dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_9865 | The end product of one stage fermentation is | [
"Formic acid",
"Pyruvate",
"Lactate",
"Ethanol"
] | All other guides have given ethanol as the answer to this question. Which is incorrect.
One stage fermentation here means fermentation of pyruvate in one stage.
When pyruvate is formed, it can have several fates.
Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate enters the TCA cycle after conversion into acetyl CoA by PDH.
There are two fates for pyruvate under anaerobic metabolism:- | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1625 | It is true regarding Endemic typhus that: | [
"Man is the only reservoir of infection",
"Flea is a vector of the disease",
"The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic presentation",
"Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is a diagnostic modality."
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Flea is a vector of the disease [Ref: Park, 18/e, p 240; CMDT, 2006, /? 73937Endemic or Murine typhus is a rickettsial disease caused by Rickettsia typhi. Rats are the reservoirs of infection and rat fleas are the vectors which transmit the pathogen from rat to rat and rat to man.The transmission of pathogen is not through their bite but through their faecesBelow given is a list of reservoirs and vectors for rickettsial diseases.DiseaseRickettsial PathogenInsect VectorMammalian ReservoirEpidemic (louse-borne) typhusRickettsia prowazekiiLouseHumans, flying squirrelsEndemic (murine) typhusRickettsia typhiFleaRodentsScrub typhusOrientia tsutsugamushiMite1RodentsRocky Mountain spotted feverRickettsia rickettsiiTick1Rodents, dogsIndian tick typhusRickettsia conoriiTick1Rodents, dogsRickettsial poxRickettsia akariMite1MiceTrench feverRochalimaea quintanaLouseHumansQ feverCoxiella burnettiNoneCattle, sheep, goats7 Also serve as arthropod reservoir by maintaining rickettsiae through transovarian transmission.Laboratory diagnosis of endemic typhus and other rickettsial diseases is made by serological tests, detecting specific antibodies against the organism.Eschar at the site of bite is a characteristic feature of scrub typhus. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20682 | Most common antibody in autoimmune hepatitis is | [
"u1RNP",
"Anti-5m",
"ANA",
"Anti-LKM"
] | Autoimmune hepatitis Indistinguishable from chronic viral hepatitis. Responds to immunosuppressive therapy Female predominance(70%) Absence of serogical evidence of viral infection Presence of other forms of autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid ahritis, thyroiditis, sjogren syndrome and ulcerative colitis. Most patients found to have circulating anti- nuclear antibodies, anti-smooth muscle antibiodies, liver/kidney microsomal antibody, anti-soluble liver/pancreas antigen. ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE 620 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9869 | Mammographic abnormality seen in CA breast is : | [
"Change in density",
"Clusters of Micro calcification",
"Change in architecture",
"All"
] | Mammographic features of breast carcinoma :
Irregular spiculated margin.
Architectural distortion.
High density lesion.
Microcalcification. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48120 | Factitious hyperinsulinemia is differentiated from insulinoma by - | [
"C - peptides",
"Insulin antibodies",
"Serum glucose levels",
"Hypernatremia and hypokalemia"
] | Factitious hypoglycemia is the intentional attempt to induce low blood glucose levels . Factitious hypoglycemia results from exogenous self-administration of insulin or insulin secretagogues medications (e.g., sulfonylureas, meglitinides). Note that insulin-sensitizing drugs like metformin, do not cause hypoglycemia . Insulin synthesis occurs in the beta cells of the pancreas as proinsulin, which is then processed and cleaved into insulin, and C peptide held together by disulfide bonds and excreted into the circulation. Insulin will be then rapidly removed by the liver, whereas C peptide remains in the circulation for a more extended period till the kidneys clear it and the insulin to C peptide ratio in healthy individuals will be less than one. Some proinsulin molecules would also get excreted in the blood without processing, and this is still detectable in the plasma . Serum C-peptide is a marker of endogenous insulin secretion (a synthetic insulin does not contain C-peptide) and is paicularly useful if a patient is on exogenous (injected) insulin treatment, when insulin assays would simply detect the injected insulin. Serum C-peptide can help clarify the differential diagnosis of diabetes, as it is usually very low in long-standing type 1 diabetes and very high in severe insulin resistance. It is also useful in the diagnosis of spontaneous hypoglycaemia Ref - davidsons 23e p727 , pubmed.com | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32869 | Exchange of trace evidence occurs, When a person comes in contact with other person . This principle is called? | [
"Locard's principle",
"Quetelet's rule",
"Petty's principle",
"None of the above"
] | Locard's principle of Exchange
It States that " When two objects come into contact with each other, there is always transfer of some material between them".
This is helpful in crime investigations, especially in sexual offences. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46208 | All of the following are used in the initial management of acute life threatening cardiogenic pulmonary edema, except: | [
"Digoxin",
"Morphine",
"Furosemide",
"Positive Pressure Ventilation"
] | Answer is A (Digoxin) Digoxin has no definitive role in the management of Acute Pulmonary Edema `Digitalis is not the initial drug of choice for management of patients with acute severe pulmonary edema (severe hea failure) because of its mild inotropic effect and because of the delay in time to peak action. It should not be used in the management of acute cases, in the absence of atrial arrhythmias as its use may complicate an already difficult management problem. Digoxin is only recommended if the patient is in atrial fibrillation and this is contributing to the cardiac failure - 'Circulation' Journal of American Hea Association Digoxin is not recommended in acute pulmonary edema unless there is associated rapid atrial fibrillation. Rapid atrial fibrillation in this situation is better treated with urgent cardioversion' - 'Coronary care manual by Thompson (Elsevier) 2"a/508 `Digoxin has no definitive role in the management of acute congestive hea failure (acute pulmonary edema) ' - Clinical Emergency Medicine (Cambridge University Press) 2005/499 `Once a mainstay of treatment because of their positive inotropic action digitalis glycosides are rarely used at present. However they may be useful for control of ventricular rate in patient with rapid atrial fibrillation or flutter with LV dysliinction' Initial Management of Acute Pulmonary Edema (Acute Hea Failure) Oxygentation with face mask or Positive Pressure Ventilation (Non invasive) Vasodilatation by Nitrates (or Nitroprusside) Diuretic therapy by Furosemide (or other loop diuretics) Morphine for relief of physical psychological stress and to improve haemodynamics. Ino ropes should be used based on clinical and haemodynamic parameters of the at ent who does not respond to initial treatment. Pulmonary Edema Oxygen and Ventilatory Suppo Morphine Vasodilators Diuretics Inotropic Agents * Supplemental oxygen Morphine diminishes Vasodilators are Diuretics are Inotropic agents are The maintenance of anxiety and decreases indicated in most recommended for indicated in the Sa02 within normal limits (95-98%) is sympathetic outflow, thereby reducing both patients with acute pulmonary edema initial management of acute severe management of Acute pulmonary edema in the impoant to maximize venous and aerial (AHF) as first line pulmonary edema presence of peripheral oxygen delivery to vasoconstriction therapy if especially in the hypoperfusion tissues resulting in decreases associated with presence of (hypotension/reduced renal * Non invasive in ventricular preload adequate blood symptoms function) with or without ventilatio n (without ( w and after load. pressure and signs secondary to fluid congestion or pulmonary endotrachial * Morphine is of congestion with retension (Reduce edema refractory to intubation) recommended for the low diuresis to Alveolar Edema) di iuretcs and vasodilators at CPAP or Non invasive treatment of Acute open the peripheral * Intravenous optimal doses. positive Pressure severe pulmonary circulation and to administration of * Dobutamine/Dopamine Ventilation (NIPPV) edema especially if lower preload. Loop Diuretics * Phosphodiesterase The use of CPAP and associated with * Nitrates (Furosemide, Inhibitors (Milrinone / NIPPV in Acute restlessness and (sublingual/Intrave Bumetonide or Enoximone) Cardiogenic dyspnea (effectively nous) (Agent of Torasemide) is the * Levosimenden Pulmonary Edema is ameliorates choice) preferred choice * Norepinephrine/ associated with a symptoms) * Nitroprusside due to their strong Epinephrine significant reduction (Associated and brisk diuretics in the need of tracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. Hypeensive Crisis) * Nesiritide effect. Digoxin is not recommended as on inotrope for the management of Acute pulmonary Edema because of its mild inotropic effect and delay in time to peak action (slow action). Digoxin may be selectively considered for patients with Atrial Fibrillation where AF is contributing to cardiac failure / pulmonary edema. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21876 | Mechanism of action of actinomycin D is ? | [
"Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis",
"Activates DNA dependent RNA synthesis",
"Inhibits RNA dependent DNA synthesis",
"Activates RNA dependent DNA synthesis"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis The anticancer antibiotics are Actinomycin - D (Dactinomycin) Daunorubicin (Rubidomycin) Mitomycin C Doxorubicin Mitoxantrone Mithramycin (plicamycin) Bleomycins These anticancer, antibiotics obtained from micro-organisms and have prominent antitumour activity. Mechanism of action : They are intercalated between DNA strands and interfere with its template function. Actinomycin `D' inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis. Bleomycin cause DNA breakage and free radical formation . Doxo-and daunorubicin inhibit Topoisomerase I & II. Mitomycin acts like alkylating agents. Mitoxantrane binds to DNA to produce strand breakage and inhibits both DNA & RNA synthesis. Remember All antitumor antibiotics are cell cycle nonspecific except for bleomycin which acts in G2 phase. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32047 | Gonioscopy is used to study | [
"Ant. Chamber",
"Post chamber",
"Angle of anterior chamber",
"Retina"
] | C i.e. Angle of anterior chamber Gonioscopy is examination of angle of anterior chamber Q. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33544 | The morphological pattern of inflammation shown here is: | [
"Serous",
"Fibrinous",
"Purulent",
"Chronic"
] | Serous inflammation is marked by the exudation of cell poor fluid into spaces created by injury to surface epithelia into body cavities lined by the peritoneum, pleura, or pericardium. Typically, the fluid in serous inflammation is not infected by destructive organisms and does not contain large numbers of leukocytes. In body cavities, the fluid may be derived from the plasma (as a result of increased vascular permeability) or from the secretions of mesothelial cells (as a result of local irritation); accumulation of fluid in these cavities is called an effusion.
