dataset
string
id
string
question
string
choices
list
rationale
string
answer
string
subject
string
medmcqa
medmcqa_20913
Following are "essential diagnostic criteria" according to graber except
[ "Case history", "Facial photographs", "Periapical x-rays", "Lateral cephalograms" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13782
Recent Hepatitis infection is best diagnosed by -
[ "Hbs Ag", "Ig G Anti Hbe abs", "Anti HBs Ag abs", "IgM anti HBc abs" ]
The simultaneous presence of IgM anti HBc indicates recent infection and the presence of IgG anti HBc remote infection. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-547
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29799
The etiological agent for roseola infantum is –a) Parvovirusb) Human herpes virus 6c) EBVd) CMV
[ "ac", "a", "ad", "ab" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28700
Gotrons sign is a feature of:
[ "Systemic sclerosis", "SLE", "Sjogrens syndrome", "Dermato Myositis" ]
Dermato Myositis
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43432
Watson Crick model of DNA was proposed on the basis of
[ "X-ray crystallography", "Chromatography", "Gel electrophoresis", "X-ray diffraction studies" ]
(A) X-ray crystallography> X-ray crystallography theoretically offered the opportunity to reveal the molecular structure of large molecules like proteins and DNA, but there were serious technical problems then preventing X-ray crystallography from being applicable to such large molecules.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3121
Peripheral & central chemoreceptors may both contribute to increased ventilation that occurs as a result of decreased
[ "Aerial BP", "Aerial tension", "Aerial O2 concentration", "H+" ]
The central chemoreceptors monitor the H+ concentration of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), including the brain interstitial fluid.The receptors in the carotid and aoic bodies(peripheral chemoreceptors) are stimulated by a rise in the PCO2 or H+ concentration of aerial blood or a decline in its PO2.Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition, Page number: 627, 628
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24657
All of the following are derivatives of tryptophan EXCEPT:
[ "Melatonin", "Serotonin", "Niacin", "Creatinine" ]
Ans. (d) Creatinine* Tryptophan is one of the essential aromatic amino acid* Metabolic fate of tryptophan: Metabolized by enzyme Tryptophan oxygenase (pyrrolase)* Derivatives of tryptophan:# Niacin (Nicotinic acid)# Serotonin# Melatonin* Note: Creatinine is synthesized from 3 amino acids namely: Glycine, Arginine. Methionine
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23258
Thyroid carcinoma with pulsating vascular skeletal metastasis is
[ "Follicular", "Anaplastic", "Medullary", "Papillary" ]
In Follicular carcinoma the Blood-borne metastases are more common and the eventual moality rate is twice that of pappillary cancer. bone secondaries are typically vascular ,warm pulsatile, localised,commonly in skull,longbones, ribst. ref ;(page no;794)25th edition of Bailey and love&;s sho practice of surgery
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_33455
The contraindications for progestase include the following except -
[ "Pelvic inflammatory disease", "Uterine fibroids", "Previous history of ectopic pregnancy", "Previous history of aboion" ]
park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *contraindications absolute: suspected pregnancy, PID,vaginal bleeding,cancer of cervix,uterus or adnexa, previous ectopic pregnancy. *relative:anaemia, menorrhagia, history of PID PID in last pregnancy, purulent cervical discharge, distoion of uterine cavity due to congenital malformation ,fibroid ,un motivated persons.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31910
Serum inhibin B is secreted by ovarian granulosa cells staing at:-
[ "Primordial follicle stage", "Preantral follicle stage", "Early antral stage", "Pre ovulatory stage" ]
Serum inhibin B is secreted by ovarian granulosa cells staing at the preantral follicle stage and therefore reflects the size of the growing follicular coho . Reduced inhibin B levels are seen with aging even in normal feile women . Inhibin B alone has poor predictive value for ovarian response but improves the predictive value when added to the CCCT (chlomiphene citrate challenge test)
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25652
'Red velvety' stomach mucosa is seen in poisoning with: Gujarat 07; JIPMER 14
[ "Mercury", "Arsenic", "Lead", "Copper" ]
Ans. Arsenic
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31408
Which of the following is false regarding dimorphic fungi?
[ "Occurs in two growth forms", "Can cause systemic infection", "Cryptococcus is an example", "Coccidioides is an example" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cryptococcus is an example(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 601, 609; Jawetz, 23rd/e, p. 645)Dimorphic Fungi* Fungi that have two growth forms, such as mold (filaments) and a yeast, which develop under different growth conditions.* In host tissues or cultures at 37degC they occur as yeasts, while in the soil and in cultures at 22degC they appear as moulds.* Most fungi causing systemic infections are dimorphic fungi.Examples:* Coccidioides.* Histoplasma.* Blastomyces.* Paracoccidioides.* Sporothrix (Sporotrichum).* Penicillium marneffi.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47729
The only serological marker present during window period in hepatitis B infection is?
[ "Anti HBc", "HBsAg", "Anti HBsAg", "HBeAg" ]
Anti HBc REF: Harrison's Internal Medicine 171}t edition chapter 298 (see Appendix-28 for "Markers of hepatitis-B) Variability exists in the time of appearance of anti-HBs after HBV infection, occasionally a gap of several weeks or longer may separate the disappearance of HBsAg and the appearance of anti-HBs. During this "gap" or "window" period, anti-HBc may represent the only serologic evidence of current or recent HBV infection, and blood containing anti-HBc in the absence of HBsAg and anti-HBs has been implicated in the development of transfusion-associated hepatitis B
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34694
Male pseudo hermaphroditism:
[ "XX genotype, male external genitalia", "XY genotype, female external genitalia", "Testis and ovary both present", "Male external genitalia and ovary present" ]
b. XY genotype, female external genitalia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2750-2759, Ghai 8/e p 532)Male pseudohermaphrodites are genetic males (45,XY), with testes, but their external genitalia & appearance are that of a female.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29315
Fourth generation of apex locator are based on which principle
[ "Resistance based", "Impedance based", "Impedance ratio based", "Multiple frequencies based" ]
First generation …resistance based Second…impedence Third…impedence ratio Fourth ..multifrequency
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12735
For chemotherapy induced vomiting, 5HT3 antagonist having maximum potency is :
[ "Ondansetron", "Granisetron", "Dolasetron", "Palonosetron" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45487
Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine:
[ "Lead", "Zinc", "Aluminum", "Iron" ]
null
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23553
Most common cause of death in Electrocution is -
[ "Respiratory muscle paralysis", "Ventricular fibrillation", "Asphyxia", "Regurgitation of fluids" ]
CAUSE OF DEATH IN ELECTRICAL INJURIES: 1. Paralysis of medullary (respiratory) centres. 2. Ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest without fibrillation. death need not be instantaneous. Individuals may be able to walk some distance and talk before the onset of collapse and death may occur after a few days from infection or from haemorrhage due to damage to blood vessels. REF: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th edition page no: 167.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_6970
Arrange covering on peripheral nerve from inner to outer
[ "Endoneurium, Epineurium, perineurium", "Endoneurium, perineurium, Epineurium", "Perineurium, Endoneurium, Epineurium", "Epineurium, Endoneurium, perineurium" ]
Covering on peripheral nerve from inner to outer is Endoneurium, perineurium, Epineurium INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXT BOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY PAGE NO:171
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_4530
Slate like discoloration of the skin is caused by all these drugs except?
