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22665 | A 25-year-old man presents with 3 days history of pain in the right lower abdomen and vomiting. Patient's general condition is satisfactory and clinical examination reveals a tender lump in right iliac fossa. The most appropriate management in this case would be: | [
"Immediate appendicectomy",
"Exploratory laparotomy",
"Ochsner-Sherren regimen",
"External drainage"
] | Ans. (c) Ochsner-Sherren regimenRef: Bailey and Love 26th edition, Page 1211* This is a case of appendicular mass -- hence conservative regimen is followed.* In a case of appendicular mass if we try to do appendectomy it may result in fistula | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44671 | A metastatic carcinoma in the brain of an adult most often comes from a primary in the - | [
"Stomach",
"Ovary",
"Oral cavity",
"Lung"
] | answer: D | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40511 | The Dane particle is the | [
"HBV",
"IgG anti HAV",
"Delta Virus",
"HBC Ag"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7823 | An elderly diabetic has left sided orbital cellulitis, CT scan of paranasal sinuses shows evidence of left maxillary sinusitis. A Gram-stained smear of the orbital exudates shows irregularly branching septate hyphae. The following is the most likely aetiological agent | [
"Aspergillus",
"Rhizopus",
"Mucor",
"Candida"
] | Infection caused by inhalation of the Aspergillus conidia or mycelial fragments resulting in respiratory diseases, disseminated aspergillosis in brain, kidney and hea.and superficial infection like sinusitis, mycotic keratitis and otomycosis. Sinusitis is caused by A.flavus and A.fumigatus On microscopy, it shows non pigmented septate hyphae with characteristic dichotomous branching at an angle of approximately 45 degrees. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition . | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18219 | Average mercury content in well condensed amalgam
should not exceed: | [
"30%",
"40%",
"50%",
"60%"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44461 | Child requiring repeated sho acting bronchodilators and what could be next line of management ? | [
"Methylxanthines",
"Sho acting budesonide",
"Oral prednisolone",
"Montelukast"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sho acting budesonide o Tolerance is a potential problem with b2-agonists. o So, b2 agonists should not be used on any regular schedule --> due to tolerance, bronchial hyperactivity not reduced on continous use. o It is advised that patients requiring regular medication should be treated with inhaled steroids and use of b2 agonist inhaler should be restricted to symptomatic relief of an acute attack. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23944 | Treatment of strangulated hernia is: | [
"Observation",
"Immediate surgery",
"Manual reduction",
"Analgesics"
] | Ans: b (Immediate surgery)Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th ed, p. 1279 & 23rd ed, p. 1150 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42535 | The most common type of Glomerulonephritis occurs in HIV infection is | [
"FSGS",
"RPGN",
"ADP-GN",
"MPGN"
] | (A) FSGS GLOMERULONEPHRITISCINICAL FEATURESETIOLOGY* ADP-GN* Nephritic syndrome* Post-streptococcal (2/3rd cases)Diffuse proliferative GN* Gross hematuria + edema + hypertension* Leprosy, ABE, SBEAcute GN* Oliguria* RBC cast: most specific* RPGN (Crescentic GN)* Sub acute RF* Nephritic syndrome* Complement level Normal* Respiratory symptoms (hemoptysis in GPS)* RPGN Type* I - Idiopathic, Goodpasture syndrome* II-ldiopathic, SLE, post infectious* III-WG, PAN Churg-Strauss syndrome* Minimal Change Disease (MCD) (Lipoid nephrosis/Nil deposit disease)* Lipiduria and lipid cast in urine* Membranous GN (Hymmens GN)* Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children* Good response to steroids* Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in adults* Idiopathic drugs (Rmp, NSAIDS,* IRON-dextran, IFN-a) HIV* Idiopathic (in primary)* SLE and infections (HBV, HCV, Syphilis, P. malariae)* Drugs (penicillamine Gold, Captopril, NSAIDS)* Membranoproliferative GN (MPGN) Mesangiocapiilary GN* Nephrotic (type-I)* Type-II associated with partial lipodystrophy,* Hypocomplementamia* MPGN Type-I (H.o recent URI)* MPGN type-II (dense deposit ds)* MPGN type-III | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23038 | Drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is : | [
"Penicillin",
"Erythromycin",
"Septran",
"Rifampicin"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10994 | Which is false regarding an Anganwadi worker - | [
"Pa time worker",
"Undergoes 4 month training",
"1 for 1000 children",
"Selected from the community itself"
] | The anganwadi worker is selected from the community she is expected to serve She undergoes training in various aspects of health,nutrition,and child development for 4 months She is a pa time worker and is paid an honorarium of Rs.1500 per month (Refer pgno:903 park 23rd edition) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37720 | Swan Ganz Catheter is used to measure - | [
"Mean arterial pressure",
"Cardiac output",
"Blood volume",
"Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure o Swan Ganz catheter (pulmonary artery catheter) allows direct and simultaneous measurement of -i) Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure <left atrial pressure).ii) Right atrial pressure.iii) Right ventricular pressure.iv) Pulmonary' artery pressure. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14978 | Histological features of chronic hepatitis -a) Fibrosis of porta hepatisb) Architectural changesc) Bridging necrosisd) Ballooning degenerations | [
"ac",
"bc",
"ad",
"b"
] | In chronic hepatitis :
Liver architecture is usually well preserved.