Reference-Robbins BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th edition pg- 78 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44973 | Scleritis is commonly seen with | [
"Reiter s syndrome",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Wegners syndrome"
] | Ans. (b) Rheumatoid arthritisRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /141, Khurana 4th ed./129* Scleritis is chronic inflammation of the sclera. Most commonly seen in elderly females (40-70 years).* Scleritis is associated with autoimmune collagen disorders, most commonly with rheumatoid arthritis.* Other causes can be PAN, SLE, ankylosis spondylitis, Wegeners granulomatosis, thyrotoxicosis, TB, syphillis. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8825 | Post operative abscess treatment of choice | [
"Hydration",
"IV antibiotics",
"Image guided aspiration",
"Reexploration"
] | Localised infection An abscess may present with persistent abdominal pain, focal tenderness and a spiking fever. The patient may have a prolonged ileus. If the abscess is deep-seated these symptoms may be absent. The patient will have a neutrophilic leucocytosis and may have positive blood cultures. An ultrasound or CT scan of the abdomen should identify any suspicious collectionand will identify a subphrenic abscess, which can otherwise be difficult to find and aspiration is done under ultrasound Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 297 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17564 | All are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except - | [
"Gram positive cocci",
"Cause stricture of urethra",
"Involves seminal vesicles and spreads to epididymis",
"Drug of choice is ceftriaxone"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51458 | Which of the following is the drug of choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis? | [
"Ceftriaxone",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Doxycycline",
"Minocycline"
] | Non gonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and ureaplasma urealyticum. Tetracycline is the drug of choice. Doxycycliine can be used as an alternative. Erythromycin can be used in case of tetracycline resistance. Less common causes include staphylococcus aureus, gam negative rods, candida albicans, trichomonas vaginalis etc. Ref: Sexually Transmitted Diseases By Sehgal, 4th Edition, Page 25-7 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28342 | SIADH is caused by all EXCEPT : | [
"Vincristine",
"Vinblastine",
"Actinomycin D",
"Cyclophosphamide"
] | Drugs causing syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) secretion | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11749 | Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is: | [
"Upper third",
"Middle third",
"Lower third",
"Gastro-esophageal junction"
] | Answer is B (Middle 1/3rd) The most common site of squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus is middle 1/3rd. Site of squamous cell carcinoma Percentage of total Upper 1/3rd 20% Middle 1/3rd 50% Lower 1/3rd 30% | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52124 | Vaccine is NOT available against which serotype of Neisseria meningitidis? | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"Y"
] | Bivalent (groups A and C) or tetravalent (against groups A, C, Y and W-135) vaccines are available for protection against meningococcal meningitis. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 151. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21053 | Which is not an endogenous catecholamines? | [
"Dopamine",
"Dobutamine",
"Adrenaline",
"Noradrenaline"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29995 | hypnopompic hallucination is | [
"If experienced while falling asleep",
"If experienced while awakening",
"After head trauma",
"After convulsion"
] | HPNOPOMPIC HALLUCINATION Hallucination while the person wakes up from sleep * NARCOLEPSY * Cataplexy ( loss of muscle tone) * Hynogogic hallucination * Hynopompic hallucination * Sleep paralysis * Excessive day time sleepiness * Strong emotions can trigger cataplexy * ETIOLOGY======HYPOCRETIN DEFICIENCY in LATERAL HPOTHALAMUS * TREATMENT=====MODAFINIL AND psychostimulants MOST REPEATED ONW WORD NARCOLEPSY HAS CATAPLEXY (sudden loss of tone and falls to sleep) CATATONIA HAS CATALEPSY (abnormal postures) Ref.kaplon and sadock, synopsis of pzychiatry, 11th edition, pg no.536 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43231 | In which of the following a 'Coeur en Sabot' shape off the heart is seen – | [
"Tricuspid atresia",
"Ventricular septal defect",
"Transposition of great arteries",
"Tetralogy of fallot"
] | Boot shaped heart (coeur en sabot) is seen in TOE | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46688 | In type I hypersensitivity, the mediators is | [
"IgE",
"IgG",
"IgM",
"IgC"
] | (IgE) (161-AN 7th) (202-206-CP)Types of hypersensitivity reactions and their featuresType of reactionClinical syndromeMediatorsType I: IgE1. Anaphylaxis2. Atopy P. K. reactionIgE, histamine and other pharmacological agentsType II: Cytolytic and CytotoxicAntibody-mediated damage- thrombocytopenia-agranulocytosis, hemolytic anemiaIgG: IgM, CType III: Immune complex1. Arthrus reaction2. Serum sickness3. Glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever and rheumatoid arthritisIgG: IgM C Leucocytes.Type IV: Delayed hypersensitivity1. Tuberculin test - Lepromin test, Frei-test, Histoplasmin and toxoplasmin tests viral infections such as herpes simplex and mumps2. Contact dermatitis - drugs, metal (Nickle, chromium), chemicals3. Granulomatous type TB, Leprosy, Schistosomiasis, sarcoidosis and Crohn's diseaseT. cells, Lymphokines, macrophages | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2378 | Pulmonary artery pressure is- | [
"120/80 mm Hg",
"25/0 mm Hg",
"25/8 mm Hg",
"120/0 mm Hg"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 25/8 mm Hg Pressures in various portions of CVSo Right ventricle-25/0 mm Hg (systolic/diastolic)o Left ventricle-120/0 mm Hgo Right atrium-2 mm Hgo Left atrium-5mmHgo Aorta-120/80 mm Hgo Pulmonary artery-25/8 mm Hg | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25371 | Nucleus of oculomotor nerve is in | [
"Midbrain",
"Pons",
"Medulla",
"Thalamus"
] | The oculomotor nucleus is located in the central grey matter of midbrain at the level of superior colliculus. The oculomotor nucleus is in the ventromedial pa. The Edinger - Westphal nucleus (visceral oculomotor nucleus) is located dorsal to the rostral two-thirds of main oculomotor nucleus. (Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy, second edition pg-85) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47302 | All are true about SALK vaccine except- | [
"OPV cannot be given as booster dose",
"Injections during epidemic can cause paralysis",
"Induces circulating antibody but no local immunity",
"Does not prevent multiplication of wild virus in gut"
] | - salk polio vaccine is inactivated polio vaccine. - induce humoral immunity but not intestinal or local immunity. - for community, it does not offer protection because wild virus can still multiply in gut and be a source of iinfection to others. - not suitable for an epidemic. - one or two doses of OPV can be given safely as boosters after an initial immunisation with inactivated vaccine. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:206 <\p> | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33919 | Superior cerebellar peduncle contains mainly which tract ? | [
"Tectocerebellar",
"Olivocerebellar",
"Vestibulo cerebellar",
"Reticulo cerebellar"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., TectocerebellarSuperior cerebellar peduncle This is the major output of the brain and connects to the midbrain, the cerebellothalamic tract (to the thalamus), and the cerebellorubral tract (to the red nucleus). It receives afferents from the locus coeruleus, and ventral spinocerebellar tract.Middle cerebellar peduncle This is the largest peduncle and connects the cerebellum to the pons. It connects the contralateral pontine nucleus to the cerebellar coex and also carries the input from the contralateral cerebral coex. It is composed of three fasciculi including the superior, inferior and deep.Inferior cerebellar peduncleThis connects the spinal cord and medulla to the cerebellum. The posterior spinocerebellar tract receives proprioceptive information from the body. The cuneocerebellar tract receives proprioceptive input from the upper limb and neck. The trigeminocerebellar tract sends proprioceptive input from the face. The juxtarestiform is an efferent system here. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44535 | Which among the following is not an RNA virus? | [