[ "Chlorpromazine", "Minocycline", "Amiodarone", "Thiacetazone" ]
D. i.e. Thiacetazone Blue, grey or slate like discoloration of skin is caused by argyria (silver), chrysiasis (gold), bismuth, amiodaroneQ (phototoxic eruption = exaggerated sunburn slate gray to violaceous discoloration of sun exposed skin, & yellow brown granules in dermal macrophage), minocyclineQ (diffuse blue-gray, muddy pigmentation skin, mucous, teeth, nails, bones and thyroid), chlorpromazineQ, phenothiazine and fixed drug eruptions (barbiturates, phenolphthalein), hemo chromatosis and pinta. Brown discoloration of skin is caused by arsenic (rain drop pigmentation) Q, ACTH therapy, adriamycin, busulfan, bleomycin, cyclophosphamide, contraceptive pills, oestrogens, and psoralens. (Berloque & phytophoto dermatitis). Mepacrine, picric acid, di/tri-nitrophenol, santonin and acriflavine stain skin yellow (like jaundice). Busulfan is used in CML and it 1/t busulfan lung (pulmonary fibrosis) and hyperpigmentationQ of skin. Busulfan causes mucous membrane & zidovudine lit nail pigmentation. Cyclophosphamide 1/t haemorragic cystitisQ due to metabolite acrolein. Methotrexate blocks DHFR-aseQ & prevents conversion of DHFA to THFA. It's toxicity can be overcomed by folinic acid (citrovorum factor)(2 & thymidineQ but not by folic acid.Q In low doses I/ t megaloblastic anemiaQ. In high doses 1/t pancytopeniaQ
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34039
Marble bone disease, characterized by increase in bone density is due to mutation in the gene encoding:
[ "Carbonic Anhydrase I", "Carbonic Anhydrase II", "Carbonic Anhydrase III", "Carbonic Anhydrase IV" ]
Ans. B. Carbonic Anhydrase IIIn osteoporosis, also called as marble bone disease there is increased bone density. It is due to mutation in gene encodingcarbonic anhydrase II enzyme. The deficiency of this enzyme in osteoclasts leads to inability of bone resorption.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3172
Negative symptoms of schizophrenia is
[ "Disorganised thought", "Thought block", "Delusions", "Avolition" ]
(D) Avolition> Negative symptoms are so-named because they are considered to be the loss or absence of normal traits or abilities, and include features such as flat or blunted affect and emotion, poverty of speech (alogia), inability to experience pleasure (anhedonia), and lack of motivation (avolition).
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45200
Feature indicative of anti-mortem drowning is -
[ "Cutis anserina", "Rigor mortis", "Washerwomans feet", "Grass and weeds grasped in the hand" ]
Among the given options, only option d is diagnostic for antemortem drowning.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25300
Select the most common clinical sign or symptom for diagnosis Tuberous sclerosis
[ "A 6-month-old child with blindness on the same side as a large facial lesion", "An infant with infantile spasms, a hypsarrhythmic EEG pattern, and ash-leaf depigmentation on her back", "An 18-year-old patient with a history of fractures and optic gliomas, who now has developed a malignant schwannoma", "A 2-y...
Tuberous sclerosis, an autosomal dominant condition, can result in severe mental retardation and seizures. Infantile spasms, a hypsarrhythmic EEG pattern, hypopigmented lesions (ash-leaf spots), cardiac tumors, sebaceous adenomas, a shagreen patch (a roughened, raised lesion over the sacrum), and calcifications on the CT scan are all features of this condition. No specific treatment is available.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26279
Eichosapentaenoic acid is present in –
[ "Soyabean oil", "Corn oil", "Safflower oil", "Fish oil" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15506
The model in which dental care is seen as privilege with the professional dominant in practitioner-patient relations is
[ "Commercial model", "Guild model", "Interactive model", "None of the above" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41385
Which nerve originates from trunk of brachial plexus
[ "Long thoracic nerve", "Dorsal scapular nerve", "Axillary nerve", "Suprascapular nerve" ]
Suprascapular nerve arises from the trunk of C5 and C6. Long thoracic nerve arises from the nerve root of C5, C6And C7. Dorsal scapular nerve arises from the nerve root of C5. Axillary nerve arises from the posterior cord. REF: BD Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 57 and 58.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_42229
Investigation of choice for leptomeningeal carcinomatosis:
[ "PET", "SPECT", "Gd enhanced MRI", "CT scan" ]
Ans is 'c' i.e. Gd-enhanced MRI Leptomeningeal carcinomatosis is a special form of metastasis where the tumor cells are widely disseminated throughout the meninges and the ventricles. Common sources are - adenocarcinoma of breast, lung, and gastrointestinal tract; melanoma; childhood leukemia; and systemic lymphoma. (Ref: Adam and Victor's Principles of Neurology 8/e p563)Haaga writes- "The greater sensitivity of MRI for detecting leptomeningeal tumor spread has established this technique as the diagnostic modality of choice for the evaluation of possible leptomeningeal carcinomatosis."Harrison writes- "Leptomeningeal metastases are particularly challenging to diagnose as identification of tumor cells in the subarachnoid compartment may be elusive. MR imaging can be definitive in patients when there are clear tumor nodules adherent to the cauda equina or spinal cord, enhancing cranial nerves, or subarachnoid enhancement on brain imaging. Imaging is diagnostic in approximately 75% of patients and is more often positive in patients with solid tumors. Demonstration of tumor cells in the CSF is definitive and often considered the gold standard. However, CSF cytologic examination is positive in only 50% of patients on the first lumbar puncture and still misses 10% after three CSF samples."