Portal zones infiltrated with lymphocytes and plasma cells and there is fibrosis of porta hepatis.
Bridging necrosis seen by linking of fibrous septa between the lobules.
Ballooning degeneration is seen in Acute hepatitis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20910 | Pain is carried to | [
"Ventralhom",
"Dorsal horn",
"Substantia nigra",
"None of the above"
] | Neurons in the spinal dorsal horn process sensory information, which is then transmitted to several brain regions, including those responsible for pain perception. The dorsal horn provides numerous potential targets for the development of novel analgesics and is thought to undergo changes that contribute to the exaggerated pain felt after nerve injury and inflammation. Dorsal horn neurons receive sensory information from primary afferents that innervate the skin and deeper tissues of the body and that respond to specific types of noxious and non-noxious stimuli. These afferents terminate in the dorsal horn with a distribution pattern that is determined by their sensory modality and the region of the body that they innervate. The incoming information is processed by complex circuits involving excitatory and inhibitory interneurons and transmitted to projection neurons for relay to several brain areas. In addition, nociceptive information is conveyed to the ventral horn and contributes to spinally-mediated nocifensive reflexes. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:691,692,693 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43666 | Smoking is not a risk factor for ? | [
"Lung carcinoma",
"Osteoporosis",
"Nonunion of bones",
"Alzhiemers disease"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Alzhiemers disease Smoking is not a risk factor for the development of alzhiemers disease | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41545 | Multidrug resistance in TB is defined as resistance to | [
"Streptomycin, Rifampicin and Isoniazid",
"Isoniazid and Rifampicin",
"Streptomycin and Rifampicin",
"Streptomycin and Isoniazid"
] | Multidrug Resistant TB (MDR-TB): Resistance to Isoniazid and Rifampicin “with or without resistance to other drugs‘
Treatment of MDR-TB must be done on the basis of sensitivity testing
Directly observed therapy certainly helps to improve outcomes and should be considered an integral part of the treatment of MDR-TB.
Extensive Drug Resistant TB (XDR–TB): Resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid as well as to any member of the quinolone family and at least one of the following second-line TB.
TB treatments: kanamycin, capreomycin, or amikacin. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42657 | Foramen ovale closes because of fusion of - | [
"Septum primum + Endocardial cushion",
"Septum secundum + Endocardial cushion",
"Septum primum + Septum secundum",
"None"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53574 | Ectopic ACTH syndrome is seen most commonly with | [
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Lymphoma",
"Bronchogenic carcinoma",
"Pituitary adenoma"
] | * Ectopic ACTH production is predominantly caused by occult carcinoid tumors, most frequently in the lung, but also in thymus or pancreas. * Advanced small cell lung cancer can cause ectopic ACTH production. In rare cases, ectopic ACTH production has been found to originate from medullary thyroid carcinoma or pheochromocytoma, the latter co-secreting catecholamines and ACTH. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25401 | Black fly Transits | [
"Filaria",
"Onchocerciasis",
"Changes disease",
"Oroya fever"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4712 | When considering the axilla, which of the following statements is accurate? | [
"Pectoralis major and minor contribute to the anterior wall.",
"The long thoracic nerve runs on the posterior wall.",
"Teres minor forms the lower pa of the posterior wall.",
"The axillary aery lies anterior to the axillary sheath."