"Hepatits A",
"Hepatitis B",
"Hepatitis C",
"Hepatitis D"
] | Ans: b (hepatitis B) Ref:Ananthanarayan, 7 p. 547Among the hepatitis virus only DNA virus is hepatitis B virus (Hepadna virus). Just go through theFeatureHAVHBVHCVHDVHEVAgentSSRNA icosahedral,capsid unenvelopedDSRNAComplex structure envelopedSSRNA envelopedSS defective virus envelopedSSRNA unenvelopedClassificationPicoma virus(enterovirus typelll)Hepadna virusFlaviUnknowncalcivirusTransmissionfaecooralparentralparentralparentralfaecooralIP15-45 days(2-6 weeks)30-180 days(2-6 mon)30-90 days 1-3 mon30-50 days 1-2 mon50-60 days 1/2 - 2 monthOnsetacuteinsiduousinsiduousinsiduousacuteIllnessmildOcc. severemoderateOcc. severeMild except in pregnancy (fulminant in 40 %)Carrier statenilcommonpresentNil(only with HBV)niloncogenicityNilyesyesnilNilSpecific Rx.Ig & vaccineIg& vaccinenilHBV vaccineNil | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3948 | Bone infarcts are seen in: | [
"Iron deficiency anemia",
"Thalassemia",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Hereditary spherocytosis"
] | - Sickled cells can cause microvascular occlusion affecting Bones - Hand foot syndrome; Avascular necrosis of femur; H-shaped/ cod-fish/ fish mouth veebra. Brain - coma/ altered consciousness/ stroke, Skin - chronic, non-healing ulcer Spleen - autosplenectomy Pulmonary circulation - Acute chest syndrome | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9959 | Mouse-nibbled vocal-cord is seen in - | [
"TB",
"Leprosy",
"Laryngeal papilloma",
"Epiglottitis"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., TB Tubercular laryngitiso Tubercular laryngitis is almost always secondary to pulmonary lesions, mostly affecting males in middle age (20-40 years). Disease affects the posterior third of larynx more commonly than anterior part.The parts affected in descending order of frequency are i) Interarytenoid fold, ii) Ventricular band, iii) Vocal cords, iv) EpiglottisClinical featureso Weakness of voice w ith periods of aphonia - earliest symptoms, o Hoarsness, cough, dysphagia (odynophagia) o Referred otalgiaLaryngeal examination in TB laryngitiso Hyperaemia of the vocal cord in its whole extent or confined to posterior part with impairment of adduction is the first sign.o Swelling in the interarytenoid region giving a mammilated appearance,o Ulceration of vocal cord giving mouse-nibbled appearance.o Superficial ragged ulceration on the arytenoids and interarytenoid regiono Granulation tissue in interarytenoid region or vocal process of arytenoid,o Pseudoedema of the epiglottis "turban epiglottis",o Swelling of ventricular bands and aryepiglottic folds,o Marked pallor of surrounding mucosa. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47325 | Modified BPP consists of: | [
"NST with AFI",
"NST with fetal breathing",
"NST with fetal movement",
"NST with fetal tone"
] | Ans. a. NST with amniotic fluid index (Ref: Williams Obstetrics 24/e p342. 343)Modified Biophysical profile consists of NST with amniotic fluid index.Modified Biophysical Profile: Because the biophysical profile is labor intensive and requires a person trained in sonography, Clark and coworkers (1989) used an abbreviated biophysical profile as a first-line screening test in 2628 singleton pregnancies. Specifically, a vibroacoustic nonstress test was performed twice weekly and combined with amnionic fluid index determination for which < 5 cm was considered abnormal. This abbreviated biophysical profile required approximately 10 minutes to perform, and they concluded that it was a superb antepartum surveillance method because there were no unexpected fetal deaths. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and the American Academy of Pediatrics (2012) have concluded that the modified biophysical profile test is as predictive of fetal well-being as other approaches to biophysical fetal surveillance. ''-- Williams Obstetrics 24/e 343Biophysical ProfileManning proposed combined use of 5 fetal biophysical variables as a more accurate means of assessing fetal health than a single elementQ.Typically, these tests require 30 to 60 minutes of examiner tuneQ.5 fetal biophysical components assessed: (1) heart rate acceleration, (2) breathing, (3) movements, (4) tone, and (5) amniotic fluid volumeQ.Normal variables were assigned a score of 2 each, and abnormal variables were given a score of 0Q.Highest score possible for a normal fetus is 10Q.Components and Scores for the Biophysical ProfileComponentScore 2Score 0Non stresstest> 2 acceleration of > 15 beats/min for > 15 sec within 20-40 min0 or 1 acceleration within 20- 40 minutesFetal breathing> 1 episode of rhythmic breathing lasting > 30 sec within 30 min< 30 sec of breathing within 30Fetal movement> 3 discrete body or limb movements within 30 min< 3 discrete movementsFetal tone> 1 episode of extremity extension and subsequent return to flexion0 exiension/flextion eventsAmniotic fluid volumeA pocket of amniotic fluid that measure at least 2 cm in two planes perpendicular to each other (2 x 2 cm pocket)Largest single vertical pocket < 2 Interpretation of Biophysical Profile ScoreBiophysical profile ScoreInterpretationRecommended Management10Normal, non-asphyxiated fetus* No fetal indication for intervention, repeat test weekly except in diabetic patients & Post-term pregnancy (twice weekly)8/10 (Normal AFV) 8/8 (NST not done)Normal, non-asphyxiated fetus* No fetal indication for intervention; repeat testing as per protocol8/10 (Decreased AFV)Chronic fetal asphyxiasuspected* Deliver6Possible fetal asphyxia* If amniotic fluid volume abnormal, deliver* If normal fluid at > 36 weeks with favourable Cervix, deliver* If repeat test > 6, deliver* If repeat test > 6, observe, and repeat as per protocol4Probable fetal asphyxia* Repeat testing same day; if biophysical profile score < 6, deliver0 to 2Almost certain fetal asphyxia* Deliver | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28130 | The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most pa of Bihar and easteran U.P. is - | [
"Wuchereria bancrofti",
"Brugia malayi",
"Onchocerca volvulus",
"Dirofilaria"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Wuchereria bancrofti W. bancrafti is the most widely distributed human filarial parasite. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25036 | Irradiation are used for all except - | [
"Syringes",
"Catgut suture",
"Grafts",
"Endoscope"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Endoscope Radiationso Two types of radiations are used for sterilization : (1) Ionizing radiation, and (2) Non-ionizing radiations.1) Ionizing readiations# Sterilization by Ionizing radiation does not cause increase in temperature --> Cold sterilization.# Ionizing irradiation used for sterilization :-1) g (photon) irradiation - most commonly used ionizing radiation.2) b (electrons) irradiation# Materials which are destroyed by heat such as rubber or plastic disposable goods, disposable syringes, surgical catgut, bone and tissue grafts, adhesive dressings are sterilised by ionising radiations.o Gamma rays are used to sterilize heat labile instrument, plastic, syringes, swabs, greases, surgical catgut (suture), and bone & tissue grafts.2) Non-ionizing radiations# Following non-ionizing radiations are usedi) Infrared: For prepacked items such as syringes and catheters.ii) UV radiation : Used for enter ways, operation theaters and laboratories. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20870 | Rideal-Walker Coefficient is employed for the assessment of | [
"Germicidal Power of a disinfectant",
"Sufficiency of Pasteurisation",
"Effect of Incineration",
"Effect of autoclaving"
] | RWC
Also known as ‘Carbolic acid coefficient’.