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16750
An essential amino acid in man is
[ "Aspartate", "Tyrosine", "Methionine", "Serine" ]
Isoleucine, Leucine, Threonine, Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan, and Valine are essential amino acids. Reference: Vasudevan 7th  ed, pg 27
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13981
A client is prescribed with Pentamidine (Pentam) IV for the treatment of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Suddenly, the client develops a temperature of 101.5°F. The nurse in charge knows that this sign would mostly indicate on which of the following?
[ "An overdosage of the medication.", "The need for an additional dosage.", "The client has developed another infection.", "The client is experiencing the therapeutic effect of the medication." ]
Pentamidine can cause low white blood cells or low platelets in your blood, so the client is most likely developed another infection brought about these side effects. Options A, B, and D are inappropriate interpretation.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53362
All of the following statements about adverse effects of tetracyclines are true, except:
[ "May lead to discolouration of teeth", "Are a common cause of superinfections", "May precipitate Liver damage", "Are not known to be teratogenic" ]
Tetracyclines are known to have teratogenic effects. Consumption of Tetracycline during pregnancy may cause dental enamel dysplasia and bony deformities in the child. Ref: KDT, 6th Edition, Page 714; Basic and Clinical Pharmacology By Katzung, 10th Edition, Page 748
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_19524
Bone pearl appearance is seen in -
[ "Electrical bums", "Hydrocution", "Strangulation", "Throttling" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Electrical burnsElectric burnso Electric bums are at times, also referred to as joule burns. Technically, joule bum is an endogenous bum, i.e. bums produced due to release of heat from the body, on application of electric current. Electric bums may be of following typesContact burns : Due to contact with live wire.Spark burns : Due to sparking of current, e.g. in loose electrical fitting.Flash burns : Caused on being near the main powrer line, without actual contact. Bums result due to arcing of current from these lines.o Characteristic features of electric burns areThere may be holes in clothes or shoes.There is a wound of entry and wound of exit of electric currentEntry wound : It is non-bleeding, thick, leathery, greyish white, depressed, hard and cauliflower like, known as crater formation. High voltage current may cause bums over large areas of skin, i.e. crocodile skin lesions. The skin may get coloured due to metallic pigment: green (in brass electrode), black (in iron electrode), blue (in copper electrode) and grey (in aluminium electrode),Exit wound : It is like a laceration and is bleeding.Metals from electrode may melt and as small balls (current pearls) may be carried to tissue. Calcium phosphate of bones may also melt and is radiologically seen as bone pearls (wax dripping).Muscles show Zenker's degeneration.Causes of deatho Commonest cause of death is ventricular fibrillation. Other causes include shock, cardiopulmonary arrest, cerebral anoxia, paralysis of respiratory muscles, and mechanical injuries due to fall.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23025
In the treatment of severe bradycardia, all of the following can be best modality of treatment except -
[ "Atropine", "Pacing", "Isoproterenol", "Diltiazem" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diltiazem
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45676
Following grows in the cell free medium except -a
[ "Rickettsia", "M leprae", "Syphilis", "All" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rickettsia; 'b' i.e., M leprae; 'c' i.e., Syphilis Obligate intracellular organisms . To grow in a medium which does not contain cells (cell free medium), organism should be capable of ATP synthesis. . Obligate intracellular organisms are not capable of the metabolic pathways for ATP synthesis. . So, these organisms are dependent on the ATP of host cells. . As they require host cell ATP, they can not grow in the media which do not contain cells (cell free media). . Such organisms are ? 1. Rickettsiae 2. Viruses 3. Pathogenic treponemes (syphillis) 4. Chlamydiae 5. M. leprae
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44026
Refractive index of nucleus and Cortex are Respectively
[ "1.42 , 1.30", "1.39 , 1.42", "1.42 , 1.39", "1.30 , 1.42" ]
Refractive index of nucleus and Cortex are Respectively are 1.42 and 1.39.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_51947
A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with proximal hydroureterone-phrosis is best treated with
[ "ESWL", "PCNL", "Open ureterolithotomy", "Ureteroscopic retrieval" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_9189
Triad of Renal colic, Swelling in loin which disappears after passing urine is called -
[ "Kocher's triad", "Saint's triad", "Dietel's crisis", "Charcot's triad" ]
Dietel's crisis : After an attack of acute renal pain, a swelling in the loin is found. Some hours later, following the passage of large amounts of urine, the pain is relieved and swelling disappears. Ref : Bailey 25/e p1293
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44490
Inquest refers to
[ "Legal enquiry into the cause of death", "Examination of the accused", "Doing unlawful act", "Punishment for illegal enquiries" ]
Ans. a (Legal enquiry into the cause of death) (Ref. Reddy FMT 23rd/pg. 5)# An inquest is a formal process of state investigation.# A common type inquest is a medical examination of any cause of death under suspicious circumstances.# Larger inquests can be held into disasters, or into cases of corruption.Also Know:The most common type of inquest in India is:Police inquest.In India, inquest is NOT carried out by:Doctor.Coroner's inquest was abolished in India in the year:1999.In case of death in prison, inquest will be conducted by:Executive Magistrate.Supposed to be the best inquest internationally:Medical examiner's inquest.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_48790
Day care surgery can be done in
[ "Lateral sphincterotomy", "Rhinoplasty", "Orchidectomy", "Total thyroidectomy" ]
.* Lateral anal sphincterotomy - Here internal sphincter is divided paially away from the fissure either in right or left lateral positions (also gives a good result). - Here closed or open methods (Notaras) are used. Sphincterotomy is done below the dentate line. In closed method no 11 blade is inseed into the intersphincteric groove to pass upwards. Blade is moved medially to cut lower 1/3 or 1/2 of the internal sphincter. In open method skin is incised laterally, external to anal verge. Hyperophied band of lower pa of internal sphincter is dissected and divided. Wound is left open. - Haematoma, perianal abscess, bruising, fistula, incontinence are the complications of lateral sphincterotomy. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 913
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_30331
A lady with a long stading thyroid nodule is planned for a subtotoal thyroidectomy. Before the surgery the surgeon must check/ do
[ "Serum Calcium levels", "Serum PTH assay", "Indirect Larngoscopy", "Iodine 131 scan" ]
Answer- C. Indirect LarngoscopyNerve Damage to recurrent / superior laryngeal nerve is a known complication of thyroidectomy.Hence it is impoant to document the state ofthe vocal cords before surgery to prevent litigation liability.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_4499
Which is the best time to do orchidopexy for undescended testis
[ "4 months", "6 months", "1 year", "2 year" ]
Ideal time to do orchidopexy is 6 months of age
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_27565
In a child with a suspected foreign body in the Lung, the next best step is
[ "Rigid bronchoscopy", "Chest x-ray", "Flexible endoscopy", "Direct laryngoscopy" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rigid bronchoscopy o A foreign body is more common b/w 1 -4 years of age. o The immediate response is cough, choking, gag. In a child with a suspected foreign body in the Lung, the next best step is always Rigid bronchoscopy since it is both diagnostic and therapeutic. o In children, left & right incidence equal (In adult right > left) o Treatment - Removal of foreign body by Rigid bronchoscopy with appropriate antibiotics. In adults, this algorithm is followed - Ref- http://rc.rcjournal.com/content/60/10/1438
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26414
Use of Doxycycline hyclate 20 mg. for a period of time forms
[ "Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy", "Systemic antimicrobial therapy", "Host modulation therapy", "Local drug delivery" ]
null
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_18245
Germ tube test is used in the diagnosis of
[ "Candida albicans", "Cryptococcus", "Histoplasma", "Coccidiomycosis" ]
Candida albicans has the ability to form germ tubes within 2hrs when incubated in human serum at 37C. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26625
Absence of lamina dura seen in ?