] | a. The anterior wall of the axilla is formed by pectoralis major and minor, subclavius and the clavipectoral fascia. Explanationsb. The long thoracic nerve runs superficial to serratus anterior on the medial wall. c. The posterior wall consists of subscapularis, teres major and latissimus dorsi. d. The axillary aery runs within the axillary sheath, together with the cords of the brachial plexus. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29361 | Normal capacity of renal pelvis is | [
"7 ml",
"12 ml",
"15 ml",
"20 ml"
] | The renal pelvis is roughly pyramidal, with the base facing the parenchyma and the apex funneling down into the ureter. It usually has a capacity of 3 to 10 mL of urine. ref : campbell - walsh urology 11th ed , chapter 42 , pg no : 973 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49819 | A 28-year-old G1, PO 26-wk pregnant woman is seen in the OB clinic. She has a past history of bronchial asthma that has been well controlled for the last year by inhaled steroids. She states that she has noted increasing shoness of breath for the last 3 days. On examination, she appears tachypneic and moderately uncomfoable. On physical examination, she has a pulse of 110 bpm; normal temperature; respirations 32/min; blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg. Hea exam: NSR without any gallop. A grade 2/6 systolic murmur in the pulmonic area is heard. Lung exam is clear to auscultation; abdomen exam confirms a 26-wk gravid uterus. Laboratory data: Hb 12 g/dL; Hct 36%; WBCs 7.0/uL with normal differential; BUN 23 mg/dL; creatinine 0.9 mg/dL; sodium 136 mEq/L; potassium 4.2 mEq/l. ABGs on room air: pH 7.34; PCO2 34 mm Hg; PO2 68 mm Hg. PEFR 450 L/min. Chest x-rays are shown.The most likely diagnosis is | [
"Acute anxiety",
"Pulmonary embolism",
"Acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma",
"High-output hea failure"
] | The PA show normal lung parenchyma. There are no mediastinal nodes or masses. The cardiophrenic and costophrenic angles are clear. Also, on the lateral view there is an enlarged left main pulmonary aery pressing over the LUL bronchus. Calcified hilar nodes are noted. This is a classic example of a clinical scenario with a high likelihood of pulmonary embolism in a high-risk patient. The chest radiograph is often unimpressive or normal, as in this case. However, congestive atelectasis, as mentioned in the previous question, moderate bloody pleural effusion, and nodular or patchy infiltrates can be seen. In some cases unilateral oligemia (Westermark sign) is recognized. Hampton's hump is a term used to define pulmonary lobules filled with blood. These are triangular pleural-based infiltrates with their apex toward the hilum. The increased alveolar aerial gradient seen on the aerial blood gas study suggests a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch and rules out an acute anxiety state as the cause of the symptoms. Although the patient has a history of bronchial asthma, the lung exam reveals no wheezing or expiratory prolongation and symptoms have been well controlled. Peak flows are satisfactory and hence an acute asthmatic attack is unlikely. With a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL and no clinical evidence of hea failure, a diagnosis of high-output hea failure is incorrect. The clinical diagnosis of pulmonary embolism warrants fuher diagnostic steps. A V/Q scan would be most helpful in reaching a diagnosis, especially in this case with a normal CXR. Other tests to assess respiratory function or exerciseinduced hypoxemia would be inappropriate in this clinical setting. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29582 | In a programme, results analyzed in comparison to cost is known is - | [
"Cost benefit analysis",
"Management by objectives",
"Cost-effective analysis",
"Cost utility study"
] | - cost effective analysis express the benefits in terms of results achieved rather than monetary terms. - more promising tool for application in the health field. Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:871 <\p> | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38776 | Integrins are associated with all except | [
"Rolling",
"Adhesion",
"Arrest",
"Transmigration of cells"
] | Rolling is associated with selectins Integrins are associated with adhesion, arrest, transmigrationRobbins 9th /e p 76 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20660 | One of the following is considered to be the key regulatory enzyme of glycolysis | [
"Hexokinase",
"Phosphofructokinase",
"Phosphoglycerate kinase",
"Pyruvate kinase"
] | Phosphofructokinase is both inducible and subject to allosteric regulation and has a major role in regulating the rate of glycolysis.These reactions, catalyzed by hexokinase (and glucokinase), phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase, are the major sites of regulation of glycolysis.Phosphofructokinase is considered key regulator.Harper 30th edition pg: 172 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23696 | The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes | [
"Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis",
"Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis",
"Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis",
"Syphilis and chancroid"
] | Ans. c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatisSyndromic ManagementUrethral discharge: Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatisGenital ulcer disease: Syphilis and Chancroid | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48967 | Proximal tubular dysfunction is seen in all of the following disorders EXCEPT? | [