Is used to ‘represent germicidal power of a disinfectant’.
Standard used for comparison: Phenol (RWC = 1.)
RWC = 10 implies: Given disinfectant is 10 times more potent than phenol.
Organism used for testing: Salmonella typhi
210 In presence of organic matter, RWC is ineffective: Chic Martin test is employed | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17540 | Which among the following drug is safest in a patient allergic to penicillin: | [
"Cephalexin",
"Imipennem",
"Cefepime",
"Aztreonam"
] | Aztreonam | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36572 | The melting temperature of material marked with arrow is: | [
"50.0°C to 51.1°C",
"53.3°C to 54.4°C",
"54.4°C to 55.6°C",
"None of the above"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41593 | Inulin clearance closely resembles ? | [
"G. F. R.",
"Renal Plasma flow",
"Creatinine clearance",
"P.A.H. clearance"
] | A i.e. GFR | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27802 | Dentin bonding agents usually contain: | [
"Only Hydrophobic component",
"Only Hydrophilic component",
"Hydrophobic and hydrophilic component",
"Lyophillic and lyophobic component"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49728 | What should be the density of microfilaria in blood to make it infective to the vector | [
"5 microfilaria / drop of blood",
"10 microfilaria / drop of blood",
"15 microfilaria / drop of blood",
"20 microfilaria / drop of blood"
] | A density of 15 microfilaria / drop of blood are needed to make it infective. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7670 | All are features of delirium except: March 2011 | [
"Impairment of consciousness",
"Immediate memory retention and recall is normal",
"Disorientation",
"Hyperactivity"
] | Ans. B: Immediate memory retention and recall is normalDelirium is characterized by clouding of consciousness, characterized by a decreased awareness of surroundings and a decreased ability to respond to environmental stimuli and disorientation (most commonly in time, then in place and usually later in person), associated with a decreased attention span and distractibility.There is also an impairment of registration and retention of new memories.Psychomotor disturbance, usually in form of agitation and occasionally retardation, is present.Delirium:Acute confusional stateCommon in hospitalized elderlyFeatures:- Impaired cognition- Altered level of consciousnessAltered sleep wake cycle- Disturbances in attention and psychomotor activity- Disorientation in time, place and person- HallucinationMarked diurnal variation | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12944 | The main motor supply of intrafusal fibers is | [
"Gamma neurons",
"Alpha neurons",
"Beta neurons",
"All of the following"
] | MOTOR NERVE FIBERS | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17247 | Site for placing an electrode in auditory brain stem implant is? | [
"Sinus tympani",
"Round window",
"Lateral ventricle",
"Recess of fouh ventricle"
] | Auditory Brain Implant (ABI) Implant is designed to stimulate the cochlear nuclear complex in the brainstem directly by placing the implant Site : In the lateral recess of the fouh ventricle. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34445 | Yellow discoloration of the skin and the mucosa is seen in which poisoning? | [
"Nitrous oxide",
"Nitric acid",
"Sulphuric acid",
"Phosphoric acid"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nitric acid o Nitric acid causes yellow discoloration of the tissues including the crowns of the teeth & yellow stains on the clothing,o Inhalation of fumes causes lacrimation, photophobia, irritation of air-passages & lungs producing sneezing, coughing, dyspnea & asphyxia,o The color of urine is brown.PoisonPattern of MucosaArsenicRed velvety mucosa of the stomachH2SO4Brown of Black with erosion, perforation & CarbolizationCarbolic AcidGreen w hite of Brow n - white or Grey leathery- and thickened mucosaHNO3YellowHC1PinkAmmoniaPerforatedHCNPinkKCNBrick red to brownKOH, NaOHDeeply congested. BlackPhosphorusYellow or grey white | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36581 | Denominator in General fertility rate is? | [
"Married women in reproductive age group in a given year",
"Women in reproductive age group in a given year",
"Married women in any specified age group",
"Women in any specified age group"
] | ANSWER: (B) Women in reproductive age group in a given yearREF: Parks textbook 20th edition page419Repeat from December 2008General fertility rate: Number of live births per 1000 women in reproductive age group in a given yearGeneral marital fertility rate: Number of live births per 1000 married women in reproductive age group in a given yearAge specific fertility rate: Number of live births in a year to 1000 women in any specified age groupAge specific marital fertility rate: Number of live births in a year to 1000 married women in any specified age group | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35999 | Laryngocole arise as herniation of lorry regal mucosa through following membrane | [
"Thyrohyoid",
"Cricothyroid",
"Cricotracheal",
"Cricosternal"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54704 | The Earliest sign of male pubey is | [
"Pubic hair",
"Axillary hair",
"Hoarseness of voice",
"Testicular enlargement"
] | In boys, the first visible sign of pubey and hallmark of SMR2 is testicular enlargement, beginning as early as 9 1/2 years. This is followed by penile growth during SMR3. Peak growth occurs when testis volumes reach approximately 9-10 cm3 during SMR4. Under the influence of LH and testosterone, and prostate enlarges. The left testis normally is lower than the right. Some degree of breast hyperophy, typically bilateral, occurs in 40-65% of boys during SMR2-3 due to a relative excess of estrogenic stimulationIn girls, the first visible sign of pubey and the hallmark of SMR2 is the appearance of breast buds, between 8 and 12 years of age. Menses typically begins 2-2 1/2 years later, during SMR3-4 (median age, 12 years; normal range, 9-16 years), around the peak height velocity. Less obvious changes include enlargement of the ovaries, uterus, labia, and clitoris, and thickening of the endometrium and vaginal mucosa | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20249 | Colostrum is rich in: | [
"IgA",
"IgE",
"IgG",
"IgM"
] | Colostrum contains more antibodies (IgA), immunocompetent cells & vitamins A,D,E,K | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25077 | Obstruction in pulmonary stenosis may occur at the following sites: | [
"Supravalvular",
"Valvular",
"Subvalvular",
"All of the above"
] | d. All of the above(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2211-2217, Ghai 8/e p 420-423)Pulmonary stenosis can occur due to obstruction at supravalvular, valvular or subvalvular level. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9008 | A 50-year-old female is admitted to the hospital after a traumatic injury of the abdomen. NCCT examination reveals the lesion. An emergency procedure is performed. Which of the following peritoneal structures must be carefully manipulated to prevent intraperitoneal bleeding? | [
"Coronary ligament",
"Gastrosplenic ligament",
"Lienorenal ligament",
"Phrenocolic ligament"
] | CT shows a subcapsular hematoma with a splenic laceration extending from the capsule to the hilum with an intraparenchymal hematoma Leinorenal ligament, also known as the Splenorenal ligament contains: tail of the pancreas splenic aery splenic vein Hence it is needed to be manipulated carefully to prevent bleeding. Gastrosplenic ligament contains: Sho gastric vessels and left gastroepiploic vessels The coronary ligament is the peritoneal reflection from the diaphragmatic surface of the liver onto the diaphragm that encloses the bare area of liver; it is not attached to the spleen The phrenico-colic ligament, also known as Hensing's ligament, is a peritoneal ligament extending from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm. It functions as a potential barrier to the spread of infection between the left paracolic gutter and the left subphrenic space. It also prevents downward extension of spleen during splenomegaly. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5157 | Hamaoma is ? | [
"Malignant tumor",
"Metastatic tissue",
"Development malformation",