[ "Rickets", "Multiple myeloma", "Rheumatoid ahritis", "Hyperparathyroidism" ]
Ans. is `d' i.e., Hyperparathyroidism
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24413
For the following causes of sexual dysfunction, select the most likely clinical feature.Rarely indicates organic disease.
[ "loss of sexual desire", "failure of erection with absent nocturnal penile tumescence (NPT)", "absence of emission", "absence of orgasm with normal libido and erectile function" ]
An absent orgasm, when libido and erectile function are normal, invariably indicates that organic disease is absent. Loss of desire can also be caused by psychologic disturbance, but may indicate androgen deficiency or drug effect.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41762
The typical deformity in CTEV is -
[ "Ankleequinus", "Subtalar inversion", "Forefoot adduction", "All the above" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above o CTEV is the commonest and most important congenital deformity of the foot,o CTEV is more common males in than in females (males to female ratio 2-5 : 1).o In half of the cases CTEV is bilateral,o Right and left foot are affected equally,o The deformity consists of following elementsEquinus, i.e. Plantar flexion at ankle joint (tibiotalar joint)./aversion of foot at subtalar joint (talocalcaneal joint).Forefoot adduction, at mid-tarsal joints, especially at talo-navicular joint.Sometimes forefoot cavus, i.e. excessive arching of the foot at mid-tarsal joints.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5129
Type of sampling, if random sample is taken from a characteristic population, eg. Hindus, Muslims, Christians etc-
[ "Simple random", "Systemic random", "Stratified random", "Cluster" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Stratified random "Stratified random sampling is paicularly useful where one is interested in analysing the data by a ceain characteristic of the population, viz Hindus, Muslims, Christians, age group etc, - as we know these groups are not equally distributed in the population." ............ Park
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_19316
A 35-year-old woman who underwent a modified radical mastectomy of her right breast for infiltrating ductal carcinoma 2 years ago presents with enlargement of her right breast. The breast has a swollen, red-discolored appearance. It is diffusely indurated and tender on palpation. Multiple axillary lymph nodes are palpable in the lower axilla. The working clinical diagnosis is inflammatory carcinoma. Microscopic sections from this red, indurated area are most likely to reveal
[ "Duct ectasia with numerous plasma cells", "Extensive invasion of dermal lymphatics", "Infiltrating malignant ducts surrounded by numerous neutrophils", "Malignant vascular tumor forming slitlike spaces" ]
Inflammatory breast carcinoma is often misunderstood because of the qualifying adjective inflammatory. The term does not refer to the presence of inflammatory cells, abscess, or any special histologic type of breast carcinoma; rather, it refers to more of a clinical phenomenon, in that the breast is swollen, erythematous, and indurated and demonstrates a marked increase in warmth. These changes are caused by widespread lymphatic and vascular permeation within the breast itself and in the deep dermis of the overlying skin by breast carcinoma cells. The clinical induration and erythema are presumably related to lymphatic-vascular blockage by tumor cells; if present, these findings mean a worse prognosis. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_49837
Normal metacarpal index is:
[ "Less than 5.4", "5.4 to 7.9", "8.4 to 10.4", "More than 10.4" ]
Ans. 5.4 to 7.9
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53098
Which of the following is false with regards to bupivacaine
[ "Bupivacaine concentration for epidural anaesthesia is 0.5%", "Bupivacaine concentration for spinal anaesthesia is 0.5%", "Bupivacaine is used frequently for i.v regional anaesthesia", "Bupivacaine is most potent local anaesthetic" ]
Bupivacaine is contraindicated in Bier’s block or IVRA.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_26208
Thyrocervical trunk is branch of which part of subclavian artery-
[ "1st", "2nd", "3rd", "None" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1st Branches of subclavian arteryFirst partVertebral arteryInternal thoracic arteryThyrocervical trunk ; Branches of thyrocervical trunk are :Inferior thyroid arterySuprascapular arterySuperficial cervicalSecond parto Costocervical trunk : It gives following branches :Deep cervical arterySuperior intercostal arteryThird parto Dorsal scapular artery.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31817
Limbic system is concerned with
[ "Control of emotions, food habits", "Sexual behavior", "Autonomic function", "All of the above" ]
Ans. (d) All of the above(Ref: Guyton, 13th ed/p.760)Functions of limbic system#Concerned with sexual behavior, the emotions of rage and fear, motivation, autonomic responses, learning and memory
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25981
HDL3 is conveed to HDL2 by:
[ "CETP", "LCAT", "Both", "PLTP" ]
LCAT (Lecithin Cholesterol Acyl Transferase) conves nascent discoidal HDL into HDL-3 (spherical HDL). Fuher, HDL-3 is conveed to HDL-2 by LCAT.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44440
Suspected ectopic pregnancy is best diagnosed by
[ "MRI", "TVS", "X-ray abdomen supine", "HSG" ]
Ans. B. TVS* Investigation of choice in a case of ectopic pregnancy/suspected case of ectopic pregnancy is Transvaginal scan.* Findings raising suspicion of ectopic on TVS:* Empty uterine cavity: most important* Finding of complex adnexal mass* Fluid (echogenic) in the pouch of Douglas.* Adnexal mass clearly separated from the ovary.* Rarely cardiac motion may be seen in an unruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34012
Targeted intervention for HIV is done for all except
[ "Commercial sex worker", "Migrant laborers", "Street children", "Industrial worker" ]
Industrial worker is not included in the targeted intervention. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,23rd edition,page no:436,20th edition,pg no:373.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43298
Which of the following is associated with hypothyroidism in Himalayan region?