"Pompe disease",
"Lowe syndrome",
"Cystinosis",
"Fabry disease"
] | Proximal tubular dysfunction is seen in: Pompe disease Lowe syndrome Cystinosis Galactosemia. Fabry disease : Distal tubular dysfunction | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49166 | Which of the following statements about contrast in radiography is true: | [
"Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per two paicles in solution",
"Osmolar contrast agents may be ionic or non ionic",
"Gadolinum may cross the blood brain barrier",
"lohexol is a high osmolar contrast media"
] | A i.e. Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per two paicles in solution Ionic contrast agents dissociate (ionize) in water in 2 ioins (or osmotic paicles) per molecule whereas nonionic agents do not ionize or dissociate. All monomers contain I benzene ring with 3 iodine atoms and dimers contains 2 benzene rings with 6 iodine atoms per molecule. Therefore ionic monomers have 3 iodine atoms per 2 ionic/ osmotic paicles in solutionQ and a contrast agent ratio of 3:2 (i.e. 1.5). And ionic dimers have 6 iodine atoms per 2 ionic/osmotic paicles in solution with a contrast agent ratio of 6:2 or 3:1. Nonionic agents donot ionize so they have only 1 osmotic paicle per molecule. And similarly monomers contain 3 iodine atom and dimers contain 6 iodine atoms per molecule of contrast agent. Therefore contrast agent ratio of nonionic monomers is 3:1 and nonionic dimers is 6:1. High osmolar contrast agents (HOCM) are all ionic monomersQ; whereas low osmolar contrast agents (LOCM) may be ionic dimers, and nonionic monomers or dimers (i.e. both ionic & nonionic)Q. HOCM have osmolality in range of 1500 mosmols/kg water at concentrations of 300 mg I2/ml. Whereas LOCM have osmolality which is less than half of the osmolality of HOCM (i.e. 600-700 for nonionic monomer, 560 for ionic dimer and 300 for nonionic dimer). So compred to physiological osmolality of 300 mosmols/kg water, nonionic dimers are physiologically isotonic in solution at 300 mg iodine/ml. Normal plasma osmollity is 300 mosmols/kg water at iodine concentration of 300mg/ml. So LOCM means that osmolality is lower than the HOCM (not physiological). Lowest osmolality/osmolarity is seen in non ionic dimer agents which becomes almost physiologically isotonic or iso-osmolarQ (visipaque 320 is 290 mosmol/kg and isovist 300 is 320 mosmol/kgH2O; 320 & 300 are iodine concentrations). Osmolality is propoional to the ratio of iodine atoms to the number of paicles in solution. The contrast agent with lower ratio (3:2) are HOCM and they have more paicles in solution per iodine atom (or in other words less iodine atoms per paicle). And agents with higher ratio (3:1 or 6:2 and 6:1) are LOCM. Iohexol (omnipaque) is a nonionic monomer (LOCM with 3:1 ratio)Q Iodinated contrast agents have low lipid solubility, low toxicity, low binding affinities for protein, receptor or membranes, low moleculer wt & are very hydrophilic. On iv injection b/o high capillary permeability they all are distributed rapidly into extravascular, extracellular interstitial space (except in CNS)Q but do not enter blood or tissue cells. Pharmacokinetics of all extracellular MRI contrast agents (all gadolinium except Gd-BOPTA) are similar to iodinated water soluble contrast media. They donot cross the blood brain barrier unless the barrier is disruptedQ. These agents accumulate in tissues with abnormal vascularity (inflammation & malignancy) and in regions where BBB is disrupted. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54826 | Test for RNA:- | [
"Nohern blot",
"Southern blot",
"Immuno blot",
"South-Western blot"
] | Nohern Blotting detects RNA. Nohern blot - RNA Southern blot- DNA Western blot- Proteins See treasure for details | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44782 | Dye used for "Myelography" is: | [
"Conray 320",
"Myodil",
"Dianosil",
"Iopanoic acid"
] | Myodil | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33421 | Reactivation of TB most commonly located near: | [
"Apex",
"Near bronchus",
"Subpleurally",
"Base"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35222 | Down's syndrome is associated with all except | [
"Retrognathia",
"Periodontal disease",
"Premature loss of deciduous teeth",
"Delayed eruption of deciduous teeth"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27870 | Diabetic cataract occurs to accumulation of - | [
"Glucose",
"Fructose",
"Galactitol",
"Sorbitol"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Sorbitolo Cataract is considered as a major cause of visual impairment in diabetic patients. Senile cataract tends to develop at an earlier age and more rapidly than usual in diabetic patients.o The enzyme aldolase reductase catalyzes the reduction of glucose to sorbitol through the polyol pathway, a process linked to the development of diabetic cataract.IS ADPH+ dependent aldolase reductase reduces excessive glucose to sorbitol and intracellular accumulation of sorbitol leads to osmotic changes resulting in hydropic lens fibers that degenerate and form sugar cataract.o The typical diabetic cataract is snowflake cataract, i.e., dense white subcapsular opacities in the anterior and posterior cortex resembling a snowstorm. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35640 | Which of the following indicator is used for growth monitoring at Anganwadi centre? | [
"Height for age",
"Mid arm circumference",
"Weight for age",