"Hemorrhage in vessel"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Development malformation Hamaoma A hamaoma is a benign (noncancerous) tumor-like growth consisting of a disorganized mixture of cells and tissues normally found in the area of body where the growth occurs. For example, hamaoma of lung contains cailage, blood vessels, bronchial type of structures and lymphoid tissues. It is a focal development malformation that resembles a neoplasm in the tissue of origin. But, it is not a neoplasm because it grows at the same rate as the surrounding tissues unlike neoplasm whose growth exceeds the growth of surrounding tissue. Choristoma Choristoma is the ectopic rest of normal tissue, i .e. , the normal tissue is present at a different anatomical site of the body. For example, presence of pancreatic tissue in mucosa of small intestine. Normally arranged tissue at a different anatomical site (ectopic site) Choristoma. Abnormally arranged tissue present at normal site -Hamaoma | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50764 | Which one of the fallowing does not cause pulsus paradoxus? | [
"Severe aoic regurgitation",
"Cardiac tamponade",
"Constrictive pericardities",
"Acute severe bronchial asthma"
] | Pulsus paradoxus : refers to a fall in systolic pressure >10 mmHg with inspiration that is seen in patients with pericardial tamponade but also is described in those with massive pulmonary embolism, hemorrhagic shock, severe obstructive lung disease, and tension pneumothorax. Pulsus paradoxus is measured by noting the difference between the systolic pressure at which the Korotkoff sounds are first heard (during expiration) and the systolic pressure at which the Korotkoff sounds are heard with each heabeat, independent of the respiratory phase. Between these two pressures, the Korotkoff sounds are heard only intermittently and during expiration. The cuff pressure must be decreased slowly to appreciate the finding. It can be difficult to measure pulsus paradoxus in patients with tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, or tachypnea. A pulsus paradoxus may be palpable at the brachial aery or femoral aery level when the pressure difference exceeds 15 mmHg. This inspiratory fall in systolic pressure is an exaggerated consequence of interventricular dependence. ref : Harrison&;s principle of internal medicine, 20th edition,pg no.1825 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34269 | A patient on nitroprusside therapy developed cyanide toxicity. Sodium nitrite was administered i.v. to combat this poisoning. Beneficial effect of sodiumnitrite in this case is dependent on: | [
"Direct chelation of cyanide with sodium nitrite",
"Vasodilatation caused by sodium nitrite",
"Conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin by sodium nitrite",
"Facilitation of cyanocobalamin formation by sodium nitrite"
] | (Ref: KDT 6/e p527) Cyanide has very high affinity for the enzymes of respiratory chain paicularly cytochrome oxidase. Methemoglobin possesses even higher affinity for cyanides. It can free the enzymes due to competitive inhibition for cyanide. Nitrates act by reducing hemoglobin to mithenoglobin, which removes cyanide from the enzymes. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35854 | From which of the following routes, absorption of local anaesthetic is maximum | [
"Intercoastal",
"Epidural",
"Branchial",
"Cocaine"
] | Refer Ajay Yadav 3/e p105 First local anesthetic to be used clinically was cocaine by Carl koller | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38225 | Gottrons sign is seen in? | [
"Lupus erythematosus",
"Dermatomyositis",
"Scleroderma",
"Bells palsy"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12979 | All of the following are tumor necrosis factor | [
"Adalimumab",
"Etanercept",
"Infliximab",
"Abciximab"
] | Abciximab is a Fab fragment of the chimeric human-murine monoclonal antibody 7E3. Abciximab binds to the glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa receptor of human platelets and inhibits platelet aggregation by preventing the binding of fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, and other adhesive molecules Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 946 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52414 | Hypoxiema independent of | [
"Fi02",
"altitude",
"Hb",
"PaCO2"
] | Hb [Ref: Ganong 23/e p617; http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypoxemiaj Hypoxemia is decreased paial pressure of oxygen in blood. It is the oxygen that is dissolved in the blood not attached with hemoglobin; thus it does not depend on Hemoglobin. Hypoxemia is one of the types of Hypoxia kla Hypoxic Hypoxia. The Hypoxia dependent on hemoglobin is anemic Hypoxia. Hypoxia is defined as 0, deficiency at the tissue level. Hypoxia has been divided into four types. (1) Hypoxic hypoxia, in which the P02 of the aerial blood is reduced; (2) Anemic hypoxia, in which the aerial P02 is normal but the amount of hemoglobin available to carry 02 is reduced; (3) Stagnant or Ischemic hypoxia, in which the blood .flow to a tissue is so low that adequate 02 is not delivered to it despite a normal P02 and hemoglobin concentration; and (4) Histotoxic hypoxia, in which the amount of 02 delivered to a tissue is adequate but, because of the action of a toxic agent, the tissue cells cannot make use of the 02 supplied to them. Hypoxic Hypoxia (Hypoxemia) Hypoxic Hypoxia is the most common form of hypoxia seen clinically. Causes: 1.Low inspired paial pressure of oxygen (low Pi02) 2. Alveolar hypoventilation 3.Impairment of diffusion across blood-gas membrane 4.Ventilation-perfusion inequality 5. Shunt In contrast, primary hemoglobin deficiency, e.g. anemia is not a cause, since it doesn't decrease the paial pressure of oxygen in blood. Low inspired oxygen paial pressure (low PiO2) If the paial pressure of oxygen in the inspired gas is low, then a reduced amount of oxygen is delivered to the alveoli of the lung. The reduced oxygen paial pressure can be a result of reduced fractional oxygen content (low Fi02) or simply a result of low barometric pressure, as can occur at high altitudes. This reduced Pi02 can result in hypoxemia even if the lungs are normal. Alveolar hypoventilation If the alverolar ventilation is low, there may be insufficient oxygen delivered to the alveoli each minute. (e.g., airway obstruction, depression of the brain's respiratory center, or muscular weakness). Impaired diffusion Impaired diffusion across the blood-gas membrane in the lung can cause hypoxemia, e.g. pneumonia, pulmonary fibrosis Shunt Shunting of blood from the right side to the left side of the circulation (right-to-left shunt) is a powerful cause of hypoxemia. The shunt may be intracardiac (tong. cyanotic hea disease) or may be intrapulmonary.(Note that Left-toright shunting does not cause hypoxemia.) Ventilation-perfusion inequality Ventilation-perfusion inequality (or ventilation-perfusion mismatch) is a common cause of hypoxemia in people with lung disease. It is the areas of the lung with ventilation/perfusion ratios that are less than one (but not zero) that cause hypoxemia by this mechanism. A ventilation/perfusion ratio of zero is considered a shunt. (Not sure how PCO\\ is linked with hypoxemia or PaO2 ; possibl! hypoxemia causes lryperventilation which leads todecreased alveolar and aeial PCO2) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15221 | Which of the following vitamin acts as a cofactor for metabolism of sulphur containing amino acids? | [
"Folic acid",
"Biotin",
"Vit K",
"Pyridoxine"
] | Methyl group in N5-methyl tetrahydrofolic acid (N5- methyl THFA) is used for synthesis of active methionine, which takes pa in transmethylation reactions. Such transmethylation reactions are required for synthesis of choline, epinephrine, creatine etc. Sulphur containing amino acids include cysteine and methionine. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry by DM Vasudevan, 5th edition, Page 303. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32395 | Which one of the following stains is specific for Amyloid?- | [
"Periodic Acid schif (PAS)",
"Alzerian red",
"Congo red",
"Von - Kossa"
] | harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *all types of amyloid have affinity for Congo red stain and amyloid stains pink red in color. If the stained section is viewed in polarised light the amyloid shows apple green birefringence due to cross beta pleated sheet configuration of amyloid fibre | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42605 | Which of the following is an antipseudomonal antibiotic? | [
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Vancomycin",
"Cefaclor",
"Tetracycline"