[ "Cu", "Fe", "Zn", "Selenium" ]
Answer is D (Selenium): Hypothyroidism and Hashimoto's Thyroiditis (2013) Hypothyroidism in Himalayan region is associated with Iodine Deficiency and Selenium deficiency. Selenium is a trace element that plays a role in thyroid hormone production, as it forms pa of a seleno-enzyme responsible for conveing T4 into T3. Selenium deficiency as a causative factor for Hypothyroidism and Goitre formation has been explained by diminished activity of selenocysteine enzymes in thyroid, notably glutathione peroxidase and deiodinase type-1. Type-1 deiodinase enzyme is required for conversion of T4 to T3 in peripheral tissues. Mountainous regions, such as the Himalayas, the Andes, and the Alps, and flooded river valleys, such as the Ganges, are among the most severely iodine-deficient areas in the world. The problem of Iodine deficiency in these areas is fuher compounded by deficiency of Selenium.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_22032
Which sinus is the last sinus to appear radiologically on X-ray?
[ "Maxillary sinus", "Sphenoid sinus", "Frontal sinus", "Ethmoidal air cells" ]
Ans. is'c'i.e., Frontal sinus[Ref Textbook Of The Ear, Nose And Throat By De Soum, C. Et Al. p 394)
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46088
True about rhinophyma:
[ "Premalignant", "Common in alcoholics", "Acne rosacea", "Fungal etiology" ]
Rhinophyma is a slow-growing benign tumor which occurs due to hyperophy of the sebaceous glandsdeg of the tip of the nose.Seen in long standing cases of acne rosacea.Mostly affects men past middle age.Presents as a pink, lobulated mass over the nose.TreatmentParing down the bulk of the tumor with a sharp knife, or carbon dioxide laser or scalpel (dermabraions), and the area is allowed to re-epithelize.Sometimes tumor is completely excised and the raw area is covered with skin graft.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53138
Physiological antagonism is found in
[ "Isoprenaline and salbutamol", "Isoprenaline and adrenaline", "Isoprenaline and propanolol", "Adrenaline and histamine" ]
ref ; KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page no; 58) Physiological/functional antagonism; The two drugs act on different receptors or by different mechanisms but have opposite ove effects on the same physiological function, i. e . have pharmacological effects in the opposite direction, e.g.Histamine and adrenaline on bronchial muscles and BP Hydrochlorothiazide and triamterene on urinary k+ excretion Glucagon and insulin on blood sugar level. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16659
Intercellular antibodies deposition on immunofluorescence is seen in:
[ "Psoriasis", "Pemphigus", "Pemphigoid", "Porphyria" ]
Ans. B. Pemphigusa. In Pemphigus, there is production of IgG auto antibodies against polypeptide complexes present in the intercellular substance of epidermis.b. Lesional sites show a characteristic Fish net like pattern of intercellular IgG deposits in the intercellular area.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47233
All of the following Neurophysiological defects are likely to result from right lobe involvement, except:
[ "Visuospatial defects", "Anosognosia", "Dyscalculi", "Spatial Dysgraphia" ]
Answer is C (Dyscalculi) Dyscalculi is a feature of categorical/dominant hemisphere involvement or left lobe involvement Visuospatial defects, Anosognosia and Spatial dysgraphia are all features of non dominant / representative hemisphere involvement or right lobe involvement Categorical Dominant Hemisphere Lesion Representative Non-Dominant Hemisphere lesion (Sequential Analytical Process & Language) (Visuospatial processing) Dysphasia/Aphasia (difficulty with words) * Neglect of contralateral side - Expressive / Motor (Braco's) * Spatial disorientation - Sensory /Receptive Receptive (Wernicke's) * Anosognosia Dyslexia (difficulty with words) * Dressing Apraxia (Apraxia is a misnomer) Dysgraphia (difficulty with drawing) (Problem results from visuospatial disorientation of body pas to clothing) Dyscalculia (difficulty with calculations) * Constructional Apraxia (Apraxia is a misnomer) Dyspraxia (difficulty to perform complex (Inability to copy complex shapes due to visuospatial disorientation) motor tasks) * Astereognosis * Afferent Dysgraphia (Spatial Dysgraphias) * Impaired musical skills (tonal perception) * Impaired non-verbal memory
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45578
Treatment of stage I teratoma is: September 2008
[ "Chemotherapy", "Radiotherapy", "Surgery", "Observation" ]
Ans. D: Observation Teratomas are not radiosensitive Stage 1 can be managed by monitoring the levels of serum markers and by repeat CT. Teratoma at stage 2-4 are managed by chemotherapy (Cispaltin, methotrexate, bleomycin and vincristine)
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31388
Ram Devi presented with generalized edema sweating and flushing tachycardia and fever after bee sting. This is -
[ "T cell mediated cytotoxicity", "IgE mediated reaction", "IgG mediated reaction", "IgA mediated hypersensitivity reaction" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgE mediated reaction o The symptoms of the patient are d/t hypersensitivity type I reaction Type I is mediated by IgE and it flairs up within minutes. o There are typical features of anaphylaxis (systemic Type I hypersensitivity). Clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis o Flushing and tachycardia are usually the first and are invariant symptoms of anaphylaxis. o Uicaria (pruritis) o Angiodema o Respiratory distress and wheezing due to bronchoconstriction. o Confusion and alteration of mental status can occur.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34171
Corneal dystrophies are
[ "Primary & unilateral", "Primary & bilateral", "Primary, bilateral with systemic disease", "Primary, unilateral without systemic disease" ]
B i.e. Primary & bilateral
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_7282
"DOTS indicates-
[ "Sho term treatment under supervision", "Sho term treatment without", "Long term treatment with supervision", "Long term treatment without supervision" ]
DOTS indicate directly observed treatment shocourse. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 172
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3873
Down-beat nystagmus is seen in lesion of -
[ "Brainstem", "Cerebellum", "Basal ganglia", "Hippocampus" ]
Ref khurana 6/e p250
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1549
Which of the following antihypertensive drug does not alter serum glucose and lipid levels?