"Height for weight"
] | ANGANWADI CENTRE ICDS GROWTH CHA Nutritional staus of the child is assessed against Weight for age Separate chas for girls and boys 3 zones: Normal zone (grey), Under-nutrition below -2 SD (light grey), severe underweight below-3 SD (dark grey). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34961 | Localization of an object is done by | [
"Paralleling technique",
"Bisecting angle technique",
"Tube shift technique",
"Occlusal technique"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47313 | When a 'spontaneous perforation' of the esophagus occurs as a result of severe barotrauma while a person vomits against a closed glottis, what is the condition known as - | [
"Mallory-Weiss syndrome",
"Plummer Vinson syndrome",
"Kartagener syndrome",
"Boerhaave syndrome"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10133 | Hormonal treatment is given for which of the following malignancy - | [
"Chorio Carcinoma",
"Carcinoma prostate",
"Hepatoma",
"Teratoma"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carcinoma prostate | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2418 | Keratoacanthoma is - | [
"A type of basal cell carcinoma",
"Infected sebaceous cyst",
"Self healing nodular lesion with central ulceration",
"Pre-malignant disease"
] | • Keratoacanthoma is self healing nodular lesion with central ulceration
• More common in men, usually found on the face of 50–70 years old.
• Lesions can grow to 1–3 cm over 6 weeks and typically resolve spontaneously over the subsequent 6 months.
Etiopathogenesis
• Classically a cup-shaped growth that exhibits symmetry about its middle.
• Central crater is filled with a plug of keratin.
• Unclear etiology (may be caused by HPV infecting a hair follicle)
• Associated with smoking and chemical carcinogen exposure).
Treatment
• Removal of central keratin plug may speed resolution.
• Excision is recommended for persistent lesions
• Excision scar is often better than that which remains after resolution. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24116 | Weakness of both Adduction and abduction is seen in: | [
"Duane's retraction syndrome type 1",
"Duane's retraction syndrome type 2",
"Duane's retraction syndrome type 3",
"Double elevator palsy"
] | Ans. c. Duane's retraction syndrome type 3 (Ref: Kanski 5/e p548; Khurana 5/e p355)Weakness of both adduction and abduction is seen in Duane's retraction syndrome type 3.Duane's Retraction SyndromeCongenital strabismus that is usually caused by failure of normal development of the abducens nerve.Absence of the abducens nerve and fascicle with anomalous innervation of the lateral rectus muscle by the oculomotor nervePatients may have esotropia or esotropiaMostly unilateral, commonly affecting the left eye more than rightCharacteristic feature of Duane's Retraction SyndromeRetraction of the globe and narrowing of the palpebral fissure during attempted adductionQ.This feature is caused by the simultaneous contraction of the medial and lateral rectus muscle that occurs during attempted adductionQ.Duane's Retraction SyndromeType l(Esotropic Duane's Syndrome)Type II(Exotropic Duane's Syndrome)Type III* Most common typeQ* Absence or limitation of abduction and normal adductionQ* Least common typeQ* Limited adduction with normal abductionQ.* Limitation of both adduction and abductionQDouble Elevator Palsy:All horizontal gaze movements are normal.Double elevator palsy (mono ocular elevator palsy) is caused by tight oblique contracted inferior rectus muscle or hypoplastic/ineffective superior rectus muscle. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13431 | A patient having infertility is found to have bilateral cornual block on investigations. Best treatment that can be offered to her would be: | [
"In vitro fertilization",
"Tuboplasty",
"Hydrotubation",
"Laparoscopy & hysteroscopy"
] | Ans. A. In vitro fertilizationInvitro Fertilization is offered to those women who have irreparable / failed tubal damage.a. Depending on site of block, Tuboplasty is performed with successful pregnancy rate of 27% for fimbrial & 50% for isthmic.b. Thus, Transvaginal tubal catheterization or hysteroscopy and Tuboplasty have less success rate than IVF, hence IVF would be the best treatment option for her.c. Proximal tubal occlusions may be approached employing several different therapeutic approaches. In vitro fertilization techniques and microsurgical oviduct reconstruction with reimplantation techniques are two established modalities. Transcervical fallopian tube recanalization techniques now offer a third therapeutic alternative.d. Few disadvantages of IVF (In vitro fertilization): It has contributed to the increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy. One possible mechanism is accidental transfer of the embryo into the fallopian tubes. It is an expensive therapy, which only a few can afford. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_74 | Baclofen is: | [
"Centrally acting muscle relaxant",
"Peripherally acting muscle relaxant",
"Both centrally and peripherally acting muscle relaxant",
"Direct acting muscle relaxant"
] | Baclofen is a centrally acting muscle relaxant . Baclofen is primarily used for the treatment of spastic movement disorders, especially in instances of spinal cord injury, cerebral palsy, and multiple sclerosis. Its use in people with stroke or Parkinson's disease is not recommended From padmaja 4th edition Page no 83 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38214 | Opioid antagonist that can be given orally? | [