] | Ciprofloxacin (prototype) It is the most potent first generation FQ acti\*e against a broad range of bacteria, the most susceptible ones are the aerobic gram-negati\*e bacilli, especially the Enterobacteriaceae and Neisseria. The MIC of ciprofloxacin against these bacteria is usually < 0.1 J.Ig/ml, while grampositive bacteria are inhibited at relatively higher concentrations. The spectrum of action E summarized below: Highly susceptible E. coli K. pneumoniae Enterobacter Salmonella typhi other Salmonella Shigella Proteus Neisseria gonorrhoeae N. meningitidis H. influenzae H. ducreyi Campylobacter jejuni Yersinia enterocolitica Vibrio cholerae Moderately susceptible Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staph. aureus (including few MRSA) Staph. epidermidis Branhamella catarrhalis Legionella Brucella Listeria Bacillus anthracis Mycobact. tuberculosis Organisms which have shown low /variable susceptibility are: Strep. pyogenes, Strep. faecalis, Strep. pneumoniae, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Mycobact. kansasii, Mycobact. avium. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:687,688 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10083 | What is the root value of Biceps jerk | [
"C5-C6",
"C6-C7",
"C7-C8",
"C8-T1"
] | Biceps jerk C5, 6 Triceps jerk C6-8 Radial jerk C7, 8 Biceps jerk (C5, 6) - The elbow is flexed to a right angle and slightly pronated. A finger is placed on the biceps tendon and struck with a percussion hammer; this should elicit flexion and slight supination of the forearm. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4343 | All of the following conditions require administration of GnRH agonist in a non-pulsatile manner except ? | [
"Male infeility",
"Prostate cancer",
"Endometriosis",
"Precocious pubey"
] | Usage of GnRH agonists : Pulsatile GnRH agonist Non pulsatile (continuous) GnRH agonist Delayed pubey Ovulation induction Kallmann's syndrome Male infeility Endometriosis Hirsutism Uterine fibroids Central precocious pubey Prostate cancer Breast and ovarian cancer Note : Non-pulsatile administration of GnRH agonist is not useful in male infeility. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49923 | A 40-year-old man underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy 2 years earlier. He remains asymptomatic until 1 week before admission, when he complains of RUQ pain and jaundice. He develops a fever and has several rigor attacks on the day of admission. An ultrasound confirms the presence of gallstones in the distal CBD. The patient is given antibiotics. Which of the following should be undertaken as the next step in therapy? | [
"Should be discharged home under observation",
"Should be observed in the hospital",
"Undergo surgical exploration of the CBD",
"ERCP with sphincterotomy and stone removal"
] | The patient described has the features of Charcot's triad-jaundice, abdominal pain, and rigors, which indicates the presence of ascending cholangitis in a patient with obstructive jaundice. The patient should be treated with broad spectrum IV antibiotics and undergo ERCP, sphincterotomy, and stone extraction. If this fails, surgical exploration of the CBD will be required. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51271 | Distinct amino acid sequence at the antigen combining site is called: | [
"Idiotype",
"Allotype",
"Epitope",
"Paratope"
] | Ans. (a)Idiotype is based on antigenic difference in the hypervariable region.Allotype is based on alleleic difference in immunoglobulins e.g., Gm type.Isotype is antigenic differences in constant regions of heavy chain decide isotypes. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39284 | A boy presents with complaints of hypoaesthesia and wasting of thenar eminence. The nerve most likely to damaged in this patient: | [
"Musculocutaneous nerve",
"Median nerve",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Radial nerve"
] | B i.e. Median Nerve | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44467 | A patient presented with clinical features of ataxia and in-coordination. It is most likely due to involvement of which aery among the following | [
"Anterior cerebral",
"Posterior cerebral",
"Middle cerebral",
"Superior cerebellar"
] | Clinical features of ataxia and in-coordination belong to cerebellar pathology, which might arise if there was involvementof superior cerebellar aery. Cerebral aery involvement (anterior, middle or posterior) does not usually present with cerebellar sign and symptoms. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46886 | Terminal axillary draining lymph nodes - | [
"Anterior",
"Posterior",
"Scapular",
"Apical"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Apical o The apical group of axillary lymph node receives lymph from anterior (pectoral), posterior (subscapular), central and lateral (humeral) group of axillary lymph nodes. Hence apical group of lymph node is the terminal group of axillary lymph node.Axillary lymph nodeRelated vesselsAnterior (pectoral)Along lateral thoracic vesselsPosterior (scapular)Along subscapular vesselsLateralMedial to axillary veinApical (terminal or infraclavicular)Along axillary vessels | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46838 | Alpo syndrome is characterized by all except? | [
"X-linked",
"Cardiac hyperophy",
"Nerve deafness",
"Glomerulonephritis"
] | Alpo syndrome, Manifest by hematuria with progression to chronic renal failure, accompanied by nerve deafness and various eye disorders, including lens dislocation, posterior cataracts, and corneal dystrophy. X-linked trait in approximately 85% of cases. It is not associated with cardiac hyperophy. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33209 | Post mortem staining of carbon monoxide poisoning is? | [
"Deep blue",
"Bark brown",
"Bright red",
"Cherry red"
] | ANSWER: (D) Cherry redREF: Medical toxicology by Richard C. Dart Page 386; Parikh 6th Edition page 8.40, 3.10 Postmortem staining:PoisoningStainingCarbon monoxideCherry redCyanideBright red/pinkBurnsBright redPhosphorousDark brownNitratesRed brown/brownH2SBluish greenOpiumBlackAnilineDeep blueAsphyxiaPurple/bluish violetSeptic abortionGreenish brownChloratesChocolate brown | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33958 | A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia, and loss of appetite. The most likely poisoning is - | [
"Mercury",
"Lead",
"Arsenic",
"Phosphorus"
] | Excessive salivation, blue line on gums, tremors (i.e. Hatter's shake), disturbed personality (i.e. erethism) and loss of appetite (anorexia) suggest the diagnosis of mercury poisoning. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27377 | Which condition is not associated with cataract? | [
"Diabetes Mellitus",
"Galactosemia",
"Myotonic Dystrophy",
"Refsum disease"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Refsum disease Causes of CataractSystemic diseasesDermatological diseasesAge related & Physical agentsToxic agentsOtherso Hypoparathyroidismo Hypocalcemiao Diabetes (Hyperglycemia)o Hypoglycemiao Dystrophia myotoniao Galactosae- miao Alport syndromeo Lowe syndromeo Stickler syndromeo Down syndromeo Wilson's diseaseo Hypothyroidismo Galactokinase deficiencyo Neurofibromatosis type IIo Hypertensiono Ichthyosiso Atopic dermatitiso Werner syndromeo Rothmud's syndromeo Senile cataracto Corticosteroidso Maternal infections# CMV# Toxoplasmosis# Rubellao Sunlight & UV rays o Chlorpromazineo Traumao Busulfano Ionizing radiation# X-ray, y-rays# Neutronso Anticholinesteraseo Obesityo Chloroquineo Severe diarrheao Amiodarone o Nonionizing radiation# Infrared# Microwaveo Cigratte smokingo Coppero Irono Goldo Diureticso Electric shock (electric cataract)o Vitamin A, C & E deficiencyo Heat (Infrared cataract) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14124 | Deficiency of purine nucleoside phosphorylase causes | [
"Complement deficiency",
"Cellular immunodeficeincy",
"Humoral immunodeficeincy",
"Combined immunodeficeincy"
] | A combined T cell and B cell immunodeficiency that is a rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder that has material basis in mutation in the PNP gene and characterized mainly by decreased T-cell function. Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40939 | Nummular keratitis is seen in | [
"Bacterial keratitis",
"Herpes zoster keratitis",
"Acanthamoeba keratitis",
"Fungal keratitis"
] | Ans. (b) Herpes zoster keratitisRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /108-109 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33245 | A good adhesive should possess all of the following EXCEPT: | [
"High adherend wetting",
"High contact angle",
"Low contact angle",
"High flow"
] | Complete wetting occurs at a contact angle of 0° and no wetting occurs at an angle of 180°.