[ "Propranolol", "Prazosin", "Thiazide diuretics", "None of the above" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54653
Lichen sclerosus lesions are limited by
[ "Vagina", "Cervix", "Labia minora", "Labia majora" ]
Lesions of lichen sclerosus are always limited by labia majora.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5385
According to the 2010 ACLS Guidelines by AHA, which of the following pharmacological agents is not used in the management of cardiac arrest :
[ "Epinephrine", "Vasopressin", "Atropine", "Amiadorone" ]
Answer is C (Atropine) The use of Atropine for cardiac arrest (PEA / Asystole) has been removed from the ACLS 2010 Guidelines / Algorithm due to lack of any evidence showing therapeutic benefit. The primary Pharmacological agents included in the ACLS Algorithm for management of cardiac arrest include Epinephrine, Vasopressin and Amiodarone. The primary goal of pharmacologic therapy is to assist the achievement and maintenance of spontaneous circulation. The mainstay of pharmacologic interventions is vasopressor agents. Epinephrine ( I mg) is recommended by IV or the intraosseous (10) route every 3 to 5 minutes during resuscitative effos until spontaneous circulation is restored. If IV/10 access cannot be established, epinephrine can be administered an endotracheal tube at a higher dose (2 to 2.5mg). Vasopressin (40 mg iv/I0) could be substituted for the first or second dose of epinephrine if desired. The preferred antiarrhythmic agent for resuscitation is Amiodarone. Amiodarone is recommended in patients with VF/VT that does not respond to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressor therapy. (first dose; 300mg 1V/I0; second dose; 150mg IV/10). It should be noted that The use of atropine far PEA/Asystole was recently removed from the ACLS algorithm. Evidence is insufficient to recommend routine administration of sodium bicarbonate during resuscitation. First dose; 300 mg bolus second dose; 150 mg Lidocaine is not pa of the ACLS 2010 Algorithm but may be used. The AHA recommends its administration after epinephrine; vasopressin and Amiodarone have been tried. But in clinical studies Lidocaine has not been demonstrated to improve rates of ROSC and hospital admission compared with Amiodarone. It is given in a bolus of ling/kg. A second loading dose of I mg/kg can be given in 10-15 minutes alter the first one. ACLS: Pharmacological agents Medications that have been changed Atropine: deleted from pulseless arrest algorithm Sodium Bicarbonate: Routine use not recommended Calcium: Routine administration for treatment of cardiac arrest not recommended Medications that have remained unchanged Epinephrine: dose, interval unchanged Vasopressin: dose, use unchanged Amiodarone: dose, indications unchanged Lidocaine: dose, indications unchanged
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25298
Iron dextran is given in A/E -
[ "Macrocytic anemia", "Severe blood loss", "Iron deficiency anemia", "Hookworm anemia" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_50740
Sign of antemortem hanging is
[ "Ligature mark", "Eye is open", "Fracture of hyoid", "Tardieu spots" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Eye is open * The important PM findings of Hanging are :i) Ligature mark is above thyroid cartilage, incomplete, bilaterally symmetrical and directed obliquely upward extending to the angles of mandible, then to mastoid and finally to occipital protuberance. Ligature mark is an example of imprinted/pressure/patterned abrasion.ii) Under the ligature mark there is dry, white and glistening pad of fat.iii) There is dribbling of saliva from the angle of the mouth, which is confirmatory sign of antemortem hanging. This is due to irritation of submandibular and parotid glands by ligature.iv) There may be intimal tear of carotid arteries.v) In case of pressure of ligature on cervical sympathetic ganglia, the eye on that side is found open (La facie sympathique). It confirms antemortem hanging.vi) Fracture of hyoid is usually not seen (may be seen only in 10%). Fracture of thyroid cartilage (20-30% cases) and fracture of tracheal rings (5-10%) may be seen. There may be congestion and ecchymosis (hemorrhage) in trachea, larynx, epiglottis and esophagus. All these injuries are more common in strangulation because strangulation is more violent than hanging causing more severe injury to neck structures.vii) Tardieu spots (petechial hemorrhage) are not as pronounced as in strangulation.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53631
Lowest recurrence rate in duodenal ulcer treatment is seen with -
[ "Highly selective vagotomy", "Truncal vagotomy", "Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy", "Truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy Least rate of recurrence is seen with truncal vagotomy and antrectomy. In addition to a truncal vagotomy, the antrum of the stomach is removed, thus removing the source of gastrin. (Gastrin is secreted from the antrum). The recurrence rate after this procedure are exceedingly low. However the operative moality is higher than vagotomy and drainage and highly selective vagotomy.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32088
Abbey-Estlander Flap is used in the reconstruction of
[ "Buccal mucosa", "Lip", "Tongue", "Palate" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Lip
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_17077
A 15 year old male comes to the clinic with complaints that he has difficulty in directing urinary stream since years. On examination of his penis the opening of urethral meatus was noted on the ventral side of penis proximal to the tip of glans penis. Which is the most common type of abnormality seen in this boy?
[ "Glandular", "Penile", "Scrotal", "Perineal" ]
This boy is suffering from hypospadiasis which is the most common congenital malformation of urethra. In hypospadiasis, the urethal meatus opens on the ventral side of penis proximal to the tip of glans penis. Glandular type is the most most common type and does not require treatment. Hypospadiasis results from incomplete fusion of urethral folds. Estrogens and progestins given during pregnance are known to increase the incidence. Types of Hypospadiasis: Glandular (opening is on proximal glans penis) Coronal (opening at the coronal sulcus) Penile shaft Penoscrotal Perineal
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46185
Fever with pulmonary disease leading to severe pneumonia if untreated caused by which of the following dimorphic fungi?
[ "Coccidiodes immitis", "C neoformis", "C albicans", "Aspergillus" ]
Coccidiodes immitis-pulmonary system severely affected Fatal if untreated It is dimorphic fungus present in yeast and in mycelial form Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 555
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23177
A child with complaints of cough. Characteristic inspiratory whoop. Sample for investigation is ?
[ "Nasopharyngeal swab", "Tracheal aspiration", "Cough plate culture", "Sputum culture" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nasopharyngeal swab "Culture of nasopharyngeal secretion remains the gold stadard for diagnosis of whooping cough"
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_11474
Pathological jealousy is?