"Naltrexone",
"Nalaxone",
"Nalbuophene",
"Pentazocin"
] | Ans. a (Naltrexone) (Ref KDT 6th/464, 467)Naltrexone differs from naloxone in being orally active and having a long duration of action (1-2 days) which makes it suitable for 'opioid blockade' therapy of postaddicts.Opioids & Opioid AntagonistsAgonist-antagonists (k-analgesics)Partial/weak m agonist + K antagonistPure antagonistNalorphineBuprenorphineNaloxonePentazocine NaltrexoneButorphanol NalmefeneNALTREXONE# Pure Opioid Antagonist like naloxone# Chemically related to naloaxone# More potent than naloxone.# Differs from naloxone in that it is orally active and has longer duration of action (1-2 days).# USES:- Hence suitable for "opioid blockade therapy" of postaddicts: 50 mg/day orally.- Also useful to reduce alcohol craving- Used to prevent relapse of habit drinking.# S/E:- Nausea- Headache- Heptotoxicity (at high doses).THE OPIOID ANTAGONISTSIntroduction# The pure opioid antagonist drugs naloxone, naltrexone, and nalmefene.# These agents have a relatively high affinity for m opioid binding sites.# They have lower affinity for the other receptors but can also reverse agonists at d and k sites.Pharmacokinetics# Naloxone is usually given by injection and has short duration of action (1-2 hours) when given by this route.# Nalmefene, the newest of these agents, is a derivative of naltrexone but is available only for intravenous administration.# Like naloxone, nalmefene is used for opioid overdose but has a longer half-life (8-10 hours).# When given intravenously to a morphine-treated subject, the antagonist completely and dramatically reverses the opioid effects within 1-3 minutes.Clinical Use# Naloxone is a pure antagonist and is preferred over older weak agonist-antagonist agents that had been used primarily as antagonists, e.g., nalorphine and levallorphan.# NALOXONE in the treatment of acute opioid overdose.# Because of its long duration of action, NALTREXONE has been proposed as a maintenance drug for addicts in treatment programs. A single dose given on alternate days blocks virtually all of the effects of a dose of heroin.# NALTREXONE decreases the craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholics, and it is FDA approved for this purpose. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10922 | Which of the following DOES NOT cause an increase in serum amylase - | [
"Pancreatitis",
"Carcinoma lung",
"Renal failure",
"Cardiac failure"
] | Serum amylase is not related to cardiac failure Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 838 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13025 | Which of the following is a first-generation Cephalosporin used for surgical prophylaxis? | [
"Ceftriaxone",
"Cefoxitin",
"Cefazolin",
"Cefepime"
] | First-Generation Cephalosporins: include - Cefazolin, Cephalexin, Cephradine, Cefadroxil, Cephalothin and Cephapirin Cefazolin is good for skin preparation as it is active against skin infections from S.pyogenes and MRSA. It is administered Intramuscular or Intravenous (i.e Parenteral drug).It is a drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis.Cefazolin does not penetrate the CNS and cannot be used to treat meningitis. Cefazolin is better tolerated than Antistaphylococcal Penicillins, and it has been shown to be effective for serious Staphylococcal infections e.g Bacteremia. Oral First generation drugs may be used for the treatment of urinary tract infections and Staphylococcal or Streptococcal infections, including cellulitis or soft tissue abscess. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11017 | All of the following are important precautions to prevent infections associated with arterial catherterizations except - | [
"Education of health personnel",
"Hand hygiene",
"Use sterile semipermeable dressing",
"Use of femoral artery more than radial artery"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Use of femoral artery more than radial artery Guidelines for prevention of arterial catheter-related bloodstream infectionso Educate healthcare personnel regarding the indications for intravascular catheter use, proper precautions for insertion and maintenance of intravascular catheters, and appropriate infection control measures to prevent catheter-related infections.o Periodically assess knowledge and adherence to guidelines for all personnel involved in insertion and maintenance of intravascular catheters.o Designate only trained personnel who demonstrate competence for the insertion and maintenance of peripheral and central intravascular catheterso Ensure appropriate nursing staff levels in intensive care unitso Site selection Radial, dorsalis pedis and brachial sites are to be used preferentially over femoral site.o Insertion technique Hand hygiene is to be performed before insertion or manipulation of arterial cathetero Mask, cap, sterile gloves and fenestrated drape are to be used as minimum for insertion of a peripheral arterial catheter.o Maximum sterile barrier precautions should be used for axillary or femoral arterial catheter placemento Maintenance Monitor catheter sites regularly.o Use either sterile gauze or sterile, transparent, semipermeable dressing to cover the catheter siteo If the patient is diaphoretic or if the site is bleeding or oozing, use gauze dressing until this is resolved Replace catheter site dressing if the dressing becomes damp, loosened or visible soiledo Do not use topical antibiotic ointment or cream at insertion site because of their potential to promote fungal infections and antimicrobial resistanceo