Thus, the smaller the contact angles between an adhesive and an adherend, the better the ability of the adhesive to flow into and fill in irregularities within the surface of the adherend. The fluidity of the adhesive influences the extent to which these voids or irregularities are filled.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 26 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18499 | Name of the muscle in thenar eminence which does not have median nerve supply | [
"Abductor pollicis brevis",
"Flexor pollicis brevis",
"Opponens pollics",
"Adductor pollicis"
] | Another muscle that controls movement of the thumb is adductor pollicis. It lies deeper and more distal to flexor pollicis brevis. Despite its name, its main action is mainly rotation and opposition. It is not in the thenar group of muscles, so is supplied by the ulnar nerve. Ref - BDC 6e p120 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19091 | Excessive bleeding due to heparin overdose is controlled by: | [
"Protamine sulfate",
"Vitamin K",
"Factor VIII",
"EADA"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44980 | Which of the following is derived from 3rd pharyngeal arch? | [
"Cricoid cailage",
"Thyroid cailage",
"Lesser cornu of hyoid",
"Greater cornu of hyoid"
] | Lesser cornu of hyoid- 2nd Thyroid cailage- 4th arch Cricoid- 6th arch | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28138 | A patient underwent sentinel node biopsy for treatment of breast carcinoma. Which of the following nerves is likely to be injured during this procedure? | [
"Intercostobrachial nerve",
"Nerve to latissimus dorsi",
"Nerve to serratus anterior",
"Lateral pectoral nerve"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5752 | All of the following GIT hormones belong to secretin family except | [
"Secretin",
"Glucagon",
"CCK",
"VIP"
] | Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by cells in the mucosa of the upper small intestine. It has a plethora of actions in the gastrointestinal system, but the most impoant appears to be the stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion, the contraction of the gallbladder (the action for which it was named), and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi, which allows both bile and pancreatic juice to flow into the intestinal lumen. Secretin is secreted by S cells that are located deep in the glands of the mucosa of the upper poion of the small intestine. The structure of secretin is different from that of CCK and gastrin, but very similar to that of glucagon, GLI, VIP, and GIP. Only one form of secretin has been isolated, and the fragments of the molecule that have been tested to date are inactive. Its half-life is about 5 minutes, but little is known about its metabolism.VIP contains 28 amino acid residues. It is found in nerves in the gastrointestinal tract and thus is not itself a hormone, despite its similarities to secretin.VIP is also found in blood, in which it has a half-life of about 2 minutes. In the intestine, it markedly stimulates intestinal secretion of electrolytes and hence of water. Its other actions include relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle, including sphincters; dilation of peripheral blood vessels; and inhibition of gastric acid secretion. It is also found in the brain and many autonomic nerves where it often occurs in the same neurons as acetylcholine. It potentiates the action of acetylcholine in salivary glands.REF: GANONG&;S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, KIM BARRETT, HEDDWEN BROOKS, SCOTT BOITANO, SUSAN BARMANTWENTY THIRD EDITIONPAGE NO:446,447 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40975 | Most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage is | [
"Aneurysm",
"A-V malformation",
"Trauma",
"Hypertension"
] | (C) Trauma # Most common cause of Subarachnoid haemorrhage is Berry aneurysm.> Most common cause of spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage is rupture of saccular aneurysm.> Autopsy has revealed 3-4% of population harbour aneurysm. According to Harrison "... .Excluding head trauma, the most common cause of SAH is rupture of a saccular aneurysm...." Head trauma is not a spontaneous cause of SAH.> Sudden severe headache is the commonest presentation of subarachnoid haemorrhage.> Mortality rate is about 50% in first month. Arteriovenous malformation presents as stroke in young person. 85% of the aneurysms occur in the anterior circulation of Willis. Prodromal symptoms help to localize unruptured aneurysm.> 3rd nerve palsy with loss of light reflex and pain above or behind eye: Aneurysm at junction of posterior communicating & internal carotid artery. 6th nerve palsy: Aneurysm at cavernous sinus.> Occipital or posterior cervical pain: Aneurysm at posterior inferior cerebellar artery or anterior inferior cerebellar artery. Four major causes of delayed neurological deficit are - rerupture, hydrocephalus, vasospasm and hyponatraemia. Vasospasm is the major cause of delayed neurological deficit.; The incidence of rerupture is maximum at 7th day. The signs of vasospasm are maximum at 7th day.> MC cause of CVA - Thrombosis> MC site of Hypertensive bleeds Putamen> MC site of berry aneurysm-Ant, cerebral- ant, communicating art, junction# This one has been repeated so many times. Excluding trauma, the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhag e is rupture of aneurysm# Causes of subarachnoid hemorrhage: Trauma (most common); Rupture of Berry's aneurysm; Rupture of A.V. malformation> Causes of subarachnoid haemorrhage: Aneurysms ... 70% Arteriovenous malformations ... 10% Idiopathic... 5% Other: Spinal AVM, Tumour, Coagulopathy | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13076 | Drug given to reduce uterine contractions during preterm labour with least side effects: | [
"Ritodrine",
"Nifidipine",
"Magnessium sulphate",
"Progesterone"
] | Nifidipine which is a calcium channel blocker has the advantage of being effective orally,safe and cheap.Transient hypotension should be looked out for .A Cochrane review found that nifedipine was superior to betamimetics as a tocolytic.But there is no clear first line agent to date .(pg 175 textbook of obstetrics Sheila balakrishnan 2nd edition) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24490 | Which of the following is best stain for fungus: | [
"Muciramine",
"Methenamine silver",
"Alcian blue",
"Hematoxylin and eosin"
] | Ans. (b) Methenamine silver Ref. Ananthanarayan 8/e p 601; DR Arora 3/e 656 Stains for funp. Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) (Better contrast) Gridley fungus (GF) Periodic acid Schiff (PAS) Giemsa Alcian blue Meyer's mucicarmine Out of these GMS is the best stain for fungi. For studying tissue response secondary to fungal infection, Haematoxylin and eosin (H&E) is best. Remember Commonly used culture media for fungus are: - Sabouraud's glucose agar - Corn meal agar - Czapek - Dox medium | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3355 | A young adult male presented with sudden painless loss of vision. He recovered spontaneously within 3 months Most likely cause of his blindness is - | [
"Central serous retinopathy",
"Macular hole",
"Myopic crescent",
"Vitreous haemorrhage"
] | Central serous retinopathy- spontaneous serous detachment of neurosensory retina in the macular region, with or without retinal pigment epithelium detachment. Risk factors - young adult male, type A personality, emotional stress, steroid intake, HTN, pregnancy. Sudden onset of painless loss of vision associated with metamorphopsia. Spontaneous resolution occurs in 80 to 90 % cases. Vision returns to normal or near normal with in 3 to 6 months. Ref khurana page no.288 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2458 | Which is raised in dysgerminoma? | [
"AFP",
"LDH",
"HCG",
"CA-A 19-9"
] | - dysgerminoma is the most common among the malignant germ cell tumors accounting for 40%. - tumors markers like placental alkaline phosphatase and lactic dehydrogenase may be elevated in dysgerminoma. Reference : textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no: 283 <\p> | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7132 | Urine analysis of a patient with haematuria and hypercalciuria is most likely to reveal which of the following | [
"Isomeric RBC",
"RBC casts",
"Nephrotic range proteinuria",
"Eosinophilluria"
] | Hematuria is the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Microscopic hematuria is invisible to the naked eye and is often found by urinalysis or urine dipstick; it is said to be chronic or persistent if 5 or more red blood cells (RBCs) per high-power field can be seen in 3 of 3 consecutive centrifuged specimens obtained at least 1 week apa Paediatrics nephrology 5/141 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2715 | Most common adverse effect of colchicine - | [
"Diarrhoea",
"Peptic ulcer",
"Dyspepsia",
"Pulmonary fibrosis"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., diarrhoea "Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal pain are the most common untoward effects of colchicine". - Goodman & Gilman | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23172 | Desynchronised defibrillation is used in- | [
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Atrial flutter",
"SVT",
"Ventricular fibrillation"