[ "Delusion of infidelity", "Delusion of love", "Delusion of double", "Delusion of grandiose" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Delusion of infidelity Morbid jealousy (Pathological jealousy)* Also referred to as delusional jealously, obsessive jealousy and Othello syndrome. This condition occurs when a person feels an unreasonable fear that a partner has been unfaithful, is presently unfaithful, or plans to be unfaithful.* Morbid jealousy can occur in alcoholism, Schizophrenia, manic phase of bipolar illness, OCD, depression, or anxiety disorder.Also knowAlcoholic paranoia falcohal induced psychotic disorder with delusions)* Alcoholic parania refers to alcohol induced psychotic disorder with delusions. Delusions in alcoholic paranoia are fixed, ie. Alcoholic paranoia is associated with fixed delusions. Patients develop delusion of either persecution or jealousy, accompanied by delusion of reference. Auditary hallucinations may occur but play a minor role.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15873
Physical law made use in flow meter is:-
[ "Henrys law", "Grahams law", "Daltons law", "Faraday'slaw" ]
Velocity Flow Meters. Magnetic flow meters operate on Faraday'slaw of electromagnetic induction that states that a voltage is induced when a conductor moves through a magnetic field. The liquid serves as the conductor and the magnetic field is created by energized coils outside the flowtube.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45327
Which of the following is a risk factor for the develoment of Choriocarcinoma?
[ "Presence of Lung metastasis", "Onset following term gestation", "b-hCG level < 40,000 mlU/mL", "None of the above" ]
Poor-prognosis patients, based on the Clinical Classification of Malignant Disease, are those with any of the following risk factors: *Serum b-hCG titers greater than 40,000 mlU/mL at the onset of treatment *Diagnosis of disease more than 4 months after molar pregnancy *Brain or liver metastases *Prior unsuccessful chemotherapy *Onset following term gestation.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5958
Which of the following is the most common tumor of the fetus and newborn –
[ "Neuroblastoma", "Wilm's tumor", "Leukemia", "Sacrococcygeal Teratoma" ]
Sacrococcygeal Teratoma (SCT) is the most common neoplasm in the fetus and newborn. Sacrococcygeal Teratoma (SCT) is the most common neoplasm in the fetus and newborn with an estimated prevalence of 1:30,000- 1:40,000 and with a 3:1 female preponderance. - Handbook of Fetal Medicine by Shailesh Kumar (Cambridge Univ Press) 2010/87 Most common tumor in fetus and neonate → sacrococcygeal teratoma Most common tumor in infancy → neuroblastoma
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10952
All are the features of Korsakoff's syndrome except:
[ "Confabulation", "Retrograde amnesia", "Antegrade amnesia", "Defective motor skill" ]
D i.e. Defective motor skill
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25180
Lingual Artery is a branch of:
[ "Internal carotid artery", "External carotid artery", "Subclavian artery", "Maxillary artery" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_40155
Placental villi invading through the serosa of uterus falls under category of
[ "Placenta pre", "Placenta accreta", "Placenta increta", "Placenta percreta" ]
Variants of the morbidly adherent placenta are classified by the depth of trophoblastic growth.Placenta accreta indicates that villi are attached to the myometrium. With placenta increta, villi actually invade the myometrium, and placenta percreta defines villi that penetrate through the myometrium and to or through the serosa.Reference: Reference: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition; Chapter 41; Obstetric hemorrhage
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8350
Ruptured tendon is most commonly seen in
[ "Stab injury", "Soft Tissue tumour", "Overuse", "Congenital defect" ]
C i.e. Overuse Most frequent cause of paial or complete rupture of a muscle or tendon is eccentric overloadQ of the muscle tendon unit. One factor contributing to muscle overload is fatigue (due to over use)Q, which makes the muscle unable to absorb as much as eccentric force before overload. Strains most commonly occur in muscles that cross two joints, muscles that have higher % of type II fast twitch muscle fibers, and weaker muscle of an agonist antagonist muscle group. eg hamstring, gastrocnemius & rectus femoris. Achiles tendon rupture commonly occurs to otherwise healthy men b/w the ages of 30 & 50 years who have no previous injury or problem repoed in affected leg; typically "weekened warrious" who are active intermittently. Most TA tears occurs in left leg in the substance of TA, - 2- 6 cm - the watershed zone - above the caleaned inseion of tendon (d/t right handed more commonly push off with left foot) The most common mechanism of injury include sudden forced plantar flexion of foot unexpected dorsiflesion of foot, & violent dorsiflexion of planter flexed foot. Other mechanism indude direct trauma & less commonly, attrition of the tendon as a result of long standing peritenositis with or without tendinosis that body is unable to repair.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31042
Investigation of choice for interstitial disease is
[ "Chest X-ray", "HRCT", "Gallium-67 DTPA scan", "MRI" ]
High-resolution computed tomography is superior to the plain chest X-ray for early detection and confirmation of suspected ILD(interstitial lung disease).In addition,HRCT allows better assessment of the extent and distribution of disease,and it is especially useful in the investigation of patients with a normal chest radiograph.Co-existing disease is best often recognised on HRCT scanning.e.g.,mediastinal adenopathy,carcinoma,or emphysema.When a lung biopsy is needed,HRCT scanning is useful for determining the most appropriate area from which biopsy sample should be taken. References:Harrison.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32968
A post operative cardiac surgery patient developed sudden hypotension, raised Central venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus at the 4th post operative hour .The most probable diagnosis is
[ "Excessive mediastinal bleeding", "Ventricular dysfunction", "Congestive cardiac failure", "Cardiac tamponade" ]
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1573-1574 Features of rising pressure , falling aerial pressure and pulsus paradoxus following surgery on the hea leads us to the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32523
The relationship between the pulpal and periodontal tissue complex begins during dental development at
[ "Adolescent stage", "5-10 years", "Embryonic stage", "None of the above" ]
null
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8934
What structure passes through rotater interval
[ "Long head of Biceps tendon", "Long head of Triceps tendon", "Coracohumeral ligament", "Short head of Biceps tendon" ]
Rotator interval is gap betweem supraspinatus and subscapulasis tendon. Coracdhumeral ligament passes through it.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_38970
Water content in infant
[ "60-70 %", "75-80 %", "80-90 %", "> 90%" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 75-80% Schwaz writes - "the highest percentage of Total Body Water is found in newborns, with approximately 80% of their total body weight comrpised of water. This decreases to about 65% by 1 year of age and therafter remains fairly constant through childhood".