Do not submerge catheter site in water.o Replace arterial catheters only when there is a clinical indication; do not routinely replace arterial catheters to prevent catheter-related infectionso Remove the arterial catheter when it is no longer neededo Use disposable, rather than re-usable, transducer assemblies.o Sterilize re-usable transducers according to manufacturer's instruction if disposable transducers are not availableo Replace disposable or re-usable transducers and other components of the systems (tubing, flush device and flush solution) at 96-h intervals.o Keep all components of the monitoring system sterile.o Minimize number of manipulations and entries into pressure monitoring system. Use closed flush system to maintain patency of pressure monitoring catheters.o When accessing through a diaphragm rather than a stopcock, scrub the diaphragm with antiseptic before accessing system.o Do not administer dextrose-containing or parenteral nutrition fluids through the pressure monitoring circuit. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3054 | NOT a content of carpal tunnel:- | [
"Flexor digitorum superficialis",
"Flexor digitorum profundus",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Median nerve"
] | CARPAL TUNNEL:8 carpal bones covered by flexor retinaculum CONTENTS: 9 flexor tendons + median nerve 9 tendons: 4 tendons of flexor digitorumsuperficialis 4 tendons of flexor digitorum profundus 1 tendon of flexor pollicis longus Carpal tunnel syndrome: the overuse of these 9 tendons, causes the inflammation which compresses theMedian nerve causing carpal tunnel syndrome, causing tingling sensation in 3 and 1/2 fingers, including nail beds. Ulnar nerve passes through guyon's canal. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12360 | Streak gonads are seen in - | [
"Turner syndrome",
"Klinefelter's syndrome",
"Patau's syndrome",
"Down's syndrome"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Turner syndrome o Streak gonads (Streak ovaries) are characteristic feature of Turner syndrome.TURNER'S SYNDROMEo Turner's syndrome is the most common sex chromosomal disorder in phenotypic females.o Turner's syndrome results from complete or partial loss of one X chromosome (45, X) and is characterised by hypogonadism in phenotypic femalesFeatures of Turner syndrome in childreno The most severely affected patients generally present during infancy with edema (owing to lymph stasis) of the dorsum of the hand and foot and sometimes swelling of the nape of the neck.o Swelling of the neck is related to markedly distended lymphatic channels, producing so called cystic hygroma.o As these infants develop, the swelling subsides but often leave bilateral neck webbing and persistent looseness of skin on the back of the neck.o Congenital heart disease is also common, particularly preductal coarctation of Aorta and bicuspid Aortic valve.o C. V.S abnormalities are most important cause of mortality in children with Turner s syndrome.Features of Turner's syndrome in Adolescents and Adulto At puberty there is failure to develop normal secondary sex characteristics.o The genitalia remains infantile, breast development is inadequate and there is little pubic hair. Nipples are widely spaced.o Turner syndrome is the single most important cause of primary amenorrhoea accounting for approximately 1/3 of the cases.o Short stature (height rarely exceeds 150 cm).o The mental status of these patients is usually normal but subtle defects in nonverbal, visual spatial information processing have been noted (mental retardation is associated with the presence of extra chromosome not with loss of X chromosome).o About 50% of the patients develop autoantibodies directed to the thyroid gland and upto one half of these patients develop hypothyroidism.o Other features include low posterior hairline, webbing of neck, cubitus valgus, streak ovaries.o Glucose intolerance, obesity and insulin resistance are also seen. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35378 | Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from: | [
"PCT",
"DCT",
"Collecting duct",
"Thick ascending loop of Henle"
] | A i.e. PCT | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40030 | Which of the following is NOT one of the many contributions of Louis Pasteur? | [
"Rabies Vaccine",
"Anthrax Vaccine",
"Germ Theory of Disease",
"Theory of Spontaneous Generation"
] | Louis Pasteur was a French chemist and microbiologist who was one of the most impoant founders of medical microbiology. He is remembered for his remarkable breakthroughs in the causes and prevention of diseases. He created the first vaccines for rabies and anthrax. His experiments suppoed the germ theory of disease. He also invented a method to treat milk to make it free from disease causing bacteria, a process that came to be called pasteurization. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 5. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37695 | Treatment of hormone dependent fungating carcinoma of breast with secondaries in the lung in a female patient aged 30 years is - | [
"Simple mastectomy followed by oophorectomy",
"Radical mastectomy followed by oophorectomy",
"Adrenalectomy",
"Lumpectomy followed by castration"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26152 | Which of the following is false regarding echinocytes | [
"Irregular spicules on RBC surface",
"Seen in liver disorders",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | Echinocytes (Burr cells) have short and Equally spaced spicules.