] | Synchronized electrical cardioversion is used to treat hemodynamically unstable supraventricular (or narrow complex) tachycardias, including atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation are treated with unsynchronized shocks referred to as defibrillation. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1432 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22945 | Which of the following surface glycoproteins is most often expressed in human hematopotetic stem cell? | [
"CD22",
"CD4D",
"CD15",
"CD34"
] | HSC express a variety of cell surface proteins such as CD34 and adhesion proteins which helps cells to home to the bonemarrow when infused Reference : Harsh Mohan textbook of pathology, 7th edition.Pg no.262 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46311 | Management of rhinolith: | [
"Medical",
"Surgical",
"No treatment required",
"Symptomatic treatment only"
] | Ans: b (Surgical) Ref:Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 200; 4th ed, p. 153Small rhinoliths are removed through anterior nares under GA (they are broken into small pieces before removal)Large rhinoliths are removed by lateral rhinotomyRhinolithStone formation in nasal cavity due to deposits of Ca2+ /Mg2+C/FO/EU/L nasal obstruction and foul smelling discharge +/- blood stainedGreenish black mass, brittle, with stony hard feelRxSurgical removal | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25580 | 1st posterior intercostal artery is a branch of- | [
"Aorta",
"Superior intercostal artery",
"Internal mammary artery",
"Bronchial artery"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Superior intercostal artery o Each of upper nine intercostal spaces (1 to 9) have one posterior and two anterior intercostal arteries. The 10thand 11th spaces have one posterior intercostal artery (no anterior intercostal artery)o Anterior intercostal arteries for upper six spaces (two in each space) arise from internal thoracic or internal mammary artery. For 7th to 9th spaces, these are branches of musculophrenic artery (terminal branch of internal thoracic artery).o 1st and 2nd posterior intercostal arteries are branches of superior intercostal artery (a branch of costocervical trunk from 2nd part of subclavian artery). Lower nine (3rd to 11th) posterior intercostal arteries are branches of descending thoracic aorta. Right posterior intercostal arteries are longer than the left. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14985 | A young patient presented with blood pressure of 190/120 mm of Hg without any clinical symptom and fundus examination is normal, treatment of choice | [
"Oral Nitroglycerine",
"IV Nitroglycerine",
"Oral Enalapril",
"IV Enalapril"
] | Angiotensin-conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block production of the hormone, angiotensin II, a compound in the blood that causes narrowing of blood vessels and increases blood pressure. By reducing production of angiotensin II, ACE inhibitors allow blood vessels to widen, which lowers blood pressure and improves hea output. The available ACE inhibitors include benazepril, captopril, enalapril, fosinopril, lisinopril, moexipril, perindopril, quinapril, ramipril, and trandolapril. Side effects -- In some patients, ACE inhibitors cause a persistent dry hacking cough that is reversible when the medication is stopped. Less common side effects include dry mouth, nausea, rash, muscle pain, or occasionally, kidney dysfunction and elevated blood potassium. A potentially serious complication of ACE inhibitors is angioedema, which occurs in 0.1 to 0.7 percent of people. People with angioedema rapidly (minutes to hours after taking the medication) develop swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat, which can interfere with breathing. These symptoms are a medical emergency, and the ACE inhibitor should be discontinued. oral enalapril may also be used in young hypeensives who presents with ususually high levels of blood pressure to overcome the end stage damages that can happen. ref:Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 2057 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54088 | In a highly selective vagotomy, the vagal supply is severed to | [
"Proximal two-thirds of stomach",
"Antrum",
"Pylorus",
"Whole of stomach"
] | Done in cases of uncomplicated duodenal ulcer wherein the fibres entering the stomach is divided both anteriorly as well as posteriorly, Nerve of Latarjet is retained to supply the tantrum. Reference: SRB 5th edition page no. 861 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49854 | Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by: | [
"Releasing factor",
"Stop codon",
"UAA codon",
"All"
] | A, B, C i.e. Releasing factor, Stop codon, UAA codon | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2226 | Nerve commonly involved in fracture distal shaft of the Humerus - | [
"Radial nerve",
"Medial",
"Ulnar",
"Circumflex brachial nerve"
] | Radial nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in fracture shaft humerus. It is particularly common in oblique fractures at the junction of middle and distal third bone ( Hoistein-lewis fracture) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13502 | In a patient with pelvic inflammatory disease due to tuberculosis, which of the following statements is true : | [
"Mycobacterium can be grown from menstrual blood",
"Associated with infeility",
"Ectopic pregnancy is common",
"All of These"
] | All of These Mycobacterium can be grown from menstrual blood; Associated with infeility; and Ectopic pregnancy is common Most common symptom of TB is infeility. It is seen in 35 - 60% of cases. Cause of infeility : Blockage of the fallopian tube or Altered tubal and Endometrial function in presence of patent tubes. Ectopic pregnancy : Every woman who had or has, a tubal pregnancy should be suspected of having tubal tuberculosis active or healed. Dysmenorrhea : Shaw does not specify whether dysmenorrhea is common or uncommon in TB. "Dysmenorrhea rarely, if occurs." For diagnosis : Dilatation and curettage is done in the premenstrual phase and specimen sent for histo pathological examination and culture. First day menstrual blood can also be used but the results are not as satisfactory as premenstrual tissue. deg It For more details about Genital Tuberculosis, see previous answer | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45611 | Which of the following aery supplies the Midgut? | [
"Aoa",
"Celiac trunk",
"Superior mesenteric aery",
"Inferior mesenteric aery"
] | Superior mesenteric aery is the aery of midgut, it supplies the gastrointestinal tract from the middle of the second pa of duodenum till the distal one third of the transverse colon. Must know:Celiac aery is the aey of foregut and inferior mesenteric aretey is the aery of hindgut. All these three aeries are the anterior branches of the abdominal aoa.Ref: Snell's, Clinical Anatomy, 7th Edition, Page 260. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33968 | Acidic amino acids are | [
"Asparagine",
"Arginine",
"Glutamine",
"None"
] | aspaic acid and glutamic acid are proton donors. At physiologic pH, the side chains of these amino acids are fully ionized, containing a negatively charged carboxylate group (-COO-). They are, therefore, called aspaate or glutamate to emphasize that these amino acids are negatively charged at physiologic pH Asparagine and Glutamine are neutral amino acids. Ref: LIPPINCOTT's Biochemistry 6th Edition Pg No. 5. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44325 | Regarding Anopheles mosquito true is all EXCEPT : | [
"Eggs are laid singly on water",
"Larva don't have siphon",
"Wings are spotted",
"Pupa don't have siphon tube"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35119 | Browne's tube is used for - | [
"Steam sterilization",
"Radiation",
"Chemical sterilization",
"Filtration"
] | Brown's tube is the most commonly used chemical indicator of moist heat sterilization in the autoclave. It contains red solution that turns green when exposed to temperature of 121degC for 15 minutes in an autoclave. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44147 | Which of the following NSAID is used for Bartter syndrome? | [
"Paracetamol",
"Sulindac",
"Mefenamic acid",
"Indomethacin"
] | Bartter syndrome is characterised by increased prostaglandins and Indomethacin is used for the treatment of this syndrome. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20891 | The commonly used laser for curing composite resin is | [
"Nd:YAG",
"CO2",
"ER:YAG",
"Argon"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2717 | Van Herick Test is used for: | [
"Measuring cells and flare",
"Measuring anterior chamber depth",
"Measuring angle",
"Measuring anterior chamber volume"
] | Van Herick's method Measures anterior chamber depth with a slit lamp, focus at peripheral cornea near limbus at an angle of 60 deg It Compares anterior chamber depth with corneal thickness. Van Herick's Grading Grade 4 PAC >= CT Grade 3 PAC = 1/4 to 1/2 of CT Grade 2 PAC = 1/4 of CT Grade 1 PAC < 1/4 of CT CT - Corneal thickness PAC - Peripheral anterior chamber depth Grade 4 means likelihood of angle closure is rare | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45806 | Apneusis occur when ? | [
"Lesion is above pons",
"Lesion is midpontine with intact vagus",
"Lesion is midpontine with damaged vagus",
"Lesion is at pontomedullary junction"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lesion is midpontine with damaged vagus | C | null |
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