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1420
Paclitaxal acts on which phase of cell cycle
[ "G1", "S", "G2", "M" ]
Ans. is'd'i.e., MPaclitaxel is M phase specific inhibition.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41312
Which of the following increases significantly as pregnancy advances?
[ "Tidal volume", "Respiratory rate", "Functional residual capacity", "Residual volume" ]
The respiratory rate is essentially unchanged, but tidal volume and resting minute ventilation increase significantly as pregnancy advances.FRC and residual volume decline due to diaphragm elevation, and significant reductions are observed by the sixth month with a progressive decline across pregnancy.Inspiratory capacity, the maximum volume that can be inhaled from FRC, increases by 5 to 10 percent or 200 to 250 mL during pregnancy. Total lung capacity --the combination of FRC and inspiratory capacity-- is unchanged or decreases by less than 5 percent at term.Ref: William&;s Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 4
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23398
Bronchiolithiasis means
[ "Calcified lymph nodes eroding into bronchus", "Foreign body calcified in bronchus", "Lithium deposition in bronchial wall", "A hamartoma" ]
Ans: a (Calcified lymph nodes eroding into bronchus)Ref: Dorland's 28thed, p. 231
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_23828
All of the following statements about the methotrexate are true except
[ "It is a cell cycle specific and kills in the S phase", "It's toxicity primarily affects bone marrow and epithelial structure", "Folic acid reverses it's toxic effects", "It is a drug of choice for choriocarcinoma" ]
Ref-KDT 6/e p823 Folic acid is used to reverse the adverse effect of methotrexate. Folic acid is ineffective. All of the statements are true as discussed earlier
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32990
Cells are most radiosensitive in
[ "S phase", "Mphase", "G1 phase", "G0 phase" ]
Ref Robbins9/e p140 Cells are most radiosensitive in G2M interphase Cells are least radioactive in Sphase
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46543
Cervical cancer with involvement of upper vagina & parametrium is stage -
[ "lb", "2a", "2b", "3a" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 2b Clinical staging of cancer cervix (FIGO)Preinvasive CarcinomaStage 0Carcinoma in situ, intraepithelial carcinoma (cases of stage 0 should not be included in any therapeuticInvasive Carcinoma Stage ICarcinoma strictly confined to the cervix (extension to the corpus should be disregarded)Stage IaPreclinical carcinomas of the cervix i.e., those diagnosed only by microscopyStage Ia1: lesion with <3 mm invasionStage Ia2: lesions detected microscopically and can be measured The upper limit of the measurement should show a depth of invasion of >3-5 mm taken from the base of the epithelium, either surface or glandular, from which it originates, and a second dimension, the horizontal spread, must not exceed 7 mm.Larger lesions should be staged as lb Stage IbLesions invasive >5 mmStage Ibl: lesions less than or equal to 4 cm Stage Ib2: lesions larger than 4 cm Stage IIThe carcinoma extends beyond the cervix but has not extended onto the wallThe carcinoma involves the vagina, but not the lower one-third Stage IIa: No obvious parametrial involvement Stage IIb: obvious parametria1 involvement Stage IIIThe carcinoma has extended onto the pelvic wall. On rectal examination, there is no CA-free space between the tumor and the pelvic wall. The tumor involves the lower one-third of the vagina. All cases with hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidneyStage IIIa: no extension to the pelvic wall Stage IIIb: extension onto the pelvic wall and/or hydronephrosis or nonfunctioning kidneyStage IVThe carcinoma has extended beyond the true pelvis or has clinically involved the mucosa of the bladder or rectum. A bullous edema, as such, does not permit a case to be allotted to stage IVStage IVa: spread of the growth to adjacent organs Stage IVb: spread to distant organs
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34364
A 47 year old man presents to the emergency room with sudden onset of severe upper abdominal pain with vomiting. The pain is focused in the epigastrium with radiation to the back. Serum amylase levels are 2000 U/L. Which of the following are the most commonly encountered predisposing factors for this patient's condition?
[ "Alcohol use and gallstones", "Helicobacter pylori infection and excess gastric acid secretion", "Hepatitis B infection and iron overload", "Obesity and high serum cholesterol" ]
The clinical scenario is typical of acute pancreatitis. The overwhelmingly most impoant contributing factors for development of acute pancreatitis are gallstones (paicularly small ones) and alcohol abuse. Helicobacter pylori infection and excess gastric acid secretion are predisposing factors for peptic ulcer disease of the stomach and duodenum, respectively. Hepatitis B infection and iron overload predispose for cirrhosis. Predisposing factors for myocardial infarction include obesity, high serum cholesterol, stress, and cigarette smoking. Ref: Wyatt C., Kemp W.L., Moos P.J., Burns D.K., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 15. Pathology of the Liver, Gallbladder, and Pancreas. In C. Wyatt, W.L. Kemp, P.J. Moos, D.K. Burns, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12243
Abbe-Estlander flap is used in repair of:
[ "Breast", "Lip", "Esophagus", "None of the above" ]
The lip-switch (Abbe-Estlander) flap or a stair-step advancement technique can be used to repair defects of either the upper or lower lip. Microstomia is a potential complication with these types of lip reconstruction. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 18
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13703
Acute Lung Injury (ALI) is characterized by all except
[ "PaO2/FiO2 < 200mm Hg", "Bilateral interstitial infiltrates", "PCWP <18 mm Hg", "Normal Left atrial pressure" ]
Acute lung injury (ALI) is a less severe disorder but has the potential to evolve into ARDS. The aerial PaO2 (in mmHg)/FIO2 (inspiratory O2 fraction) <200 mmHg is characteristic of ARDS, while a PaO2/FIO2 between 200 and 300 identifies patients with ALI who are likely to benefit from aggressive therapy.Ref: Harrison's 18/e p2205, 17/e p1680
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12291
Before staing Infliximab in a 65-year-old gentleman for Inflammatory bowel disease, following test is done
[ "Colonoscopy", "Mantoux test", "ERCP", "Liver biopsy" ]
Anti-TNF drugs (infliximab, adalimumab) are associated with an increased risk of infections, paicularly reactivation of latent tuberculosis and oppounistic fungal infections including disseminated histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis. It is recommended that patients have a purified protein derivative (PPD) or a QuantiFERON-TB gold test as well as a chest x-ray before initiation of anti-TNF therapy. Patients over 65 have a higher rate of infections and death on infliximab or adalimumab than those younger than 65 years of age.Ref: Harrison's 19e p1962
B
null