Seen in liver disorders, MIHA, Uremia. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27679 | A concept directed against prevention of risk factors of coronary artery disease is | [
"Secondary prevention",
"Health education",
"Primordial prevention",
"Primary prevention"
] | Levels of prevention
Primordial prevention - Prevention of the development or emergence of Risk Factors in population groups in which they have not yet appeared.
Primary prevention - Action taken prior to the onset of disease which removes the possibility that the disease will ever occur. It signifies intervention in the pathogenesis phase of the disease.
Secondary prevention - Action which halts the progress of disease at its incipient stage and prevents complications i.e., early diagnosis & treatment.
Tertiary treatment - Intervention in the late pathogenic phase all measures to reduce or limit impairments, disabilities and handicap | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46079 | The mechanism by which most fungi cause disease is: | [
"Exotoxin production",
"Lecithinase production",
"Hypersensitivity",
"Coagulase production"
] | Hypersensitivity Diseases
Humans are continually exposed to air-borne fungal spores and other fungal elements present in the environment. These spores can be antigenic stimulants and depending on individual's immunological status may induce a state of hypersensitivity by production of immunoglobulins or sensitized lymphocytes. Rhinitis, bronchial asthma, alveolitis, and various forms of atopy are the clinical manifestations of hypersensitive pneumonitis. The clinical manifestations of the hypersensitivity disease are seen only in sensitized person, after repeated exposure to the fungus, fungal metabolites, or other cross-reactive materials. Allergies to the fungal spores are manifested primarily by an asthmatic reaction including rapid bronchial constriction mediated by IgE, eosinophilia, and positive hypersensitivity skin test reaction. These are caused due to immediate hypersensitivity reactions of the host to fungal spores.
Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page:595 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14869 | Carcinoid tumour is most common in | [
"Esophagus",
"Stomach",
"Jejunum",
"Appendix"
] | Answer is D (Appendix); Antong, the given option the most common site of carcinoid tumour is appendix. Carcinoid tumor location, Frequency of Metastases, and Association with the Carcinoid Syndrome Site Location (% of Total) Incidence of Metastases Incidence of Carcinoid Syndrome Foregut Esophagus <0.1 - - Stomach 4.6 10 9.5 Duodenum 2.0 - 3.4 Pancreas 0.7 71.9 20 Gallbladder 0.3 17.8 5 Bronchus, lung, trachea 27.9 5.7 13 Midgut Jejunum Ileum 1.8 14.9 158.4 9 9 Meckel's diveiculum 0.5 13 Appendix Colon Liver Ovary Testis Hindgut 4.8 8.6 0.4 1.0 <0.1 38.8 51 32.2 32 - <1 5 - 50 50 Rectum 13.6 3.9 - | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30210 | Drug of choice for obscessive compulsive disorder is: | [
"Fluoxetine",
"Clomipramine",
"Clonazepam",
"Carbamazepine"
] | Fluoxetine | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19627 | Best test for diagnosis of gastrinoma - | [
"Ca++ infusion test",
"Secretin injection test",
"ACTH stimulation test",
"Steroid assay"
] | gastrinoma is a gastrin-producing tumor usually located in the pancreas or the duodenal wall. Gastric acid hypersecretion and aggressive, refractory peptic ulceration result (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome). Diagnosis is by measuring serum gastrin levels. Treatment is proton pump inhibitors and surgical removal Post-injection blood samples are collected after 1, 2, 5, 10, and 30 minutes for determination of serum gastrin concentrations. Gastrinoma is strongly indicated in patients who show an increase in serum gastrin concentration of at least 110 pg/mL over basal level on any of the post secretin injection samples Ref Davidson edition23rd pg817 | B | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.